Hazmat Chapter 9

11. Particulate-removing filters on APRs are used to protect the user from materials such as: (428) A. asbestos. B. carbon monoxide. C. low oxygen atmospheres. D. fireground gases and smoke.

A

12. Why must powered air-purifying respirators (PAPRs) be used in an atmosphere of at least 19.5% oxygen? (430) A. They do not supply oxygen, only filter the air. B. The power mechanism may fail in low oxygen atmospheres. C. The air hose is susceptible to damage from heat and debris. D. Their power supply is a potential ignition source in an IDLH environment.

A

15. Which statement about structural firefighters' protective clothing is accurate? (433) A. Gases and vapors can permeate the garments. B. It provides exposure protection from liquid chemicals. C. Gaps in structural fire fighting clothing only occur at the wrists and waist. D. Although some hazardous materials can permeate structural fire fighting clothing, the material will quickly dissipate.

A

22. Vapor protective clothing is usually part of what level of protection? (439) A. A B. B C. C D. D

A

24. When a chemical passes through a fabric on a molecular level, it is called: (441) A. permeation. B. penetration. C. degradation. D. contamination.

A

27. What organization has established a set of chemical-protective PPE ensembles providing certain protection levels that are commonly used by fire and emergency service organizations? (443) A. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

A

31. Level D PPE consists of: (447) A. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls. B. hooded chemical resistant clothing and full-face or half-mask APRs. C. typical work uniforms, street clothing, or coveralls with the addition of a half-mask APR. D. hooded chemical resistant clothing and positive-pressure, full facepiece, SCBA, or positive-pressure respirator with escape SCBA.

A

32. In general, the higher the level of PPE, the greater the: (448) A. associated risks. B. media coverage. C. number of victims. D. amount of hazardous material.

A

39. What is the most serious type of heat disorder? (455) A. Heat stroke B. Heat rashes C. Heat cramps D. Heat exhaustion

A

4. Which type of PPE is designed to shield or isolate a responder from chemical or biological hazards? (437) A. Chemical-protective clothing (CPC) B. Flame-resistant protective clothing C. High temperature-protective clothing D. Structural firefighters' protective clothing

A

43. Which statement regarding medical monitoring or responders wearing PPE is MOST accurate? (459) A. Post-medical monitoring follow-up is also recommended. B. If vital signs are steady pre-entry, then they do not need to be taken again. C. Post-entry monitoring is not necessary if no exposure or contamination has occurred. D. If a facepiece makes a responder feel claustrophobic, they may take it off at their own discretion.

A

44. You must be proficient in donning your PPE because increased familiarity and comfort will lead to: (460) A. reduced stress. B. increased stress. C. increased work time. D. a custom fit ensemble.

A

45. An operation check on PPE, communications equipment, and any equipment taken into the hot zone should be conducted: (460) A. pre-entry. B. post-entry. C. if a malfunction occurs. D. halfway through the incident.

A

48. Which statement regarding PPE safety and emergency communication is MOST accurate? (462) Hand signals should be designated for loss of air supply or suit integrity. B. Radio communications should be designated as a backup system only. C. Communication capabilities are only required for responders wearing SARs or APRs. D. Providing direction via a PA system or bullhorn is the universal emergency evacuation signal.

A

5. Which level of protection provides the highest available level of respiratory, skin, and eye protection from solid, liquid, and gaseous chemicals? (445) A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D

A

7. When using an air purifying device (APR), where does the air supply come from? (426) A. The ambient air B. The user carries it C. A handheld generator D. A large stationary generator

A

8. Which type of respirator can remove vapor and gas? (426) A. APR B. CPC C. SCBA D. IDLH

A

9. APRs must be used only in atmospheres that are NOT oxygen deficient or oxygen enriched and are not IDLH because: (427) A. the ambient air supplies the oxygen. B. the air generator may fail at any moment. C. the purifying canister may be expired or damaged. D. the responder may not properly use the equipment.

A

14. The U.S. Department of Homeland Security has adopted NIOSH and _____ standards for protective clothing used at hazmat/WMD incidents. (432) A. International Firestop Council (IFC) B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)

B

21. Which statement about nonencapsulating liquid splash protective clothing is MOST accurate? (438) A. It is resistant to heat and flame exposure. B. It often exposes part of the head and neck. C. It protects against chemical vapors and gases. D. It does not impair worker mobility, vision, or communication.

B

23. All emergency response organizations that routinely use CPC must establish a: (440) A. design procedure for new CPC. B. written CPC management program. C. research program to develop new CPC. D. nationally certified CPC training program.

B

26. Which statement about the service life of CPC is MOST accurate? (442) A. CPC ensembles have no specific service life. B. Always follow AHJ SOP/Gs and manufacturer's specifications in regards to serviceability. C. If a CPC garment is discolored, it is still perfectly usable as long as the serviceability date has not passed. D. A CPC suit used in the hot zone does not need to be decontaminated unless contamination is verified visually.

B

29. Which level of PPE is worn when the highest level of respiratory protection is necessary, but a lesser level of skin protection is needed? (445-446) A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D

B

3. When using SCBA, where does the air supply come from? (423) A. The ambient air B. The user carries it C. A stationary air cylinder D. A large stationary generator

B

35. Which of the following is most likely NOT to be a factor for selecting protective clothing? (451) A. Cost B. Size of incident C. Ease of decontamination D. Material chemical resistance

B

46. Incident status, identified hazards, and tasks to be performed should be communicated during the: (461) A. size-up. B. safety briefing. C. hazards assessment. D. post-incident briefing.

B

50. When should PPE be donned? (464) A. Immediately upon arrival B. After the mission briefing C. Before the mission briefing D. Once entry is made into the hot zone

B

7. Most PPE inhibits the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture, which can lead to: (455) A. cold emergencies. B. heat emergencies. C. psychological issues. D. increased energy and endurance.

B

9. In what ways can a responder take steps to avoid contamination that may lead to exposure? (463) A. Wear the appropriate level of PPE. B. Avoid walking through and touching product whenever possible. C. Decontaminate any PPE in the hot zone if contact with product is made. D. Never come into contact with the product regardless of the circumstances.

B

53. After using PPE at an incident, don't forget to: (467) A. discard it. B. leave it where the clean-up team can find it. C. fill out any required reports or documentation. D. wipe it down with warm water and then return it to service.

C

6. A supplied-air respirator (SAR) used at a hazmat incident must: (426) A. carry/supply its own air. B. be certified for firefighting operations. C. provide positive pressure to the facepiece. D. have an airline of longer than 300 feet (90 m).

C

1. Which statement about respiratory protection is MOST accurate? (422) A. Respiratory equipment has no limits. B. SCBA is the only type of respiratory equipment used at hazmat incidents. C. Protective breathing equipment will not protect against inhalation of hazardous materials. D. Respiratory protection is important for first responders because inhalation is the most significant route of entry for hazardous materials.

D

10. Which statement regarding doffing PPE after coming out of the hot zone is MOST accurate? (466) A. Assisting personnel should only touch the inside of the garments. B. Entry team members should only touch the outside of the garments. C. The first item removed from entry personnel should be the respirator facepiece. D. Personnel who are doffing equipment should allow the assisting personnel to perform the work.

D

10. Which type of filter is MOST likely to be used when biological hazards are known to be present? (428) A. Powered B. Ambient air C. Vapor reducing D. Particulate removing

D

11. Procedures for inspection, testing, and maintenance are needed upon initial receipt of personal protective equipment and: (466) A. after decommission. B. the end of each shift. C. half way through any incident. D. before and after use or exposure.

D

13. What is a common limitation of respiratory equipment? (430) A. Enhanced visibility B. Increased mobility C. May cause shortness of breath D. Decreased ability to communicate

D

16. High temperature protective clothing is designed to protect the wearer from: (435) A. chemical hazards. B. inhalation hazards. C. long-term exposures to high temperatures. D. short-term exposures to high temperatures.

D

17. What type of PPE allows a responder to work in total flame for a short period of time? (435) A. Body armor B. Type C suit C. Proximity suit D. Fire-entry suit

D

19. Which of the following statements about CPC is MOST accurate? (437) A. CPC protects against all types of chemicals. B. CPC is only made from one type of material. C. It is appropriate for flammable environments. D. No single type of CPC can protect against all hazards.

D

2. Respiratory equipment: (430-431) A. is always certified by NIOSH. B. does not require training to use. C. is not worn at hazmat/WMD incidents. D. that incorporates a facepiece can reduce visibility.

D

2. What organization certifies SCBA? (423) A. Insurance Service Office (ISO) B. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) C. International Association of Fire Fighters (IAFF) D. National Institute of Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH)

D

28. Which statement about Level A PPE protection is MOST accurate? (445) A. It does not require special training to use. B. It is composed of a splash-protecting garment and an air-purifying device. C. It provides excellent liquid splash-protection but no protection from chemical vapors or gases. D. It provides the highest level of protection against vapors, gases, mists, and particles, for the respiratory tract and skin.

D

34. When a hazardous material is a mixture of unknown chemicals, what type of PPE should be selected? (450) A. A level D ensemble should be selected. B. None, because the mission should be abandoned. C. If a level A ensemble is available, it should always be selected, no matter what the chemicals involved. D. An ensemble that demonstrates the best chemical resistance against the widest range of chemicals should be selected.

D

37. How do EMS ensembles differ from fire service first responders? (454) A. EMS PPE includes a sidearm. B. EMS personnel must wear ballistic protection. C. EMS personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection. D. EMS PPE must provide blood- and body-fluid pathogen barrier protection.

D

38. How does wearing PPE increase the risk of heat-related disorders? (455) A. Most PPE has no effect on body temperature. B. Most PPE provides automatic cooling technology. C. Most PPE increases the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture. D. Most PPE inhibits the body's ability to disperse heat and moisture.

D

40. Why should beverages that contain alcohol or caffeine be avoided prior to working? (457) A. These beverages do not need to be avoided. B. These beverages decrease dehydration and heat stress. C. These beverages may increase productivity and awareness. D. These beverages can contribute to dehydration and heat stress.

D

47. Exposure means that: (462) A. you are radioactive. B. you may have had contact with a foreign substance. C. you must be immediately extracted from the hot zone. D. a hazardous material has entered or potentially entered your body.

D

49. Where should PPE be donned? (464) A. Wherever is convenient B. In a preselected area in the hot zone C. In the apparatus on the way to the incident D. In a preselected area in the cold zone, as close to the entry point as possible

D

51. When doffing PPE, what is the last item that should be removed? (466) A. Gloves B. Coverall C. Footwear D. Respirator facepiece

D

52. Inspection of respiratory equipment and PPE should follow manufacturer's recommendations and _____ guidelines. (466) A. EPA B. training C. international D. the organization's

D

6. The ensemble worn at an incident will vary depending on: (451) A. media coverage. B. number of victims. C. availability of backup teams. D. the mission of the responder.

D

8. Medical monitoring at a hazmat/WMD incident should be conducted: (459) A. after the incident. B. before the incident. C. only if SCBA is worn. D. as established by organization guidelines.

D

1. The extreme hazards associated with materials that could be used in terrorist attacks has prompted the U.S. Department of Homeland Security to: (423) A. regulate who can be a first responder at hazmat/WMD incidents. B. recommend that only APRs be used during hazmat/WMD incidents. C. adopt standards for respiratory equipment to protect responders at hazmat/WMD incidents. D. mandate that first responders at all hazmat/WMD incidents be certified to the Technician level.

C

12. Periodically reviewing records of all PPE inspection, testing, and maintenance procedures is MOST likely to show: (467) A. which PPE takes too long to don properly. B. which PPE individual responders prefer to use. C. patterns about equipment that require excessive maintenance or is susceptible to failure. D. patterns about which type of PPE the manufacturer recommends for specific hazardous materials.

C

18. Flame-resistant protective clothing is mostly used for: (436) A. wildland fires. B. explosive materials. C. everyday flame-resistant work apparel. D. long-term exposures to high temperatures.

C

20. Why/how can CPC contribute to heat disorders in hot environments? (437) It can degrade. It absorbs sunlight. It is designed to be impenetrable to moisture. It allows penetration of hot fluids from the outside.

C

25. What is it called when characteristics of a material are altered through contact with chemical substances? (442) A. Permeation B. Penetration C. Degradation D. Contamination

C

3. The correct use of a specific and appropriate PPE ensemble: (432) A. will protect against all hazards. B. will not protect the respiratory system. C. requires special training and instruction. D. is not necessary at hazmat/WMD incidents.

C

30. Which level of PPE is only used when the specific material is known and has been measured, and the atmosphere is not IDLH? (446-447) A. Level A B. Level B C. Level C D. Level D

C

33. Which statement is MOST accurate about choosing PPE ensembles? (448) A. Chemical and physical hazards are less important selection factors when the duration of exposure is expected to be less than 15 minutes. B. Because the IC will select the appropriate level of PPE to be used at an incident, a responder does not need to understand the selection process. C. Overprotection, as well as underprotection, can be hazardous and should be avoided. D. The highest available PPE should always be used in case there are unexpected hazards.

C

36. How do law enforcement first responder ensembles differ from fire service first responders? (452) A. Fire service personnel will typically carry a sidearm. B. Fire service personnel will typically wear ballistic protection. C. Law enforcement personnel will typically wear ballistic protection. D. Law enforcement personnel will typically wear higher levels of respiratory protection.

C

4. Only _____ open-circuit or closed-circuit SCBA is allowed in incidents where personnel are exposed to hazardous materials. (423) A. chemical B. nonpowered C. positive-pressure D. pressure-demand

C

41. Rehabbing in a warm area and avoiding cold beverages can help prevent: (458) A. heat stress. B. claustrophobia. C. cold emergencies. D. psychological issues.

C

42. Using chemical protective clothing can cause psychological stress because: (458) A. increased mobility may worry some users. B. increased oxygen levels can cause cognitive impairment. C. facepieces may cause some users to feel confined or claustrophobic. D. facepieces may cause some users to be over confident and unnecessarily expose themselves to contaminants.

C

5. Why are supplied-air respirators (SARs) not certified for use in fire fighting operations? (426) A. Excessive weight increases physical stress B. Cannot supply positive pressure to the face C. Potential damage to the hose from heat, fire, or debris D. Not enough air to escape from a hazardous environment

C