Hazmat2

A contaminated victim coming into physical contact with a rescuer is an example of ________. A) cross-contamination B) contamination C) exposure D) infection

A

A high-pressure intermodal tank is commonly used to transport __________. A) liquefied gases B) cryogenic liquids C) flammable liquids D) corrosives

A

A motor vehicle accident causes a small gasoline spill. This is a Level _____ incident. A) I B) II C) III D) IV

A

During use of the shelter-in-place technique, the ventilation system should be __________. A) turned off B) set to recirculate C) set on "emergency" D) set to fresh air exchange

A

HEPA filter efficiency is measured in units of __________. A) microns B) nanometers C) picometers D) ells

A

Hazardous materials operations-level responders should perform only those actions that __________. A) do not involve contact with the material B) can be safely performed without the use of chemical-protective clothing C) do not require special training D) will not require decontamination

A

In which type of decontamination is sawdust typically used? A) Absorption B) Adsorption C) Solidification D) Dilution

A

Removal is a decontamination technique used for which material? A) Contaminated soil B) Animal carcasses C) Intact containers D) Any noncorrosive solid

A

The duration of a TLV/STEL exposure is _____ minutes. A) 15 B) 30 C) 60 D) 90

A

Twitching is a hallmark of exposure to which type of agent? A) Nerve B) Blister C) Cyanide compound D) Choking

A

What does the "P" stand for in the acronym PEL? A) Permissible B) Potential C) Protective D) Preventable

A

What is commonly used to determine the pH of a hazardous material? A) Litmus paper B) Colorimetric indicator tubes C) Reagent solutions D) Ionizing test strip

A

What is meant by "special populations"? A) Children or elderly B) Exposed citizens C) Exposed responders D) The responsible party

A

What is the first priority at any hazardous material incident? A) Safety of fire fighters B) Rescue of victims C) Environmental protection D) Protection of exposed populations

A

What is the flash point of gasoline? A) -43°F (-41°C) B) -23°F (-30°C) C) 10°F (-12°C) D) 23°F (-5°C)

A

What is the minimum level of hazardous materials training for a hazardous materials officer? A) Operations B) Awareness C) Specialist D) Technician

A

What is the minimum number of personnel for a hot zone entry team? A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

A

What is the term for shipping papers carried on railroad transportation? A) Waybill B) Freight bill C) Manifest D) Switch list

A

What is the term for the physical destruction or decomposition of clothing due to chemical exposure, general use, or ambient conditions? A) Degradation B) Corrosion C) Decomposition D) Deterioration

A

What is the term for the placement of impervious materials to form a barrier so as to limit the spread of a liquid hazardous material? A) Diking B) Damming C) Retaining D) Diverting

A

What should be the primary focus when preplanning for hazardous materials incidents? A) Existing threats in the area B) History of past incidents C) The most vulnerable exposures D) Likely terrorist targets

A

When a chemical change occurs, the event is usually accompanied by __________. A) the release of energy B) a physical change C) spattering or boiling D) the evolution of gas

A

Which control measure is often used with vapors? A) Dispersion B) Adsorption C) Dilution D) Diffusion

A

Which factor favors the selection of shelter-in-place as a protective action? A) Fast-moving airborne contaminant B) Highly toxic release C) Explosive vapors D) Older, poorly maintained structures

A

Which form of decontamination is effective only on flat surfaces? A) Absorption B) Dilution C) Disinfection D) Irrigation

A

Which form of decontamination typically involves the use of brushes? A) Technical B) Primary C) Secondary D) Gross

A

Which group within the NFPA produces the hazardous materials response standards? A) Technical Committee on Hazardous Materials Response Personnel B) Special Task Force on Hazardous Materials Substances, Responses, and Disposal C) Scientific and Technical Committee for Field Applications D) Study Group on the Integration of Applicable Hazardous Materials Regulations

A

Which is a correct statement about emergency decontamination? A) It may be necessary to perform emergency decontamination without adequate control of runoff. B) Emergency decontamination is a rapid trip through the decontamination corridor. C) Emergency decontamination should not be performed where it will cause damage to the environment. D) Emergency decontamination should be thorough enough to remove all contaminants.

A

Which is the best reference to use for a hazardous materials transportation vehicle identified by a placard? A) Emergency Response Guidebook B) DOT Index of Registered Chemicals C) EPA spill management guide D) Chemical Abstract Service registry

A

Which issue is of particular concern for a toxic release in a heavily populated area? A) Early planning for evacuation B) Aggressive containment tactics C) Minimizing environmental damage D) Rapid remediation and recovery

A

Which marking system complies with the OSHA Hazard Communication Standard? A) Hazardous Materials Information System B) NFPA 704 C) Material safety data sheet D) DOT placard

A

Which material is commonly used for large-volume nonpressurized horizontal storage tank shells? A) Aluminum B) Polyethylene C) Manganese D) Carbon composite

A

Which of the following actions is permitted for operations-level hazardous materials responders? A) Closing a remote valve B) Product transfer C) Overpackaging D) Rescue

A

Which of the following is an exposure protection tactic? A) Evacuation B) Isolation C) Establishment of control zones D) Decontamination

A

Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of an intermodal tank? A) A box-like steel frame B) Multiple full-length tank tubes C) An elliptical tank cross-section D) A sloping tank bottom

A

Which personnel level receives more specialized hazardous materials training than the Technician level? A) Specialist B) Operations C) Technologist D) Expert

A

Which sort of change is combustion? A) Chemical B) Physical C) Endothermic D) Hypergolic

A

Which statement about the use of structural firefighting PPE at a hazardous materials incident is correct? A) It offers some chemical protection. B) It prevents direct skin contact. C) It provides protection against vapors. D) The shell resists absorption.

A

Which type of agent prevents the body from using oxygen? A) Cyanide compound B) Irritant C) Choking D) Nerve agent

A

Which weather factor is the most important in a hazardous materials release? A) Wind direction B) Temperature C) Relative humidity D) Precipitation

A

A responder grabs a tool that was used to handle a hazardous material. This is an example of __________. A) exposure B) cross-contamination C) indirect contamination D) secondary exposure

B

According to the NFPA, what is defined as a material capable of posing an unreasonable risk to health, safety, or the environment? A) Contaminant B) Hazard C) Dangerous good D) Exposure

B

By which acronym are the federal regulations detailing hazardous materials response competencies collectively known? A) HAZEL B) HAZWOPER C) SARA D) HSC/HHC

B

Compared to other types of incidents to which first responders are commonly called, hazardous material incidents typically ___________. A) are shorter in duration B) are more complicated C) produce a higher rate of false alarms D) result in more injuries

B

For which situation is shelter-in-place the best option? A) When the majority of the exposed population are outdoors B) At an exposed healthcare facility C) When toxic release is probable but has not yet occurred D) With a slow-spreading toxic plume

B

In general, which factor has the most influence on the actions taken at a hazardous materials incident? A) The initial actions of first responders B) The properties of the specific chemicals involved C) Fixed facility versus transportation accident D) Weather conditions

B

In perfect circumstances, evacuation of residents is likely to take __________. A) minutes B) hours C) days D) weeks

B

In the NFPA 704 marking system, which color indicates reactivity? A) Orange B) Yellow C) Red D) Green

B

In the blue and yellow sections of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG), materials with a toxic inhalation hazard (TIH) are __________. A) underlined B) highlighted C) italicized D) in bold print

B

In which type of decontamination does the contaminant adhere to the surface of an added material? A) Absorption B) Adsorption C) Neutralization D) Solidification

B

The DOT definition of hazardous materials focuses on those materials that are __________. A) intrinsically harmful B) not properly controlled C) transported in bulk D) in the process of transport

B

The process in which one material soaks up another material like a sponge is termed _________. A) imbibition B) absorption C) adsorption D) retention

B

The specific identity of a hazardous material should be confirmed by consulting a minimum of _____ sources. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

B

The time of onset for symptoms from the chemical agents used by terrorists is ________. A) seconds B) minutes to hours C) days D) weeks

B

What does the "W" stand for in the acronym TLV/TWA? A) Warning B) Weighted C) Weapon D) Water

B

What does the NFPA 704 marking system address? A) Initial actions at a material release B) Hazardous materials at fixed facilities C) Compliance with the Hazard Communication Standard D) Hazardous materials transportation

B

What is OSHA terminology for a contaminated atmosphere that poses a severe threat to health? A) Ceiling level B) Immediately dangerous to life and health C) Short-term exposure limit D) Maximum exposure limit

B

What is the minimum number of apparatus needed to perform mass decontamination? A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

B

What is the primary concern at a hazardous materials incident? A) Confining the release B) Life safety C) Avoiding contamination D) Environmental protection

B

What is the typical maximum pressure reading for a standard oxygen cylinder used in the medical field? A) 1000 psi (6900 kPa) B) 2000 psi (13,800 kPa) C) 3000 psi (20,700 kPa) D) 4000 psi (27,580 kPa)

B

Which EPA level of chemical-protective clothing provides a high level of respiratory protection, but less skin protection? A) A B) B C) C D) D

B

Which chemical-protective clothing is a single-piece garment that totally encloses the wearer? A) Splash suit B) Encapsulating suit C) Proximity suit D) Level D ensemble

B

Which course of action is appropriate when a spilled material cannot be identified? A) Cover the material and await the arrival of additional resources B) Take conservative defensive measures C) Proceed as you would for a known substance D) Use dispersal/dilution tactics

B

Which federal agency enforces and publicizes laws and regulations governing transportation of hazardous materials? A) Environmental Protection Agency B) Department of Transportation C) Interstate Commerce Commission D) Department of Energy

B

Which form of decontamination usually consists of rapid removal of clothing and flushing with a hose line? A) Technical B) Emergency C) Primary D) Mass

B

Which information is critical for proper selection of PPE? A) Decontamination options B) Physical and chemical properties C) Proximity to contaminant D) Confinement method

B

Which item must be included on a pipeline warning sign? A) UN ID number B) Emergency contact number C) ERG guide number D) Signal word

B

Which of the following actions is reserved for technician-level hazardous materials responders? A) Decontamination B) Offensive C) Containment D) Defensive

B

Which of the following occupies the warm zone? A) Command post B) Decontamination corridor C) Triage area D) Safe refuge area

B

Which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) lists chemicals by their UN identification numbers? A) Green B) Yellow C) Blue D) Orange

B

Which statement about solidification of a hazardous liquid is correct? A) It neutralizes the chemical properties of the liquid. B) It makes the material easier to handle. C) It simplifies the disposal process. D) In most cases it is an exothermic process.

B

Absorption is a difficult technique for operations-level responders at a hazardous materials incident to implement because __________. A) absorbent materials require special handling B) large volumes of the absorbent are required C) close proximity to the hazardous material is required D) the absorption reaction is usually exothermic

C

Approximately how many chemicals are registered for commercial use in the United States? A) 10,000 B) 25,000 C) 80,000 D) 200,000

C

Are above-ground storage tanks pressurized or nonpressurized? A) Pressurized only B) Nonpressurized only C) Either D) Neither

C

For which EPA level of chemical-protective clothing is the use of an APR permissible? A) A B) B C) C D) D

C

Ideally, when should response to a hazardous materials incident begin? A) Upon receipt of the alarm B) After identifying the materials involved C) During preincident planning D) Upon arrival at the scene

C

Taking steps to stop fluid from leaking from a tank is an example of which tactic? A) Confinement B) Mitigation C) Containment D) Control

C

The systematic and thorough removal of contaminants is called __________ decontamination. A) primary B) secondary C) technical D) comprehensive

C

There is a high risk of environment damage if a fire involving __________ is extinguished. A) explosives B) flammable gas C) pesticides D) oxidizers

C

What color is a DOT transportation placard for a poison? A) White upper half with black lower half B) Red C) White D) Orange

C

What is a drawback to emulsifying a hazardous material? A) The process can be exothermic B) The process often increases clean-up costs C) The emulsification agents themselves may be hazardous D) The operation may create contaminated runoff

C

What is most commonly contained in large, above-ground, horizontal storage tanks? A) Compressed gas B) Corrosive liquid C) Flammable or combustible liquids D) Liquid foodstuffs

C

What is the first major heading on an MSDS? A) Hazards Identification B) Safe Handling Guidelines C) Product Identification D) Composition

C

What is the minimum level of hazardous materials training required to take defensive actions? A) Awareness B) Technician C) Operations D) Specialist

C

What is the most reliable way to determine how far to extend actual evacuation distances? A) Consultation with allied professionals B) ERG table of protective action distances C) Detection equipment D) Aerial photography

C

What is the temperature at which a liquid continuously gives off vapors? A) Evaporation point B) Flash point C) Boiling point D) Fire point

C

What is the vapor density of air? A) 14.7 B) 7 C) 1 D) 0

C

When are personnel working in impermeable chemical-protective clothing the most vulnerable to hypothermia? A) While donning the ensemble B) During exertion C) During the decontamination process D) While in rehabilitation

C

When is technical decontamination performed relative to gross decontamination? A) At the same time B) Before C) After D) Either before or after is acceptable

C

Which NFPA standard deals with various aspects of hazardous materials emergency response? A) 1901 B) 1002 C) 473 D) 10

C

Which body part provides the fastest route of absorption? A) Fingers B) Scalp C) Eyes D) Ears

C

Which cargo is carried by a highway tanker that has a smaller-diameter tank with several reinforcing rings around the circumference? A) Paving materials B) Nonpotable water C) Corrosives D) Flammable liquids

C

Which class of protective clothing is limited to protecting the skin and eyes from chemical splashes? A) Chemical proximity B) Vapor-protective C) Liquid splash-protective D) Structural PPE with eye protection

C

Which control zone is referred to as the safe zone? A) Hot zone B) Warm zone C) Cold zone D) Free zone

C

Which detection instrument is used to monitor corrosive substances? A) Photoelectric ionizer B) Geiger C) pH meter D) Four-gas monitor

C

Which factor is the most important when determining the level of PPE required for a hazardous materials incident? A) The size of the release B) The type of PPE available C) The physical state of the material D) The responders' experience with this material

C

Which material is commonly used in the construction of encapsulating suits? A) Nomex® B) Nylon C) Butyl rubber D) PBI

C

Which mnemonic helps fire fighters remember the seven categories of harm that can be caused by terrorism agents or other hazardous materials? A) WAFFLES B) PANOPRY C) TRACEMP D) CALLUPP

C

Which of the following is the most toxic nerve agent? A) Sarin B) Soman C) VX D) Tabun

C

Which particle has a positive charge? A) Electron B) Photon C) Proton D) Neutron

C

Which protective action is an operations-level responder permitted to take? A) Overpackaging B) Product transfer C) Operating a remote valve D) None of the above

C

Which term best describes the level of protection that structural firefighting PPE provides at a hazardous materials incident? A) None B) Minimal C) Limited D) Good

C

Which term means the volume increase that occurs when a liquid material changes to a gas? A) Coefficient of vaporization B) Evaporation rate C) Expansion ratio D) Evaporation volume

C

Which toxic chemical is produced by the burning of wood? A) Copper chlorate B) Organic peroxide C) Cyanide D) Acetic acid

C

Which type of agent is also known as a riot-control agent? A) Deterrent B) Choking C) Irritant D) Smothering

C

Defensive hazardous materials operations are those actions taken to _________. A) minimize the volume of the release B) control the incident perimeter and isolate the hazard C) prevent the situation from deteriorating D) contain the release from a safe distance

D

Following mass decontamination, victims should be directed to the __________. A) treatment area B) accountability officer C) transportation unit D) triage area

D

For which situation is shelter-in-place the best option? A) When the exposed population is outdoors B) With a highly flammable release C) With a highly toxic cloud D) For a short-duration incident

D

How is absorbent most commonly applied to a hazardous materials spill? A) Broom B) Backpack pump C) Boom D) Shovel

D

How should evidence be decontaminated? A) It is not decontaminated B) Gross decontamination only C) Dry decontamination only D) In such a way to prevent any alteration of the evidence

D

In general, which response objective is the highest level of risk that is permissible for operations-level responders? A) Offensive B) Containment C) Confinement D) Defensive

D

Patching a breached container is an example of __________. A) retention B) repair C) confinement D) containment

D

Rusting steel is an example of __________ change. A) physical B) compositional C) morphological D) chemical

D

Skin contact with an alkaline material is most likely to cause __________. A) painless, weeping sores B) superficial burns C) a rapidly spreading rash D) dissolving skin tissue

D

The bulk of the new chemicals introduced each year fall into one of three categories. Which of the following is one of them? A) Medicines B) Military products C) Paints and coatings D) Lawn care products

D

What do Dewar containers hold? A) Foodstuffs B) Compressed gas C) Liquids for transport via air D) Cryogenic liquids

D

What does the "W" stand for in the acronym HAZWOPER? A) Weapons B) Weather C) Wellness D) Waste

D

What does the blue section of the NFPA 704 marking system indicate? A) Flammability B) Reactivity C) Special symbols D) Health hazard

D

What is the appropriate agency to call upon discovery of a hazardous materials incident? A) National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) B) U.S. Fire Administration (USFA) C) Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) D) National Response Center (NRC)

D

What is the maximum capacity of an intermodal tank? A) 1500 gallons (5700 L) B) 3000 gallons (11,350 L) C) 4500 gallons (17,000 L) D) 6000 gallons (22,700 L)

D

What is the maximum concentration of a material that a person can be exposed to over a 40-hour workweek with no ill effects? A) TLV/STEL B) REL/W C) TLV/C D) TLV/TWA

D

What is the recommended treatment for heat exhaustion? A) Rapid cooling by any available means B) Prompt ALS transport to a medical facility C) Application of ice packs D) Rest and rehydration

D

What is the temperature at which a flammable liquid will ignite without any external ignition source? A) Fire point B) Flash point C) Lower explosive limit D) Ignition temperature

D

What is the term for the process by which people, animals, the environment, and equipment come into contact with a hazardous material? A) Contamination B) Absorption C) Contact D) Exposure

D

What should be done if different references conflict in their recommendations regarding a particular hazardous material? A) Go with the recommendation that permits the greatest tactical flexibility B) Go with the recommendation that is the simplest to implement C) Take no action until an authoritative opinion is available D) Take the most conservative recommended course of action

D

Which committee gathers and disseminates information about hazardous materials to the public? A) IAFC regional public education B) USFA public preparedness C) Insurance Services Office Loss Control D) Local emergency planning

D

Which free service can be accessed to connect fire fighters with chemical manufacturers, chemists, and other specialists during a chemical incident? A) National Response Center (NRC) B) Department of Transportation (DOT) C) Bureau of Explosives (BOE) D) CHEMTREC

D

Which law requires businesses that handle chemicals to report the type, quantity, and storage methods for these chemicals to the local fire department? A) Local Emergency Planning Act B) Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response Act C) Superfund Amendment and Reauthorization Act D) Emergency Planning and Community Right to Know Act

D

Which of the following is an example of secondary contamination? A) Contamination by airborne vapors B) Contact with the material during a defensive operation C) Stepping in a contaminated liquid pool D) Handling a contaminated tool

D

Which of the following is considered a "dry" foam? A) AFFF B) Fluoroprotein foam C) Protein foam D) High-expansion foam

D

Which of the following is one of the four major categories of decontamination? A) Initial B) Precautionary C) Civilian D) Gross

D

Which of these resources should be consulted first to determine the size of a hazardous materials incident? A) Chemical Abstracts Service release behavior model B) MSDS C) General Emergency Behavior Model (GEMBO) D) Preincident plan

D

Which reference should responders consult first to determine protective action zones? A) The material data safety Sheet (MSDS) B) Spill modeling software C) A preincident plan D) Emergency Response Guide (ERG)

D

Which resource is of particular value at a hazardous materials incident? A) American Red Cross B) FEMA field representatives C) Heavy equipment operators D) Technical specialists

D

Which section of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) contains the guides? A) Green B) Yellow C) Blue D) Orange

D

Which statement about runoff during emergency decontamination is correct? A) Management of runoff should not be a consideration in emergency decontamination. B) Emergency decontamination methods do not produce runoff. C) Emergency decontamination should not proceed until measures for containment of runoff are taken. D) An effort should be made to divert runoff from drains, streams, or ponds.

D

Which statement about vapor-protective clothing is correct? A) It must be used with air-line-supplied SCBA. B) It is resistant to most chemicals. C) It can be worn by operations-level responders under some circumstances. D) It traps and retains the wearer's body heat.

D

Which technique is commonly used for gross decontamination? A) Simple removal of clothing B) Three-step corridor C) Flush, strip, and flush D) A shower system

D

Why are flammable liquids with low boiling points dangerous? A) Ignition temperature is proportional to boiling point B) Such liquids react more readily with other substances C) Such liquids typically have a high vapor density D) Such liquids produce large volumes of flammable vapor at relatively low temperatures

D

Why is controlling liquid spills difficult? A) Liquids evaporate before they can be recovered B) Liquid releases tend to be large C) Liquids generally are more hazardous than gases or solids D) A liquid takes the shape of its surroundings

D