HAZMAT OPS
The goal of a mass decontamination process is to:
A do the most good for the most victims. B. quickly reduce the effects of the exposure. C. neutralize the effects of the chemical exposure. D. limit exposure to the responder. Answer B
The specific gravity of water is:
A. 0.01 B. 0.1 C. 1.0 D. 10.0 Answer C
The threshold limit value/short-term exposure limit (TLV/STEL) is the maximum concentration of a hazardous material that a person can be exposed to in:
A. 15-minute intervals up to eight times per day. B. 20-minute intervals up to four times per day. C. 15-minute intervals up to four times per day. D. 20-minute intervals up to eight times per day. Answer C
The expansion ratio of propane is:
A. 1700 to 1 B. 270 to 1 C. 17 to 1 D. 27 to 1 Answer B
What would the pressure be set at if two fire apparatus with fog nozzles were used to help in a mass decontamination corridor?
A. 30-50 psi B. 70-90 psi C. 80-100 psi D. 60-80 psi Answer A
Approximately how much hazardous material is shipped annually in the United States by land, sea, air, or rail?
A. 300 million tons B. 3 trillion pounds C. 250 metric tons D. 4 billion tons Answer D
How many United Nations (UN) hazard classes are there?
A. 7 B. 12 C. 15 D. 9 Answer D
TRACEMP is an acronym used to sum up a collection of potential hazards that a responder may encounter on a hazardous materials scene. What does the A stand for?
A. Absorption B. Accident C. Acid D. Asphyxiating Answer D
There are four methods in which a chemical can enter the body. Which one does not require direct contact with the chemical?
A. Absorption B. Ingestion C. Inhalation D. Injection Answer C
Which of the following physical techniques is most often used during technical decontamination?
A. Absorption B. Washing C. Vacuuming D. Adsorption Answer B
Which type of decontamination is used if there is a life-threatening situation?
A. Aggressive decontamination B. Gross decontamination C. Emergency decontamination D. Technical decontamination Answer C
OSHA's HAZWOPER standard for testing chemical protective garments are tested in accordance with the method outlined in 29CFR 1910:
A. Appendix D. B. Appendix C. C. Appendix A. D. Appendix B Answer C
Which type of protective clothing is designed to allow the wearer short-term exposure to high temperatures or flames?
A. Chemical/thermal protective clothing B. Turnout gear C. Level A fire suits D. Proximity or entry suits Answer D
In 1995, there was a terrorist event in Japan that resulted in 12 deaths. What was the chemical used in this attack?
A. Chlorine B. Cyanide gas C. Sarin D. V-agent Answer C
During a hazardous materials incident requiring mass decontamination, which of the following would be a serious concern for the responders?
A. Crowd control B. Water supply C. Triage and medical support D. Runoff containment Answer A
In which hazard class would a responder find radioactive materials?
A. DOT Class 5 B. DOT Class 3 C. DOT Class 7 D. DOT Class 9 Answer C
Which hazard identification system is designed for use at a fixed facility?
A. DOT placards B. UN four-digit numbers C. Online data base D. NFPA 704 Answer D
What type of decontamination should be used on a high school student who has had battery acid splashed on his chest and face in a shop class?
A. Detailed decontamination in a decontamination corridor B. Emergency decontamination in the parking lot of the school C. Secondary decontamination using a chemical shower D. Dry-powder decontamination with an extinguisher Answer B
Which chemical degradation process would be the most effective on acids or bases?
A. Dilution B. Evaporation C. Disinfection D. Neutralization Answer D
Which of the following agencies issues standards that are used when dealing with code issues involving hazardous materials?
A. EPA B. OSHA C. DOT D. NFPA Answer D
Which of the following would be an example of an infrastructure terrorist target?
A. Embassy building B. Football stadium C. Hospital D. Grain elevator Answer C
A basic reference book that all emergency responders should be aware of and use is the:
A. Emergency Response Guidebook. B. Cameo. C. Desk reference manual. D. Material Safety Data Sheet. Answer: A
What is one of the greatest safety hazards of wearing a Level A suit?
A. Flash fires B. Inability to see things around you C. Adjusting your face piece D. Hearing instructions from the IC Answer B
Which type of radiation is considered the most dangerous and requires the most protection from it?
A. Gamma B. Beta C. Alpha D. Nucleus Answer A
What principle or characteristic of flammable liquids applies to the function of a carburetor?
A. Ignition temperature B. Flash point C. Vapor pressure D. Flammable range Answer D
Shipping paper that accompanies hazardous materials while in transit on a train would be found where?
A. In the cab with the driver B. In the wheelhouse with the captain C. In the cockpit with the captain D. With the conductor, engineer, or a designated member of the train crew Answer D
Based on the EPA definitions, which of the following is the highest level of protective clothing?
A. Level D B. Level C C. Level B D. Level A Answer D
The tanker used to ship corrosives such as sulfuric or phosphoric acid is known as:
A. MC-331. B. MC-312. C. MC-338. D. MC-306 Answer B
In terms of medical care, the most common treatment for a nerve agent is:
A. Mark 1 kit B. Antibiotics C. Inhaler and oxygen D. There is no treatment for nerve agents. Answer A
Which of the following agencies requires recertification hours?
A. NFPA B. DOT C. OSHA D. DHS/FEMA Answer C
9: Which federal agency promulgates and publishes laws and regulations that govern the transportation of hazardous materials?
A. NFPA B. OSHA C. EPA D. DOT Answer D
Which chemical degradation process should never be used to decontaminate personnel?
A. Neutralization B. Evaporation C. Disinfection D. Dilution Answer A
Which agency is responsible for setting the design, testing, and certification requirements for SCBA?
A. OSHA B. NFPA C. EPA D. NIOSH Answer D
Which agency sets guidelines for worker exposure limits to hazardous materials?
A. Occupational Health and Safety Administration B. American Conference of Governmental Industrial Hygienists C. National Fire Protection Agency D. Environmental Protection Agency Answer B
At a minimum, how often should a responder be examined by a physician to determine if he or she is capable of wearing an SCBA in an emergency situation?
A. Once a year B. Every third year from initial evaluation C. As often as the department can afford to do it D. Every other year from initial evaluation or after a change in health conditions of the responder Answer A
Which type of respiratory protection is known as a "rebreather" and is often seen in the mining industry?
A. Open-circuit SCBA B. Air-purifying respirators C. Closed-circuit SCBA D. Supplied-air respirators Answers C
During a large-scale hazardous materials incident, who would conduct the incident briefing meeting?
A. Operations chief B. Incident commander C. Planning section chief D. Liaison office Answer C
In addition to the position of incident commander, what other position is required by OSHA to be staffed during a hazardous materials incident?
A. Operations chief B. Safety officer C. Public information officer D. Chemistry liaison officer Answer B
What color is the top diamond-shaped symbol used in the NFPA 704 marking system?
A. Red B. Yellow C. Blue D. White Answer A
Which of the following is not a command staff officer?
A. Safety officer B. Liaison officer C. Public information officer D. Operations officer Answer D
What is the hazard associated with a dirty bomb?
A. Smallpox B. Nerve agents C. Radiation D. Anthrax Answer C
Which nerve agent has the characteristic of an oily liquid that can persist for weeks and is absorbed through the skin?
A. Tabun B. Soman C. Sarin gas D. V-agent Answer D
Which of the following is required by OSHA for entry teams to use?
A. The buddy system B. Voice activated communication system C. Thermal vest D. Thermal imagining hood system Answer A
Which of the following is a disadvantage to using water during the decontamination process?
A. The cost B. Availability of it C. Controlling the runoff D. Oversplash Answer C
What is the key component that distinguishes a Level B ensemble from Level C?
A. The type of boots used B. The type of head gear and eye protection C. The level of respiratory protection worn D. The type of protective clothing used Answer C
Which type of packaging is used when shipping radioactive material by air?
A. Type C B. Type B C. Type A D. Excepted Answer A
When is the process of size-up conducted at a hazardous materials incident?
A. Upon the arrival of the first units B. As each mission objective is completed C. At the end or termination of the incident D. All of the above are types of size-up and are correct. Answer D
The primary form of communication between the entry team and the incident commander is radios. Which of the following is a backup system for communications?
A. White board system B. Hand signals C. Flag system D. Color code system Answer B
Which pages would a responder refer to when looking up information in the Emergency Response Guidebook using the product name?
A. Yellow B. Blue C. Green D Orange Answer B
The most common improvised explosive device (IED) is:
A. a pipe bomb. B. an ice bomb. C. a Molotov cocktail. D. an ammonium nitrate and fuel oil bomb. Answer A
Chemicals such as sodium carbonate, potassium hydroxide, and oven cleaner are considered:
A. acids. B. neutral. C. combination. D. bases. Answer D
All of the following are diseases formed from bacteria except:
A. anthrax. B. smallpox. C. plague. D. tularemia. Answer B
The prerequisite level for qualifying as a hazardous materials incident commander is:
A. awareness. B. operations. C. technician. D. specialist. Answer B
The terrorists' weapon of choice to help achieve maximum results is:
A. biologic agents. B explosives. C. economic tactics. D. assassination Answer B
A person who is ambulatory is one who:
A. cannot walk. B can walk. C. is unconscious. D. is injured Answer B
The command post and incident commander are located in the:
A. command zone. B. cold zone. C. warm zone. D. hot zone. Answer B
The first step in donning chemical protective clothing is:
A. conduct a preentry briefing and medical monitoring. B. select the correct size of clothing to wear. C. collect information on the size of the spill. D. have the incident commander approve the level of protective clothing. Answer A
A person at the operations level is qualified to do all of the following except:
A. conduct defensive actions to protect the environment from the chemical. B. control the release of the product using CPE and patching equipment. C. make notifications to outside agencies. D. preserve evidence. Answer B
A person at the awareness level is qualified to do all of the following except:
A. conduct defensive actions to protect the environment from the chemical. B. secure the scene to outsiders. C. make notifications to other agencies. D.. recognize the presence of a hazardous material. Answer A
The process of adding some substance to a contaminant to decrease its concentration is known as:
A. degradation. B. absorption. C. dilution. D. neutralization. Answer C
The physical destruction or decomposition of a chemical protective suit from improper storage is known as:
A. degradation. B. permeation. C. penetration. D. deformation Answer B
The acronym SIN means safety, isolate, and:
A. do nothing. B. obtain identification number. C. notify. D. notice movement of chemical. Answer C
Vapor density is the weight of an airborne concentration of a vapor or gas as compared to an equal volume of:
A. dry air. B. humid air. C. oxygen. D. nitrogen. Answer A
All of the following are forms of decontamination except:
A. emergency decontamination. B. dynamic decontamination. C. mass decontamination. D. technical decontamination Answer B
The concept of protecting people located near a hazardous area by keeping them inside a structure such as their home is known as:
A. evacuation. B. isolation. C. hibernation. D. sheltering in place. Answer D
All of the following are examples of secondary contamination except:
A. handling a patient who has been contaminated with a chemical and has not been decontaminated. B. standing in a chemical spilled from a 55-gal. drum. C. collecting hand tools used in the hot zone without cleaning them off. D. All of the above are examples of secondary contamination Answer B
Before the decision is made to evacuate persons from a hazardous area, the incident commander must:
A. have a suitable facility established to manage those being evacuated. B. notify OSHA and the EPA of the evacuation order. C. notify the media to assist in the relocation of those who will be affected by the evacuation. D. contact law enforcement to force everyone to evacuate. Answer A
A responder in a Level A suit with a high core temperature who is not sweating and has red skin could be suffering from:
A. heat exhaustion. B. heat cramps. C. heat stroke. D. hypothermia Answer C
All of the following gases are lighter than air except:
A. helium B. propane C. carbon monoxide D. acetylene Answer B
The minimum temperature at which a liquid or solid gives off sufficient vapors that will ignite but not sustain fire is known as:
A. ignition temperature. B. flammable temperature. C. flash point. D. ignition point. Answer C
Gross decontamination usually occurs prior to:
A. mass decontamination. B. gross decontamination. C. emergency decontamination. D. technical decontamination. Answer D
Biological agents are the most logical candidates for decontamination by:
A. neutralization. B. sterilization. C. dilution. D. disinfection Answer B
The decontamination corridor should be set up:
A. once the entry team enters the hot zone. B. only if there are victims who need to be decontaminated. C. before the entry team enters the hot zone. D. in the cold zone to reduce exposure to the hazardous material Answer C
Chemical resistant material that is damaged at the molecular level by a hazardous material is damage by a process of:
A. permeation. B. penetration. C. degradation. D. seepage Answer A
Physical complications such as heat exhaustion and heat cramps are all preceded by:
A. poor fitness. B. stress. C. dehydration. D. hydration. Answer C
The most common substance to dilute a contaminant during the decontamination process is:
A. protein foam. B. lime. C. soap. D. water. Answer D
The first step in the mass decontamination process is for the victim to:
A. remove his or her clothes before entering the decontamination corridor. B. enter the decontamination corridor and remove his or her clothes. C. pass through the decontamination corridor and then remove his or her clothes. D. enter the decontamination corridor, wash, and move to the triage area when directed. Answer A
The purpose of the back-up team during a hazardous materials incident is to:
A. rescue victims if found by the entry team. B. rescue the members of the entry team if they can't escape on their own. C. assist in controlling the hazard if the entry team needs assistance. D. conduct search and rescue operations while the entry team controls the hazard. Answer B
The process of gathering information before making any rushed decisions is known as:
A. size-up. B. overview. C. risk analysis. D. factoring Answer A
The planned and systematic process of reducing contamination to a level that is as low as reasonably achievable defines:
A. technical decontamination. B. emergency decontamination. C. mass decontamination. D. dynamic decontamination Answer C
The physical process of reducing surface contaminants from a large number of victims in the fastest time is the definition of:
A. technical decontamination. B. forced decontamination. C. gross decontamination. D. mass decontamination. Answer D
The information in the Emergency Response Guidebook is useful during the initial response, which is generally considered:
A. the first 60 minutes of the incident. B. the first 30 minutes of the incident. C. the first 15 minutes of the incident. D. useful for the entire incident. Answer C
All of the following information is required to be included on a pipeline warning sign except:
A. the pipeline's contents. B. the owner of the pipeline. C. the point of origin and length. D. contact information Answer C
While responding to a possible terrorist event at a federal building, emergency responders should be aware of:
A. the time of day. B. secondary explosive devices. C. the direction of the wind and the elevation of the building. D. who was the initial target of the device. Answer B
An important fact that helps to determine if an incident is an accident or an act of terrorism is:
A. the weapon used. B. the target. C. the number of injured or killed. D. the intent of the attacker. Answer D
The primary role of the medical monitoring station at a hazardous materials incident is to:
A. treat victims of the incident. B. provide medical assessment of the command staff. C. assist with emergency decontamination of victims. D. evaluate the medical status of the entry team. Answer D
The decontamination corridor is located in the:
A. warm zone. B. hot zone. C. cold zone. D. exclusionary zone. Answer A
10: The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act of 1986 (SARA) falls under which agency?
A.EPA, CFR 40 part 311 B. NFPA, 472 C. OSHA, CFR 29 part 1920.120 D. LEPC Answer A
All of the following are considered weapons of mass destruction under the new NFPA standard except:
A.drug labs. B.environmental crimes. C.a vehicle accident involving an MC 312 tanker. D. industrial sabotage. answer C
A substance or material that is capable of posing an unreasonable risk to human health, safety or the environment is a:
A.weapon of mass destruction. B. hazardous material. C. environment problem. D. restricted product. Answer B