Gleim Chapter 3

(Refer to Figure 48 on page 91) What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted? A. "A" maybe be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun B. "A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings; "E" may be used only as an overrun C. "A" may be used only for taxiiing; "E" may be used for all operations except landings.

"A" maybe be used for taxi and takeoff; "E" may be used only as an overrun

The numbers 8 and 26 on approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately A. 008 degrees and 026 degrees true. B. 080 degrees and 260 degrees true. C. 080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic.

080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic.

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately A. 009 degrees and 027 degrees true B. 090 degrees and 270 degrees true C. 090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic

090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1200 feet AGL but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 5 miles

1 mile

For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is A. 1000 feet B. 2000 feet C. 1 mile

1 mile

Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirement for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 5 miles

1 mile

What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours? A. 1 mile visibility and clear of clouds B. 1 miles visibility, 500 feet below, 1000 feet above and 2000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds C. 3 miles visibility and clear of clouds

1 mile visibility and clear of clouds

The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within class D airspace are A. 500 foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility B. 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visbility C. Clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility

1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visbility

During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 500 feet B. 1000 feet C. 1500 feet

1000 feet

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 500 feet B. 1000 feet C. 1500 feet

1000 feet

Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower require the ceiling and visibility to be at least A. 1000 feet and 1 mile B. 1000 feet and 3 miles C. 2500 feet and 3 miles

1000 feet and 3 miles

Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position markings? A. 50 B. 100. C. 150

150

During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is A. 1000 feet B. 1500 feet C. 2000 feet

2000 feet

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 5 miles

3 miles

What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 4 miles

3 miles

VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of A. 3 miles and 500 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace B. 5 miles and 1000 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes C. 5 miles and 1000 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds only in class A airspace

3 miles and 500 feet below or 1000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace

Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility? A. 3 SM B. 5 SM C. 1 SM

5 SM

The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 5 miles

5 miles

During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is A. 500 feet B. 1000 feet C. 1500 feet

500 feet

The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is A. Remain clear of clouds B. 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally C. 500 feet above, 1000 feet below, and 200 feet horizontally

500 feet below, 1000 feet above, and 2000 feet horizontally

It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of at least A. 50 feet or less to another aircraft B. 500 feet or less to another aircraft C. 1,000 feet or less to another aircraft

500 feet or less to another aircraft

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use A. Regularly, specked concentrations on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions B. A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector C. Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off center viewing

A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector

When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft A. Below and downwind from the heavy aircraft B. Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft C. Below and upwind from the heavy aircraft

Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft

Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly A. At the same altitude as the large aircraft B. Below the altitude of the large aircraft C. Above the flight path of the large aircraft

Above the flight path of the large aircraft

VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is A. Off course to the left B. Above the glide slope C. Below the glide slope

Above the glide slope

When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying A. Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point B. Below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point C. Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point

Above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point

What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace? A. Automated Flight Service Station B. Air Traffic Control Tower C. Air Route Traffic Control Center

Air Traffic Control Tower

Responsibility for collision accidents occur during A. Th controlling agency B. All pilots C. Air Traffic Control

All pilots

With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with A. An operable VOR or TACAN receiver B. Instruments and equipments required for IFR operations C. An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability

An operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability

A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is A. Less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1000 feet B. At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds C. At least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds

While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is A. Above the glide path B. Below the glide path C. On the glide path

Below the glide path

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by A. White directional lights B. Blue omnidirectional lights C. Alternate red and green lights

Blue omnidirectional lights

Which marking indicates a vehicle lane? A. A B. C C. E

C

The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area A. May not be used only for taxiing B. Is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing C. Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

Cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff

You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of small lake 3/4 miles east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action? A. Proceed with your approach to runway 19 B. Maneuver for an approach to runway 01 C. Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway

Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway

In which types of airspace are VFR flights prohibited A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C

Class A

Most midair collision accidents occur during A. Hazy days B. Clear days C. Cloudy nights

Clear days

(Refer to Figure 48 on page 91) Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a A. Stabilized Area B. Multiple Heliport C. Closed taxiway

Closed Taxiway

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a controlled airport? A. Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary B. Make all turns to the left C. Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

(Refer to E) this sign is a visual clue A. Confirms the aircraft's location to taxiway "B" B. Warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B" C. Indicates "B" holding area is ahead

Confirms the aircraft's location to taxiway "B"

Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign? A. D B. G C. H

D

Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering? A. D B. G C. B

D

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign? A. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway B. Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing on a runway C. Denotes intersecting runways

Denotes intersecting runways

Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is A. Operating at high airspeeds B. Heavily loaded C. Developing lift

Developing lift

How can a military airport be identified at night? A. Alternate white and green light flashes. B. Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes. C. White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

Any airspace that requires the use of a transponder also requires aircraft to be A. Equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment B. On a VFR flight plan with ADS-B Out in the transmit mode at all times C. On an IFR flight plan with ADS-B Out equipment

Equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment

What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway? A. Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace B. Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes C. Fly away from the center of the airway before changing altitude

Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it A. One time within 4 seconds B. Three times within 3 seconds C. Five times within 5 seconds

Five times within 5 seconds

A lighted heliport may be identified by a A. Green, yellow and white rotating beacon B. Flashing yellow light C. Blue lighted square landing are

Green, yellow and white rotating beacon

No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the A. Flight visibility at the airport is at least 1 mile B. Ground visibility at the airport is at least 1 mile C. Ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles

Ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles

The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is A. Light, dirty, and fast B. Heavy, dirty and fast C. Heavy, clean and slow

Heavy, clean and slow

The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to A. Identify the location of taxiing airways during low visibility operations B. Highlight an approaching runway holding position marking C. Supplement location signs in confirming the designation of the taxiway

Highlight an approaching runway holding position marking

What does the outbound destination sign identify? A. Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway B. Identities runway on which an aircraft is located C. Identifies direction to takeoff runways

Identifies direction to takeoff runways

What purpose does the taxiway location sign? A. Provides general taxiing direction to named runway B. Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway C. Identities taxiway on which an aircraft is located

Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located

The Aeronautical Information Manual specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day, or night and especially when operating A. In class B airspace B. In conditions of reduced visibility C. Within 15 miles of a towered airport

In conditions of reduced visibility

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign? A. Indicates direction to take-off runway B. Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway C. Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway? A. J B. F C. K

K

The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is A. Left hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18 B. Left hand for runway 18 and right hand for runway 36 C. Right hand for runway 9 and left hand for runway 27

Left hand for runway 36 and right hand for runway 18

Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle? A. Right hand traffic on runway 9 B. Right hand traffic on runway 18 C. Left hand traffic on runway 36

Left hand traffic on runway 36

The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a A. Light, quartering headwind B. Light quartering tailwind C. Strong headwind

Light quartering tailwind

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall A. Maintain a 3 degree glide to the runway B. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope C. Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall A. Maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runway threshold B. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope C. Remain on the glide slope and land between the two-light bar

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall A. Maintain a 3 degree glide until approximately 1/2 miles to the runway before going below the VASI B. Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing C. Stay high until the runway can be reached in a power off landing

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should A. Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second B. Be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds C. Use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off#center viewing

Not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second

ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to pilots; however, the range of coverage for air traffic controllers is A. Limited, and often worse than radar B. Restricted in remote areas such as mountainous terrain C. Often better than radar, even in remote areas

Often better than radar, even in remote areas

From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be A. On a taxiway, about to enter runway zone B. On a runway, about to clear C. Near an instrument approach clearance zone

On a runway about to clear

Illustration A indicated that the aircraft is A. Below the glide slope B. On the glide slope C. Above the glide slope

On the glide slope

How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip? A. Inward, upward, and around each tip B. Inward, upward, and counterclockwise C. Outward, upward, and around each tip

Outward, upward, and around each tip

Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B)? A. Landing at an airport with an operating control tower B. Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL C. Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace

Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use A. Regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions B. A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30-degree sector C. Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing

What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace? A. Recreational Pilot Certificate B. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements C. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating

Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a A. Pulsating white light B. Steady white light C. Pulsating red light

Pulsating red light

Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing A. Left hand traffic and runway 18 B. Right hand traffic and runway 18 C. Left hand traffic and runway 22

Right hand traffic and runway 18

The segmented circle indicates that a landing on runway 26 will be with a A. Right quartering headwind B. Left quartering headwind C. Right quartering tailwind

Right quartering headwind

If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on A. Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right B. Runway 22 directly into the wind C. Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right

Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right

(Refer to F) this sign confirms your position on A. Runway 22 B. Routing to runway 22 C. Taxiway 22

Runway 22

The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates A. Runway with a displaced threshold that proceeds the runway B. A hold line from a taxiway to a runway C. The beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side

Runway with a displaced threshold that proceeds the runway

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI A. Runway identification and course guidance B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area C. Lateral course guidance to the runway

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? A. Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR B. Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area C. Course guidance from the visual decent point to touchdown

Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot A. May continue taxiiing B. Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance C. Should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines

Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to A. Sink below the aircraft generating turbulence B. Rinse into the traffic pattern C. Rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway

Sink below the aircraft generating turbulence

When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to A. Rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path B. Rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport C. Sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

Sink into the flight path of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence

The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the A. South of the airport B. North of the airport C. Southeast of the airport

Southeast of the airport

When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance? A. Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown B. Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath C. Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2000 feet behind

Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown

(Refer to Figure 48 on page 91) according to the airport diagram, which statement is true? A. Position E on runway 30 is available for landing B. Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B C. The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B

Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B

(Refer to Figure 48 on page 91) That portion of the runway identified by the letter A may be used for A. Landing B. Taxiiing and takeoff C. Taxiing and landing

Taxiing and takeoff

An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicate A. There are obstructions on the airport B. That weather at the airport located in the Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums C. The Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation

That weather at the airport located in the Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left B. The other aircraft is flying away from you C. The other aircraft is approaching head on

The other aircraft is approaching head on

During a night flight, you observe steady red light and flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A. The other aircraft is crossing to the left B. The other aircraft is crossing to the right C. The other aircraft is approaching head on

The other aircraft is crossing to the left

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft? A. The other aircraft is flying away from you B. The other aircraft is crossing to the left C. The other aircraft is crossing to the right

The other aircraft is flying away from you.

With winds reported as from 300° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 30 for departure and to expect to take off after an airliner, which is departing from runway 35L. What effect would you expect from the airliner's vortices? A. The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path B. The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices C. The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate

The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft? A. The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate B. The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space C. There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and other aircraft

There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and other aircraft

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is A. Four white lights B. Three white lights and one red light C. Two white lights and two red lights

Three white lights and one red light

The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is A. 45 degrees to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude B. To enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind C. To cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg

To enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits A. White and green alternating flashes B. Two quick, white flashes between green flashes C. Green yellow, and white flashes

Two quick, white flashes between green flashes

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should A. Check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications B. Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance C. Announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance

ADSB- equipment is not required for aircraft in flight above 10,000 ft MSL A. because Class A airspace begins at 18,000 ft MSL B. While the flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft AGL C. Because the equipment is not required above this altitude

While the flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft AGL

Unless otherwise authorized, which airspace requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment installed? A. Within class E airspace below the upper shelf of Class C airspace B. Above the ceilings and within the lateral boundaries of class D airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL C. Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a class B airport

Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a class B airport

Can aircraft without ADS-B Out equipment overfly Class C airspace? A. Yes as long as contact with the controlling facility is maintained for the duration of the overflight B. Yes, if flight is maintained at or above 10,000 ft MSL C. Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment

Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment

You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125F standby", may you enter class B airspace? A. You must remain outside class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance B. You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instructions C. You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped

You must remain outside class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance