(HESI #11) Selection of Technical Factors Affecting Radiographic Quality Technique Charts Criteria for Image Evaluation and Technical Factors

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What defect is shown in the image? 8389735423 1. Fog 2. Blur 3. Dichroic stain 4. Double exposure

1. Fog

Which technique can be used to improve visualization of the thoracic vertebrae during a lateral projection? 1. Use a SID of 72 inches. 2. Place the central ray at a 45-degree angle. 3. Increase the exposure time to 2 to 3 seconds. 4. Instruct the patient to open the mouth completely.

3. Increase the exposure time to 2 to 3 seconds.

What circumstances are most likely to lead to an increase in grid cutoff when using a parallel grid? Select all that apply. 1. Increase in the exposure time 2. Improper positioning of the grid 3. Use of large-area image receptors 4. Use of small digital display devices 5. Larger source-to-image distance (SID)

2 & 3

An increase in which factor can increase x-ray quantity? Select all that apply. 1. Filtration 2. Milliamperage 3. Kilovolt peak 4. Exposure time 5. Voltage ripple

2,3,4

An anteroposterior (AP) abdomen radiograph is taken on a patient measuring 28 centimeters. If all exposure factors are maintained, what changes occur if another image was taken on a patient measuring 22 centimeters? 1. Longer scale of contrast 2. Shorter scale of contrast 3. Increased exposure to the image receptor (IR) 4. Decreased exposure to the image receptor (IR)

3. Increased exposure to the image receptor (IR)

Which projection best demonstrates an open sinus tarsi? 1. AP foot 2. PA hand 3. Lateral calcaneus 4. Lateral cervical spine

3. Lateral calcaneus

Which pathologic changes require a decrease in penetration to maintain exposure to the image receptor (IR)? Select all that apply. 1. Ascites 2. Acromegaly 3. Pneumonia 4. Pneumothorax 5. Emphysema 6. Osteoporosis

4-6

The marked area shows debris. Improper handling of the image receptors can cause scratches and expose them to dust, which can be misinterpreted as foreign bodies in the radiograph. Image receptors must be kept clean. The marked area does not represent a bone fracture or foreign body. The marked area does not represent abnormal bone.

Debris

A radiologic technologist just took a posteroanterior (PA) image of the skull on an average-sized infant using a technique of 75 kilovolts peak (kVp) and 10 milliampere-seconds (mAs). A lateral image should be performed with which technical factors? 1. 75 kVp and 5 mAs 2. 90 kVp and 5 mAs 3. 75 kVp and 1 mAs 4. 75 kVp and 20 mAs

1 75 kVp and 5 mAs

A radiologic technologist is adjusting an image for optimum viewing. The technologist makes which adjustment to increase the image's contrast? 1. Increase in grid ratio 2. Increase in kilovoltage 3. Decrease in kilovoltage 4. Decrease in milliamperage

1 Increase in grid ratio

What actions should take place prior to beginning the preparation of the radiographic technique chart? Select all that apply. 1. A standard for imaging studies should be confirmed. 2. X-ray equipment must be calibrated by a medical physicist. 3. X-ray rooms should be adequately shielded to prevent scatter radiation. 4. X-ray equipment must be accredited by the American College of Radiology. 5. All interpreting physicians should be questioned regarding their imaging preferences. 6. All radiologic technologists should be given a thorough in-service training on the radiologic equipment.

1 & 2

What is the advantage of the line-focus principle? Select all that apply. 1. It improves heat capacity. 2. It improves spatial resolution. 3. It prevents the arcing problem. 4. It prevents pitting of the anode. 5. It prevents rotational friction of the anode.

1 & 2

A satisfactory technique chart can be established only if what criteria are met? Select all that apply. 1. Radiologist's preference in image quality 2. Patient compliance with radiographer's instructions 3. X-ray machine is properly calibrated by a medical physicist 4. Radiographer is familiar with equipment and accessories used 5. X-ray machine is accredited by the American College of Radiology

1 & 3

An increase in which factor decreases the amount of scatter reaching the image receptor (IR)? Select all that apply. 1. Grid ratio 2. Kilovoltage 3. Beam restriction 4. Focal spot size 5. Source-to-image receptor distance (SID)

1 & 3

Which artifacts can be prevented by adequately shielding the backside of the image receptor? Select all that apply. 1. Fog 2. Kink marks 3. Crown static 4. Smudge static 5. Phantom images

1 & 5

When a radiographic technique chart is found to be inadequate, what factors should be checked first? Select all that apply. 1. X-ray beam coincidence 2. Appropriate grid is being used 3. Beam restrictor checked for accuracy 4. Room shielding assessed for appropriateness 5. Machine operators using appropriate techniques

1, 2, 3

In which locations should radiographic technique charts be located? Select all that apply. 1. On mobile units 2. In the radiologist's office 3. In each radiographic room 4. In the emergency department 5. In the radiology administrator's office 6. On machines that use automatic exposure control

1, 3, 6

Why does a radiologic technologist implement immobilization techniques? Select all that apply. 1. To reduce the radiation dose 2. To avoid the need for a repeat exposure 3. To reduce spatial resolution 4. To avoid blurring of the radiographic image 5. To reduce anxiety in a patient during the examination

1,2,4

Which conditions would require an increase in the regular technical factors on a technique chart? Select all that apply. 1. Edema 2. Ascites 3. Emphysema 4. Hydrocephalus 5. Enlarged heart 6. Degenerative arthritis

1,2,4,5

What happens when a long source-to-image receptor distance (SID) is used? Select all that apply. 1. It reduces focal spot blur. 2. It controls voltage ripple. 3. It improves spatial resolution. 4. It results in less magnification. 5. It increases radiation quantity.

1,3,4

What modification should a radiologic technologist do during radiography to prevent distortion of the image? Select all that apply. 1. Keep correct central ray alignment. 2. Reduce source image receptor distance. 3. Decrease object image receptor distance. 4. Use a small focal spot. 5. Keep object plane parallel to the image receptor.

1,3,5

What is the purpose of adjusting kilovolt peak (kVp) during a radiographic examination? Select all that apply. 1. To adjust voltage 2. To increase filtration 3. To adjust collimation 4. To reduce the patient's dose 5. To affect the quality of the x-ray beam

1,4,5

What is the result if the added filtration is increased? Select all that apply. 1. The patient dose decreases. 2. The image contrast increases. 3. The scatter radiation decreases. 4. The x-ray beam quality increases. 5. The x-ray beam penetrability increases.

1,4,5

Which factors influence shape distortion? Select all that apply. 1. Body part rotation 2. Central ray angulation 3. Alignment of the beam 4. Geometry of the beam 5. Source-to-image receptor distance

1-3 Shape distortion is the misrepresentation of the true shape of an object on an image. Changing the orientation of the body part undergoing radiography affects the relationship of the beam, object, and image receptor and, thus, influences shape distortion. The straight, central portion of the beam is known as the central ray. The relationship between the beam, body part, and image receptor are altered when the central ray is angled, influencing shape distortion. The geometry of the beam and the source-to-image receptor distance influence size distortion.

Which factors influence the contrast in an image? Select all that apply. 1. Patient factors 2. Contrast media 3. Beam collimation 4. Object-to-image distance 5. Source-to-image distance

1-4 Contrast is the difference between adjacent densities on a radiographic image. Patient factors, such as body tissue density, influence the contrast. Contrast media may enhance the inherent density, and thus it may affect the contrast. Beam collimation controls the scattering of radiation, which helps to remove fog. Decreasing fog increases the contrast. Increasing object-to-image distance applies the air-gap technique, which decreases the amount of scatter reaching the image receptor and increases the contrast. Source-to-image distance influences the image receptor exposure/film density, not the contrast.

During an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the cervical spine using the "wagging jaw" method, which exposure time is best? 1. 1.5 seconds 2. 0.5 seconds 3. 0.75 seconds 4. 0.25 seconds

1. 1.5 seconds

Which is the minimum kVp typically found on high-kVp technique charts? 1. 100 kVp 2. 110 kVp 3. 120 kVp 4. 130 kVp

1. 100 kVp

Which factors would yield the least image distortion? 1. 100 mAs, 80 kVp, 72-in SID; 0.5 mm focal spot; 2.5 cm OID 2. 100 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-in SID; 0.5 mm focal spot; 3.5 cm OID 3. 50 mAs, 85 kVp, 72-in SID; 1.0 mm focal spot; 3.5 cm OID 4. 50 mAs, 85 kVp, 40-in SID; 2.0 mm focal spot; 2.5 cm OID

1. 100 mAs, 80 kVp, 72-in SID; 0.5 mm focal spot; 2.5 cm OID

Which exposure time would produce the least amount of motion blur? 1. 12 ms 2. 18 ms 3. 20 ms 4. 30 ms

1. 12 ms

A radiograph is produced at 80 inches source-to-image distance using 60 mAs. If the same procedure is repeated at 40 inches source-to-image distance, what is the new mAs setting required to maintain the same image receptor exposure? 1. 15 mAs 2. 20 mAs 3. 35 mAs 4. 45 mAs

1. 15 mAs

Which increase is needed for every centimeter of thickness difference when developing a variable-kilovoltage technique chart? 1. 2 kVp 2. 5 kVp 3. 10 kVp 4. 20 kVp

1. 2 kVp

A radiographic examination requires 120 mAs at 200 cm source-to-image receptor distance (SID). What should the new mAs be at 100 cm SID in order to maintain exposure to the IR? 1. 30 mAs 2. 38 mAs 3. 42 mAs 4. 50 mAs

1. 30 mAs According to the Direct Square Law (mAs/Distance formula), New mAs/Old mAs = New distance squared/Old distance squared x/120 = (100)2/(200)2 X = 120 x (100)2/(200)2 X = 120 x (0.5)2 X = 30 mAs According to the Direct Square Law calculation, 38 mAs, 42 mAs, and 50 mAs are incorrect answers.

Which kilovoltage setting range would be most appropriate for adequate penetration of a toe? 1. 55 to 60 kVp 2. 75 to 80 kVp 3. 90 to 100 kVp 4. 100 to 110 kVp

1. 55 to 60 kVp

What would the optimum kilovolts peak (kVp) be for most extremities on fixed kVp technique charts? 1. 60 kVp 2. 70 kVp 3. 80 kVp 4. 90 kVp

1. 60 kVp

Assuming no other technical adjustments are made, what effect will the addition of a plaster cast have on exposure to the image receptor (IR)? 1. Decrease exposure to IR 2. Increase exposure to IR 3. Double exposure to IR 4. No change to exposure of IR

1. Decrease exposure to IR

The focal-spot size setting on a technique chart controls what technique factor? 1. Detail 2. Contrast 3. Distortion 4. Image receptor (IR) exposure.

1. Detail

What is the most likely reason for loss of contrast and loss of distinct images in an image? 1. Excessive exposure 2. Decreasing kilovolt peak 3. Magnification of the image 4. Insufficient emission of light

1. Excessive exposure

Which term is used to refer to the numeric representation of the quantity of exposure received by a digital image receptor? 1. Exposure index 2. Exposure latitude 3. Remnant radiation 4. Automatic rescaling

1. Exposure index

To prepare a high-kVp technique chart, the procedure is basically the same as for preparing what other type of radiographic technique chart? 1. Fixed kilovoltage chart 2. Variable kilovoltage chart 3. Maximum kilovoltage chart 4. Automatic exposure chart

1. Fixed kilovoltage chart

Which artifact or defect is most likely to be seen in a computed radiograph of an imaging plate that has not been used in two days? 1. Fogging 2. Noisy images 3. Ghost images 4. Foreign bodies

1. Fogging

What is most likely to result if the x-ray tube is not centered to the table? 1. Grid cutoff artifacts 2. Uniform dull gray fog 3. Small circular patterns 4. Increased optical density

1. Grid cutoff artifacts

What type of exposure techniques are ideal for barium work to ensure adequate penetration of the barium? 1. High kilovoltage techniques 2. Fixed kilovoltage techniques 3. Variable kilovoltage techniques 4. Automatic exposure techniques

1. High kilovoltage techniques

The radiologic technologist adjusts an image by decreasing the kilovoltage. Which specific adjustment does this make to the image? 1. Increases contrast 2. Decreases contrast 3. Increases image fog 4. Reduces images fog

1. Increases contrast

What is the effect of increasing milliampere-seconds (mAs) on the image receptor (IR)? 1. It increases IR exposure. 2. It increases the penumbra effect. 3. It reduces IR exposure. 4. It causes misrepresentation of the true size of an object.

1. It increases IR exposure.

What will happen if the source-to-image-receptor-distance (SID) is increased? 1. It will increase image sharpness. 2. It will increase the patient's dose. 3. It will enhance the radiographic contrast. 4. It will increase the penumbra around the true shadow.

1. It will increase image sharpness.

Which should be used to ascertain partial thickness for accurate technique selection? 1. Measuring caliper 2. Body part phantom 3. Patient demographics 4. Radiographic technique chart

1. Measuring caliper

When using a fixed-kVp radiographic technique chart, what factor is adjusted according to the thickness of the anatomical part to provide the proper OD? 1. Milliampere-seconds (mAs) 2. Source-to-image receptor-distance (SID) 3. Grid 4. Image receptor speed

1. Milliampere-seconds (mAs)

What is the most common cause of radiographic unsharpness? 1. Motion 2. Increased OID 3. Decreased SID 4. Large focal spot size

1. Motion

Which factor, when decreased, would minimize size distortion recorded in a radiographic image? 1. Object-to-image receptor distance 2. Focal spot size 3. Source-to-image receptor distance 4. Beam restriction

1. Object-to-image receptor distance

Which best describes the way that interphalangeal joints should be visualized on a lateral projection of the first toe? 1. Open 2. Closed 3. Partially open 4. Superimposed by other toes

1. Open

Which of the two given images represents a high-contrast radiograph? 8394272067 1. Option 2, because no film graininess is seen in the radiograph 2. Option 1, because no mottled appearance is observed in the radiograph 3. Option 2, because the radiograph has marked differences in the optical density 4. Option 1, because the radiograph has minute differences in optical density

1. Option 2, because no film graininess is seen in the radiograph

What is the first step in beginning the preparation of a variable-kVp radiographic technique chart? 1. Select the body part for examination. 2. The processing system must be thoroughly evaluated. 3. X-ray equipment must be calibrated by a medical physicist. 4. Separate the anatomic part thickness into three groups—small, medium, and large.

1. Select the body part for examination.

Upon which type of patient are radiographic technique charts based? 1. Sthenic 2. Asthenic 3. Hyposthenic 4. Hypersthenic

1. Sthenic

What can a radiologic technologist do to improve recorded detail? 1. Use a small focal spot 2. Increase exposure time 3. Increase added filtration 4. Align the tube appropriately

1. Use a small focal spot

How can a radiographer reduce the motion caused due to the movement of the lungs during a patient's breathing? Select all that apply. 1. By using a restraining device 2. By reducing the exposure time 3. By asking the patient to hold his or her breath 4. By using a large object-to-image receptor distance (OID) 5. By using a small source-to-image receptor distance (SID)

2 & 3

The exposure indicator displays a value that shows an excessive amount of radiation was used to produce a radiographic image using computed radiography. The displayed image has a loss of contrast. Considering these factors, which is true? Select all that apply. 1. The image only needs to have the window width corrected for proper display contrast. 2. The patient was overexposed. 3. The image receptor was saturated. 4. The exposure indicator and image can be corrected by choosing a different procedure. 5. The patient was not overexposed.

2 & 3

Which factors influence image contrast? Select all that apply. 1. Source-to-image-distance (SID) 2. Image receptor 3. Object-to-image-distance (OID) 4. Focal spot size 5. Alignment of anatomical part

2 & 3

Which should be demonstrated on an anteroposterior (AP) axial shoulder projection? Select all that apply. 1. Distal humerus 2. Proximal humerus 3. Scapulohumeral joint 4. Clavicle projected above scapula 5. Clavicle projected below scapula

2,3,4

Which artifacts are object artifacts? Select all that apply. 1. Scratches 2. Backscatter 3. Ghost images 4. Histogram errors 5. Pixel malfunction 6. Collimation errors

2,4,6

A well-designed technique chart should include adjustments for which patient populations? Select all that apply. 1. Male patients 2. Obese patients 3. Female patients 4. Pregnant patients 5. Pediatric patients 6. Emaciated patients

2,5,6

The principal types of radiographic technique charts are based on what factors? Select all that apply. 1. Low kilovoltage 2. High kilovoltage 3. Fixed kilovoltage 4. Automatic exposure 5. Variable kilovoltage 6. Maximum kilovoltage

2-5

Which conditions would require a decrease in the foundational technical factors on a technique chart? Select all that apply. 1. Edema 2. Atrophy 3. Old age 4. Emaciation 5. Pneumothorax 6. Hydrocephalus

2-5

What milliampere seconds (mAs) value would result using the 500 mA setting at 0.25 seconds? 1. 20 mAs 2. 125 mAs 3. 12.5 mAs 4. 2000 mAs

2. 125 mAs

Which source-to-image receptor-distance is ideal for an upright chest examination of a patient? 1. 90 cm 2. 180 cm 3. 100 cm 4. 150 cm

2. 180 cm

A radiographic image is made at 200 mA and an exposure time of 100 ms. How can this be expressed in mAs? 1. 10 mAs 2. 20 mAs 3. 40 mAs 4. 60 mAs

2. 20 mAs mAs is the product of mA and exposure time. Therefore, as per the formula, (200 mA) (0.1 s) = 20 mAs [since, 100 ms = 0.1 s] The mAs is 20. Per the formula calculation, 10 mAs, 40 mAs, 60 mAs are incorrect. Test-Taking Tip: Have confidence in your initial response to an item; it is more than likely the correct answer.

When using a fixed-kVp radiographic technique chart, by what percentage should the mAs be increased when imaging large body parts? 1. 20% 2. 30% 3. 40% 4. 50%

2. 30%

A radiographic procedure is performed at 150 mA for 120 ms. Which milliamperes (mA) setting results in the same exposure, but half the initial exposure time? 1. 75 mA 2. 300 mA 3. 450 mA 4. 100 mA

2. 300 mA The radiographer should increase the current to 300 mA in order to maintain constant mAs and have the initial exposure time. This can be calculated as follows: mA first exposure/mA second exposure = Second exposure time/First exposure time 150/ x = 0.06 s/0.12 s X = (0.12*150)/(0.06)= 300 mA Decreasing the current to 75 mA, increasing the current to 450 mA, or decreasing the current to 100 mA will not maintain the exposure.

What will be the exposure time if the radiographic technologist selects a technique that uses 500 mA and results in 150 mAs? 1. 100 ms 2. 300 ms 3. 400 ms 4. 600 ms

2. 300 ms

What is the minimal amount of kilovolts peak (kVp) that should be present on a technique chart used for computed radiography (excluding mammography)? 1. 40 2. 50 3. 70 4. 80

2. 50

If a phantom knee measures 14 cm thick, what kilovolts peak (kVp) should be used to begin construction of a variable-kVp technique chart for a three-phase x-ray machine? 1. 51 kVp 2. 53 kVp 3. 55 kVp 4. 58 kVp

2. 53 kVp

When using a fixed-kVp radiographic technique chart, approximately what kVp is appropriate for the soft tissue of the abdomen? 1. 60 kVp 2. 70 kVp 3. 80 kVp 4. 90 kVp

2. 70 kVp

What could be the actual length of the kidney, if it measured 12 cm on the radiograph taken with a source to image distance of 100 cm and an object-to-image distance of 20 cm? 1. 2.4 cm 2. 9.6 cm 3. 15.0 cm 4. 20.0 cm

2. 9.6 cm The magnification produced can be calculated using the formula: Magnification factor = Image size/Object size = Source to image distance/Source to object distance = Source to image distance/(Source to image distance - Object to image distance) Therefore, 12 cm/x = 100 cm / (100-20) cm X = (80 cm/100 cm) x 12 cm = 9.6 cm The options 2.4 cm, 15.0 cm, and 20.0 cm are incorrect with respect to the given data. Test-Taking Tip: Make educated guesses when necessary.

How can penumbra be reduced in a radiographic image? 1. By using a large focal point 2. By using a small focal point 3. By increasing the object image receptor distance 4. By decreasing the source image receptor distance

2. By using a small focal point

What causes software artifacts? 1. Collimation of the x-rays 2. Compression of the image 3. Improper patient positioning 4. Debris in the image receptor

2. Compression of the image

What is the function of milliampere-seconds? 1. Absorption of scatter radiation 2. Control of the quantity of x-ray photons 3. Control of the penetrating ability of the beam 4. Determination of resolution of the digital images

2. Control of the quantity of x-ray photons

Which would be classified as a preventable image artifact? 1. Hip prosthesis seen on an anteroposterior (AP) pelvis 2. Elastic band on underwear seen on a kidney, urerter, bladder (KUB) 3. Pacemaker leads seen on a mobile anteroposterior (AP) chest 4. Aneurysm clips seen on posteroanterior (PA) axial (Caldwell) of sinuses

2. Elastic band on underwear seen on a kidney, urerter, bladder (KUB)

Fixed-kVp charts can be calculated with specific mAs values for how much thickness? 1. Every 1 cm 2. Every 2 cm 3. Every 3 cm 4. Every 4 cm

2. Every 2 cm

Which type of technique chart may result in more uniform images? 1. High kilovoltage chart 2. Fixed kilovoltage chart 3. Maximum kilovoltage chart 4. Automatic exposure chart

2. Fixed kilovoltage chart

What type of radiographic technique chart is used most often in clinical practice? 1. High kilovoltage techniques 2. Fixed kilovoltage techniques 3. Variable kilovoltage techniques 4. Automatic exposure techniques

2. Fixed kilovoltage techniques

Which combination is appropriate when imaging the chest of a patient? 1. Low kVp; low mAs 2. High kVp; low mAs 3. Low kVp; high mAs 4. High kVp; high mAs

2. High kVp; low mAs

Unexpected foreign objects, such as jewelry, seen on a radiographic image is more than likely due to which cause? 1. Improper technical factor selection 2. Improper patient preparation 3. Improper patient positioning 4. Improper patient movement

2. Improper patient preparation

Which factor would cause an increase in exposure to the image receptor due to radiation fog? 1. Decrease in milliamperage 2. Increase in kilovoltage 3. Increase in source-to-image receptor distance 4. Decrease in focal spot size

2. Increase in kilovoltage

What is a penumbra? 1. It is true edge of an object as imaged radiographically. 2. It is fuzzy edge of an object as imaged radiographically. 3. It is the medium used to capture an image for recording. 4. It is the resultant radiation after the x-ray beam exits the object.

2. It is fuzzy edge of an object as imaged radiographically.

How does high kilovolt peak affect the x-ray beam? 1. It minimizes motion blur. 2. It results in higher energy. 3. It increases exposure time. 4. It increases spatial resolution.

2. It results in higher energy.

What technique factor controls the contrast of a radiographic image? 1. mAs 2. kVp 3. Focal-spot size 4. Patient positioning

2. KVP

Which factor controls the penetrating ability of the beam? 1. Attenuation 2. Kilovolt peak 3. Milliampere-seconds 4. Source-to-image distance

2. Kilovolt peak

On a scapular Y projection of the shoulder, which two landmarks should be superimposed? 1. Radial head and proximal ulna 2. Lateral and vertebral borders of scapula 3. Acromion and vertebral border of scapula 4. Inferior border of scapula and acromioclavicular joint

2. Lateral and vertebral borders of scapula

What should be done when taking a chest radiograph of a patient who has a stent in the coronary arteries of the heart? 1. Remove the stent before the examination 2. Make a note on the radiographic request form 3. Image the chest from the dorsal side of the body 4. Subject the patient to an alternative magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

2. Make a note on the radiographic request form

Which artifact is unique to digital radiography? 1. Pi lines 2. Pixel failure 3. Chemical fog 4. Pressure marks

2. Pixel failure

Which practice is appropriate when performing a hand x-ray on a patient with involuntary tremors caused by Parkinson's disease? 1. Cancelling the examination 2. Placing a sandbag across the patient's forearm 3. Asking a family member of the patient to restrain the hand 4. Administering antianxiety medication to the patient as prescribed

2. Placing a sandbag across the patient's forearm

The factors for an anteroposterior (AP) shoulder are listed on a technique chart as: 85 kilovolts-peak (kVp), 18 milliampere-seconds (mAs), and source-to-image receptor-distance (SID) of 72 inches. Which factor is not appropriate for an AP shoulder? 1. kVp 2. SID 3. MAs 4. All factors are acceptable

2. SID

How can a radiologic technologist obtain high-quality diagnostic images when involuntary patient motions, such as peristalsis, occur? 1. Utilizing low mA settings 2. Setting short exposure times 3. Using immobilization devices 4. Asking the patient to take deep breaths

2. Setting short exposure times

The foundation factors on the radiographic technique chart should be adjusted according to what patient factor in order to maintain uniform quality? 1. Age 2. Size 3. Race 4. Gender

2. Size

What positioning error has been made if the base of a patient's skull is seen as projected over the dens? 1. The patient's neck is rotated too little. 2. The patient's neck is extended too much. 3. The patient's tongue is touching the top of the mouth. 4. The patient's neck is flexed too much toward the chest.

2. The patient's neck is extended too much.

Why is radiographic exposure time kept short while examining a patient? 1. To reduce the current 2. To minimize motion blur 3. To increase x-ray quality 4. To increase image contrast

2. To minimize motion blur

Why does a radiologic technologist use the small focal spot while performing radiographic examination? 1. To increase the penumbra 2. To obtain fine details of small bones 3. To increase magnification of the image 4. To decrease exposure of the image receptor (IR)

2. To obtain fine details of small bones

When does a radiographer observe loss of contrast in a radiographic image? 1. Upon use of the highest grid ratio 2. Upon overexposure to a digital image receptor 3. Upon the presence of additional lead in the grid 4. Upon reducing the source-to-image receptor distance

2. Upon overexposure to a digital image receptor

Which action results in low spatial resolution? 1. Using a smaller focal spot 2. Using the largest image receptor 3. Using a long source-to-image distance 4. Using a small object-to-image receptor distance

2. Using the largest image receptor

Which requires the greatest adjustment to technique? 1. Dry plaster cast 2. Wet plaster cast 3. Air splint 4. Fiberglass cast

2. Wet plaster cast

A 15% increase in which factor doubles exposure to the image receptor (IR)? 1. grids 2. kilovoltage peak (kVp) 3. milliampere seconds (mAs) 4. source-to-image distance (SID)

2. kilovoltage peak (kVp)

Which is correct regarding grid selection? 1. High-ratio grids are used when low-kVp is used. 2. Focused grids are inferior in terms of quality compared to parallel grids. 3. Focused grids require the distance indicators on the x-ray apparatus to be properly calibrated. 4. Choice of grids are unrelated to the size or shape of the anatomical area to be radiographed.

3 Focused grids require the distance indicators on the x-ray apparatus to be properly calibrated.

What is true regarding the given image? 8394272055 1. Object B will produce a more distorted radiograph because thinner objects have variable magnification across their surface. 2. Object A will produce a more distorted radiograph because thinner objects have variable magnification across their surface. 3. Object B will produce a more distorted radiograph because thicker objects have variable magnification across their surface. 4. Object A will produce a more distorted radiograph because thinner objects have variable magnification across their surface.

3 Object B will produce a more distorted radiograph because thicker objects have variable magnification across their surface.

Which changes would increase image contrast? Select all that apply. 1. Increase in kilovoltage 2. Increase in milliamperage 3. Increase in grid ratio 4. Decrease in kilovoltage 5. Decrease in milliamperage 6. Decrease in grid ratio

3 & 4

Which patient factors cause involuntary motion and lead to blurred radiographic images? Select all that apply. 1. Fear 2. Respiration 3. Peristalsis 4. Mental illness 5. Cardiac motion

3 & 4

If a technique chart has the correct technical factors present, what should images of the upper limb demonstrate? Select all that apply. 1. Psoas muscles 2. Air-fluid levels 3. Soft tissue margins 4. Bronchiolar markings 5. Fine trabecular markings

3 & 5

When selecting radiographic technique for a pediatric patient, which factor is important to consider? Select all that apply. 1. Increased OID 2. Increased mA 3. Decreased mA 4. Decreased SID 5. Increased kVp

3 & 5

What is the importance of collimation of the x-ray beam in radiography? Select all that apply. 1. It prevents the heel effect. 2. It prevents phantom image. 3. It prevents histogram errors. 4. It improves the image contrast. 5. It reduces the patient radiation dose.

3,4,5

What technique factors on a technique chart influence the exposure of the image receptor (IR)? Select all that apply. 1. Focal spot size 2. IR size 3. Distance 4. Grid ratio 5. Image receptor speed

3-5

A radiographic image displays with obvious quantum noise (mottle). Which is true? Select all that apply. 1. The image only needs to have the window level adjusted to remove the noise. 2. The patient was overexposed. 3. The image receptor was underexposed. 4. The exposure indicator displays a value that indicates insufficient technical factors were used to obtain the image. 5. The image must be repeated to correct the image. 6. mAs should be increased for the repeat exposure.

3-6

If any particular examination requires 8 mAs to produce a radiograph using a 500 speed image receptor, how much mAs is required for a 700 speed image receptor at the same voltage? 1. 10 mAs 2. 4.2 mAs 3. 5.7 mAs 4. 11.6 mAs

3. 5.7 mAs The new, higher speed image receptor may require less current when compared to the former. This can be calculated by using the following formula: New mAs/Old mAs = Old speed/New speed New mAs = (500x8)/700 = 5.7 mAs The options 10 mAs, 4.2 mAs, and 11.6 mAs are incorrect with respect to the given data.

Using fixed-kVp charts, by what percentage does the milliampere-seconds (mAs) need to be increased to properly image a body part that is swollen as a result of trauma? 1. 30% 2. 40% 3. 50% 4. 60%

3. 50% For a part that is swollen as a result of trauma, a 50% increase may be required. For small anatomical parts, reduce the mAs by 30%. For large anatomical parts, increase the mAs by 30%.

For most x-ray examinations of the spine and trunk of the body, the optimal kilovolts peak (kVp) is approximately what value on the technique charts? 1. 60 kVp 2. 70 kVp 3. 80 kVp 4. 90 kVp

3. 80 kVp

Exposure factors are 75 kV, 100 mAs, 48-in. SID, 3.0 cm OID, 1.0 mm focal spot size (FSS), and a 12:1 grid ratio. Which set of technical factors would maintain overall receptor exposure and lower patient dose? 1. 64 kV, 50 mAs, 48-in SID, 3.0 cm OID, 1.0 mm FSS, 12:1 grid ratio 2. 64 kV, 100 mAs, 48-in SID, 3.0 cm OID, 1.0 mm FSS, 12:1 grid ratio 3. 86 kV, 50 mAs, 48-in SID, 3.0 cm OID, 1.0 mm FSS, 12:1 grid ratio 4. 86 kV, 100 mAs, 48-in SID, 3.0 cm OID, 1.0 mm FSS, 12:1 grid ratio

3. 86 kV, 50 mAs, 48-in SID, 3.0 cm OID, 1.0 mm FSS, 12:1 grid ratio

Which kilovoltage setting range would be most appropriate for adequate penetration of a lateral lumbar spine on a digital system? 1. 50 to 60 kVp 2. 80 to 90 kVp 3. 90 to 100 kVp 4. 100 to 110 kVp

3. 90 to 100 kVp

What should the radiologic technologist do to correct motion in a radiograph? 1. Adjust the focal spot size. 2. Use a new image receptor. 3. Ask the patient not to move. 4. Ask the patient to remove accessories.

3. Ask the patient not to move.

How can a radiographic technologist reduce focal spot blur? 1. By reducing the source-to-object distance 2. By reducing the angle of inclination of the object 3. By reducing the object-to-image receptor distance 4. By reducing the source-to-image receptor distance

3. By reducing the object-to-image receptor distance

What change to the typical technique chart is necessary when imaging the abdomen of a patient with ulcerative colitis? 1. Decrease the source-to-image receptor-distance (SID). 2. Increase the milliampere-seconds (mAs). 3. Decrease the milliampere-seconds (mAs). 4. Increase the kilovolts-peak (kVp).

3. Decrease the milliampere-seconds (mAs)

Which is the most significant advantage of a fixed-kVp technique chart? 1. Decreased penetration 2. Increased absorption 3. Decreased patient dose 4. Increased patient dose

3. Decreased patient dose

Which term is used to refer to misrepresentation of the true size or shape of an object? 1. Fog 2. Penumbra 3. Distortion 4. Latent image

3. Distortion

What can be observed if a previously exposed image receptor (IR) is used for a radiographic examination? 1. Blur 2. Ghost image 3. Double exposure 4. Decreased contrast

3. Double exposure

Which artifact, in which a repeat examination is required, occurs as a result of the radiologic technologist using the same image receptor (IR) twice? 1. Foreign body artifact 2. Aliasing artifact 3. Double exposure 4. Moiré effect

3. Double exposure

Which artifact occurs when a patient breathes involuntarily during a radiographic examination? 1. Storage 2. Handling 3. Exposure 4. Processing

3. Exposure

An acute abdominal series is ordered on a patient with ascites. How should the radiologic technologist adjust the settings on the technique chart to adequately visualize the abdomen? 1. Increase the source-to-image receptor-distance (SID). 2. Decrease the source-to-image receptor-distance (SID). 3. Increase the milliampere-seconds (mAs). 4. Decrease the milliampere-seconds (mAs).

3. Increase the milliampere-seconds (mAs).

Which would be used to calculate the appropriate technique adjustment required for a forearm in a plaster cast? 1. Use the 15% rule to Increase kVp and decrease mAs. 2. Use the 15% rule to decrease kVp and increase mAs. 3. Measure the part and use the technique chart to compensate for increased part thickness. 4. Measure the part and double the kVp recommended by the technique chart.

3. Measure the part and use the technique chart to compensate for increased part thickness.

Where should the radiologic technologist place the cathode while examining a patient's thoracic spine using mobile radiography? 1. To the patient's left 2. To the patient's right 3. Over the lower thoracic vertebrae 4. Over the upper thoracic vertebrae

3. Over the lower thoracic vertebrae

Which bony landmarks must be included on a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the wrist? 1. Distal tufts to distal radius and ulna 2. Distal radius and ulna to elbow joint 3. Proximal one-third of metacarpals to distal radius and ulna 4. Proximal one-third of metacarpals to proximal radius and ulna

3. Proximal one-third of metacarpals to distal radius and ulna

Which characteristic of a radiographic image refers to the ability to image small objects that have high contrast? 1. Latitude 2. Spatial distortion 3. Spatial resolution 4. Contrast resolution

3. Spatial resolution

Which function of digital image postprocessing helps improve image contrast in DSA (Digital Subtraction Angiography)? 1. Image flip 2. Annotation 3. Subtraction 4. Magnification

3. Subtraction

What criteria are used to measure rotation for an anteroposterior (AP) projection of the dens? 1. The frontal sinuses are visualized clearly. 2. The supraorbital arches are superimposed. 3. The mandible, cranium, and vertebrae are symmetrical. 4. The superior portion of teeth are visualized over the dens.

3. The mandible, cranium, and vertebrae are symmetrical.

What can a radiologic technologist do to reduce focal spot blur? 1. Increase the grid ratio. 2. Use a large focal spot. 3. Use a small focal spot. 4. Use short exposure time.

3. Use a small focal spot.

How can motion blur be effectively reduced? 1. Using long exposure time 2. Using a tight grip on the patient 3. Using a small object-to-image receptor distance 4. Using a small source-to-image receptor distance

3. Using a small object-to-image receptor distance

Exposure directed by what type of radiographic technique chart usually results in higher patient radiation dose and less exposure latitude? 1. High kilovoltage chart 2. Fixed kilovoltage chart 3. Variable kilovoltage chart 4. Automatic exposure chart

3. Variable kilovoltage chart

Which radiographic technique chart generally uses lower kilovolts peak (kVp)? 1. High kilovoltage chart 2. Fixed kilovoltage chart 3. Variable kilovoltage chart 4. Automatic exposure chart

3. Variable kilovoltage chart

Which method is used to correct linear artifacts produced on a digital radiographic image? 1. Flatfielding 2. Interpolation 3. Voltage correction 4. Application of offset voltage

3. Voltage correction

In order for a radiographic chart to meet with success, the radiologic technologist must know how to make adjustments for what situations? Select all that apply. 1. Patient age 2. Patient gender 3. Patient mobility 4. Patient body habitus 5. Pathological processe

4 & 5

Which factors can control size distortion? Select all that apply. 1. Image receptor 2. Central ray angulation 3. Alignment of the beam 4. Object-to-image distance 5. Source-to-image distance

4 & 5 Size distortion is commonly known as magnification. A decrease in object-to-image distance decreases magnification. Appropriate object-to-image distance prevents size distortion. Source-to-image distance affects image magnification. A decrease in source-to-image distance increases magnification and increases size distortion. Therefore, proper object-to-image distance and source-to-image distance are essential to control size distortion. The relationship between the image receptor and anatomical part controls shape distortion. Central ray angulation influences shape distortion. Alignment of the beam is the controlling factor for shape distortion. Test-Taking Tip: Read every word of each question and option before responding to the item. Skimming over the questions just to get through the examination quickly can cause you to misread or misinterpret the real intent of the question.

Which set of exposure factors would yield the least amount of scatter produced? 1. 100 mAs, 80 kVp, 72-in SID; 12:1 grid; 14x17-in field size 2. 100 mAs, 80 kVp, 40-in SID; 8:1 grid; 8x12-in field size 3. 100 mAs, 75 kVp, 72-in SID; 12:1 grid; 14x17-in field size 4. 100 mAs, 75 kVp, 40-in SID; 16:1 grid; 8x12-in field size

4. 100 mAs, 75 kVp, 40-in SID; 16:1 grid; 8x12-in field size

For chest radiography, all skeletal tissue is penetrated and visualization of the different soft tissue mass densities present is enhanced when what kVp is selected? 1. 80 kVp 2. 90 kVp 3. 100 kVp 4. 110 kVp

4. 110 kVp

What amount of kilovolts peak (kVp) should be used during a routine chest exam of an average-sized adult? 1. 80-85 kVp 2. 60-75 kVp 3. 55-60 kVp 4. 110-125 kVp

4. 110-125 kVp

A radiograph is made using 40 milliampere seconds (mAs) at a 40-inch SID. If the image must be repeated at a 72-inch SID, what mAs value is necessary to maintain the same exposure? 1. 13 mAs 2. 12 mAs 3. 120 mAs 4. 130 mAs

4. 130 mAs

A radiologic technologist wants to use 100 milliampere-seconds (mAs). If the generator has the capacity from 200 milliamperes (mA) to 1000 mA, what should be the maximum exposure time for the examination? 1. 100 ms 2. 300 ms 3. 400 ms 4. 500 ms

4. 500 ms

What is the total quantity of x-ray exposure if the current supplied to the x-ray tube is 200 mA and the exposure time is 0.040 s? 1. 2 mAs 2. 4 mAs 3. 6 mAs 4. 8 mAs

4. 8 mAs

A foundation technique chart is one made for which patient population? 1. Obese patients 2. Pediatric patients 3. Emaciated patients 4. Average-sized adult patients

4. Average-sized adult patients

Modern x-ray generators have anatomic programmers that can store a wide range of radiographic techniques. To use this type of equipment with the technique automatically set, what factor does the radiographer select? 1. Age 2. Mobility 3. Gender 4. Body part

4. Body part

What two areas of the foot are best demonstrated on the medial oblique projection of the foot? 1. Proximal tibia and fibula 2. Medial portion of talus and navicular bone 3. Medial cuneiform and base of first metatarsal 4. Cuboid bone and tuberosity of fifth metatarsal

4. Cuboid bone and tuberosity of fifth metatarsal

When is penumbra increased? 1. Selecting a smaller pixel size 2. Enhancing radiographic contrast 3. Increasing source-to-image distance 4. Decreasing the distance between the beam and the object

4. Decreasing the distance between the beam and the object

Which term is used to describe a numeric value that is representative of the exposure that the image receptor has received? 1. Noise 2. Distortion 3. Exposure Latitude 4. Exposure indicator

4. Exposure indicator

If the patient is positioned for examination when the X-ray tube is not centered to the table or Bucky tray, what type of artifacts may occur? 1. Moiré effect 2. Phantom artifacts 3. Guide shoe marks 4. Grid cutoff artifacts

4. Grid cutoff artifacts

What is the principal advantage of using radiographic technique charts? 1. Image motion 2. Image resolution 3. Image distortion 4. Image consistency

4. Image consistency

What does the radiologic technologist check on the display monitor to assess the reason for the mirror images? 1. Barrel-like pattern 2. Low contrast patterns 3. Pincushion like pattern 4. Images of light sources

4. Images of light sources

Which imaging exams would most likely use a technique of 85 kilvolts peak (kVp) and 15 milliampere-seconds (mAs) for an adult? 1. Ankle 2. Thumb 3. PA chest 4. Lateral skull

4. Lateral skull

Which is the main control of image receptor (IR) exposure? 1. Grids 2. Kilovolt peak (kVp) 3. Beam collimation 4. Milliampere-seconds (mAs)

4. Milliampere-seconds (mAs)

Which factor may lead to the motion on a radiologic image? 1. Increased total filtration 2. Increased focal spot size 3. Large source-to-image receptor distance 4. Movement of the x-ray tube during exposure

4. Movement of the x-ray tube during exposure

An obvious deformity of the forearm is present on a patient. What exposure factor needs to be adjusted before taking the radiograph? 1. Increase the kilovolts peak (kVp). 2. Increase the milliamperes (mA). 3. Increase the source-to-image receptor-distance (SID). 4. No change is needed.

4. No change is needed.

The table shows the position of the patient with respect to the image receptor. Which patient's forearm radiograph would be the most foreshortened? 1. Patient 1 (10 degrees) 2. Patient 2 (12 degrees) 3. Patient 3 (20 degrees) 4. Patient 4 (30 degrees)

4. Patient 4 (30 degrees)

Radiographic technique charts and their use become an important issue with what aspect of patient care? 1. Image detail 2. Image distortion 3. Definitive diagnosis 4. Patient radiation protection

4. Patient radiation protection

Which artifact is produced due to the backscatter radiation on the digital radiographic image receptor? 1. White spots 2. Radiation fog 3. Ghost images 4. Phantom images

4. Phantom images

Which factor, when decreased, will increase spatial resolution in digital radiography? 1. Matrix size 2. Source-to-image receptor distance 3. Beam restriction 4. Pixel size

4. Pixel size

A radiographic technologist is performing a radiographic examination of the thoracic spine. Which position takes advantage of the heel effect and will reduce focal spot blur? 1. Positioning the left side toward the cathode and the right side towards the anode 2. Positioning the right side toward the cathode and the left side towards the anode 3. Positioning the neck toward the cathode and the abdomen towards the anode 4. Positioning the abdomen toward the cathode and the neck towards the anode

4. Positioning the abdomen toward the cathode and the neck towards the anode

Which can reduce distortion? 1. Increased kilovoltage 2. Enlarged focal-spot size 3. Increased receptor speed 4. Proper alignment of the image receptor

4. Proper alignment of the image receptor

To prepare a fixed kilovolts peak (kVp) radiographic technique chart, what is the first step? 1. Select the proper focal spot sizes. 2. Determine the size of image receptors that will be used. 3. X-ray equipment must be accredited by the American College of Radiology. 4. Separate the anatomic part thickness into three groups—small, medium, and large.

4. Separate the anatomic part thickness into three groups—small, medium, and large.

A radiologic technologist finds a phantom image in an x-ray image. What would the radiologic technologist do to correct it? 1. Clean the image receptor. 2. Replace the image receptor. 3. Check for the collimation of x-ray field. 4. Shield the backside of the image receptor.

4. Shield the backside of the image receptor.

Which factor should be adjusted to decrease the magnification of an object? 1. Kilovolts peak (kVp) 2. Focal spot size 3. Milliampere-seconds (mAs) 4. Source- to-image receptor distance

4. Source- to-image receptor distance

Which factor affects the geometric properties of an image? 1. Attenuation 2. Focal spot size 3. Beam modification 4. Source-to-image distance

4. Source-to-image distance

When does the radiographic image appear as shown in the figure?8389735463 1. The number of x-ray photons increases. 2. The source-to-image distance (SID) increases. 3. The object-to-image distance (OID) decreases. 4. The image receptor (IR) receives insufficient exposure.

4. The image receptor (IR) receives insufficient exposure.

What positioning error has been made if the patient's upper teeth are visualized over the dens for an open mouth anteroposterior (AP) projection of the dens? 1. The patient's neck is rotated too little. 2. The patient's neck is extended too much. 3. The patient's tongue is touching the top of the mouth. 4. The patient's neck is flexed too much toward the chest.

4. The patient's neck is flexed too much toward the chest

What positioning error has most likely been made if the image shows the patient's tongue and dens as superimposed? 1. The patient's neck is rotated too little. 2. The patient's neck is extended too much. 3. The patient's neck is flexed too much toward the chest. 4. The patient's tongue is touching the top of the mouth.

4. The patient's tongue is touching the top of the mouth

Which significantly alters contrast and makes a considerable difference in any technique chart? 1. Alignment of tube 2. Image receptor speed 3. Focal spot size 4. Total filtration on the collimator housing

4. Total filtration on the collimator housing

What is most likely observed on the radiograph taken on an imaging plate that has corner damage and peeling? 1. Noisy images 2. Blurry images 3. Ghost images 4. Undesired shapes

4. Undesired shapes

How can magnification be minimized in a radiographic procedure? 1. Use a small source-to-object distance (SOD). 2. Use a large object-to-image receptor distance (OID). 3. Use a small source-to-image receptor distance (SID). 4. Use a large source-to-image receptor distance (SID).

4. Use a large source-to-image receptor distance (SID).

Which image receptor (IR) would have the greatest exposure? 1 IR 1 2 IR 2 3 IR 3 Correct4 IR 4

Correct4 IR 4

What is the most likely cause of the artifact produced in the digital radiograph shown? 8389733190 1. Improper cleaning of the image receptors 2. High compression of the images on the imaging plate 3. Improper selection of the histogram before examination 4. Improper alignment of the exposure field on the imaging plate The image represents improper alignment of the exposure field on the imaging plate. This can be concluded from the multiple scattered fields on the radiograph. The image does not represent any residual debris on the image receptors. This can be concluded from the absence of foreign objects on the radiograph. The image does not signify the presence of any compression artifacts. It does not represent improper analysis of the histogram, as the image is of good contrast. Test-Taking Tip: Answer every question. A question without an answer is always a wrong answer, so go ahead and guess.

Improper alignment of the exposure field on the imaging plate

How does improper part-central ray alignment affect the image? 1. Detail 2. Contrast 3. Distortion 4. Optical density

3. Distortion


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