Hesi EAQ Quiz: Medical-Surgical Nursing: Respiratory System, Integumentary System, Musculoskeletal
A client is scheduled for radiation treatments Monday through Friday. The client asks why the treatments will not be given on Saturday and Sunday. Which is the nurse's best response? 1 "This type of schedule gives noncancerous cells time to recover." 2 "The department only operates from Monday through Friday." 3 "Your energy level will be increased greatly by a 5-day schedule." Incorrect 4 "Side effects are eliminated when treatment is administered for 5 rather than 7 days."
"This type of schedule gives noncancerous cells time to recover." Both malignant and healthy cells are affected by radiation; time between courses of treatment allows normal cells to repair. Staff are available if necessary for a treatment protocol; some facilities operate 7 days a week. Fatigue occurs in either a 5- or 7-day schedule. Some side effects are inevitable, although they vary with each individual; they cannot be eliminated.
Which description could be related to zosteriform-type lesions? 1 Wide distribution 2 Diffuse distribution 3 Bilateral distribution 4 Band-like distribution
Band-like distribution Band-like distribution of lesions would be termed as zosteriform-type lesions. Diffuse-type lesions are described as the wide distribution of the lesions. Generalized-type lesions are identified by the diffused distribution of the lesions. Symmetric-type lesions are the bilateral distribution of the lesions.
What is an example of third spacing in a burn injury? 1 Blister formation 2 Edema formation 3 Fluid mobilization 4 Fluid accumulation
Blister formation Blister formation is an example of third spacing in burn injuries. Edema formation and fluid mobilization generally happen in every burn injury. Fluid accumulation is formed in second spacing in a burn injury.
Which skin color alteration may be observed in a client diagnosed with methemoglobinemia? 1 Red 2 Blue 3 White 4 Yellow-orange
Blue Blue discoloration of the skin may indicate an increase in deoxygenated blood, which is associated with methemoglobinemia. Red (erythema) may be associated with generalized inflammation. White (pallor) may indicate a decreased level of hemoglobin. It may signify a risk of anemia and shock. A yellow-orange skin discoloration may indicate jaundice and is associated with liver disorders.
During a first aid class, a student asks what should be done if a person's clothes catch on fire. The nurse explains that after the flames are extinguished it is most important to perform this action. Which action did the nurse describe? 1 Give the person sips of water. 2 Assess the person's breathing. 3 Cover the person with a warm blanket. 4 Calculate the extent of the person's burns.
Assess the person's breathing. A patent airway is most vital; if the person is not breathing, cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) should be instituted. The person should be kept nothing by mouth because large burns decrease intestinal peristalsis and the person may vomit and aspirate. Covering the person with a warm blanket is not done; rather a light blanket or sheet can be used. Calculating the extent of the person's burns is not the priority; this assessment is done after transfer to a medical facility.
Which surgical procedure is appropriate for the removal of a vocal cord due to laryngeal cancer? 1 Cordectomy 2 Tracheotomy 3 Total laryngectomy 4 Oropharyngeal resections
Cordectomy A cordectomy is a surgical procedure performed in clients with laryngeal cancer; this surgery involves the removal of a vocal cord. A tracheotomy is a surgical incision in the trachea for the purpose of establishing an airway. A total laryngectomy is a surgical procedure in which the entire larynx, hyoid bone, strap muscles, and one or two tracheal rings are removed. A nodal neck dissection is also done in a total laryngectomy if the nodes are involved. An oropharyngeal resection is a surgical procedure performed to treat cancer of the oropharynx.
Which characteristic does the nurse associate with a punch biopsy? 1 It is usually indicated for superficial or raised lesions. 2 It is more uncomfortable than other biopsies while healing. 3 It is performed using a circular cutting instrument 2 to 6 mm in diameter. 4 It removes only the portion of the skin that rises above the surrounding tissue.
It is performed using a circular cutting instrument 2 to 6 mm in diameter. Punch biopsy is a common technique that involves the use of a small circular cutting instrument with a diameter of 2 to 6 mm. Shave biopsies are usually recommended for superficial or raised lesions. Excisional biopsies are comparatively more uncomfortable than punch or shave biopsies. Shave biopsies remove the skin portion that rises above surrounding tissues.
Which estrogen antagonist is specifically used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women? 1 Raloxifene 2 Denosumab 3 Alendronate 4 Zoledronic acid
Raloxifene Raloxifene is used to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women by increasing bone mineral density, reducing bone desorption, and reducing incidences of osteoporotic vertebral fractures. Denosumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat osteoporosis when other drugs are not effective. Alendronate and zoledronic acid are commonly used for the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis.
The nurse is teaching the client about wound healing. Which feature is associated with the "maturation phase" of normal wound healing? 1 The scar is firm and inelastic on palpation. 2 Fibrin strands form a scaffold or framework. 3 White blood cells migrate into the wound. 4 Epithelial cells are grown over the granulation tissue bed.
The scar is firm and inelastic on palpation. The maturation phase of normal wound healing involves a mature scar that is firm and inelastic when palpated. In the proliferative phase, the fibrin strands form a scaffold or framework. White blood cells migrate into the wound during the inflammatory phase. In the proliferative phase, the epithelial cells are grown over the granulation tissue bed.
A client who is scheduled for a muscle biopsy tells the nurse, "They better give me a general anesthetic. I don't want to feel anything." Which is the most therapeutic initial response by the nurse? 1 "You seem to be worried about the test." 2 "This test is done under local anesthesia." 3 "Tell them when you have pain so they can take care of it." 4 "You probably will not have pain so try not to think about it."
"You seem to be worried about the test." The response "You seem to be worried about the test" acknowledges the client's apprehension and encourages further communication. The response "This test is done under local anesthesia" does not address the client's feelings and may cause more anxiety. The response "Tell them when you have pain so they can take care of it" is perhaps true, but it does not foster communication; the client may focus on the word "pain." The response "You probably will not have pain so try not to think about it" negates the client's feelings and promotes false reassurance.
Which diagnostic scan is used to detect diffuse or localized muscle weakness? 1 Arthroscopy 2 Radiography 3 Myelography 4 Electromyography
Electromyography An electromyography is performed to detect diffuse or localized muscle weakness by determining the electric potential generated in an individual. Arthroscopy is used for the direct visualization of ligaments, menisci, and articular surfaces of a joint. A radiography is performed to detect bone density, alignment, swelling, and intactness of a joint. A myelography is performed to visualize the vertebral column, intervertebral discs, spinal nerve roots, and blood vessels.
A client with a skin infection reports an itching sensation associated with pain at the site of infection. The assessment finding shows erythematous blisters and interdigital scaling and maceration. What could be the possible condition in the client? 1 Tinea pedis 2 Tinea cruris 3 Tinea corporis 4 Tinea unguium
Tinea pedis Tinea pedis is a fungal infection with an itching sensation associated with pain. It is clinically manifested as interdigital scaling and maceration and a scaly plantar surface, sometimes with erythema and blistering. Tinea cruris is a fungal infection that is clinically manifested with well-defined scaly plaque in the groin area. Tinea corporis is clinically manifested as an erythematous, annular, ring-like scaly appearance with well-defined margins. Tinea unguium or onychomycosis is manifested with scaliness under the distal nail plate.