Health assessment eyes

lacrimal apparatus

A client frequently experiences dry, irritated eyes. These findings are consistent with a problem in what part of the eye?

d) refer the client to an ophthalmologist Consistent blind spots may indicate retinal detachment. Any report of a blind spot requires immediate attention and referral to a physician.

A client visits the local clinic after experiencing head trauma. The client tells the nurse that he has a consistent blind spot in his right eye. The nurse should: a) examine the area of head trauma. b) ask the client if he sees "halos." c) assess the client for double vision. d) refer the client to an ophthalmologist

Increased intraocular pressure

A patient is diagnosed with an obstruction of the canal of Schlemm affecting the left eye. What assessment data concerning the left noted in the patient's medical record supports this diagnosis?

Ultraviolet light exposure

An adult client tells the nurse that his father had cataracts. He asks the nurse about risk factors for cataracts. The nurse should instruct the client that a potential risk factor is

Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests.

On a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam two years ago, and does not wear glasses. The nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. What should the nurse do next?

right homonymous hemianopsia

On visual confrontation testing, a client with a recent stroke cannot see the examiner's fingers on the entire right side with either eye covered. Which of the terms would describe this finding?

retina

Photoreceptors of the eye are located in the eye's

accommodation

The functional reflex that allows the eyes to focus on near objects is termed

an oily substance to lubricate the eyes.

The meibomian glands secrete?

Document the findings in the client's records

The nurse has tested an adult client's visual fields and determined that the temporal field is 90 degrees in both eyes. The nurse should

d) Arcus senilis Arcus senilis, a normal condition in older clients, appears as a white arc around the limbus. The condition has no effect on vision. Presbyopia, which is impaired near vision, is caused by decreased accommodation and is a common condition in clients over 45 years of age. Ectropion is when the lower eyelids evert, causing exposure and drying of the conjunctiva. This is a normal finding in the older client. Myopia is impaired far vision.

The nurse is inspecting the cornea and lens of an elderly client and notices a white arc around the limbus of the client's eye. The nurse recognizes this condition, common in older adults, as which of the following? a) Ectropion b) Presbyopia c) Myopia d) Arcus senilis

age related far-sightedness

What is the definition of presbyopia?

The brow, the medial aspect of the nose, and the cheek.

When assessing the eye, the nurse recognizes that which physical structures of the face limit the normal visual field that a client can experience? Select all that apply.

Aqueous humour is continuously circulating through the eye with production equalling

Which of the following statements most accurately describes the maintenance of normal intraocular pressure?

Exophthalmos (bulging eyes)

Which symptom is associated with hyperthyroid graves disease?

A left temporal hemianopsia

You are assessing visual fields on a patient newly admitted for eye surgery. The patient's left eye repeatedly does not see your fingers until they have crossed the line of gaze. You would document that the patient has what?

stye

A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful lump in the left eye. It started this morning. The client denies any trauma or injury. There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

a) Stye A hordeolum or stye is a painful, tender, erythematous infection in a gland at the margin of the eyelid.

A 12-year-old presents to the clinic with his father for evaluation of a painful lump in the left eye. It started this morning. The client denies any trauma or injury. There is no visual disturbance. Upon physical examination, there is a red raised area at the margin of the eyelid that is tender to palpation; no tearing occurs with palpation of the lesion. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) Stye b) Dacryocystitis c) Xanthelasma d) Chalazion

Exophthalmos

A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis?

c) Exophthalmos In exophthalmos, the eyeball protrudes forward. If it is bilateral, it suggests the presence of Graves' disease, although unilateral exophthalmos could still be caused by Graves' disease. Alternative causes include a tumour and inflammation in the orbit.

A 29-year-old physical therapist presents for evaluation of an eyelid problem. On observation, the right eyeball appears to be protruding forward. Based on this description, what is the most likely diagnosis? a) Ectropion b) Epicanthus c) Exophthalmos d) Ptosis

b) "It is not an uncommon finding in people older than 40 years for this to happen. They are called 'floaters'." Floaters (translucent specks that drift across the visual field) are common in people older than 40 years of age and nearsighted patients; no additional follow-up is needed.

A 52-year-old patient with myopia calls the ophthalmology clinic very upset. Shetells the nurse, "I keep seeing semi-clear spots floating across my vision. What is wrong with me?" What would be the most appropriate response by the nurse? a) "Please come into the clinic right away so we can see what is wrong." b) "It is not an uncommon finding in people older than 40 years for this to happen. They are called 'floaters'." c) "Because it is almost 5 o'clock, please go to the emergency department right away. This sounds very serious." d) "I have an opening tomorrow at 2 in the afternoon. Can you come in then?"

b) "This might have been the result of an allergy, but most likely it was caused by a bacteria or virus." Conjunctivitis usually has an infectious etiology. Severe pain and vision damage are not common consequences.

A 6-year-old boy has come to the clinic with his mother because of recent eye redness and discharge. The nurse's assessment has suggested a diagnosis of conjunctivitis. What should the nurse tell the mother about her son's eye? a) "Antibiotics will clear this up, but you need to make sure he gets them as ordered to avoid vision damage." b) "This might have been the result of an allergy, but most likely it was caused by a bacteria or virus." c) "I'll prescribe some analgesics because your son is likely to have quite severe pain while his eye heals." d) "In children, this problem is usually caused by an increase in pressure within the eye."

b) At 20 feet from the chart, the client sees what a person with good vision can see at 50 feet. The Snellen chart tests distant visual acuity by seeing how far the client can read the letters standing 20 feet from the chart. The top number is how far the client is from the chart and the bottom number refers to the last line the client can read. A reading of 20/50 means the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision can see at 50 feet. The minus number is the number of letters missed on the last line the client can distinguish.

A client performs the test for distant visual acuity and scores 20/50-2. How should the nurse most accurately interpret this finding? a) Client can read the 20/50 line correctly and two other letters on the line above. b) At 20 feet from the chart, the client sees what a person with good vision can see at 50 feet. c) When 50 feet from the chart, the client can see better than a person standing at 20 feet. d) Client did not wear his glasses for this test and therefore it is not accurate.

hyphema= pooling of blood inside of the eye.

A client presents to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball bat during a game. The nurse should assess for which condition?

Risk for injury

A client presents to the health care clinic and reports pain in the eyes when working on the computer for long periods of time. Client states he almost ran into a parked car yesterday because he misjudged the distance from the bumper of his own car. He works for a computer software company and has noticed he is experiencing difficulty reading the manuals that accompany the software he installs for companies. What nursing diagnosis can the nurse confirm based on this data?

Vitamin A deficiency

A client tells the nurse that she has difficulty seeing while driving at night. The nurse should explain to the client that night blindness is often associated with

b) Consensual reaction The constriction of the contralateral pupil is called the consensual reaction. The response of the ipsilateral eye is the direct response. The dilation of the pupil when focusing on a close object is the near reaction. Accommodation is the changing of the shape of the lens to sharply focus on an object.

A light is pointed at a client's pupil, which then contracts. It is also noted that the other pupil contracts as well, though it is not exposed to bright light. Which of the following terms describes this latter phenomenon? a) Accommodation b) Consensual reaction c) Direct reaction d) Near reaction

d) Instruct the client hold the chart 14 inches from the eyes To test the near visual acuity, the nurse should have the client hold the chart 14 inches from the eyes. The chart should be kept at eye level, 20 feet away on the wall when testing for distant vision. An arm's length is an arbitrary length depending on the size of the client & is not an accurate method for testing. The chart should not be placed on a table 17 inches away from the client.

A middle-aged client reports difficulty in reading. Which action by the nurse is appropriate to test the near visual acuity using a Jaeger reading card? a) Place the chart 20 feet away from the client on the wall b) Instruct the client to hold the chart away from the body at arm's length c) Place the chart on a table 17 inches away from the client d) Instruct the client hold the chart 14 inches from the eyes

d) Focused on the bridge of the nose When testing the corneal light reflex, the nurse should shine the light toward the bridge of the nose. At the same time, the client is instructed to stare straight ahead. This facilitates a parallel image on the cornea. The eye response upon shining the light toward the eye may interfere with the assessment. The light should not be shined toward the forehead or on an object on the wall.

A nurse assesses the parallel alignment of a client's eyes by testing the corneal light reflex. Where should the nurse shine the penlight to obtain an accurate result? a) Directly on the eye being examined b) Shined on the forehead c) Pointed at a fixed object on the wall d) Focused on the bridge of the nose

d) Place an opaque card in between the eyes of the client The nurse should place an opaque card in between the eyes of the client when assessing the client for consensual response to avoid inaccurate results. The light should not be focused directly into the eye to be tested; it should be focused obliquely into one eye, and the response should be checked in the other eye. The client should not be instructed to close the other eye not focused with light because the response is checked in the other eye.

A nurse assesses the pupillary reaction to light for a client who has lost vision in one eye. Which precaution should the nurse follow to get an accurate result of consensual response? a) Observe the response in the eye focused with light b) Shine a bright light directly into the eye to be tested c) Instruct the client to close the eye not focused with light d) Place an opaque card in between the eyes of the client

Presbyopia

A nurse notices a middle-aged client in the waiting room pick up a magazine to read while she waits to be seen. She opens the magazine and then extends her arms to move it further from her eyes. Which condition does the nurse most suspect in this client?

The larger the bottom number the worse the visual acuity.

A nurse performs the Snellen test (distance) on a client and obtains these results: OD 20/40, OS 20/30. What conclusion can the nurse make in regards to the client's vision based on these results?

Deep-Water fish

A patient asks a nurse if any foods promote eye health. What food would the nurse include as a response?

a) "You will need to see the doctor to have your eye checked." Pain in the eye is never normal and should always be further explored.

A patient comes to the clinic, reporting that he woke up this morning with a painful right eye. What would be the most appropriate response from the nurse? a) "You will need to see the doctor to have your eye checked." b) "It is probably just allergies. If it still hurts in the morning call me." c) "A painful eye happens sometimes with allergies. Do you have allergies?" d) "Did you do anything different yesterday? You may have eye strain."

Macular degeneration ( vision degeneration, mostly for people over 60

A patient complains of feeling like he is slowly losing his central vision. The nurse knows this symptom could represent

b) glaucoma A scotoma is a blind spot that is surrounded by either normal or slightly diminished peripheral vision. It may be from glaucoma.

An adult client tells the nurse that her peripheral vision is not what it used to be and she has a blind spot in her left eye. The nurse should refer the client for evaluation of possible a) migraine headaches. b) glaucoma. c) bacterial infection. d) increased intracranial pressure.

a) The client and the examiner see the examiner's finger at the same time The observation that the client and examiner see the examiner's finger at the same time indicates normal peripheral vision. The client not seeing the examiner's finger and a delay in seeing indicates reduced peripheral vision. Client's consensual pupils constrict in response to indirect light as well as direct light shown into the client's pupils resulting in constriction is observed when testing the pupils for reaction to light. Eyes converge on an object as it is moved towards the nose tests for accommodation.

As part of a physical assessment, the nurse performs the confrontation test to assess the client's peripheral vision. Which test result should a nurse recognize as indicating normal peripheral vision for a client using the confrontation test? a) The client and the examiner see the examiner's finger at the same time b) Eyes converge on an object as it is moved towards the nose c) Direct light shown into the client's pupils results in constriction d) Client's consensual pupil constricts in response to indirect light

d) II b) III e) IV a) VI As the nurse inspects and palpates the eye, he or she assesses for the sensory and motor functions of four cranial nerves: Cranial nerve II, optic nerve, visual acuity, visual fields, fundoscopic examination; cranial nerve III, oculomotor, cardinal fields of gaze, eyelid inspection, pupil reaction (direct/consensual/ accommodation); cranial nerve IV, trochlear, cardinal fields of gaze; and cranial nerve VI, abducens, cardinal fields of gaze. Cranial nerve V, known as the trigeminal nerve, is a nerve responsible for sensation in the face and certain motor functions such as biting and chewing

Choice Multiple question - Select all answer choices that apply.Normal movement of the eye involves what cranial nerves? (Mark all that apply.) a) VI b) III c) V d) II e) IV

a) Systemic lupus erythematosus e) Rheumatoid arthritis

Choice Multiple question - Select all answer choices that apply.What systemic diseases may cause nodular episcleritis? (Mark all that apply.) a) Systemic lupus erythematosus b) Muscular dystrophy c) Fibromyalgia d) Multiple sclerosis e) Rheumatoid arthritis

d) Use a Snellen E chart to perform the examination If a client does not speak English, is unable to read, or has a verbal communication problem, the Snellen E chart can be used to test the client's distant visual acuity. With this test, the client is asked to indicate by pointing which way the E is open on the chart. The six cardinal positions of gaze test eye muscle function & cranial nerve function. The Jeager chart tests near visual acuity. Confrontation test is used to test visual fields for peripheral vision.

How can a nurse accurately assess the distant visual acuity of a client who is non-English-speaking? a) Perform the confrontation test in all four fields b) Have the client read from a Jaeger reading card c) Move an object through the six cardinal positions of gaze d) Use a Snellen E chart to perform the examination

d) Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests The first thing the nurse should do is perform both the distant and near visual acuity exams to assess for loss of far and near vision. Testing the pupil is important to assess reaction to light. The findings must be documented in the client's record. If abnormalities are found upon assessment, the client should be referred for a complete eye examination.

On a health history, a client reports no visual disturbances, last eye exam two years ago, and does not wear glasses. The nurse notices that the client squints when signing the consent for treatment form and holds the paper close to the face. What should the nurse do next? a) Document the findings in the client's record b) Test the pupils for direct and consensual reaction to light c) Obtain a referral to the ophthalmologist for a complete eye exam d) Perform both the distant and near visual acuity tests

c) accommodation

The functional reflex that allows the eyes to focus on near objects is termed: a) pupillary reflex. b) indirect reflex. c) accommodation. d) refraction.

d) Cranial nerve II intact Cranial nerve II, or the optic nerve, is tested by assessing visual acuity, visual fields, and through fundoscopic examination. The cardinal fields of gaze and pupil reaction are tested when assessing cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Cranial nerve I is the olfactory nerve. Cranial nerve XI is the accessory nerve.

The nurse is assessing a client's visual acuity and visual fields. The nurse evaluates that the assessment results are within expected parameters. How should the nurse document this assessment finding? a) Cranial nerve XI intact b) Cranial nerve I intact c) Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI intact d) Cranial nerve II intact

c) "Follow my finger with only your eyes." Testing cranial nerves III, IV, and VI also tests the movement of the eye muscles by asking the client to move the eyes in different directions. Turning the head assesses neck range of motion and mobility. Shrugging shoulder against resistance assesses a different cranial nerve. Asking the client to stand still with the eyes closed is known as the Romberg's test to test balance.

The nurse is assessing cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Which instructions should the nurse provide to the client in order to perform this assessment? a) "Stand very still with your eyes closed." b) "Rotate your head from side to side." c) "Follow my finger with only your eyes." d) "Shrug your shoulders as I push down on them."

a)Hypertension b) Diabetes

The nurse is teaching about the importance of regular eye examinations and should include information about which conditions that place clients at highest risk for blindness? (Select all that apply.) a)Hypertension b) Diabetes c) Hyperlipidemia d) Hypothyroidism e) Osteoarthritis

c) Presbyopia Prebyopia denotes an age-related deficit in close vision. It is less likely that cataracts, macular degeneration, or loss of convergence underlie the colleague's visual changes.

The nurse observes a middle-aged colleague fully extending her arm to read the label on a vial of medication. Which of the following age-related changes is the nurse likely to have observed? a) Cataract formation b) Loss of convergence c) Presbyopia d) Macular degeneration

True

The nurse tests the six cardinal directions to test extraocular movement of the eye.

a) The palpebral fissure Explanation: The palpebral fissure is the almond-shaped open space between the eyelids. The limbus is the border of the cornea and the sclera. Eyeball and lacrimal fissure are distracters for the question.

The open space between the eyelids is called what? a) The palpebral fissure b) The eyeball c) The lacrimal fissure d) The limbus

optic chiasma

The optic nerves from each eyeball cross at the...?

Conjunctiva The conjunctiva is a thin mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid (palpebral conjunctivae) and also covers the sclera (bulbar conjunctivae). The border between the cornea and the sclera is the limbus. The lacrimal apparatus protects and lubricates the cornea and the conjunctiva by producing and draining tears. The eyelid is a loose fold of skin that covers and protects the eye

The thin mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and covers the sclera is known as what?

Conjunctiva The conjunctiva is a thin mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid (palpebral conjunctivae) and also covers the sclera (bulbar conjunctivae). The border between the cornea and the sclera is the limbus. The lacrimal apparatus protects and lubricates the cornea and the conjunctiva by producing and draining tears. The eyelid is a loose fold of skin that covers and protects the eye.

The thin mucous membrane that lines the inner eyelid and covers the sclera is known as what?

c) Glaucoma Glaucoma in a first-degree relative increases the client's risk for the same problem two to three times. Retinoblastoma can be inherited from either parent but does not have increased incidence if a first-degree relative has the disease. Retinitis pigmentosa is also a genetic disease, but a client's risk of the disease is not increased if a first-degree relative is affected. Strabismus is not genetic.

When assessing risk factors for eye and vision problems, the nurse knows that genetics can play a role. What major eye problem are clients most likely at increased risk for if a first-degree relative has it? a) Retinoblastoma b) Strabismus c) Glaucoma d) Retinitis pigmentosa

Glaucoma Glaucoma in a first-degree relative increases the patient's risk for the same problem two to three times. Retinoblastoma can be inherited from either parent but does not have increased incidence if a first-degree relative has the disease. Retinitis pigmentosa is also a genetic disease, but a patient's risk of the disease is not increased if a first-degree relative is affected. Strabismus is not genetic.

When assessing risk factors for eye and vision problems, the nurse knows that genetics can play a role. What major eye problem are patients most likely at increased risk for if a first-degree relative has it?

d) Exotropia With the cover test, the eyes of the client should remain fixed straight ahead. If the covered eye moves when uncovered to reestablish focus, it is abnormal. If the eye turns outward it is called exotropia. If the uncovered eye turns inward, it is called esotropia. Strabismus is constant malalignment of the eyes. Presbyopia is impaired near vision.

When performing the cover test, a nurse notices that the client's left eye turns outward. How should the nurse document this finding in the client's record? a) Presbyopia b) Esotropia c) Strabismus d) Exotropia

b) Up The correct technique to use when examining a patient's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination is to instruct the patient to look up. Having the patient look down, to the right, or to the left will not provide visualization of the sclera or conjunctiva during the examination

When preparing to examine a patient's sclera and conjunctiva during an eye examination, the nurse should instruct the patient to move both eyes to look in which direction? a) To the right b) Up c) Down d) To the left

c) Pupillary constriction on near gaze; dilation on distant gaze During accommodation, pupils constrict with near gaze and dilate with far gaze.

When testing the near reaction, an expected finding includes which of the following? a) Pupillary dilation on near gaze; constriction on distant gaze b) Pupillary constriction on near gaze; constriction on distant gaze c) Pupillary constriction on near gaze; dilation on distant gaze d) Pupillary dilation on near gaze; dilation on distant gaze

d) Employ the right eye to examine the client's right eye The nurse should employ the right eye to examine the client's right eye; this action of the nurse indicates the correct use of the ophthalmoscope. The nurse should hold the ophthalmoscope with the left hand and the index finger on the lens wheel. The nurse should ask the client to gaze at an object straight ahead and slightly upward, not downward.

Which action by the nurse indicates the appropriate use of ophthalmoscope? a) Approach the client from the side using the same eye as being examined b) Hold the ophthalmoscope with the middle finger on the lens wheel c) Stand in front of the client with the light directly on the pupil d) Employ the right eye to examine the client's right eye e) Ask the client to gaze at an object straight ahead and slightly towards the floor

b) Cigarette smoking c) Eats very few fruits or vegetables f) Works in lawn maintenance Risk factors for the development of cataracts include age over 50, exposure to ultraviolet B light, diabetes mellitus, alcohol use, cigarette smoking, a diet low in antioxidants, high blood pressure, eye injuries, and steroid use.

Which data collected in a health history interview of a client should the nurse document as risk factors for the development of cataracts? Select all that apply. a) Thyroid disease b) Cigarette smoking c) Eats very few fruits or vegetables d) Hit on the back of the head with a hammer e) Blood pressure medications f) Works in lawn maintenance

c) A client's extraocular movements are asymmetrical and she complains of diplopia. Deficits in cranial nerves III, IV, and VI can manifest as impaired extraocular movements or diplopia. Flashes of light are associated with retinal detachment, while intraocular bleeding and cataracts do not have a neurological etiology.

Which of the following assessment findings suggests a problem with the client's cranial nerves? a) A client states that he has recently begun seeing lights flashing in his field of vision. b) Fundoscopic examination reveals intraocular bleeding. c) A client's extraocular movements are asymmetrical and she complains of diplopia. d) A client's lens appears cloudy and she claims that her visual acuity has recently declined.

c) Scotomas Scotomas are specks in the vision or areas where the client cannot see; therefore, this is a common and concerning symptom of the eye. Tinnitus is a ringing in the ears, dysphagia is difficulty swallowing, and rhinorrhea is a "runny nose."

Which of the following is a symptom of the eye? a) Rhinorrhea b) Tinnitus c) Scotomas d) Dysphagia

b) Thick, purulent drainage is noted at inner corner of both eyes. The abbreviations OD (right eye), OS (left eye), and OU (both eyes) are no longer used due to the potential for order errors. Instead, it is recommended to use "right eye," "left eye," or "both eyes."

Which statement demonstrates the safest way to document assessment findings of drainage noted in both eyes of a client? a) Thick, purulent drainage is noted at inner corner of OU. b) Thick, purulent drainage is noted at inner corner of both eyes. c) Thick, purulent drainage is noted at inner corner of OS. d) Thick, purulent drainage is noted at inner corner of OD.

c) Asks the client to fix the gaze upon an object and look straight aheadthe client to gaze straight ahead and slightly upward. Ask the client to remove glasses but keep contact lens in place. The nurse should use the right eye to examine the right eye & left eye to examine the client's left eye. This allows the nurse to get as close as possible to the client's eye. Begin about 10-15 inches from the client at a 15 degree angle. The nurse should keep the ophthalmoscope still & ask the client to look into the light to view the fovea and macula

Which technique by the nurse demonstrates proper use of the ophthalmoscope? a) Moves the scope around so the entire optic disk may be seen b) Approaches the client directly in front of the pupil c) Asks the client to fix the gaze upon an object and look straight ahead d) Uses right eye to examine the client's left eye

d) 20/200 The reading of 20/200 on a vision acuity test indicates blindness. The reading of 20/20 is considered normal vision. This means that the client being tested can distinguish what a person with normal vision can distinguish from 20 feet away. The top or first number is always 20, indicating the distance from the client to the chart. The bottom or second number refers to the last full line the client could read. The higher the second number, the poorer the vision. 20/40 and 20/100 also denote poor vision.

Which vision acuity reading indicates blindness? a) 20/100 b) 20/20 c) 20/40 d) 20/200

b) esotropia Esotropia is an inward turn of the eye.

While assessing the eye of an adult client, the nurse observes an inward turning of the client's left eye. The nurse should document the client's: a) exotropia. b) esotropia. c) phoria. d) trabismus.

d) Consensual reaction The consensual reaction is when the pupil constricts in the opposite eye. Myopia is impaired far vision. Presbyopia is impaired near vision often seen in middle-aged and older patients. The direct reaction is when the pupil constricts in the same eye.

While the nurse examines a patient's pupillary response to light in the right eye, the pupil in the left eye is constricted. What does this finding suggest to the nurse? a) Direct reaction b) Presbyopia c) Myopia d) Consensual reaction

d) Corrective lenses Astigmatism is corrected with a cylindrical lens that has more focusing power in one access than the other. These corrective lenses can and should be worn while driving at night. Eye drops and surgery are not usual treatments for this condition.

client has been diagnosed with astigmatism. The nurse should be prepared to teach the client about which treatment for this condition? a) No night driving b) Daily use of eye drops c) Surgery d) Corrective lenses

a) Hyphema Hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber of the eye, usually caused by blunt trauma. Blepharitis is inflammation of the margin of the eyelid. Chalazion is a cyst in the eyelid. Iris nevus is a rare condition affecting one eye. The latter 3 conditions are not commonly attributed to blunt force trauma to the head as hyphema is.

client presents to the emergency department after being hit in the head with a baseball bat during a game. The nurse should assess for which condition? a) Hyphema b) Blepharitis c) Iris nevus d) Chalazion

c) She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet.

A client is assigned a visual acuity of 20/100 in her left eye. Which of the following is true? a) She can accurately name 20% of the letters at 20 feet. b) She obtains a 20% correct score at 100 feet. c) She can see at 20 feet what a normal person could see at 100 feet. d) She can see at 100 feet what a normal person could see at 20 feet.

Ask the client about previous trauma to the eyes.

A nurse assesses a client's pupils for the reaction to light and observes that the pupils are of unequal size. What should the nurse do next in relation to this finding?

a) macular degeneration macular degeneration, or loss of convergence underlie the colleague's visual changes.

A patient complains of feeling like he is slowly losing his central vision. The nurse knows this symptom could represent a) macular degeneration b) hemianopsia c) open-angle glaucoma d) retinal detachment

20/200

A patient in the clinic where you work is considered legally blind. The nurse knows that this means the vision in his better eye, corrected by glasses, is what?

consensual light response present in left eye.

The nurse notes that the pupil of a client's left eye constricts when a light is shined into the right eye. How should the nurse document this finding?

Presbyopia Prebyopia denotes an age-related deficit in close vision. It is less likely that cataracts, macular degeneration, or loss of convergence underlie the colleague's visual changes.

The nurse observes a middle-aged colleague fully extending her arm to read the label on a vial of medication. Which of the following age-related changes is the nurse likely to have observed?

entropion (entro=entering inward)

The nurse observes an inward turning of the lower lid in a 77-year-old patient. The nurse documents