Hematologic/ HIV Practice Questions

The recommended dose of filgrastim is 10 mcg / kg / Day. It is supplied at 300 mcg / ml. A patient who weighs 132 LB should receive how many ml?

2 ml nursing care of patients with hematologic and lymphatic disorders

Patient teaching regarding infection prevention for the patient with an immunodeficiency includes which of the following guidelines? A) Cook all food thoroughly. B) Refrain from using creams or emollients on skin. C) Maintain contact only with individuals who have recently been vaccinated. D) Take OTC vitamin supplements consistently.

A (Feedback: All foods must be cooked to avoid food-borne illness. The patient should avoid contact with individuals who have recently been ill or vaccinated. The nurse should apply creams and emollients to any dry, chaffed, or cracked skin. Vitamin supplements may or may not be indicated.)

Family members of an immunocompromised patient have asked the nurse why antibiotics are not being given to the patient in order to prevent infection. How should the nurse best respond? A) "Using antibiotics to prevent infections can cause the growth of drug-resistant bacteria." B) "If an antibiotic is given to prevent a bacterial infection, the patient is at risk of a viral infection." C) "Antibiotics can never prevent an infection; they can only cure an infection that is fully developed." D) "Antibiotics cannot resolve infections in people who are immunocompromised."

A (Feedback: Although prophylactic drug treatment effectively prevents some bacterial and fungal infections, it must be used with caution because it has been implicated in the emergence of resistant organisms. Use of antibiotics does not directly increase the risk of viral infections.)

A nurse is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of IVIG to a patient who has a diagnosis of severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). What medication should the nurse administer prior to initiating the infusion? A) Diphenhydramine B) Ibuprofen C) Hydromorphone D) Fentanyl

A (Feedback: Diphenhydramine and acetaminophen are administered 30 minutes prior to an IVIG infusion.)

A home health nurse is caring for a patient who has an immunodeficiency. What is the nurse's priority action to help ensure successful outcomes and a favorable prognosis? A) Encourage the patient and family to be active partners in the management of the immunodeficiency. B) Encourage the patient and family to manage the patient's activity level and activities of daily living effectively. C) Make sure that the patient and family understand the importance of monitoring fluid balance. D) Make sure that the patient and family know how to adjust dosages of the medications used in treatment.

A (Feedback: Encouraging the patient and family to be active partners in the management of the immunodeficiency is the key to successful outcomes and a favorable prognosis. This transcends the patient's activity and functional status. Medications should not be adjusted without consultation from the primary care provider. Fluid balance is not normally a central concern.)

The nurse is caring for a patient with an immunodeficiency who has experienced sudden malaise. The nurse's colleague states, "I'm pretty sure that it's not an infection, because the most recent blood work looks fine." What principle should guide the nurse's response to the colleague? A) Immunodeficient patients will usually exhibit subtle and atypical signs of infection. B) Infections in immunodeficient patients have a slower onset but a more severe course. C) Laboratory blood work is often inaccurate in immunodeficient patients. D) Immunodeficient patients do not develop symptoms of infection.

A (Feedback: Immunodeficient patients often lack the typical objective and subjective signs and symptoms of infection. However, this does not mean that they wholly lack symptoms. Infections do not normally have a slower onset. Blood work may not be a reliable diagnostic tool, but that does not mean that the results are inaccurate.)

A patient with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome is admitted to the medical unit. The nurse caring for the patient should prioritize which of the following? A) Protective isolation B) Fresh-frozen plasma administration C) Chest physiotherapy D) Nutritional supplementation

A (Feedback: Patients with Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) are at a grave risk for infection; infection prevention is a priority aspect of nursing care. Nutritional supplementation may be necessary, but infection prevention is paramount. Chest physiotherapy and FFP administration are not indicated.)

The nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria. When planning this patient's care, the nurse should recognize the patient's heightened risk of what complication? A) Venous thromboembolism B) Acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) C) Myocardial infarction D) Hypertensive urgency

A (Feedback: Patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuriahave a high incidence of life-threatening venous thrombosis, which occurs most commonly in the abdominal and cerebral veins. This health problem is not linked to ARDS, MI, or hypertensive urgency.)

A patient is admitted for the treatment of a primary immunodeficiency and intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) is ordered. What should the nurse monitor for as a potential adverse effect of IVIG administration? A) Anaphylaxis B) Hypertension C) Hypothermia D) Joint pain

A (Feedback: Potential adverse effects of an IVIG infusion include hypotension, flank pain, chills, and tightness in chest, terminating with a slightly elevated body temperature and anaphylactic reaction. Hypertension, hypothermia, and joint pain are not usual adverse effects of IVIG.)

A nurse is admitting a patient with an immunodeficiency to the medical unit. In planning the care of this patient, the nurse should assess for what common sign of immunodeficiency? A) Chronic diarrhea B) Hyperglycemia C) Rhinorrhea D) Contact dermatitis

A (Feedback: The cardinal symptoms of immunodeficiency include chronic or recurrent severe infections, infections caused by unusual organisms or organisms that are normal body flora, poor response to treatment of infections, and chronic diarrhea. Hyperglycemia, rhinorrhea, and contact dermatitis are not symptoms the patient is likely to exhibit.)

12. A patient has been diagnosed with a lymphoid stem cell defect. This patient has the potential for a problem involving which of the following? A) Plasma cells B) Neutrophils C) Red blood cells D) Platelets

A Feedback: A defect in a myeloid stem cell can cause problems with erythrocyte, leukocyte, and platelet production. In contrast, a defect in the lymphoid stem cell can cause problems with T or B lymphocytes, plasma cells (a more differentiated form of B lymphocyte), or natural killer (NK) cells.

28. A nurse at a blood donation clinic has completed the collection of blood from a woman. The woman states that she feels lightheaded and she appears visibly pale. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Help her into a sitting position with her head lowered below her knees. B) Administer supplementary oxygen by nasal prongs. C) Obtain a full set of vital signs. D) Inform a physician or other primary care provider.

A Feedback: A donor who appears pale or complains of faintness should immediately lie down or sit with the head lowered below the knees. He or she should be observed for another 30 minutes. There is no immediate need for a physicians care. Supplementary oxygen may be beneficial, but may take too much time to facilitate before a syncopal episode. Repositioning must precede assessment of vital signs.

19. A patients most recent blood work reveals low levels of albumin. This assessment finding should suggest the possibility of what nursing diagnosis? A) Risk for imbalanced fluid volume related to low albumin B) Risk for infection related to low albumin C) Ineffective tissue perfusion related to low albumin D) Impaired skin integrity related to low albumin

A Feedback: Albumin is particularly important for the maintenance of fluid balance within the vascular system. Deficiencies nearly always manifest as fluid imbalances. Tissue oxygenation and skin integrity are not normally affected. Low albumin does not constitute a risk for infection.

3. An oncology nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma who is experiencing bone destruction. When reviewing the patients most recent blood tests, the nurse should anticipate what imbalance? A) Hypercalcemia B) Hyperproteinemia C) Elevated serum viscosity D) Elevated RBC count

A Feedback: Hypercalcemia may result when bone destruction occurs due to the disease process. Elevated serum viscosity occurs because plasma cells excrete excess immunoglobulin. RBC count will be decreased. Hyperproteinemia would not be present.

9. A patient with leukemia has developed stomatitis and is experiencing a nutritional deficit. An oral anesthetic has consequently been prescribed. What health education should the nurse provide to the patient? A) Chew with care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue. B) Use the oral anesthetic 1 hour prior to meal time. C) Brush teeth before and after eating. D) Swallow slowly and deliberately.

A Feedback: If oral anesthetics are used, the patient must be warned to chew with extreme care to avoid inadvertently biting the tongue or buccal mucosa. An oral anesthetic would be metabolized by the time the patient eats if it is used 1 hour prior to meals. There is no specific need to warn the patient about brushing teeth or swallowing slowly because an oral anesthetic has been used.

2. A nurse is caring for a patient who has a diagnosis of acute leukemia. What assessment most directly addresses the most common cause of death among patients with leukemia? A) Monitoring for infection B) Monitoring nutritional status C) Monitor electrolyte levels D) Monitoring liver function

A Feedback: In patients with acute leukemia, death typically occurs from infection or bleeding. Compromised nutrition, electrolyte imbalances, and impaired liver function are all plausible, but none is among the most common causes of death in this patient population.

22. A patient has been found to have an indolent neoplasm. The nurse should recognize what implication of this condition? A) The patient faces a significant risk of malignancy. B) The patient has a myeloid form of leukemia. C) The patient has a lymphocytic form of leukemia. D) The patient has a major risk factor for hemophilia.

A Feedback: Indolent neoplasms have the potential to develop into a neoplasm, but this is not always the case. The patient does not necessary have, or go on to develop, leukemia. Indolent neoplasms are unrelated to the pathophysiology of hemophilia.

18. A patient with a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) is being treated with induction therapy on the oncology unit. What nursing action should be prioritized in the patients care plan? A) Protective isolation and vigilant use of standard precautions B) Provision of a high-calorie, low-texture diet and appropriate oral hygiene C) Including the family in planning the patients activities of daily living D) Monitoring and treating the patients pain

A Feedback: Induction therapy causes neutropenia and a severe risk of infection. This risk must be addressed directly in order to ensure the patients survival. For this reason, infection control would be prioritized over nutritional interventions, family care, and pain, even though each of these are important aspects of nursing care.

15. An older adult client is exhibiting many of the characteristic signs and symptoms of iron deficiency. In addition to a complete blood count, what diagnostic assessment should the nurse anticipate? A) Stool for occult blood B) Bone marrow biopsy C) Lumbar puncture D) Urinalysis

A Feedback: Iron deficiency in the adult generally indicates blood loss (e.g., from bleeding in the GI tract or heavy menstrual flow). Bleeding in the GI tract can be preliminarily identified by testing stool for the presence of blood. A bone marrow biopsy would not be undertaken for the sole purpose of investigating an iron deficiency. Lumbar puncture and urinalysis would not be clinically relevant.

1. An oncology nurse is providing health education for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with leukemia. What should the nurse explain about commonalities between all of the different subtypes of leukemia? A) The different leukemias all involve unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. B) The different leukemias all have unregulated proliferation of red blood cells and decreased bone marrow function. C) The different leukemias all result in a decrease in the production of white blood cells. D) The different leukemias all involve the development of cancer in the lymphatic system.

A Feedback: Leukemia commonly involves unregulated proliferation of white blood cells. Decreased production of red blood cells is associated with anemias. Decreased production of white blood cells is associated with leukopenia. The leukemias are not characterized by their involvement with the lymphatic system.

20. A 60-year-old patient with chronic myeloid leukemia will be treated in the home setting and the nurse is preparing appropriate health education. What topic should the nurse emphasize? A) The importance of adhering to the prescribed drug regimen B) The need to ensure that vaccinations are up to date C) The importance of daily physical activity D) The need to avoid shellfish and raw foods

A Feedback: Nurses need to understand that the effectiveness of the drugs used to treat CML is based on the ability of the patient to adhere to the medication regimen as prescribed. Adherence is often incomplete, thus this must be a focus of health education. Vaccinations normally would not be administered during treatment and daily physical activity may be impossible for the patient. Dietary restrictions are not normally necessary.

33. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). What nursing diagnosis should the nurse prioritize when choosing interventions? A) Risk for Ineffective Tissue Perfusion B) Risk for Imbalanced Fluid Volume C) Risk for Ineffective Breathing Pattern D) Risk for Ineffective Thermoregulation

A Feedback: Patients with ET are at risk for hypercoagulation and consequent ineffective tissue perfusion. Fluid volume, breathing, and thermoregulation are not normally affected.

26. The nurses brief review of a patients electronic health record indicates that the patient regularly undergoes therapeutic phlebotomy. Which of the following rationales for this procedure is most plausible? A) The patient may chronically produce excess red blood cells. B) The patient may frequently experience a low relative plasma volume. C) The patient may have impaired stem cell function. D) The patient may previously have undergone bone marrow biopsy

A Feedback: Persistently elevated hematocrit is an indication for therapeutic phlebotomy. It is not used to address excess or deficient plasma volume and is not related to stem cell function. Bone marrow biopsy is not an indication for therapeutic phlebotomy.

2. A man suffers a leg wound which causes minor blood loss. As a result of bleeding, the process of primary hemostasis is activated. What occurs in primary hemostasis? A) Severed blood vessels constrict. B) Thromboplastin is released. C) Prothrombin is converted to thrombin. D) Fibrin is lysed.

A Feedback: Primary hemostasis involves the severed vessel constricting and platelets collecting at the injury site. Secondary hemostasis occurs when thromboplastin is released, prothrombin converts to thrombin, and fibrin is lysed.

28. Following an extensive diagnostic workup, an older adult patient has been diagnosed with a secondary myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). What assessment question most directly addresses the potential etiology of this patients health problem? A) Were you ever exposed to toxic chemicals in any of the jobs that you held? B) When you were younger, did you tend to have recurrent infections of any kind? C) Have your parents or siblings had any disease like this? D) Would you say that youve had a lot of sun exposure in your lifetime?

A Feedback: Secondary MDS can occur at any age and results from prior toxic exposure to chemicals, including chemotherapeutic medications. Family history, sun exposure, and previous infections are unrelated to the pathophysiology of secondary MDS.

13. A nurse is caring for a patient with Hodgkin lymphoma at the oncology clinic. The nurse should be aware of what main goal of care? A) Cure of the disease B) Enhancing quality of life C) Controlling symptoms D) Palliation

A Feedback: The goal in the treatment of Hodgkin lymphoma is cure. Palliation is thus not normally necessary. Quality of life and symptom control are vital, but the overarching goal is the cure the disease.

38. The nurse is preparing to administer a unit of platelets to an adult patient. When administering this blood product, which of the following actions should the nurse perform? A) Administer the platelets as rapidly as the patient can tolerate. B) Establish IV access as soon as the platelets arrive from the blood bank. C) Ensure that the patient has a patent central venous catheter. D) Aspirate 10 to 15 mL of blood from the patients IV immediately following the transfusion.

A Feedback: The nurse should infuse each unit of platelets as fast as patient can tolerate to diminish platelet clumping during administration. IV access should be established prior to obtaining the platelets from the blood bank. A central line is appropriate for administration, but peripheral IV access (22-gauge or larger) is sufficient. There is no need to aspirate after the transfusion.

34. A patient is receiving a blood transfusion and complains of a new onset of slight dyspnea. The nurses rapid assessment reveals bilateral lung crackles and elevated BP. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Slow the infusion rate and monitor the patient closely. B) Discontinue the transfusion and begin resuscitation. C) Pause the transfusion and administer a 250 mL bolus of normal saline. D) Discontinue the transfusion and administer a beta-blocker, as ordered

A Feedback: The patient is showing early signs of hypervolemia; the nurse should slow the infusion rate and assess the patient closely for any signs of exacerbation. At this stage, discontinuing the transfusion is not necessary. A bolus would worsen the patients fluid overload.

The nurse is caring for a patient scheduled for tests to confirm the diagnosis of lymphoma. For which diagnostic test should the nurse prepare the patient? Select all that apply. A CT scan B cerebral angiogram C lymph node biopsy D lymph angiography E complete blood count

A CT scan C lymph node biopsy D lymphangiography E complete blood count

During a home visit , the nurse becomes concerned that a child is developing idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. which health problems could have precipitated the development of this disorder in the child? Select all that apply. A HIV B rubella C hepatitis C D chickenpox E cystic fibrosis

A HIV B rubella C hepatitis C D chickenpox

The nurse is assisting in the development of a care plan for a patient with anemia. Which nursing diagnosis is most common in a patient with anemia? A. Activity intolerance related to tissue hypoxia B. ineffective airway clearance related to dyspnea C. chronic pain related to bone marrow dysfunction D. risk for infection related to reduction in circulating WBC's

A activity intolerance related to tissue hypoxia

The nurse is collecting information about sickle cell disease for an upcoming seminar. What should the nurse include as common triggers for a sickle cell crisis? Select all that apply. a anesthesia B chemotherapy C severe infection D strenuous exercise E use of nasal oxygen F blood loss during surgery

A anesthesia C severe infection D strenuous exercise F blood loss during surgery

The nurse is caring for a patient with a bleeding disorder. Which medication order should the nurse question? A aspirin B morphine C dioxin D. Thyroid hormone

A aspirin

A patient with multiple myeloma is at risk for hypercalcemia. which nursing intervention is most important for the patient with hypercalcemia? A encourage fluids B offer citrus juices and fruits C place the patient on a low sodium diet D discourage intake of alcoholic beverages

A encourage fluids

The nurse is caring for a patient with PV. which laboratory study should the nurse monitor to help evaluate the effectiveness of treatment for this patient? A hematocrit B total protein C. blood urea nitrogen D WBC differential

A hematocrit

A patient is diagnosed with anemia and ask the nurse what nutrients are important for RBC formation. The nurse bases in the answer on the understanding that which nutrients are essential for production of healthy red cells? A. iron, folic acid, and vitamin b12 B. vitamin C, vitamin D, and selenium C. vitamin A, calcium, and phosphorus D. aluminum, vitamin E, and beta carotene

A iron, folic acid, and vitamin b12

A nurse is assisting with data collection on a newly admitted patient with a history of hemophilia. Which assessment finding indicates that the patient has experienced some severe episodes of bleeding in the past? A joint deformities B distended abdomen C ecchymosis on the extremities D elevated WBC count

A joint deformities

A patient who has had a splenectomy complains of malaise. The nurse checks the patient's temperature and finds it is a hundred and two degrees Fahrenheit. Which action by the nurse should take priority? A notify the physician B encourage fluids to reduce fever and prevent dehydration C administer acetaminophen to reduce fever and relieve discomfort D explain to the patient the low grade fevers are common after splenectomy because the spleen is part of the immune system

A notify the physician

A comatose patient is admitted to the emergency department after an automobile accident. The nurse notes a medic alert identification bracelet that states the patient has hemophilia. What should the nurse do first? A notify the physician of the bracelets B tape the bracelet to the patient's arm C call the phone number on the bracelet D remove the bracelet and give it to the patient's family member

A notify the position of the bracelets

The nurse is caring for a patient with a bleeding disorder. Which manifestation might First Alert the nurse to the possibility of disseminated intravascular coagulation? A petechiae B. Absence of pulses in extremities C. Weakness or paralysis on one side D. Increasing blood pressure and pulse

A petechiae

The nurse is preparing to provide care to a patient recovering from surgery. What nursing action is the best way to prevent infection in a post operative patient? A practice good hand washing B encouraged two liters of fluid daily C. Change wound dressing daily D. Assess vital signs every 4 hours

A practice good hand washing

The nurse is assessing a patient with a bleeding disorder and finds large purplish areas in the skin and oral mucosa. Which term should the nurse use to document this finding? A purpura B bleeding C petechiae D. Hemorrhage

A purpura

During a home visit, the nurse becomes concerned that a patient recovering from us play next to me is at risk for infection. What did the nurse observe to come to this conclusion? Select all that apply. A received a manicure and pedicure B wash hands before preparing lunch C poured a cup of tea after petting the cat D had a hot tub installed on the back patio E planting tomato plants in an outside garden

A received a manicure and pedicure C poured a cup of tea after petting the cat D had a hot tub installed on the back patio E planting planting tomato plants in an outside garden

A patient with multiple myeloma is being cared for at home. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the nurse when teaching the family how to provide care for the patient? A risk for injury related to compromised bone integrity B ineffective tissue perfusion related to vascular occlusion C risk for deficient fluid volume related to bleeding disorder D ineffective airway clearance related to cervical lymphadenopathy

A risk for injury related to compromised bone integrity

The nurse is providing education to an individual with sickle cell anemia. Which activities should the nurse instruct the patient to avoid? Select all that apply. A scuba diving B contact sports C sexual activity D long distance driving E. Skiing in the mountains F standing for long periods

A scuba diving E skiing in the mountains

A patient is diagnosed with a folic acid deficiency. On what dietary changes should the nurse instructed the patient? Select all that apply. A snack on peanuts B eat breads fortified with folic acid C add green leafy vegetables to meals D increase the intake of milk each day E prepare soups with a dried peas and beans

A snack on peanuts B eat bread fortified with folic acid Tea and green leafy vegetables to meals E prepare soups with dried peas and beans

The nurse is emptying the bedside commode of a patient with chronic leukemia and notes that the stool is very dark. Which assumption should guide the nurse's action? A the patient may be bleeding Be the patient may be dehydrated C the patient is most likely on iron supplements D the patient ate something that turned the stool dark color

A the patient may be bleeding

The nurse is preparing teaching for patient with Hodgkin's disease. Which beverage should the nurse instruct this patient to avoid? A wine B coffee C ginger ale D orange juice

A wine

A patient with terminal lymphoma says to the nurse, I'm tired of being so fatigued all the time. Can't you just give me a big shot of morphine and help me to end the suffering? Which response by the nurse is most appropriate? A you sound frustrated. It must be difficult to feel so tired all the time. B are you sure that is what you want me to do? Maybe you should think about it first. C that is really not appropriate to ask. Would you like a shot just to take away the pain? D you have orders for morphine 10 to 15 mg. I don't think that's enough to end your suffering.

A you sound frustrated. It must be difficult to feel so tired all the time

35. A nurse is writing the care plan of a patient who has been diagnosed with myelofibrosis. What nursing diagnoses should the nurse address? Select all that apply. A) Disturbed Body Image B) Impaired Mobility C) Imbalanced Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements D) Acute Confusion E) Risk for Infection

A, B, C, E Feedback: The profound splenomegaly that accompanies myelofibrosis can impact the patients body image and mobility. As well, nutritional deficits are common and the patient is at risk for infection. Cognitive effects are less common.

25. An oncology nurse recognizes a patients risk for fluid imbalance while the patient is undergoing treatment for leukemia. What relevant assessments should the nurse include in the patients plan of care? Select all that apply. A) Monitoring the patients electrolyte levels B) Monitoring the patients hepatic function C) Measuring the patients weight on a daily basis D) Measuring and recording the patients intake and output E) Auscultating the patients lungs frequently

A, C, D, E Feedback: Assessments that relate to fluid balance include monitoring the patients electrolytes, auscultating the patients chest for adventitious sounds, weighing the patient daily, and closely monitoring intake and output. Liver function is not directly relevant to the patients fluid status in most cases.

9. Through the process of hematopoiesis, stem cells differentiate into either myeloid or lymphoid stem cells. Into what do myeloid stem cells further differentiate? Select all that apply. A) Leukocytes B) Natural killer cells C) Cytokines D) Platelets E) Erythrocytes

A, D, E Feedback: Myeloid stem cells differentiate into three broad cell types: erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. Natural killer cells and cytokines do not originate as myeloid stem cells.

The nurse is applying standard precautions in the care of a patient who has an immunodeficiency. What are key elements of standard precautions? Select all that apply. A) Using appropriate personal protective equipment B) Placing patients in negative-pressure isolation rooms C) Placing patients in positive-pressure isolation rooms D) Using safe injection practices E) Performing hand hygiene

A,D,E (Feedback: Some of the key elements of standard precautions include performing hand hygiene; using appropriate personal protective equipment, depending on the expected type of exposure; and using safe injection practices. Isolation is an infection control strategy but is not a component of standard precautions.)

A patient with iron deficiency anemia has been taking oral iron supplements. Which test should the nurse review to determine the effectiveness of this intervention? A. hemoglobin and hematocrit B. WBC and platelet counts C. electrolytes, blood urea nitrogen, and creatinine D. thrombin clotting time and pro thrombin time

A. Hemoglobin and hematocrit

A patient diagnosed with common variable immune deficiency (CVID) has been admitted to the acute medicine unit. When reviewing this patient's laboratory findings, the nurse should prioritize what values? A) Creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) B) Hemoglobin and vitamin B12 C) Sodium, potassium and magnesium D) D-dimer and c-reactive protein

B (Feedback: A patient diagnosed with CVID often develops pernicious anemia; the patient's hemoglobin and vitamin B12 levels would be used to assess for this common complication of CVID. None of the other listed blood values directly relates to the signs and complications of CVID.)

The nurse is admitting a patient to the unit with a diagnosis of ataxia-telangiectasia. The nurse's assessment should reflect the patient's increased risk for what complication? A) Peripheral edema B) Cancer C) Anaphylaxis D) Gastrointestinal bleeds

B (Feedback: Frequent causes of death in patients with ataxia-telangiectasiaare chronic pulmonary disease and malignancy. Peripheral edema, anaphylaxis, and GI bleeding are not noted to be common among patients with ataxia-telangiectasia.)

A nurse is caring for a patient with a phagocytic cell disorder. The patient states, "My specialist says that I will likely be cured after I get my treatment tomorrow." To what treatment is the patient most likely referring? A) Treatment with granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) B) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation C) Treatment with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) D) Brachytherapy

B (Feedback: Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT), another form of cell therapy, has proven to be a successful curative modality. Treatment with GM-CSF or G-CSF is not curative. Brachytherapy is not a treatment for immunodeficiency.)

A 20-year-old patient with an immunodeficiency is admitted to the unit with an acute episode of upper airway edema. This is the fifth time in the past 3 months that the patient has had such as episode. As the nurse caring for this patient, you know that the patient may have a deficiency of what? A) Interferons B) C1esterase inhibitor C) IgG D) IgA

B (Feedback: Hereditary angioneurotic edema results from the deficiency of C1esterase inhibitor, which opposes the release of inflammatory mediators. The clinical picture of this autosomal dominant disorder includes recurrent attacks of edema. A patient with this diagnosis does not lack interferons, IgG, or IgA.)

A nurse is caring for a patient who has an immunodeficiency. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to consider the possibility that the patient is developing an infection? A) Uncharacteristic aggression B) Persistent diarrhea C) Pruritis (itching) D) Constipation

B (Feedback: Persistent diarrhea is among the varied signs and symptoms that may suggest infection in an immunocompromised patient. Aggression, pruritis, and constipation are less suggestive of an infectious etiology.)

A nurse has created a plan of care for an immunodeficient patient, specifying that care providers take the patient's pulse and respiratory rate for a full minute. What is the rationale for this aspect of care? A) Respirations affect heart rate in immunodeficient patients. B) These patients' blunted inflammatory responses can cause subtle changes in status. C) Hemodynamic instability is one of the main complications of immunodeficiency. D) Immunodeficient patients are prone to ventricular tachycardia and atrial fibrillation.

B (Feedback: Pulse rate and respiratory rate should be counted for a full minute, because subtle changes can signal deterioration in the patient's clinical status. The rationale for this action is not because of the relationship between heart rate and respirations. These patients do not have a greatly increased risk of hemodynamic instability or dysrhythmias.)

A nurse has admitted a patient diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) to the unit. The patient's orders include IVIG. How will the patient's dose of IVIG be determined? A) The patient will receive 25 to 50 mg/kg of body weight. B) The dose will be determined by the patient's response. C) The dose will be determined by body surface area. D) The patient will receive a one-time bolus followed by 100- to 150-mg doses.

B (Feedback: The optimal dosage of IVIG is determined by the patient's response. In most instances, an IV dose of 200 to 800 mg/kg of body weight is administered.)

A nurse is preparing to discharge a patient with an immunodeficiency. When preparing the patient for self-infusion of IVIG in the home setting, what education should the nurse prioritize? A) Sterile technique for establishing a new IV site B) Signs and symptoms of adverse reactions C) Formulas for calculating daily doses D) Technique for adding medications to the IVIG

B (Feedback: The patient who is to receive IVIG at home will need information about adverse reactions and their management. A patient would not start a new IV site independently and the patient does not calculate changes in dose independently. Medications are not added to IVIG.)

A young couple visits the nurse practitioner stating that they want to start a family. The husband states that his brother died of a severe infection at age 6 months. He says he never knew what was wrong but his mother had him undergo "blood testing" as a child. Based on these statements, what health problem should the nurse practitioner suspect? A) Severe neutropenia B) X-linked agammaglobulinemia C) Drug-induced thrombocytopenia D) Aplastic anemia

B (Feedback: There is no evidence of drug-induced thrombocytopenia or aplastic anemia. The child would have only suffered from severe neutropenia if there was evidence of bacterial or fungal infections. The fact the mother of this individual had him tested for gamma-globulin as a child would indicate that his sibling had X-linked agammaglobulinemia. More than 10% of patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia are hospitalized for infection at less than 6 months of age. Since the condition is X-linked it is important for the couple to undergo genetic testing.)

40. A patients electronic health record states that the patient receives regular transfusions of factor IX. The nurse would be justified in suspecting that this patient has what diagnosis? A) Leukemia B) Hemophilia C) Hypoproliferative anemia D) Hodgkins lymphoma

B Feedback: Administration of clotting factors is used to treat diseases where these factors are absent or insufficient; hemophilia is among the most common of these diseases. Factor IX is not used in the treatment of leukemia, lymphoma, or anemia.

25. A patient is scheduled for a splenectomy. During discharge education, what teaching point should the nurse prioritize? A) The importance of adhering to prescribed immunosuppressant therapy B) The need to report any signs or symptoms of infection promptly C) The need to ensure adequate folic acid, iron, and vitamin B12 intake D) The importance of limiting activity postoperatively to prevent hemorrhage

B Feedback: After splenectomy, the patient is instructed to seek prompt medical attention if even relatively minor symptoms of infection occur. Often, patients with high platelet counts have even higher counts after splenectomy, which can predispose them to serious thrombotic or hemorrhagic problems. However, this increase is usually transient and therefore often does not warrant additional treatment. Dietary modifications are not normally necessary and immunosuppressants would be strongly contraindicated.

32. A patient is being treated in the ICU after a medical error resulted in an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction. What was the etiology of this patients adverse reaction? A) Antibodies to donor leukocytes remained in the blood. B) The donor blood was incompatible with that of the patient. C) The patient had a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein in the blood. D) The blood was infused too quickly and overwhelmed the patients circulatory system.

B Feedback: An acute hemolytic reaction occurs when the donor blood is incompatible with that of the recipient. In the case of a febrile nonhemolytic reaction, antibodies to donor leukocytes remain in the unit of blood or blood component. An allergic reaction is a sensitivity reaction to a plasma protein within the blood component. Hypervolemia does not cause an acute hemolytic reaction.

21. An older adult patient is undergoing diagnostic testing for chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL). What assessment finding is certain to be present if the patient has CLL? A) Increased numbers of blast cells B) Increased lymphocyte levels C) Intractable bone pain D) Thrombocytopenia with no evidence of bleeding

B Feedback: An increased lymphocyte count (lymphocytosis) is always present in patients with CLL. Each of the other listed symptoms may or may not be present, and none is definitive for CLL.

30. A nurse is preparing health education for a patient who has received a diagnosis of myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS). Which of the following topics should the nurse prioritize? A) Techniques for energy conservation and activity management B) Emergency management of bleeding episodes C) Technique for the administration of bronchodilators by metered-dose inhaler D) Techniques for self-palpation of the lymph nodes

B Feedback: Because of patients risks of hemorrhage, patients with MDS should be taught techniques for managing emergent bleeding episodes. Bronchodilators are not indicated for the treatment of MDS and lymphedema is not normally associated with the disease. Energy conservation techniques are likely to be useful, but management of hemorrhage is a priority because of the potential consequences.

30. A patient on the medical unit is receiving a unit of PRBCs. Difficult IV access has necessitated a slow infusion rate and the nurse notes that the infusion began 4 hours ago. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Apply an icepack to the blood that remains to be infused. B) Discontinue the remainder of the PRBC transfusion and inform the physician. C) Disconnect the bag of PRBCs, cool for 30 minutes and then administer. D) Administer the remaining PRBCs by the IV direct (IV push) route

B Feedback: Because of the risk of infection, a PRBC transfusion should not exceed 4 hours. Remaining blood should not be transfused, even if it is cooled. Blood is not administered by the IV direct route.

16. A patient is being treated for the effects of a longstanding vitamin B12 deficiency. What aspect of the patients health history would most likely predispose her to this deficiency? A) The patient has irregular menstrual periods. B) The patient is a vegan. C) The patient donated blood 60 days ago. D) The patient frequently smokes marijuana

B Feedback: Because vitamin B12 is found only in foods of animal origin, strict vegetarians may ingest little vitamin B12. Irregular menstrual periods, marijuana use, and blood donation would not precipitate a vitamin B12 deficiency.

21. The nurse is providing care for an older adult who has a hematologic disorder. What age-related change in hematologic function should the nurse integrate into care planning? A) Bone marrow in older adults produces a smaller proportion of healthy, functional blood cells. B) Older adults are less able to increase blood cell production when demand suddenly increases. C) Stem cells in older adults eventually lose their ability to differentiate. D) The ratio of plasma to erythrocytes and lymphocytes increases with age.

B Feedback: Due to a variety of factors, when an older person needs more blood cells, the bone marrow may not be able to increase production of these cells adequately. Stem cell activity continues throughout the lifespan, although at a somewhat decreased rate. The proportion of functional cells does not greatly decrease and the relative volume of plasma does not change significantly.

20. An individual has accidentally cut his hand, immediately initiating the process of hemostasis. Following vasoconstriction, what event in the process of hemostasis will take place? A) Fibrin will be activated at the bleeding site. B) Platelets will aggregate at the injury site. C) Thromboplastin will form a clot. D) Prothrombin will be converted to thrombin.

B Feedback: Following vasoconstriction, circulating platelets aggregate at the site and adhere to the vessel and to one another, forming an unstable hemostatic plug. Events involved in the clotting cascade take place subsequent to this initial platelet action.

27. A nurse has participated in organizing a blood donation drive at a local community center. Which of the following individuals would most likely be disallowed from donating blood? A) A man who is 81 years of age B) A woman whose blood pressure is 88/51 mm Hg C) A man who donated blood 4 months ago D) A woman who has type 1 diabetes

B Feedback: For potential blood donors, systolic arterial BP should be 90 to 180 mm Hg, and the diastolic pressure should be 50 to 100 mm Hg. There is no absolute upper age limit. Donation 4 months ago does not preclude safe repeat donation and diabetes is not a contraindication.

22. A clients health history reveals daily consumption of two to three bottles of wine. The nurse should plan assessments and interventions in light of the patients increased risk for what hematologic disorder? A) Leukemia B) Anemia C) Thrombocytopenia D) Lymphoma

B Feedback: Heavy alcohol use is associated with numerous health problems, including anemia. Leukemia and lymphoma are not associated with alcohol use; RBC levels are typically affected more than platelet levels.

15. An adult patient has presented to the health clinic with a complaint of a firm, painless cervical lymph node. The patient denies any recent infectious diseases. What is the nurses most appropriate response to the patients complaint? A) Call 911. B) Promptly refer the patient for medical assessment. C) Facilitate a radiograph of the patients neck and have the results forwarded to the patients primary care provider. D) Encourage the patient to track the size of the lymph node and seek care in 1 week.

B Feedback: Hodgkin lymphoma usually begins as an enlargement of one or more lymph nodes on one side of the neck. The individual nodes are painless and firm but not hard. Prompt medical assessment is necessary if a patient has this presentation. However, there is no acute need to call 911.

6. A nursing student is caring for a patient with acute myeloid leukemia who is preparing to undergo induction therapy. In preparing a plan of care for this patient, the student should assign the highest priority to which nursing diagnoses? A) Activity Intolerance B) Risk for Infection C) Acute Confusion D) Risk for Spiritual Distress

B Feedback: Induction therapy places the patient at risk for infection, thus this is the priority nursing diagnosis. During the time of induction therapy, the patient is very ill, with bacterial, fungal, and occasional viral infections; bleeding and severe mucositis, which causes diarrhea; and marked decline in the ability to maintain adequate nutrition. Supportive care consists of administering blood products and promptly treating infections. Immobility, confusion, and spiritual distress are possible, but infection is the patients most acute physiologic threat.

16. A nurse practitioner is assessing a patient who has a fever, malaise, and a white blood cell count that is elevated. Which of the following principles should guide the nurses management of the patients care? A) There is a need for the patient to be assessed for lymphoma. B) Infection is the most likely cause of the patients change in health status. C) The patient is exhibiting signs and symptoms of leukemia. D) The patient should undergo diagnostic testing for multiple myeloma

B Feedback: Leukocytosis is most often the result of infection. It is only considered pathologic (and suggestive of leukemia) if it is persistent and extreme. Multiple myeloma and lymphoma are not likely causes of this constellation of symptoms.

13. The nurse is describing normal RBC physiology to a patient who has a diagnosis of anemia. The nurse should explain that the RBCs consist primarily of which of the following? A) Plasminogen B) Hemoglobin C) Hematocrit D) Fibrin

B Feedback: Mature erythrocytes consist primarily of hemoglobin, which contains iron and makes up 95% of the cell mass. RBCs are not made of fibrin or plasminogen. Hematocrit is a measure of RBC volume in whole blood.

10. A patient diagnosed with acute myelogenous leukemia has just been admitted to the oncology unit. When writing this patients care plan, what potential complication should the nurse address? A) Pancreatitis B) Hemorrhage C) Arteritis D) Liver dysfunction

B Feedback: Pancreatitis, arteritis, and liver dysfunction are generally not complications of leukemia. However, the patient faces a high risk of hemorrhage.

7. The nurse is describing the role of plasminogen in the clotting cascade. Where in the body is plasminogen present? A) Myocardial muscle tissue B) All body fluids C) Cerebral tissue D) Venous and arterial vessel walls

B Feedback: Plasminogen, which is present in all body fluids, circulates with fibrinogen. Plasminogen is found in body fluids, not tissue.

39. A patient has a diagnosis of multiple myeloma and the nurse is preparing health education in preparation for discharge from the hospital. What action should the nurse promote? A) Daily performance of weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy B) Close monitoring of urine output and kidney function C) Daily administration of warfarin (Coumadin) as ordered D) Safe use of supplementary oxygen in the home setting

B Feedback: Renal function must be monitored closely in the patient with multiple myeloma. Excessive weight-bearing can cause pathologic fractures. There is no direct indication for anticoagulation or supplementary oxygen

24. A patient who is undergoing consolidation therapy for the treatment of leukemia has been experiencing debilitating fatigue. How can the nurse best meet this patients needs for physical activity? A) Teach the patient about the risks of immobility and the benefits of exercise. B) Assist the patient to a chair during awake times, as tolerated. C) Collaborate with the physical therapist to arrange for stair exercises. D) Teach the patient to perform deep breathing and coughing exercises

B Feedback: Sitting is a chair is preferable to bed rest, even if a patient is experiencing severe fatigue. A patient who has debilitating fatigue would not likely be able to perform stair exercises. Teaching about mobility may be necessary, but education must be followed by interventions that actually involve mobility. Deep breathing and coughing reduce the risk of respiratory complications but are not substitutes for physical mobility in preventing deconditioning.

36. A patient is receiving the first of two ordered units of PRBCs. Shortly after the initiation of the transfusion, the patient complains of chills and experiences a sharp increase in temperature. What is the nurses priority action? A) Position the patient in high Fowlers. B) Discontinue the transfusion. C) Auscultate the patients lungs. D) Obtain a blood specimen from the patient.

B Feedback: Stopping the transfusion is the first step in any suspected transfusion reaction. This must precede other assessments and interventions, including repositioning, chest auscultation, and collecting specimens.

36. An adult patients abnormal complete blood count (CBC) and physical assessment have prompted the primary care provider to order a diagnostic workup for Hodgkin lymphoma. The presence of what assessment finding is considered diagnostic of the disease? A) Schwann cells B) Reed-Sternberg cells C) Lewy bodies D) Loops of Henle

B Feedback: The malignant cell of Hodgkin lymphoma is the Reed-Sternberg cell, a gigantic tumor cell that is morphologically unique and thought to be of immature lymphoid origin. It is the pathologic hallmark and essential diagnostic criterion. Schwann cells exist in the peripheral nervous system and Lewy bodies are markers of Parkinson disease. Loops of Henle exist in nephrons.

19. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurses most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoseson the patients sacral area and petechiae in her forearms. In addition to informing the patients primary care provider, the nurse should perform what action? A) Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE). B) Check the patients most recent platelet level. C) Place the patient on protective isolation. D) Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

B Feedback: The patients signs are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, thus the nurse should check the patients most recent platelet level. VTE is not a risk and this does not constitute a need for isolation. Ambulation and activity may be contraindicated due to the risk of bleeding.

11. A patient undergoing a hip replacement has autologous blood on standby if a transfusion is needed. What is the primary advantage of autologous transfusions? A) Safe transfusion for patients with a history of transfusion reactions B) Prevention of viral infections from another persons blood C) Avoidance of complications in patients with alloantibodies D) Prevention of alloimmunization

B Feedback: The primary advantage of autologous transfusions is the prevention of viral infections from another persons blood. Other secondary advantages include safe transfusion for patients with a history of transfusion reactions, prevention of alloimmunization, and avoidance of complications in patients with alloantibodies.

6. The nurse caring for a patient receiving a transfusion notes that 15 minutes after the infusion of packed red blood cells (PRBCs) has begun, the patient is having difficulty breathing and complains of severe chest tightness. What is the most appropriate initial action for the nurse to take? A) Notify the patients physician. B) Stop the transfusion immediately. C) Remove the patients IV access. D) Assess the patients chest sounds and vital signs.

B Feedback: Vascular collapse, bronchospasm, laryngeal edema, shock, fever, chills, and jugular vein distension are severe reactions. The nurse should discontinue the transfusion immediately, monitor the patients vital signs, and notify the physician. The blood container and tubing should be sent to the blood bank. A blood and urine specimen may be needed if a transfusion reaction or a bacterial infection is suspected. The patients IV access should not be removed.

A 6-month-old infant has been diagnosed with X-linked agammaglobulinemia and the parents do not understand why their baby did not develop an infection during the first months of life. The nurse should describe what phenomenon? A) Cell-mediated immunity in infants B) Passive acquired immunity C) Phagocytosis D) Opsonization

B (Feedback: Infants with X-linked agammaglobulinemia usually become symptomatic after the natural loss of maternally transmitted immunoglobulins (passive acquired immunity), which occurs at about 5 to 6 months of age. Opsonization is the coating of antigen-antibody molecules with a sticky substance to facilitate phagocytosis. Cell-mediated immunity and phagocytosis do not directly affect the timeline of the infant's symptoms.)

The nurse is teaching a patient with sickle cell anemia how to prevent crises. Which foods should the nurse teach the patient to avoid? A citrus fruits B alcoholic beverages C. Chocolates and colas D. whole grain products

B alcoholic beverages

The nurse is caring for a patient with thrombocytopenia. which activity should be avoided? A. ambulation V. intramuscular injections B. visits from family members D. eating fresh fruits and vegetables

B intramuscular injections

The nurse respects a patient is experiencing manifestations of Hodgkin's disease. Which are characteristics of this health disorder? Select all that apply. A visual changes occur B it is the most curable of all lymphomas C skeletal pain is a common symptom D it is distinguished by the presence of Reed Sternberg cells E painless swelling of cervical, axillary, or inguinal nodes occurs F it is distinguished by the presence of Philadelphia chromosome

B it is the most curable of all lymphomas D it is distinguished by the presence of Reed Sternberg cells E painless swelling of cervical, axillary, or inguinal nodes occurs

The nurse is collaborating on discharge teaching needed for a patient recovering from a splenectomy. What follow up care is most important for the nurse to emphasize with this patient? A monthly coagulation studies B nearly influenza vaccination C. Oral analgesics for pain control D routine transfusion of packed RBCs to prevent anemia

B yearly influenza vaccination

A patient has been admitted with a phagocytic cell disorder and the nurse is reviewing the most common health problems that accompany these disorders. The nurse should identify which of the following? Select all that apply. A) Inflammatory bowel disease B) Chronic otitis media C) Cutaneous abscesses D) Pneumonia E) Cognitive deficits

B,C,D (Feedback: Patients with phagocytic cell disorders experience recurrent cutaneous abscesses, chronic eczema, bronchitis, pneumonia, chronic otitis media, and sinusitis. Irritable bowel syndrome and cognitive deficits are atypical.)

A nurse is admitting an adolescent patient with a diagnosis of ataxia-telangiectasis. Which of the following nursing diagnoses should the nurse include in the patient's plan of care? A) Fatigue Related to Pernicious Anemia B) Risk for Constipation Related to Decreased Gastric Motility C) Risk for Falls Due to Loss of Muscle Coordination D) Disturbed Kinesthetic Sensory Perception Related to Vascular Changes

C (Feedback: Ataxia-telangiectasia is an autosomal recessive neurodegenerative disorder characterized by cerebellar ataxia (loss of muscle coordination), telangiectasia (vascular lesions caused by dilated blood vessels), and immune deficiency. Decreased coordination is likely to constitute a risk for falls. The patient does not characteristically lose tactile sensation or experience pernicious anemia or constipation.)

A nurse caring for a patient who has an immunosuppressive disorder knows that continual monitoring of the patient is critical. What is the primary rationale behind the need for continual monitoring? A) So that the patient's functional needs can be met immediately B) So that medications can be given as ordered and signs of adverse reactions noted C) So that early signs of impending infection can be detected and treated D) So that the nurse's documentation can be thorough and accurate

C (Feedback: Continual monitoring of the patient's condition is critical, so that early signs of impending infection may be detected and treated before they seriously compromise the patient's status. Continual monitoring is not primarily motivated by the patient's functional needs or medication schedule. The nurse's documentation is important, but less than infection control.)

A patient with a diagnosis of primary immunodeficiency informs the nurse that he has been experiencing a new onset of a dry cough and occasional shortness of breath. After determining that the patient's vital signs are within reference ranges, what action should the nurse take? A) Administer a nebulized bronchodilator. B) Perform oral suctioning. C) Assess the patient for signs and symptoms of infection. D) Teach the patient deep breathing and coughing exercises.

C (Feedback: Dyspnea and cough are among the many signs and symptoms that may suggest infection in an immunocompromised patient. There is no indication for suctioning or the use of nebulizers. Deep breathing and coughing exercises do not address the patient's complaints or the likely etiology.)

A patient with a diagnosis of common variable immunodeficiency begins to develop thick, sticky, tenacious sputum. The patient has a history of episodes of pneumonia at least one time per year for the last 10 years. What does the nurse suspect the patient is developing? A) Pulmonary edema B) A pulmonary neoplasm C) Bronchiectasis D) Emphysema

C (Feedback: Frequent respiratory tract infections in patients with CVID typically lead to chronic progressive bronchiectasis and pulmonary failure. Pulmonary edema is often a result of vascular insufficiency. A patient suffering from CVID is likely to develop gastric cancer, not lung cancer. The patient is not at risk for emphysema.)

A patient's primary immunodeficiency disease is characterized by the inability of white blood cells to initiate an inflammatory response to infectious organisms. What is this patient's most likely diagnosis? A) Chronic granulomatous disease B) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome C) Hyperimmunoglobulinemia E syndrome D) Common variable immunodeficiency

C (Feedback: In one rare type of phagocytic disorder, hyperimmunoglobulinemia E syndrome (formerly known as Job syndrome), white blood cells cannot initiate an inflammatory response to infectious organisms. The other listed health problems do not have this pathology.)

A teenager is diagnosed with cellulitis of the right knee and fails to respond to oral antibiotics. He then develops osteomyelitis of the right knee, prompting a detailed diagnostic workup that reveals a phagocytic disorder. This patient faces an increased risk of what complication? A) Thrombocytopenia B) HIV/AIDS C) Neutropenia D) Hemophilia

C (Feedback: Patients with phagocytic cell disorders may develop severe neutropenia. None of the other listed health problems is a common complication of phagocytic disorders.)

The nurse educator is differentiating primary immunodeficiency diseases from secondary immunodeficiencies. What is the defining characteristic of primary immunodeficiency diseases? A) They require IVIG as treatment. B) They are the result of intrauterine infection. C) They have a genetic origin. D) They are communicable.

C (Feedback: Primary immunodeficiency diseases are genetic in origin and result from intrinsic defects in the cells of the immune system. Primary immunodeficiency diseases do not always need IVIG as treatment, and they are not communicable. Primary immunodeficiencies do not result from intrauterine infection.)

An immunocompromised patient is being treated in the hospital. The nurse's assessment reveals that the patient's submandibular lymph nodes are swollen, a finding that represents a change from the previous day. What is the nurse's most appropriate action? A) Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen as ordered. B) Monitor the patient's vital signs q2h for the next 24 hours. C) Inform the patient's primary care provider of this finding. D) Implement standard precautions in the patient's care.

C (Feedback: Swollen lymph nodes are suggestive of infection and warrant prompt medical assessment and treatment. Acetaminophen is an ineffective response. The nurse should monitor the patient's vital signs closely, but the physician should also be informed. Standard precautions should be in place regardless of the patient's status.)

A home health nurse will soon begin administering IVIG to a new patient on a regular basis. What teaching should the nurse provide to the patient? A) The need for a sterile home environment B) Complementary alternatives to IVIG C) Expected benefits and outcomes of the treatment D) Technique for managing and monitoring daily fluid intake

C (Feedback: The patient who is to receive IVIG at home will need information about the expected benefits and outcomes of the treatment as well as expected adverse reactions and their management. The home environment cannot be sterile and complementary alternatives to IVIG have not been identified. Fluid management is not a central concern.)

The nurse is working with the interdisciplinary team to care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). What treatment is likely of most benefit to this patient? A) Combined radiotherapy and chemotherapy B) Antibiotic therapy C) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation (HSCT) D) Treatment with colony-stimulating factors (CSFs)

C (Feedback: Treatment options for SCID include stem cell and bone marrow transplantation, but HSCT is the definitive therapy for the disease and supersedes the importance of antibiotics. CSFs, radiation therapy, and chemotherapy are not indicated.)

39. Which of the following circumstances would most clearly warrant autologous blood donation? A) The patient has type-O blood. B) The patient has sickle cell disease or a thalassemia. C) The patient has elective surgery pending. D) The patient has hepatitis C.

C Feedback: Autologous blood donation is useful for many elective surgeries where the potential need for transfusion is high. Type-O blood, hepatitis, sickle cell disease, and thalassemia are not clear indications for autologous donation.

11. An emergency department nurse is triaging a 77-year-old man who presents with uncharacteristic fatigue as well as back and rib pain. The patient denies any recent injuries. The nurse should recognize the need for this patient to be assessed for what health problem? A) Hodgkin disease B) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma C) Multiple myeloma D) Acute thrombocythemia

C Feedback: Back pain, which is often a presenting symptom in multiple myeloma, should be closely investigated in older patients. The lymphomas and bleeding disorders do not typically present with the primary symptom of back pain or rib pain.

29. A patient with a myelodysplastic syndrome is being treated on the medical unit. What assessment finding should prompt the nurse to contact the patients primary care provider? A) The patient is experiencing a frontal lobe headache. B) The patient has an episode of urinary incontinence. C) The patient has an oral temperature of 37.5C (99.5F). D) The patients SpO2 is 91% on room air.

C Feedback: Because the patient with MDS is at a high risk for infection, any early signs of infection must be reported promptly. The nurse should address each of the listed assessment findings, but none is as direct a threat to the patients immediate health as an infection.

1. A patient with a hematologic disorder asks the nurse how the body forms blood cells. The nurse should describe a process that takes place where? A) In the spleen B) In the kidneys C) In the bone marrow D) In the liver

C Feedback: Bone marrow is the primary site for hematopoiesis. The liver and spleen may be involved during embryonic development or when marrow is destroyed. The kidneys release erythropoietin, which stimulates the marrow to increase production of red blood cells (RBCs). However, blood cells are not primarily formed in the spleen, kidneys, or liver.

4. A nurse is planning the care of a patient who has been admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of multiple myeloma. In the patients care plan, the nurse has identified a diagnosis of Risk for Injury. What pathophysiologic effect of multiple myeloma most contributes to this risk? A) Labyrinthitis B) Left ventricular hypertrophy C) Decreased bone density D) Hypercoagulation

C Feedback: Clients with multiple myeloma are at risk for pathologic bone fractures secondary to diffuse osteoporosis and osteolytic lesions. Labyrinthitis is uncharacteristic, and patients do not normally experience hypercoagulation or cardiac hypertrophy.

23. A nurse is caring for a patient who is being treated for leukemia in the hospital. The patient was able to maintain her nutritional status for the first few weeks following her diagnosis but is now exhibiting early signs and symptoms of malnutrition. In collaboration with the dietitian, the nurse should implement what intervention? A) Arrange for total parenteral nutrition (TPN). B) Facilitate placement of a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) tube. C) Provide the patient with several small, soft-textured meals each day. D) Assign responsibility for the patients nutrition to the patients friends and family.

C Feedback: For patients experiencing difficulties with oral intake, the provision of small, easily chewed meals may be beneficial. This option would be trialed before resorting to tube feeding or TPN. The family should be encouraged to participate in care, but should not be assigned full responsibility.

34. A nurse at a long-term care facility is amending the care plan of a resident who has just been diagnosed with essential thrombocythemia (ET). The nurse should anticipate the administration of what medication? A) Dalteparin B) Allopurinol C) Hydroxyurea D) Hydrochlorothiazide

C Feedback: Hydroxyurea is effective in lowering the platelet count for patients with ET. Dalteparin, allopurinol, and HCTZ do not have this therapeutic effect.

26. After receiving a diagnosis of acute lymphocytic leukemia, a patient is visibly distraught, stating, I have no idea where to go from here. How should the nurse prepare to meet this patients psychosocial needs? A) Assess the patients previous experience with the health care system. B) Reassure the patient that treatment will be challenging but successful. C) Assess the patients specific needs for education and support. D) Identify the patients plan of medical care.

C Feedback: In order to meets the patients needs, the nurse must first identify the specific nature of these needs. According to the nursing process, assessment must precede interventions. The plan of medical care is important, but not central to the provision of support. The patients previous health care is not a primary consideration, and the nurse cannot assure the patient of successful treatment.

17. The nurses review of a patients most recent blood work reveals a significant increase in the number of band cells. The nurses subsequent assessment should focus on which of the following? A) Respiratory function B) Evidence of decreased tissue perfusion C) Signs and symptoms of infection D) Recent changes in activity tolerance

C Feedback: Ordinarily, band cells account for only a small percentage of circulating granulocytes, although their percentage can increase greatly under conditions in which neutrophil production increases, such as infection. This finding is not suggestive of problems with oxygenation and subsequent activity intolerance.

37. Fresh-frozen plasma (FFP) has been ordered for a hospital patient. Prior to administration of this blood product, the nurse should prioritize what patient education? A) Infection risks associated with FFP administration B) Physiologic functions of plasma C) Signs and symptoms of a transfusion reaction D) Strategies for managing transfusion-associated anxiety

C Feedback: Patients should be educated about signs and symptoms of transfusion reactions prior to administration of any blood product. In most cases, this is priority over education relating to infection. Anxiety may be an issue for some patients, but transfusion reactions are a possibility for all patients. Teaching about the functions of plasma is not likely a high priority.

24. A patient has been scheduled for a bone marrow biopsy and admits to the nurse that she is worried about the pain involved with the procedure. What patient education is most accurate? A) Youll be given painkillers before the test, so there wont likely be any pain? B) Youll feel some pain when the needle enters your skin, but none when the needle enters the bone because of the absence of nerves in bone. C) Most people feel some brief, sharp pain when the needle enters the bone. D) Ill be there with you, and Ill try to help you keep your mind off the pain.

C Feedback: Patients typically feel a pressure sensation as the needle is advanced into position. The actual aspiration always causes sharp, but brief pain, resulting from the suction exerted as the marrow is aspirated into the syringe; the patient should be warned about this. Stating, Ill try to help you keep your mind off the pain may increase the patients fears of pain, because this does not help the patient know what to expect.

29. A patients low hemoglobin level has necessitated transfusion of PRBCs. Prior to administration, what action should the nurse perform? A) Have the patient identify his or her blood type in writing. B) Ensure that the patient has granted verbal consent for transfusion. C) Assess the patients vital signs to establish baselines. D) Facilitate insertion of a central venous catheter.

C Feedback: Prior to a transfusion, the nurse must take the patients temperature, pulse, respiration, and BP to establish a baseline. Written consent is required and the patients blood type is determined by type and cross match, not by the patients self-declaration. Peripheral venous access is sufficient for blood transfusion.

5. A patient with advanced leukemia is responding poorly to treatment. The nurse finds the patient tearful and trying to express his feelings, but he is clearly having difficulty. What is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Tell him that you will give him privacy and leave the room. B) Offer to call pastoral care. C) Ask if he would like you to sit with him while he collects his thoughts. D) Tell him that you can understand how hes feeling.

C Feedback: Providing emotional support and discussing the uncertain future are crucial. Leaving is incorrect because leaving the patient doesnt show acceptance of his feelings. Offering to call pastoral care may be helpful for some patients but should be done after the nurse has spent time with the patient. Telling the patient that you understand how hes feeling is inappropriate because it doesnt help him express his feelings.

37. A young adult patient has received the news that her treatment for Hodgkin lymphoma has been deemed successful and that no further treatment is necessary at this time. The care team should ensure that the patient receives regular health assessments in the future due to the risk of what complication? A) Iron-deficiency anemia B) Hemophilia C) Hematologic cancers D) Genitourinary cancers

C Feedback: Survivors of Hodgkin lymphoma have a high risk of second cancers, with hematologic cancers being the most common. There is no consequent risk of anemia or hemophilia, and hematologic cancers are much more common than GU cancers.

7. A 77-year-old male is admitted to a unit with a suspected diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML). When planning this patients care, the nurse should be aware of what epidemiologic fact? A) Early diagnosis is associated with good outcomes. B) Five-year survival for older adults is approximately 50%. C) Five-year survival for patients over 75 years old is less than 2%. D) Survival rates are wholly dependent on the patients pre-illness level of health.

C Feedback: The 5-year survival rate for patients with AML who are 50 years of age or younger is 43%; it drops to 19% for those between 50 and 64 years, and drops to1.6% for those older than 75 years. Early diagnosis is beneficial, but is nonetheless not associated with good outcomes or high survival rates. Preillness health is significant, but not the most important variable.

38. The clinical nurse educator is presenting health promotion education to a patient who will be treated for non-Hodgkin lymphoma on an outpatient basis. The nurse should recommend which of the following actions? A) Avoiding direct sun exposure in excess of 15 minutes daily B) Avoiding grapefruit juice and fresh grapefruit C) Avoiding highly crowded public places D) Using an electric shaver rather than a razor

C Feedback: The risk of infection is significant for these patients, not only from treatment-related myelosuppression but also from the defective immune response that results from the disease itself. Limiting infection exposure is thus necessary. The need to avoid grapefruit is dependent on the patients medication regimen. Sun exposure and the use of razors are not necessarily contraindicated.

3. A patient has come to the OB/GYN clinic due to recent heavy menstrual flow. Because of the patients consequent increase in RBC production, the nurse knows that the patient may need to increase her daily intake of what substance? A) Vitamin E B) Vitamin D C) Iron D) Magnesium

C Feedback: To replace blood loss, the rate of red cell production increases. Iron is incorporated into hemoglobin. Vitamins E and D and magnesium do not need to be increased when RBC production is increased.

A patient with anemia and a nursing diagnosis of activity intolerance due to tissue hypoxia and dyspnea is attempting to increase activity tolerance. What percentage of increase in pulse and respiratory rate should the nurse use to determine if the activity is too strenuous for the patient? A 5% B 10% C 20% D 30%

C 20 percent

The nurse is preparing teaching materials for a patient with PV. How many liters of fluid should the nurse instruct the patient to consume each day? A 1 B 2 C. 3 D. 4

C 3

The nurse is providing dietary teaching to an individual with iron deficiency anemia. Which patient statement indicates that teaching has been effective? A. I know I need to eat more green vegetables and dairy products. B. berries and natural cereals are good for me because of my low iron levels. c. I'm going to drink orange juice for breakfast and increase red meat in my diet. D. yellow vegetables and green tea will be important to help build up my blood levels.

C I'm going to drink orange juice for breakfast and increase red meats in my diet

The nurse is reviewing the current patient census on it care area. Which individual is most likely to present with signs or symptoms of sickle cell anemia? A. a one month old boy who is Hispanic B. a 5 year old girl of Hispanic origin C. 1 year old boy who is African American D. A 3 month old girl who is African American

C a 1 year old boy who is African American

The nurse is reviewing the care plan for a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which nursing intervention is most likely to cause an acute complication in this patient? A placing the patient on strict bed rest B providing a diet that is high in fat and sodium C administering intramuscular Demerol for pain D allowing a family member with a respiratory infection to visit

C administering intramuscular Demerol for pain

A patient is being tested for possible leukemia. With which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate assisting? A liver biopsy B thoracentesis C bone marrow biopsy D arterial blood gas analysis

C bone marrow biopsy

A patient is admitted in sickle cell crisis with symptoms of dyspnea and leg pain. The patient's significant other asks, I don't really understand why he is hurting so badly. Which response by the nurse is best? A. The pain is due to a disturbance in cellular metabolism B. the bone marrow is expanding with the sickle cells and that causes pain B. clumping of abnormal red blood cells blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries D. bleeding in the joints occurs because red blood cells are being rapidly destroyed by the bone marrow

C clumping of abnormal red blood cells blocks the flow of blood through the capillaries

The nurse is caring for a patient with a clotting disorder. Which blood product should the nurse anticipate being prescribed? A albumin B normal saline C cryroprecipitates D. Packed WBC's

C cryroprecipitates

a 54 year old patient is admitted to the hospital in the final stage of chronic lymphocytic leukemia. which manifestations of CLL should the nurse expect to find while collecting admission data? A nausea and vomiting Be hypotension and alopecia C fever and abnormal bleeding D cervical lymphadenopathy and chest pain

C fever and abnormal bleeding

A patient is being prepared for splenic to me. What is the purpose of the order for a vitamin K injection? Eh it corrects a dietary deficiency B it helps correct underlying anemia C it corrects clotting factor deficiencies D it replaces vitamin K lost during night sweats

C it corrects clotting factor deficiencies

A patient with aplastic anemia is to receive an injection of erythropoietin. The patient asks what the injection is intended to do. Which should the nurse respond to the patient? 8. It will inhibit the protein that is attacking your blood cells. Bee. It works like a blood transfusion to give you extra red blood cells C. it will stimulate your body to produce more of its own red blood cells D. it will increase your energy while your body is recovering from the anemia

C it will stimulate your body to produce more of its own red blood cells

A patient walks into the urgent care clinic, stating that he has hemophilia and that he is bleeding. The triage nurse does a quick assessment and sees no signs of active bleeding. Several patients are already in the waiting area. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? A palpate the suspected area for tenderness and edema B ask the patient to sit in the waiting room until his name is called C place the patient in an examination room and tell the physician that the patient may be bleeding D send the patient for routine x-rays according to clinic protocol to look for source of bleeding, and then placed him in an examination room

C place the patient in an examination room and tell the physician that the patient may be bleeding

The nurse is caring for a patient with anemia. Which blood component is deficient in this patient? a. plasma b. platelets c. red blood cells d. white blood cells

C red blood cells

A patient with Hodgkin's disease has cervical lymph node enlargement. Which symptom should the nurse attend to first? A pain B fever C stridor D. Fatigue

C stridor

The nurse is providing care for a patient who has had a splenectomy. Which nursing action has the highest priority? A assess pain every shift B provide a diet rich in fruits and vegetables C teach the patient to cough and deep breathe every hour D encourage the patient to look at the incision during dressing changes

C teach the patient to cough and deep breathe every hour

A patient is admitted to the hospital with hypertension and vertigo related to polycythemia vera. for which treatment should the nurse prepare the patient? A. myelogram B. Splenectomy C. therapeutic phlebotomy D. injection of colony stimulating factors

C therapeutic phlebotomy

A patient is planning to have in allogeneic bone marrow transplant. what will the patient most likely have completed before the transplant occurs? Select all that apply. A electrophoresis B peritoneal dialysis C total body irradiation D high-dose chemotherapy E massive blood transfusions

C total body irradiation D high-dose chemotherapy

A patient receiving chemotherapy for chronic Myelocytic leukemia has irritated mucous membranes. Which mouth care intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? A brush teeth twice a day with a firm toothbrush B used waxed floss between meals and at bedtime C use sponge toothettes to clean teeth after meals D Swamp teeth and mucous membranes 4 times daily with lemon glycerin swabs

C use sponge toothettes to clean teeth after meals

The daughter of a male patient with haemophilia is concerned about transmitting the genetic disorder to any future children what percentage of chance of transmitting the gene to future children should the nurse instruct the daughter? A 10% B 25% C 50% D 100%

C. 50%

A patient with lymphoma wants to attend a family members wedding but it is extremely fatigued. The nurse develops a plan for activity intolerance related to symptoms of lymphoma. How will the nurse know if the plan has been effective? A the patient is able to sleep 8 hours at night Be the patient can list three ways to combat fatigue See the patient attends the family members wedding D the patient verbalize is understanding of the importance of gradually increasing activity

C. The patient attend the family members wedding

IVIG has been ordered for the treatment of a patient with an immunodeficiency. Which of the following actions should the nurse perform before administering this blood product? A) Ensure that the patient has a patent central line. B) Ensure that the IVIG is appropriately mixed with normal saline. C) Administer furosemide before IVIG to prevent hypervolemia. D) Weigh the patient before administration to verify the correct dose.

D (Feedback: The nurse should obtain height and weight before treatment to verify accurate dosing. IVIG can be administered through a peripheral line. Diuretics are not normally given prior to administration, and IVIG is not mixed with normal saline.)

A nurse educator is explaining that patients with primary immunodeficiencies are living longer than in past decades because of advances in medical treatment. This increased longevity is associated with an increased risk of what? A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease B) Dementia C) Pulmonary fibrosis D) Cancer

D (Feedback: Advances in medical treatment have meant that patients with primary immunodeficiencies live longer, thus increasing their overall risk of developing cancer. It does not mean that they are at increased risk of COPD, dementia, or pulmonary fibrosis.)

A patient who has received a heart transplant is taking cyclosporine, an immunosuppressant. What should the nurse emphasize during health education about infection prevention? A) Eat a high-calorie, high-protein diet. B) Limit physical activity in order to conserve energy. C) Take prophylactic antibiotics as ordered. D) Perform frequent handwashing.

D (Feedback: Hand hygiene is imperative in infection control. A well-balanced diet is important, but for most patients this is secondary to hygiene as an infection-control measure. Prophylactic antibiotics are not normally used. Limiting physical activity will not protect the patient from infection.)

A nurse is planning the care of a patient who requires immunosuppression to ensure engraftment of depleted bone marrow during a transplantation procedure. What is the most important component of infection control in the care of this patient? A) Administration of IVIG B) Antibiotic administration C) Appropriate use of gloves and goggles D) Thorough and consistent hand hygiene

D (Feedback: Hand hygiene is usually considered the most important aspect of infection control. IVIG and antibiotics are not considered infection control measures, though they enhance resistance to infection and treat infection. Gloves and goggles are sometimes indicated but are less effective than hand hygiene.)

A nurse is providing health education regarding self-care to a patient with an immunodeficiency. What teaching point should the nurse emphasize? A) The importance of aggressive treatment of acne B) The importance of avoiding alcohol-based cleansers C) The need to keep fingernails and toenails closely trimmed D) The need for thorough oral hygiene

D (Feedback: Many patients develop oral manifestations and need education about promoting good dental hygiene to diminish the oral discomfort and complications that frequently result in inadequate nutritional intake. Alcohol cleansers do not necessarily need to be avoided and nail care is not a central concern. Acne care is not a main focus of education, since it is not relevant to many patients.)

The nurse is preparing to administer IVIG to a patient who has an immunodeficiency. What nursing guideline should the nurse apply? A) Do not exceed an infusion rate of 300 mL/hr. B) Slow the infusion rate if the patient exhibits signs of a transfusion reaction. C) Weigh the patient immediately after the infusion is complete. D) Administer pretreatment medications as ordered 30 minutes prior to infusion.

D (Feedback: The nurse should administer pretreatment acetaminophen and diphenhydramine as prescribed 30 minutes before the start of the infusion. The patient should be weighed prior to the treatment and the IV infusion rate should not exceed 200 mL/hour. The nurse should stop the transfusion in the event of any signs of a reaction.)

A home health nurse is reinforcing health education with a patient who is immunosuppressed and his family. What statement best suggests that the patient has understood the nurse's teaching? A) "My family needs to understand when I can go get the seasonal flu shot." B) "I need to know how to treat my infections in a home setting." C) "I need to understand how to give my platelet transfusions." D) "My family needs to understand that I'll probably need lifelong treatment."

D (Feedback: The patient must be made aware that all health-related instructions are lifelong. Immunizations may be contraindicated and infection usually requires inpatient treatment. Platelet transfusions are not indicated for most patients who have immunodeficiencies.)

The home health nurse is assessing a patient who is immunosuppressed following a liver transplant. What is the most essential teaching for this patient and the family? A) How to promote immune function through nutrition B) The importance of maintaining the patient's vaccination status C) How to choose antibiotics based on the patient's symptoms D) The need to report any slight changes in the patient's health status

D (Feedback: They must be informed of the need for continuous monitoring for subtle changes in the patient's physical health status and of the importance of seeking immediate health care if changes are detected. Nutrition is important, but infection control is the priority. Patients and families do not choose antibiotics independently. Vaccinations are often contraindicated in immunocompromised patients.)

The parents of a 1-month-old infant bring their child to the pediatrician with symptoms of congestive heart failure. The infant is ultimately diagnosed with DiGeorge syndrome. What will prolong this infant's survival? A) Stem cell transplantation B) Long-term antibiotics C) Chemotherapy D) Thymus gland transplantation

D (Feedback: Transplantation of fetal thymus, postnatal thymus, or human leukocyte antigen (HLA)-matched bone marrow has been used for permanent reconstitution of T-cell immunity in infants with DiGeorge syndrome. Antibiotics and chemotherapy do not address the etiology of the infant's disease. Stem cell transplantation is not a common treatment modality.)

40. A nurse is caring for patient whose diagnosis of multiple myeloma is being treated with bortezomib. The nurse should assess for what adverse effect of this treatment? A) Stomatitis B) Nephropathy C) Cognitive changes D) Peripheral neuropathy

D Feedback: A significant toxicity associated with the use of bortezomib for multiple myeloma is peripheral neuropathy. Stomatitis, cognitive changes, and nephropathy are not noted to be adverse effects of this medication.

17. Diagnostic testing has resulted in a diagnosis of acute myeloid leukemia (AML) in an adult patient who is otherwise healthy. The patient and the care team have collaborated and the patient will soon begin induction therapy. The nurse should prepare the patient for which of the following? A) Daily treatment with targeted therapy medications B) Radiation therapy on a daily basis C) Hematopoietic stem cell transplantation D) An aggressive course of chemotherapy

D Feedback: Attempts are made to achieve remission of AML by the aggressive administration of chemotherapy, called induction therapy, which usually requires hospitalization for several weeks. Induction therapy is not synonymous with radiation, stem cell transplantation, or targeted therapies.

18. A nurse is educating a patient about the role of B lymphocytes. The nurses description will include which of the following physiologic processes? A) Stem cell differentiation B) Cytokine production C) Phagocytosis D) Antibody production

D Feedback: B lymphocytes are capable of differentiating into plasma cells. Plasma cells, in turn, produce antibodies. Cytokines are produced by NK cells. Stem cell differentiation greatly precedes B lymphocyte production.

31. A clinic patient is being treated for polycythemia vera and the nurse is providing health education. What practice should the nurse recommend in order to prevent the complications of this health problem? A) Avoiding natural sources of vitamin K B) Avoiding altitudes of 1500 feet (457 meters) C) Performing active range of motion exercises daily D) Avoiding tight and restrictive clothing on the legs

D Feedback: Because of the risk of DVT, patients with polycythemia vera should avoid tight and restrictive clothing. There is no need to avoid foods with vitamin K or to avoid higher altitudes. Activity levels should be maintained, but there is no specific need for ROM exercises.

12. A home health nurse is caring for a patient with multiple myeloma. Which of the following interventions should the nurse prioritize when addressing the patients severe bone pain? A) Implementing distraction techniques B) Educating the patient about the effective use of hot and cold packs C) Teaching the patient to use NSAIDs effectively D) Helping the patient manage the opioid analgesic regimen

D Feedback: For severe pain resulting from multiple myeloma, opioids are likely necessary. NSAIDs would likely be ineffective and are associated with significant adverse effects. Hot and cold packs as well as distraction would be insufficient for severe pain.

14. The nurse educating a patient with anemia is describing the process of RBC production. When the patients kidneys sense a low level of oxygen in circulating blood, what physiologic response is initiated? A) Increased stem cell synthesis B) Decreased respiratory rate C) Arterial vasoconstriction D) Increased production of erythropoietin

D Feedback: If the kidney detects low levels of oxygen, as occurs when fewer red cells are available to bind oxygen (i.e., anemia), erythropoietin levels increase. The body does not compensate with vasoconstriction, decreased respiration, or increased stem cell activity.

8. A 35-year-old male is admitted to the hospital complaining of severe headaches, vomiting, and testicular pain. His blood work shows reduced numbers of platelets, leukocytes, and erythrocytes, with a high proportion of immature cells. The nurse caring for this patient suspects a diagnosis of what? A) AML B) CML C) MDS D) ALL

D Feedback: In acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), manifestations of leukemic cell infiltration into other organs are more common than with other forms of leukemia, and include pain from an enlarged liver or spleen, as well as bone pain. The central nervous system is frequently a site for leukemic cells; thus, patients may exhibit headache and vomiting because of meningeal involvement. Other extranodal sites include the testes and breasts. This particular presentation is not closely associated with acute myeloid leukemia (AML), chronic myeloid leukemia (CML), or myelodysplastic syndromes (MDS).

8. The nurse is caring for a patient who has developed scar tissue in many of the areas that normally produce blood cells. What organs can become active in blood cell production by the process of extramedullary hematopoiesis? A) Spleen and kidneys B) Kidneys and pancreas C) Pancreas and liver D) Liver and spleen

D Feedback: In adults with disease that causes marrow destruction, fibrosis, or scarring, the liver and spleen can also resume production of blood cells by a process known as extramedullary hematopoiesis. The kidneys and pancreas do not produce blood cells for the body.

35. A patient lives with a diagnosis of sickle cell anemia and receives frequent blood transfusions. The nurse should recognize the patients consequent risk of what complication of treatment? A) Hypovolemia B) Vitamin B12 deficiency C) Thrombocytopenia D) Iron overload

D Feedback: Patients with chronic transfusion requirements can quickly acquire more iron than they can use, leading to iron overload. These individuals are not at risk for hypovolemia and there is no consequent risk for low platelet or vitamin B12 levels.

27. A patient has completed the full course of treatment for acute lymphocytic leukemia and has failed to respond appreciably. When preparing for the patients subsequent care, the nurse should perform what action? A) Arrange a meeting between the patients family and the hospital chaplain. B) Assess the factors underlying the patients failure to adhere to the treatment regimen. C) Encourage the patient to vigorously pursue complementary and alternative medicine (CAM). D) Identify the patients specific wishes around end-of-life care.

D Feedback: Should the patient not respond to therapy, it is important to identify and respect the patients choices about treatment, including measures to prolong life and other end-of-life measures. The patient may or may not be open to pursuing CAM. Unsuccessful treatment is not necessarily the result of failure to adhere to the treatment plan. Assessment should precede meetings with a chaplain, which may or may not be beneficial to the patient and congruent with the familys belief system.

23. A patients diagnosis of atrial fibrillation has prompted the primary care provider to prescribe warfarin (Coumadin), an anticoagulant. When assessing the therapeutic response to this medication, what is the nurses most appropriate action? A) Assess for signs of myelosuppression. B) Review the patients platelet level. C) Assess the patients capillary refill time. D) Review the patients international normalized ratio (INR)

D Feedback: The INR and aPTT serve as useful screening tools for evaluating a patients clotting ability and to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of anticoagulant medications. The patients platelet level is not normally used as a short-term indicator of anticoagulation effectiveness. Assessing the patient for signs of myelosuppression and capillary refill time does not address the effectiveness of anticoagulants.

32. A clinic nurse is working with a patient who has a long-standing diagnosis of polycythemia vera. How can the nurse best gauge the course of the patients disease? A) Document the color of the patients palms and face during each visit. B) Follow the patients erythrocyte sedimentation rate over time. C) Document the patients response to erythropoietin injections. D) Follow the trends of the patients hematocrit.

D Feedback: The course of polycythemia vera can be best ascertained by monitoring the patients hematocrit, which should remain below 45%. Erythropoietin injections would exacerbate the condition. Skin tone should be observed, but is a subjective assessment finding. The patients ESR is not relevant to the course of the disease.

33. An interdisciplinary team has been commissioned to create policies and procedures aimed at preventing acute hemolytic transfusion reactions. What action has the greatest potential to reduce the risk of this transfusion reaction? A) Ensure that blood components are never infused at a rate greater than 125 mL/hr. B) Administer prophylactic antihistamines prior to all blood transfusions. C) Establish baseline vital signs for all patients receiving transfusions. D) Be vigilant in identifying the patient and the blood component.

D Feedback: The most common causes of acute hemolytic reaction are errors in blood component labeling and patient identification that result in the administration of an ABO-incompatible transfusion. Actions to address these causes are necessary in all health care settings. Prophylactic antihistamines are not normally administered, and would not prevent acute hemolytic reactions. Similarly, baseline vital signs and slow administration will not prevent this reaction.

5. A nurse is caring for a patient who undergoing preliminary testing for a hematologic disorder. What sign or symptom most likely suggests a potential hematologic disorder? A) Sudden change in level of consciousness (LOC) B) Recurrent infections C) Anaphylaxis D) Severe fatigue

D Feedback: The most common indicator of hematologic disease is extreme fatigue. This is more common than changes in LOC, infections, or analphylaxis.

14. A patient with non-Hodgkins lymphoma is receiving information from the oncology nurse. The patient asks the nurse why she should stop drinking and smoking and stay out of the sun. What would be the nurses best response? A) Everyone should do these things because theyre health promotion activities that apply to everyone. B) You dont want to develop a second cancer, do you? C) You need to do this just to be on the safe side. D) Its important to reduce other factors that increase the risk of second cancers.

D Feedback: The nurse should encourage patients to reduce other factors that increase the risk of developing second cancers, such as use of tobacco and alcohol and exposure to environmental carcinogens and excessive sunlight. The other options do not answer the patients question, and also make light of the patients question.

31. Two units of PRBCs have been ordered for a patient who has experienced a GI bleed. The patient is highly reluctant to receive a transfusion, stating, Im terrified of getting AIDS from a blood transfusion. How can the nurse best address the patients concerns? A) All the donated blood in the United States is treated with antiretroviral medications before it is used. B) That did happen in some high-profile cases in the twentieth century, but it is no longer a possibility. C) HIV was eradicated from the US blood supply in the early 2000s. D) The chances of contracting AIDS from a blood transfusion in the United States are exceedingly low.

D Feedback: The patient can be reassured about the very low possibility of contracting HIV from the transfusion. However, it is not an absolute impossibility. Antiretroviral medications are not introduced into donated blood. The blood supply is constantly dynamic, due to the brief life of donated blood.

10. A patients wound has begun to heal and the blood clot which formed is no longer necessary. When a blood clot is no longer needed, the fibrinogen and fibrin will be digested by which of the following? A) Plasminogen B) Thrombin C) Prothrombin D) Plasmin

D Feedback: The substance plasminogen is required to lyse (break down) the fibrin. Plasminogen, which is present in all body fluids, circulates with fibrinogen and is therefore incorporated into the fibrin clot as it forms. When the clot is no longer needed (e.g., after an injured blood vessel has healed), the plasminogen is activated to form plasmin. Plasmin digests the fibrinogen and fibrin. Prothrombin is converted to thrombin, which in turn catalyzes the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin so a clot can form.

4. The nurse is planning the care of a patient with a nutritional deficit and a diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia. The nurse should recognize that this patients health problem is due to what? A) Production of inadequate quantities of RBCs B) Premature release of immature RBCs C) Injury to the RBCs in circulation D) Abnormalities in the structure and function RBCs

D Feedback: Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiencies are characterized by the production of abnormally large erythrocytes called megaloblasts. Because these cells are abnormal, many are sequestered (trapped) while still in the bone marrow, and their rate of release is decreased. Some of these cells actually die in the marrow before they can be released into the circulation. This results in megaloblastic anemia. This pathologic process does not involve inadequate production, premature release, or injury to existing RBCs.

The nurse's packs a patient has polycythemia. Which hematocrit value is causing the nurse to have this concern? A 38% B 45% C 47 % D 55%

D 55%

A patient with hemophilia A is bleeding. which treatment should the nurse anticipate being prescribed for this patient? A. IV infusion of factor IX B im injection of factor IX C IV infusion of factor VIII D im injection of factor VIII

D IV infusion of factor VIII

A patient with thrombocytopenia is having pain. If each of the following medications as ordered, which should the nurse choose to administer? a. morphine SQ B. meperidine IM C. Oxycodone with aspirin PO D. Acetaminophen with codeine p0

D acetaminophen with codeine PO

The nurse is determining the effectiveness of treatment prescribed for a patient with anemia. which question should the nurse use to make this evaluation? A is your appetite improving B are you sleeping all night? C are you requiring many analgesics? D are you keeping up with your work schedule?

D are you keeping up with your work schedule

The nurse is reviewing laboratory results for a patient with a blood disorder. Reduced fibrinogen and platelet levels, increased thrombin time, and reduced factor assays our laboratory results associated with which hematological disorder? A a plastic anemia B sickle cell anemia C pv D disseminated intravascular coagulation

D disseminated intravascular coagulation

The nurse is planning discharge teaching for a patient with polycythemia. Which nursing intervention she's a nurse consider to help prevent complications in this patient? A monitor intake and output B. Avoid use of injections for pain C. Maintain bed rest during treatment D encourage 3 liters of water intake daily

D encourage 3 liters of water intake daily

The nurse is assessing a patient with stage 3 Hodgkin's disease. Where should the nurse expect to find enlarged lymph nodes? A in the neck only B above the diaphragm only C below the diaphragm only D. Generalized throughout the body

D generalized throughout the body

The nurse is caring for a patient in sickle cell crisis. What is the rationale for providing warm compresses and blankets for this patient? A. sickle cell crisis causes shivering and discomfort B. helps prevent the cells from becoming sick old C. heat speeds production of new healthy RBCs D. heat prevents vasoconstriction and impaired circulation

D heat prevents vasoconstriction and impaired circulation

The nurse is identifying approaches to reduce the risk of infection in a patient with leukemia. Why is it important for the nurse to institute infection control measures for this patient? A infection can precipitate hemorrhage in the patient with leukemia Be the drugs needed to fight infection have life-threatening side effects C infection in the patient with leukemia can lead to permanent neurological damage D leukemia seriously and paris the leukocytes in the body's ability to fight infection

D leukemia seriously impairs the leukocytes in the body's ability to fight infection

A patient has a platelet count of 20,000 / mm 3. What action should the nurse take? A assist out of bed to a chair B draw another blood sample C measure a rectal temperature D place on bleeding precautions

D placed on bleeding precautions

The nurse is preparing to give an injection of iron to a patient with anemia. What is the rationale for using the Z track method for injection? A. prevent pain at the site B. prevent tissue damage at the site C. promote absorption of the medication D. prevent discoloration of tissue at the site

D prevent discoloration of tissue at the site