Genitourinary System Disorders Practice Quiz #1 (50 Questions)

2. When a female client with an indwelling urinary (Foley) catheter insists on walking to the hospital lobby to visit with family members, nurse Rose teaches how to do this without compromising the catheter. Which client action indicates an accurate understanding of this information? A. The client sets the drainage bag on the floor while sitting down. B. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times. C. The client clamps the catheter drainage tubing while visiting with the family. D. The client loops the drainage tubing below its point of entry into the drainage bag

B. The client keeps the drainage bag below the bladder at all times.

26. After having transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP), a Mr. Lim returns to the unit with a three-way indwelling urinary catheter and continuous closed bladder irrigation. Which finding suggests that the client's catheter is occluded? A. The urine in the drainage bag appears red to pink. B. The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void. C. The normal saline irrigant is infusing at a rate of 50 drops/minute. D. About 1,000 ml of irrigant have been instilled; 1,200 ml of drainage have been returned.

B. The client reports bladder spasms and the urge to void.

4. A male client with bladder cancer has had the bladder removed and an ileal conduit created for urine diversion. While changing this client's pouch, the nurse observes that the area around the stoma is red, weeping, and painful. What should Nurse Kaye conclude? A. The skin wasn't lubricated before the pouch was applied. B. The pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma. C. A skin barrier was applied properly. D. Stoma dilation wasn't performed.

B. The pouch faceplate doesn't fit the stoma.

1. The nurse is aware that the following findings would be further evidence of a urethral injury in a male client during rectal examination? A. A low-riding prostate B. The presence of a boggy mass C. Absent sphincter tone D. A positive Hemoccult

B. The presence of a boggy mass

39. Nurse Gil is aware that the following statements describing urinary incontinence in the elderly is true? A. Urinary incontinence is a normal part of aging. B. Urinary incontinence isn't a disease. C. Urinary incontinence in the elderly can't be treated. D. Urinary Incontinence is a disease.

B. Urinary incontinence isn't a disease.

47. A female client with an indwelling urinary catheter is suspected of having a urinary tract infection. Nurse Angel should collect a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity by: A. Disconnecting the tubing from the urinary catheter and letting the urine flow into a sterile container. B. Wiping the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and aspirating urine with a sterile needle. C. Draining urine from the drainage bag into a sterile container. D. Clamping the tubing for 60 minutes and inserting a sterile needle into the tubing above the clamp to aspirate urine.

B. wiping the self-sealing aspiration port with antiseptic solution and aspirating urine with a sterile needle.

38. A male client who has been treated for chronic renal failure (CRF) is ready for discharge. Nurse Billy should reinforce which dietary instruction? A. "Be sure to eat meat at every meal." B. "Monitor your fruit intake, and eat plenty of bananas." C. "Increase your carbohydrate intake." D. "Drink plenty of fluids, and use a salt substitute."

C. "Increase your carbohydrate intake."

36. After undergoing transurethral resection of the prostate to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia, a male client returns to the room with continuous bladder irrigation. On the first day after surgery, the client reports bladder pain. What should Nurse Anthony do first? A. Increase the I.V. flow rate. B. Notify the physician immediately. C. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage. D. Administer meperidine (Demerol), 50 mg I.M., as prescribed

C. Assess the irrigation catheter for patency and drainage.

10. A male client in the short-procedure unit is recovering from renal angiography in which a femoral puncture site was used. When providing postprocedure care, the nurse should: A. Keep the client's knee on the affected side bent for 6 hours. B. Apply pressure to the puncture site for 30 minutes. C. Check the client's pedal pulses frequently. D. Remove the dressing on the puncture site after vital signs stabilize.

C. Check the client's pedal pulses frequently.

13. For a male client in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF), which nursing intervention is most important? A. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing B. Promoting carbohydrate intake C. Limiting fluid intake D. Providing pain-relief measures

C. Limiting fluid intake

20. After trying to conceive for a year, a couple consults an infertility specialist. When obtaining a history from the husband, Nurse Jessica inquires about childhood infectious diseases. Which childhood infectious disease most significantly affects male fertility? A. Chickenpox B. Measles C. Mumps D. Scarlet fever

C. Mumps

24. Nurse Harry is providing postprocedure care for a client who underwent percutaneous lithotripsy. In this procedure, an ultrasonic probe inserted through a nephrostomy tube into the renal pelvis generates ultra-high-frequency sound waves to shatter renal calculi. The nurse should instruct the client to: A. limit oral fluid intake for 1 to 2 weeks. B. report the presence of fine, sand-like particles through the nephrostomy tube. C. notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine. D. report bright pink urine within 24 hours after the procedure.

C. Notify the physician about cloudy or foul-smelling urine.

34. Nurse Harry is aware that the following is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a client with renal calculi? A. Ineffective tissue perfusion B. Functional urinary incontinence C. Risk for infection D. Decreased cardiac output

C. Risk for infection

35. A male client develops acute renal failure (ARF) after receiving I.V. therapy with a nephrotoxic antibiotic. Because the client's 24-hour urine output totals 240 ml, Nurse Billy suspects that the client is at risk for: A. Cardiac arrhythmia. B. Paresthesia. C. Dehydration. D. Pruritus.

Cardiac arrhythmia.

14. A female client requires hemodialysis. Which of the following drugs should be withheld before this procedure? A. Phosphate binders B. Insulin C. Antibiotics D. Cardiac glycosides

D. Cardiac glycosides

48. Nurse Grace is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention? A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

7. Nurse Lily is assessing a male client diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted the client to seek medical attention? A. Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet B. Cauliflower-like warts on the penis C. Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

D. Foul-smelling discharge from the penis

17. A 26-year-old female client seeks care for a possible infection. Her symptoms include burning on urination and frequent, urgent voiding of small amounts of urine. She's placed on trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) to treat possible infection. Another medication is prescribed to decrease the pain and frequency. Which of the following is the most likely medication prescribed? A. Nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin) B. Ibuprofen (Motrin) C. Acetaminophen with codeine D. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

D. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)

33. A male client with chronic renal failure has a serum potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. What should nurse Olivia assess first? A. Blood pressure B. Respirations C. Temperature D. Pulse

D. Pulse

37. When performing a scrotal examination, Nurse Payne finds a nodule. What should the nurse do next? A. Notify the physician. B. Change the client's position and repeat the examination. C. Perform a rectal examination. D. Transilluminate the scrotum.

D. Transilluminate the scrotum.

28. A female adult client admitted with a gunshot wound to the abdomen is transferred to the intensive care unit after an exploratory laparotomy. Which assessment finding suggests that the client is experiencing acute renal failure (ARF)? A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level of 22 mg/dl B. Serum creatinine level of 1.2 mg/dl C. Temperature of 100.2° F (37.8° C) D. Urine output of 400 ml/24 hours

D. Urine output of 400 ml/24 hours

40. The client underwent a transurethral resection of the prostate gland 24 hours ago and is on continuous bladder irrigation. Nurse Yonny is aware that the following nursing interventions is appropriate? A. Tell the client to try to urinate around the catheter to remove blood clots. B. Restrict fluids to prevent the client's bladder from becoming distended. C. Prepare to remove the catheter. D. Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter.

D. Use aseptic technique when irrigating the catheter.

12. Because of difficulties with hemodialysis, peritoneal dialysis is initiated to treat a female client's uremia. Which finding signals a significant problem during this procedure? A. Potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L B. Hematocrit (HCT) of 35% C. Blood glucose level of 200 mg/dl D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

D. White blood cell (WBC) count of 20,000/mm3

9. A male client is scheduled for a renal clearance test. Nurse Sheldon should explain that this test is done to assess the kidneys' ability to remove a substance from the plasma in: A. 1 minute. B. 30 minutes. C. 1 hour. D. 24 hours.

A. 1 minute.

22. A female client with acute renal failure is undergoing dialysis for the first time. The nurse in charge monitors the client closely for dialysis equilibrium syndrome, a complication that is most common during the first few dialysis sessions. Typically, dialysis equilibrium syndrome causes: A. Confusion, headache, and seizures. B. Acute bone pain and confusion. C. Weakness, tingling, and cardiac arrhythmias. D. Hypotension, tachycardia, and tachypnea.

A. Confusion, headache, and seizures.

18. A triple-lumen indwelling urinary catheter is inserted for continuous bladder irrigation following a transurethral resection of the prostate. In addition to balloon inflation, the nurse is aware that the functions of the three lumens include: A. Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution. B. Intermittent inflow and continuous outflow of irrigation solution. C. Continuous inflow and intermittent outflow of irrigation solution. D. Intermittent flow of irrigation solution and prevention of hemorrhage.

A. Continuous inflow and outflow of irrigation solution.

43. A client reports experiencing vulvar pruritus. Which assessment factor may indicate that the client has an infection caused by Candida albicans? A. Cottage cheese-like discharge B. Yellow-green discharge C. Gray-white discharge D. Discharge with a fishy odor

A. Cottage cheese-like discharge

31. Nurse Karen is caring for a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence? A. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily B. Giving the client a glass of soda before bedtime C. Taking the client to the bathroom twice per day D. Consulting with a dietitian

A. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily

46. Nurse Eve is caring for a client who had a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which nursing intervention promotes urinary continence? A. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily B. Giving the client a glass of soda before bedtime C. Taking the client to the bathroom twice per day D. Consulting with a dietitian

A. Encouraging intake of at least 2 L of fluid daily

42. A male client is admitted for treatment of glomerulonephritis. On initial assessment, Nurse Miley detects one of the classic signs of acute glomerulonephritis of sudden onset. Such signs include: A. Generalized edema, especially of the face and periorbital area. B. Green-tinged urine. C. Moderate to severe hypotension. D. Polyuria.

A. Generalized edema, especially of the face and periorbital area.

21. A male client comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset of sharp, severe pain in the lumbar region, which radiates around the side and toward the bladder. The client also reports nausea and vomiting and appears pale, diaphoretic, and anxious. The physician tentatively diagnosed renal calculi and orders flat-plate abdominal X-rays. Renal calculi can form anywhere in the urinary tract. What is their most common formation site? A. Kidney B. Ureter C. Bladder D. Urethra

A. Kidney

45. Nurse Vic is monitoring the fluid intake and output of a female client recovering from an exploratory laparotomy. Which nursing intervention would help the client avoid a urinary tract infection (UTI)? A. Maintaining a closed indwelling urinary catheter system and securing the catheter to the leg B. Limiting fluid intake to 1 L/day C. Encouraging the client to use a feminine deodorant after bathing D. Encouraging the client to douche once a day after removal of the indwelling urinary catheter

A. Maintaining a closed indwelling urinary catheter system and securing the catheter to the leg

3. A female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client? A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually. B. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. C. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.

A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

44. A 24-year old female client has just been diagnosed with condylomata acuminata (genital warts). What information is appropriate to tell this client? A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually. B. The most common treatment is metronidazole (Flagyl), which should eradicate the problem within 7 to 10 days. C. The potential for transmission to her sexual partner will be eliminated if condoms are used every time they have sexual intercourse. D. The human papillomavirus (HPV), which causes condylomata acuminata, can't be transmitted during oral sex.

A. This condition puts her at a higher risk for cervical cancer; therefore, she should have a Papanicolaou (Pap) smear annually.

29. A 55-year old client with benign prostatic hyperplasia doesn't respond to medical treatment and is admitted to the facility for prostate gland removal. Before providing preoperative and postoperative instructions to the client, Nurse Gerry asks the surgeon which prostatectomy procedure will be done. What is the most widely used procedure for prostate gland removal? A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP) B. Suprapubic prostatectomy C. Retropubic prostatectomy D. Transurethral laser incision of the prostate

A. Transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

11. A female client is admitted for treatment of chronic renal failure (CRF). Nurse Julian knows that this disorder increases the client's risk of: A. Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate. B. A decreased serum phosphate level secondary to kidney failure. C. An increased serum calcium level secondary to kidney failure. D. Metabolic alkalosis secondary to retention of hydrogen ions.

A. Water and sodium retention secondary to a severe decrease in the glomerular filtration rate.

50. When caring for a male client with acute renal failure (ARF), Nurse Fatrishia expects to adjust the dosage or dosing schedule of certain drugs. Which of the following drugs would not require such adjustment? A. Acetaminophen (Tylenol) B. Gentamicin sulfate (Garamycin) C. Cyclosporine (Sandimmune) D. Ticarcillin disodium (Ticar)

A. acetaminophen (Tylenol)

49. Nurse Erica is planning to administer a sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) enema to a client with a potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. Correct administration and the effects of this enema would include having the client: A. Retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea. B. Retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for glucose exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea. C. Retain the enema for 60 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; diarrhea isn't necessary to reduce the potassium level. D. Retain the enema for 60 minutes to allow for glucose exchange; diarrhea isn't necessary to reduce the potassium level.

A. retain the enema for 30 minutes to allow for sodium exchange; afterward, the client should have diarrhea.

41. A female client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed co-trimoxazole (trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole). Nurse Dolly should provide which medication instruction? A. "Take the medication with food." B. "Drink at least eight 8-oz glasses of fluid daily." C. "Avoid taking antacids during co-trimoxazole therapy." D. "Don't be afraid to go out in the sun."

B. "Drink at least eight 8-oz glasses of fluid daily."

23. Dr. Grey prescribes norfloxacin (Noroxin), 400 mg P.O. twice daily, for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). The client asks the nurse how long to continue taking the drug. For an uncomplicated UTI, the usual duration of norfloxacin therapy is: A. 3 to 5 days. B. 7 to 10 days. C. 12 to 14 days. D. 10 to 21 days.

B. 7 to 10 days.

32. When examining a female client's genitourinary system, Nurse Sandy assesses for tenderness at the costovertebral angle by placing the left hand over this area and striking it with the right fist. Normally, this percussion technique produces which sound? A. A flat sound B. A dull sound C. Hyperresonance D. Tympany

B. A dull sound

27. Nurse Mary is inserting a urinary catheter into a client who is extremely anxious about the procedure. The nurse can facilitate the insertion by asking the client to: A. Initiate a stream of urine. B. Breathe deeply. C. Turn to the side. D. Hold the labia or shaft of penis

B. Breathe deeply.

19. Nurse Pippy is reviewing a client's fluid intake and output record. Fluid intake and urine output should relate in which way? A. Fluid intake should be double the urine output. B. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output. C. Fluid intake should be half the urine output. D. Fluid intake should be inversely proportional to the urine output.

B. Fluid intake should be approximately equal to the urine output.

15. A client comes to the outpatient department complaining of vaginal discharge, dysuria, and genital irritation. Suspecting a sexually transmitted disease (STD), Dr. Smith orders diagnostic tests of the vaginal discharge. Which STD must be reported to the public health department? A. Chlamydia B. Gonorrhea C. Genital herpes D. Human papillomavirus infection

B. Gonorrhea

30. A female client with suspected renal dysfunction is scheduled for excretory urography. Nurse January reviews the history for conditions that may warrant changes in client preparation. Normally, a client should be mildly hypovolemic (fluid depleted) before excretory urography. Which history finding would call for the client to be well hydrated instead? A. Cystic fibrosis B. Multiple myeloma C. Gout D. Myasthenia gravis

B. Multiple myeloma

16. A male client with acute pyelonephritis receives a prescription for co-trimoxazole (Septra) P.O. twice daily for 10 days. Which finding best demonstrates that the client has followed the prescribed regimen? A. Urine output increases to 2,000 ml/day. B. Flank and abdominal discomfort decrease. C. Bacteria are absent on urine culture. D. The red blood cell (RBC) count is normal.

C. Bacteria are absent on urine culture.

8. Nurse Pete is reviewing the report of a client's routine urinalysis. Which value should the nurse consider abnormal? A. Specific gravity of 1.03 B. Urine pH of 3.0 C. Absence of protein D. Absence of glucose

B. Urine pH of 3.0 Normal urine pH is 4.5 to 8

6. A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis, nurse Sarah knows that the client is most likely to experience: A. Hematuria. B. Weight loss. C. Increased urine output. D. Increased blood pressure.

B. Weight loss.

5. The nurse is aware that the following laboratory values supports a diagnosis of pyelonephritis? A. Myoglobinuria B. Ketonuria C. Pyuria D. Low white blood cell (WBC) count

C. Pyuria

25. A client is frustrated and embarrassed by urinary incontinence. Which of the following measures should Nurse Ginny include in a bladder retraining program? A. Establishing a predetermined fluid intake pattern for the client B. Encouraging the client to increase the time between voidings C. Restricting fluid intake to reduce the need to void D. Assessing present elimination patterns

D. Assessing present elimination patterns