High flow Nasal Cannula" The nose insertion is thick"

Which manifestation would the nurse expect to find when assessing the gastrointestinal tract of an HIV+ patient in the crisis stage?

DiarrheaThe nurse would expect the patient in the crisis stage of HIV infection to have diarrhea.

The health care provider prescribes a combination drug for a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who has had a progressive increase in viral load. The patient asks the nurse why there is a change to the medication regimen. What is the nurse's best response?

"Combination antiretroviral drugs are more effective because each drug attacks HIV in different stages." Each class of antiviral drugs works in a different way to kill HIV. Using more than one antiretroviral drug kills the virus in different ways.

The nurse is talking with an HIV+ patient about managing the disease. The patient admits to being depressed about the diagnosis and does not feel like going out because of the medication side effects. What is the nurse's best response?

"Have you discussed these side effects with your health care provider? This is the best response because it addresses the patient's concerns about the medication side effects.

A patient presents to the clinic and asks the nurse about human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection to determine her risk for contracting the disease. What should the nurse ask the patient?

"Have you ever had unprotected sexual contact?" Unprotected sexual contact is a risk factor for contracting HIV infection. "Do you use intravenous drugs and share needles?" Sharing needles during use of intravenous drugs is a risk factor for contracting HIV infection. "How many sexual partners do you currently have?" Having multiple sexual partners places an individual at higher risk for contracting HIV infection.

A patient with a negative rapid antibody human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) test result asks the nurse why the health care provider scheduled another HIV test in 2 months. What is the nurse's best response?

"There is a period during which the virus is present in the body but not detected in blood tests." The window period is a time frame between infection and seroconversion. The patient has HIV infection, but antibodies are not detectable by diagnostic tests. Therefore the health care provider will repeat the HIV test in 2 months.

Which part of the HIV infection process is disrupted by the antiretroviral drug class of entry inhibitors?

Binding of the virus to the CD4+ receptor and either of the two co-receptors

in HIV infection more virus particles are created when the virus enters which type of host cell

CD4 t cell

According to the CDC, laboratory classification, which class of HIV is marked by CD4 T-cell count greater than 500 cells/mm^3 (0.5 * 10^9/L) or a percentage of 29 percentage or greater?

Class 1 class0 normal range class1 greater than 500 cells 29 percent or greater Class 2 200 to 499, 14 percent to 28 percent class 3 is 200 or less. less than 14 percent.

signs and symptoms is a CNS indication of acquired immune deficiecy syndrome (AIDS)

Dementia and confusion DEmentia and confusion are cns signs and symptoms fround in AIDS. Nause and diarrhea are GI signs and symptoms Lymphadenopathy and hypergammaglobulinemia are immuologic signs.

Which statement best describes the transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

HIV is transmitted through blood and bodily fluids. HIV is transmitted through blood and body fluids.

A client with HIV-III is admitted to the hospital with Toxoplasma gondii infection. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?

Initiate Protective Precautions. Toxoplasma gondii infection is an opportunistic infection that causes an encephalitis but poses only a rare threat to immunocompetent individuals The nurse would perform ongoing neurologic assessments. Contact and Protective Precautions are not needed. Good respiratory assessments are important to the client, but toxoplasmosis will demonstrate neurologic signs and symptoms.

which class of drugs for HIV infeciton reduces how weel HIV genetic material can be converted into human gnetic material?

NRTIs Protease inhibiros work to inhibit HIV proteases Integrase inhibitors prevent viral dna from integrating into the hosts dna. NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing reverse trasncriptase. fusion inhibitors prevent interaction needed for entry of HIV into the cd4 t cell.

A patient with a new diagnosis of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection begins receiving antiretroviral therapy. Which finding indicates the patient is having complications related to the treatment regimen?

Weight lossNausea, vomiting, and diarrhea are major side effects of antiretroviral therapy. These side effects can lead to wasting syndrome.

The nurse is teaching a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection ways to decrease the risk of infecting other people. Which statement made by the patient indicates effective teaching?

"I should refrain from sharing needles with anyone else." The nurse will instruct the patient with HIV to refrain from sharing needles with others because this exposes people to the virus.

The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results for patient who is HIV+. The results show no viral load. Which information should the nurse include in patient education?

"Use barrier contraception during sexual contact."Even though the patient has no detectable HIV cells in the blood, the patient is still HIV+ and can transmit the disease to other people. Therefore the nurse should instruct the patient to use barrier contraception during sexual contact.

which time frame is the window of opportunity to begin postexposure prophylaxis (PEP) with combination antiretrovial therapy (cART) for a nurse who has been exposed to the blood of a patient who is human immune deficiency virus (HIV) positive?

36 hours PEP with cART is used for adults who have had a an occupational exposure those who have had a nonoccupational exposure and those who have suffered a sexual assault. starting cART as soon as possible within the first 36 hours is critical to preventing HIV infeciton. The time period of 72 hours, 2 weeks, and 1 month are not within the critcal window for treatment.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has been receiving antiretroviral treatment for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which finding in the medical record indicates the treatment has been effective?

A CD4 T-cell count of 900 cells/µL The normal CD4 T-cell count is between 800 and 1200 cells/µL. A CD4 T-cell count of 900 cells/µL indicates the patient has a normal count and the treatment is effective.

Which dietary change does the nurse suggest for the client who has esophageal candidiasis?

A. "Avoid drinking alcoholic beverages." B. "Eat soft, cool food such as pudding and smoothies." C. "Limit your intake of fluid to no more than 1 L daily." D. "Increase your intake of cooked leafy green vegetables."

What is the most important question for the nurse to ask before giving the first dose of fosamprenavir to a client newly prescribed this drug?

A. "Do you have glaucoma or any other problem with your eyes?" B. "Do you take medications for a seizure disorder?" C. "Are you allergic to sulfa drugs?" D. "Are you a diabetic?"

Which statement made by the client with stage HIV-III disease (AIDS) whose CD4+ T-cell count has increased from 125 cells/mm3 (0.2 × 109/L) to 400 cells/mm3 (0.2 × 109/L) indicates to the nurse that more teaching is needed?

A. "Now my viral load is also probably lower." B. "I am so relieved that my drug therapy is working." C. "Although I am still HIV positive, at least I no longer have AIDS." D. "This change means I am less likely to develop an opportunistic infection."

The client on combination antiretroviral therapy calls the nurse to report that he is on vacation and the bag with his drugs was accidentally left on the airplane, so he missed all of yesterday's dosages. What action does the nurse recommend?

A. "Take today's dosages as normally prescribed and continue to follow your therapy program." B. "Don't worry. Unless you miss your drugs for 4 days consecutively, there is not a problem." C. "Take double doses of the drugs for the next 2 days and do not have sex for at least 4 days." D. "Go to the nearest emergency department and have an immediate blood test for assessment of viral load."

A client who is HIV positive and receiving combination antiretroviral therapy tells the nurse she is now pregnant. Which drug does the nurse expect to be suspended during this patient's pregnancy?

A. Abacavir B. Darunivir C. Tripanavir D. Raltegravir

Which part of the HIV infection process is disrupted by the antiretroviral drug class of protease inhibitors?

A. Activating the viral enzyme "integrase" within the infected host's cells B. Binding of the virus to the CD4+ receptor and either of the two co-receptors C. Clipping the newly generated viral proteins into smaller functional pieces D. Fusing of the newly created viral particle with the infected cell's membrane

Which activities can the nurse postpone or eliminate for the client who has extreme fatigue today? Select all that apply.

A. Administering prescribed drug therapy B. Ambulating in the hall C. Culturing suspected infectious drainage D. Performing pulmonary hygiene E. Performing oral care F. Providing a complete bed bath G. Teaching about nutrition therapy

Which food, drink, or herbal supplement does the nurse teach the client taking tipranavir to avoid?

A. Caffeinated beverages B. Grapefruit juice C. Dairy products D. St. John's wort

A client with HIV-III is hospitalized and has weeping Kaposi sarcoma lesions. The nurse dresses them with sterile gauze. When changing these dressings, which action is most important for the nurse's safety?

Adhering to Standard Precautions All of the actions are important, but due to the infectious nature of this illness, the nurse would ensure he or she is following Standard Precautions (and Transmission-Based Precautions when necessary) to avoid a potential exposure.

The nurse is teaching a client about medications for HIV-II treatment. What drugs are paired with the correct information? (Select all that apply.)

Abacavir: avoid fatty and fried foods. Efavirenz: take 1 hour before or 2 hours after antacids. All drugs: you must adhere to the drug schedule at least 90% of the time for effectiveness Abacavir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and clients are taught to avoid fried and fatty foods because they can lead to digestive upsets and even pancreatitis. Efavirenz is a nonnucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor and clients are taught to take them (doraverene) all except spaced 1 hour before or 2 hours after antacids to avoid inhibiting drug absorption. Atazanavir is a protease inhibitor and can cause bradycardia which should be reported. Dolutegravir is an integrase inhibitor and can cause birth defects. Enfuvirtide is a fusion inhibitor and is given subcuta

The nurse is caring for a patient who is HIV+ and has been admitted to the hospital for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia. Which intervention will prevent complications related to the patient's HIV infection?

Administer antiretroviral drugs on timeAntiretroviral medications should be given on time to decrease viral load and improve immune function.

The nurse is presenting information to a community group on safer sex practices. The nurse would teach that which sexual practice is the riskiest?

Anal intercourse Anal intercourse is the riskiest sexual practice because the fragile anal tissue can tear, creating a portal of entry for human immune deficiency virus in addition to providing mucus membrane contact with the virus.

A client with HIV-III is hospitalized with P. jiroveci pneumonia and is started on the drug of choice for this infection. What laboratory values would be most important for the nurse report to the primary health care provider? (Select all that apply.)

Aspartate transaminase, alanine transaminase: elevated Platelet count: 80,000/mm3 (80 109 /L) e. Serum sodium: 120 mEq/L (120 mmol/L) The drug of choice to treat P. jiroveci pneumonia is trimethoprim with sulfamethoxazole. Side effects of this drug include hepatitis, hyponatremia, and thrombocytopenia. The elevated liver enzymes, low platelet count, and low sodium would all be reported. The CD4+ cell count is within the expected range for a client with an AIDS-defining infection. The creatinine level is normal and the potassium is just below normal.

A client with HIV-II has had a sudden decline in status with a large increase in viral load. What action would the nurse take first?

Assess the client for adherence to the drug regimen Adherence to the complex drug regimen needed for HIV treatment can be daunting. Clients must take their medications on time and correctly at a minimum of 90% of the time to be effective. Since this client's viral load has increased dramatically, the nurse would first assess this factor. After this, the other assessments may or may not be needed.

A client has just been informed of a positive HIV test. The client is distraught and does not know what to do. What intervention by the nurse is best?

Assess the client for support systems This client needs the assistance of support systems. The nurse would help the client identify them and what role they can play in supporting him or her. A clergy member may or may not be welcome. Positive HIV test results are reportable in all 50 states, Washington, D.C., and Canada but the nurse works with the client to support his or her choices in disclosure. The nurse would not tell the family for the client.

A nurse is talking with a client about a negative enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) test for human immune deficiency virus (HIV). The test is negative and the client states "Whew! I was really worried about that result." What action by the nurse is most important?

Assess the client's sexual activity and patterns. The ELISA test can be falsely negative if testing occurs after the client has become infected but prior to making antibodies to HIV. This period of time is known as the window period and can last up to 21 days. The confirmatory Western Blot test takes an additional 7 days, so using that testing algorithm, the client's status may not truly be known for up to 28 days. The client may have had exposure that has not yet been confirmed. The nurse needs to assess the client's sexual behavior further to determine the proper response. The other actions are not the most important, but discussing safer sex practices is always appropriate. Testing would be recommended every 3 months for someone engaging in high risk behaviors.

. A client with HIV-III has been hospitalized with suspected cryptosporidiosis. What physical assessment would be most important with this condition?

Assessing mucous membranes Cryptosporidiosis can cause diarrhea and wasting with extreme loss of fluids and electrolytes. The nurse would assess signs of hydration/dehydration as the priority, including checking the client's mucous membranes for dryness. The nurse will perform the other assessments as part of a comprehensive assessment

A client with HIV-III has oral thrush and difficulty eating. What actions does the nurse delegate to the assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.)

Assist the client with oral care every 2 hours. Offer the client frequent sips of cool drinks. Remind the client to use only a soft toothbrush. f. Offer the client soft foods like gelatin or pudding. The AP can help the client with oral care, offer fluids, and remind the client of things the nurse (or other professional) has already taught. Soft foods and liquids are tolerated better than harder foods. Applying medications is performed by the nurse. Alcohol-based mouthwashes are harsh and drying and would not be used.

A client with HIV-III is in the hospital with severe diarrhea. What actions does the nurse delegate to assistive personnel (AP)? (Select all that apply.)

Assisting the client to get out of bed to prevent falls c. Obtaining a bedside commode if the client is weak d. Providing gentle perianal cleansing after stools e. Reporting any perianal abnormalities The AP can assist the client with getting out of bed, obtain a bedside commode for the client's use, cleanse the client's perianal area after bowel movements, and report any abnormal observations such as redness or open areas. The nurse assesses fluid and electrolyte status.

which medication is most likely to have caused hypersensitivity reaciton of severe angioedema of the lips, face, and tongue?

Benazepril angioedema are aniotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors, such as benazepril.

a patients serum contains a highly elevated level of IGE antibodies (140 IU/ml). what could be the possible effects of this elevated IGE?

CApillary leak, pruritus and inflammation, excessive release of histamine. Patients with type 1 hypersensitivity continas elevated levels of serum IgE. HIstamine causes capillary leaks, pruritus, erythema, and inflmmation. so what hapepneds, antibody binds to basophil or mast cell, and simulates histamine. IgG Antibodies and T-cells are invloved in type 2 and type 4 hypersensitivites, respectivily.

which laboratory changes are most likely in a patient whose immune system is being overwhelmed by HIV?

CD4 t cell counts fall, while viral numbers rise.

Which findings are AIDS-defining characteristics?

CD4+ cell count less than 200/mm3 (0.2 109 /L) or less than 14% b. Infection with P. jiroveci Presence of HIV wasting syndrome Confusion, dementia, or memory loss A diagnosis of AIDS requires that the person be HIV positive and have either a CD4+ T-cell count of less than 200 cells/mm3 (0.2 109 /L) or less than 14% (even if the total CD4+ count is above 200 cells/mm3 ) or an opportunistic infection such as P. jiroveci and HIV wasting syndrome. Confusion, dementia, and memory loss are central nervous system indications. Having a positive ELISA test and taking antiretroviral medications are not AIDS-defining characteristics

A nurse is learning about human immune deficiency virus (HIV) infection. Which statements about HIV infection are correct? (Select all that apply.)

CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV virus particles. b. Antibodies produced are incomplete and do not function well. c. Macrophages stop functioning properly. d. Opportunistic infections and cancer are leading causes of death In HIV, CD4+ cells begin to create new HIV particles. Antibodies the client produce are incomplete and do not function well. Macrophages also stop functioning properly. Opportunistic infections and cancer are the two leading causes of death in client's with HIV infection. People infected with HIV are infectious in all stages of the disease. The CD4+ T-cell is the immune system cell most affected by infection with the HIV virus.

A nurse is caring for a client with HIV-III who was admitted with HAND. What sign or symptom would be most important for the nurse to report to the primary health care provider?

Change in pupil size HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) is a sign of neurologic involvement. The nurse would report any sign of increasing intracranial pressure immediately, including change in pupil size, level of consciousness, vital signs, or limb strength. The other signs and symptoms are not life threatening and would be documented and reported appropriately.

The nurse providing direct client care uses specific practices to reduce the chance of acquiring infection with human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from clients. Which practice is most effective?

Consistent use of standard Precautions According to The Joint Commission, the most effective preventative measure to avoid HIV exposure is consistent use of Standard Precautions. Standard Precautions are required by the CDC. Double-gloving is not necessary. Labeling charts and armbands in this fashion is a violation of the Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). Wearing a mask within 3 feet (1 m) of the client is not necessary with every client contact.

A client with HIV-II is hospitalized for an unrelated condition, and several medications are prescribed in addition to the regimen already being used. What action by the nurse is most important?

Consult with the pharmacy about drug interactions. The drug regimen for someone with HIV/AIDS is complex and consists of many medications that must be given at specific times of the day, and that have many interactions with other drugs and food. The nurse would consult with a pharmacist about possible interactions. Client teaching is important but does not take precedence over ensuring the medications do not interfere with each other, which could lead to drug resistance or a resurgence of symptoms

A client has been hospitalized with an opportunistic infection secondary to HIV-III. The client's partner is listed as the emergency contact, but the client's mother insists that she should be listed instead. What action by the nurse is best?

Contact the social worker to assist the client with advance directives. The client should make his or her wishes known and formalize them through advance directives. The nurse would help the client by contacting someone to help with this process. Ignoring the mother or telling the client that nurses cannot be involved does not help the situation. Legal statutes vary by state, but the nurse would be the client's advocate and help ensure his or her wishes are met.

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with HIV-II. The client's CD4+ cell count is 399/mm3 (0.399 109 /L). What action by the nurse is best?

Counsel the client on safer sex practices/abstinence. This client is in the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention HIV-II case definition group. He or she remains highly infectious and would be counseled on either safer sex practices or abstinence. Abstaining from alcohol is healthy but not required, although some medications may need to be taken while abstaining. Genetic testing is not commonly done, but an alteration on the CCR5/CXCR4 co-receptors is seen in long-term nonprogressors. High-protein/iron meals are important for people who are immunosuppressed, but helping to plan them does not take precedence over stopping the spread of the disease.

which element is required in the human immune deficiency virus (HIV) testing process?

Counseling, interpretation, and confidentiality. Written consent and health insurance coverage are not required.

A nurse is providing education about HIV risks at a health fair. What groups would the nurse include as needing to be tested for HIV on an annual basis? (Select all that apply.)

Couples planning on getting married Those who are sexually active with multiple partners Injection drugs users Sex workers and their customers The CDC recommends that HIV testing would be performed on those who received a transfusion between 1978 and 1985 only. People planning on getting married should be tested and all sexually active people should know their HIV status. Those engaged in sex work and their customers should also be tested, as well as injection drug users. Those over the age of 65 years need a one-time screen.

After the initial treatment, a patient with lyme disease reports dizziness, and on examination the nurse notes an irregular heart rhythem. which quetion would the nurse ask the patient to determine causative factors?

DId you complete your course of antibiotics if patient did not complete treatment of antibiotics, it will progress to stage 2 which is dizziness, dysrhythmias, facial paralysis, and periperal neuritis.

The nurse is educating a client with HIV-II and the partner on self-care measures to prevent infection when blood counts are low. What information does the nurse provide? (Select all

Do not work in the garden or with houseplants. Do not empty the kitty litter boxes Bathe daily using antimicrobial soap. Avoid people who are sick and large crowds. Make sure meat, fish, and eggs are cooked well. Ways to avoid infection when immunocompromised include not working in the garden or with houseplants; not emptying litter boxes; running the toothbrush through the dishwasher at least weekly; bathing daily using antimicrobial soap; avoiding sick people and large crowds; and making sure meat, fish, and eggs are cooked well prior to eating them

An HIV-negative client who has an HIV-positive partner asks the nurse about receiving tenofovir/emtricitabine. What information is most important to teach the client about this drug?

Does not reduce the need for safe sex practices Tenofovir/emtricitabine is a newer drug used for preexposure prophylaxis and appears to reduce transmission of human immune deficiency virus (HIV) from known HIV-positive people to HIV-negative people. The drug does not reduce the need for practicing safe sex. Since the drug can lead to drug resistance if used, clients will still need HIV testing every 3 months. This drug has not been taken off the market and is not used for postexposure prophylaxis.

which nursing action is priority when caring for a patient who is experiencing a severe type 1 hypersensitivity reaction resulitng in angioedema?

FINding out what medications the patient is taking. find out what medication patient is taking. time is important as laryngeal edema can result in loss of airway. frightened and anxious will go away which indicates angioedema is resolved.

the nurse expects which symptom in an adult with an acute infection that has occured within 4 weeks of first being infected with human immune deficiency virus?

Fever, night sweats, muscle aches some adults develop acute infeciton within 4 weeks. similar to any viurs and influde fever, night sweats, and muslcle aches. memory loss occurs with AIDS Purplish lesions are a sign of kaposi sacrcoma, occurs with aids.

which class of drugs for HIV infeciton prevents viral binding?

Fusion inhibitors Protease inhibiros work to inhibit HIV proteases Integrase inhibitors prevent viral dna from integrating into the hosts dna. NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing reverse trasncriptase.

A Patient presents to the emergency department with facial swelling, difficulty breathing, and difficulty speaking. BAsed on these finding and a diagnosis of an anaphylactic reaction, which action would the nurse initially perform?

Give epiniphrine and administer oxygen. give epniephrine and administer oxygen, once the patient is stabilized, the health care provider can dtermine the cause. If the initial interventions are unsuccessful, the nurse should then prepare for a tracheostomy. A CBC Should not be a priority at this time.

A client with HIV-III and wasting syndrome has inadequate nutrition. What assessment finding by the nurse best indicates that goals have been met for this client problem?

Has a weight gain of 2 lb (1 kg)/1 mo. The weight gain is the best indicator that goals for this client problem have been met because it demonstrates that the client not only is eating well but also is able to absorb the nutrients. Choosing high-protein food is important, but only if the client eats and absorbs the nutrients.

which class of drugs for human immune deficicney virus infection prevents the virus from inserting its dna into the hosts dna?

INtegrase inhibitors. Protease inhibiros work to inhibit HIV proteases Integrase inhibitors prevent viral dna from integrating into the hosts dna. NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing reverse trasncriptase. fusion inhibitors prevent interaction needed for entry of HIV into the cd4 t cell.

which event occurs in a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?

IgG antibody reacts with host cell membrane type 2 hypersensitivity reactions are also called cytotoxic reactions. IGE is seen in type 1 hypersensitivyt. IGe antibody on mast cells with antigen. type 4 is T-cells with antigen and release of lymphkines. type 5 is the reaction of autoantibodies with normal cell surface receptors stimulates a overreaction of the target cell.

THIRTY minutes after receiving medication, a patient reports a ticklish feeling at the back of the ghroat with minor lip swelling. which additional clinical manifestation would lead teh nruse to call teh RAPID RESPONSE TEAM?

LAryngeal STridor STridor is a high-pitched sound made during inspiration when the trachea and airways are obstructed

The school nurse is preparing to discuss HIV and AIDS with a group of teenagers. Which aspects of disease prevention would be best suited for this age group?

Modes of transmissionTeenagers need to be educated about how HIV is spread and ways to prevent transmission because the virus is spread by sexual contact and intravenous drug use. Teenagers are likely to take part in these risky behaviors because of their developmental stage. Avoiding exposure to sexually transmitted diseasesThe nurse will instruct the teenagers about barrier protection methods to decrease the risk of HIV transmission. Not assuming that HIV affects only certain groupsThe nurse should point out that HIV is not just a disease that affects the homosexual community; it affects heterosexual people as well.

which sign or symptom is a GI indicaiton of acquired immune deficiency syndrome?

Nausea and Diarrhea DEmentia and confusion are cns signs and symptoms fround in AIDS. Nause and diarrhea are GI signs and symptoms Lymphadenopathy and hypergammaglobulinemia are immuologic signs.

when detereming the financial resources of patient with acquired AIDS, the nurse recognizes that the information obtained will help with the assessment of which patient status?

Nutritional status finacianl resources of a patient wiht aids may give the nurse insight into the patients food intake, weight loss or gain, general condition of skin, and overall nutritional stuatus of the patient.

A patient with HIV comes to the health care provider's office for a check-up, and the nurse notices the patient has lost 10 pounds since the last visit. Which factors should the nurse assess next?

Oral cavityIt is common for a patient who has HIV infection or AIDS to have oral lesions or thrush. If the patient is losing weight, the nurse will assess the oral cavity for lesions that may interfere with maintaining optimal nutrition. CD4 T-cell countA change in the CD4 T-cell count indicates disease progression, which may lead to weight loss in a person with HIV infection. Nutritional statusThe nurse should assess the patient's nutritional status because of the 10-pound weight loss. Gastrointestinal (GI) functionPatients with HIV infection often have GI issues which can cause changes in weight, so this factor should be assessed.

A client is hospitalized with Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia. The client reports shortness of breath with activity and extreme fatigue. What intervention is best to promote comfort?

Pace activities, allowing for adequate rest. This client has two major reasons for fatigue: decreased oxygenation and systemic illness. The nurse would not do everything for the client but rather let the client do as much as possible within limits and allow for adequate rest in between. Sleeping medications may be needed but not as the first step, and only with caution. Increasing oxygen during activities may or may not be warranted, but first the nurse must try pacing the client's activity.

A client with known HIV-II is admitted to the hospital with fever, night sweats, and severe cough. Laboratory results include a CD4+ cell count of 180/mm3 and a negative tuberculosis (TB) skin test 4 days ago. What action would the nurse take first?

Place the client under Airborne Precautions Since this client's CD4+ cell count is so low, he or she may have energy, or the inability to mount an immune response to the TB test. The client also appears to have progressed to HIV-III. The nurse would first place the client on Airborne Precautions to prevent the spread of TB if it is present. Next the nurse notifies the primary health care provider about the low CD4+ count and requests alterative testing for TB. Droplet Precautions are not used for TB. Standard Precautions are not adequate in this case.

which class of drugs for HIV infection prevents new virus particles from splitting into functional pieces?

Protease inhibitors Protease inhibiros work to inhibit HIV proteases Integrase inhibitors prevent viral dna from integrating into the hosts dna. NRTIs prevent viral replication by reducing reverse trasncriptase. fusion inhibitors prevent interaction needed for entry of HIV into the cd4 t cell.

which role with decongestants play in the treatment of a type 1 hypersensitivity?

REduce edema. decongestatns contain ephedrine, phenylephrine, or pseudoephedrine. antihistamines clear allergeis and inhibit the release of vasoactive amines. corticosteroids inhibit the synthesis of vasoactive agents.

which features of the HIV convert its RNA INto DNA and insert it into hosts DNA?

REverse transciptase and integrase enzymes. p17 and p24 other part of HIV. gp41 and gp 129 are docking proteins.

Which new findings by the nurse may indicate a patient's human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection is no longer in the incubation stage and is progressing?

Rash When a patient develops a rash, it is a sign that the HIV infection has progressed to the early stage. Fatigue Fatigue is an indication that the patient's HIV infection has progressed beyond the incubation stage. Muscle aches If a patient who was in the incubation stage reports muscle aches, this indicates disease progression. Photophobia New-onset photophobia in an HIV-positive patient indicates disease progression.

Which dietary choice made by a patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection indicates a need for further education?

Raw cookie dough Raw cookie dough contains raw eggs, and this can increase the patient's risk for food poisoning or infection.

patient presents to teh clinic after removing several ticks 10 days ago and asks the nurse about vector-borne disease such as lyme disease. after completing the health history, the nurse would assess for which symptom first?

Round, raised bulls-eye rash frist stage-round or oveal rash is is raised shaped like a bulls eye. stage 2- shortness of breath, caardiac dysrhythmias, and facial paralysis.

Which hypersensitivity reaction symptom requires the most immediate action by the nurse?

Stridor Stridor indicates airway involvement and warrants immediate intervention, such as use of oxygen and administration of epiniphrine. Maintaining the patient's airway is the highest priority. anxiousness, urticaria, and pruitus may be symptoms of a reaction but are not the nurse's highest priority when the patient is in respiratory distress.

Nurse manager reveiws the clinical criteria for an anaphylactic reaction when teaching about the importance of checking allergies before giving medication and the signs of anaphylaxis. which statement made by a nurse indicates a need for further education?

THe patient must have all three clinical criteria to be diagnosed with anaphylaxis. THIs is incorrect, third criteria is hypotension with systolic blood pressure less than 90 mmgh. symptoms do occur within minutes to hours of taking medication the patient is allergic to. Respiratory system is most affected with dyspnea, bronchospasms, and stridor.

The nurse is caring for an HIV+ patient whose laboratory reports indicate a normal CD4 T-cell count and no physical symptoms. What should the nurse infer from this finding?

The patient is in the incubation stage of HIV infection.A patient in the incubation stage of HIV infection is free of symptoms and has a normal CD4 T-cell count.

A client with HIV-III asks the nurse why gabapentin is part of the drug regimen when the client does not have a history of seizures. What response by the nurse is best?

This drug helps treat the pain from nerve irritation." Many classes of medications are used for neuropathic pain, including tricyclic antidepressants and anticonvulsants such as gabapentin. It is not being used to prevent seizures from fungal infections. If the nurse does not know the answer, he or she would find out for the client.

The nurse recognizes that which patient condition or disorder is an example of a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? Select all that apply.

Type IV hypersensitivity reactions are delayed hypersensitive reactions. Clinical examples of type IV hypersensitivity reactions include poison ivy and sarcoidosis. Serum sickness is a clinical example of type III hypersensitivity reactions. Grave's disease is a clinical example of type V hypersensitivity reactions. Myasthenia gravis is a clinical example of type V hypersensitivity reactions.

teaching patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) Ways to manage disease related pain by decreasaing inflmmation, which action made by the patient indicates a need for further insturciton?

USes acetaminophen for pain. ACETaminophen does not decrease inflmmation. NSAIDs should be used to manage pain. patient is manageing pain by taking frequen rest periods, prioritizing essential activiites and asking for help with heavy work.

A nurse begins a job at a Veterans Administration Hospital and asks why so much emphasis is on HIV testing for the veterans. What reasons is this nurse given? (Select all that apply.)

Veterans have a high prevalence of substance abuse. b. Many veterans may engage in high risk behaviors. c. Many older veterans may not know their risks. d. Everyone should know their HIV status. e. Belief that the VA has tested them and would notify them if positive. All options are correct for the veteran population. The nurse interacting with veteran would ensure they know about the HIV testing offered by the VA.

which information will the nurse teach a patient about the care and use of the "bee sting kit" disease?

obtain a replacement device if the drug is discolored. patient should obtain a replacement device if the drug is discolored, the drug must be clear, with sufficient time left before the expiration date.

Which finding in the patient's medical record indicates that the patient with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection has developed acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

onset of wasting syndrome when this is present, patint has aids.

Which intervention would be most appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care for a patient having side effects from the antiretroviral drugs?

administer antiemetics the main saide effects of antiretrovial therapy are nausea and vomiting.

which type of lab test measures a patient's response to the virus in patients with HIV?

antibody testing antibody tests are used to measure the patients response to the virus (the antigen) rather than parts of the virus. stool testing and skin biopsies test for opportunistic infecitons. viral load testing directly measures the actual amount of HIV viral RNA particles present in the blood.

nursing intervention is immediate priority when caring for a patient with the following symotoms: wheezing, difficulty breathing, angioedema, blood pressure of 70/52 mm hg, and apical pulse of 122 beat/min that is irregular?

apply oxygen using a high flow nonrebreather mask at 90 to 100 percent respiratory distress, respiratory is immediate priority, oxygen applicaiton needed.

which condition is associated with a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction?

autoimmune hemolytic anemia hemolytic anemia is a type 2 hypersensitivity disorder. causes anemia because of loss of blood cells. hay fever, serum sickness and sarcoidosis are type 1 type 3 and type 4 are hypersenstivities.

a patient with type 1 allergy is treated with antihistamines and corticosteroids. which other measure can help the patient to prevent future recurrence of allergies?

avoidance therapy best way to avoid known causative allergens whenever possible is to avoid them. antihistamines may cause dryness and drowisness, increase fluid intake may help with dyness and increase rest perioids for comfort.

patients with low CD4 T-cell counts are at risk for which condition that is caused by organisms that are present as part of the body's microbiome and usually kept in check by normal immunity?

opportunistic infections

which phase of the HIV life cycle involves separatin from the infected cell's membrane to search for another CD4 T-cell to infect?

budding budding involves separatin from the infected cells membrane to search for another cd4 t cell to infect.

according to CDC which class of hiv is marked between 200 and 499 or 14 percent to 28 percent?

class 2 class0 normal range class1 greater than 500 cells 29 percent or greater Class 2 200 to 499, 14 percent to 28 percent class 3 is 200 or less. less than 14 percent.

According to the CDC, laboratory classification, which class of HIV is marked by CD4 T-cell count greater than 200 cells/mm^3 or a percentage of 14 percentage or less?

class 3 class0 normal range class1 greater than 500 cells 29 percent or greater Class 2 200 to 499, 14 percent to 28 percent class 3 is 200 or less. less than 14 percent.

which preventive nursing intervention is best in planning care for a patient admitted to the hospital who has a contact type 1 hypersensitivity to latex?

communicate the need for avoidance therapy to the health care team. contact hypersensitivites can occur with latex, pollen, foods, and enviornmental proteins. aboidance theapy is the recommended nursing intervention. desensitization therapy is administered. through allergy shots when allergens have been identified and cannot easily be avoided.

which type of hypersensitivity occurs when a patient receives the wrong blood type during a transfusion, leading a hemolytic transfusion reaction?

cytotoxic reaction when recieved wrong blood type during transfusion, rbc are destroyed by patients immune system, in a ctyotoxic reaction. immune complex reactions, rapid hypersensitiyvey reactions and delayed hypersenstivity reactions are not related to hemolytic transfions reacitons.

which disease and treatment related endocrine problem may occur in patients with HIV?

lipoatrophy lipodystrophy diabetes adrenal insufficiency elevated triglycerides gonadal dystunciton, body shape changes, adrenal insufficiency, diabetes and elevated triglycerides and cholesterol ( which increase the risk for cardiovascular paroblems). body shape changes from fat redistribution or fat depostion (lipodystrophy are common with older antriretrovial drug therapies, especially protease inhibiors and nucleoside reverse transitase ingiviors.

a higher incidence of which condition occurs among pregnant women with the hiv?

premature delivery transmission of the disease to the infant low birth weights infants.

When caring for a patient admitted with a flare-up of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) receiving IV corticosteroids, which assessment would the nurse include related to this medication?

daily weights blood glucose blood pressure intake and output prednisone is a corticosteroid used to decrease the inflammatory process in patients with SLE. SIde effects are hyperglycemia, hypertension, and fluid retention. Nurse should assess patients daily weight pattern, blood glucose levels, blood pressure, and intake and output.

which quetion will the nruse ask during an assessment of a patient who is suffering from type 1 hypersensitivity?

do you have any food or drug allergies, do you have any family members with a type 1 allergy, when did this problem begin and how long does each episode last.

which medication would the nurse expect to administer to a patient with a history of asthma that develops shortness of breath and stridor and becomes hypotensive during allergy skin testing?

epinephrine patient experiencing anaphylactic reaction, epiniephrine first-line sympthomimetic used to treat anaphylaxis. zileuton is a leukotriene antagonist used to prevent symptoms of allergic rhinitis, but it is not useful during an acute episode.

how often should the patient taking tenofovir/emtricitabine for preexposure prophylaxis for human immune virus (HIV) be test for HIV?

every 3 months patient taking Tenofovir/emtricitabine for HIV PrEP should be tested for HIV every 3 months. every 12 months is longer than recommended. the patient hsould be tested once before beginning PrEP, but the pateint must continue getting screened.

the nurse educates a patient who is immunocompromised about preventing infection and identifies that which occurrence warrants immediate notification of the health care provider (HCP)

foul smelling or cloudy urine. foul smelling or cloudy urine, report immediatly, may indicate infection. a persistant couth with or without sputum indicates an infeciton. patient needs to contact HCP for a temp greater than 100 F.

which features of the HIV assist the viral particle in finding a host?

gp41 and gp120 docking proteins. outer envelop with special docking proteins known as gp41 and gp120. p17 and p24 are other features of the hiv virus.

Vital signs Temp 99.4 heart rate 90 bpm respirations 18 breaths/min blood pressure 92/60 oxygen saturation 95 percent prescribed medications prednisone 10 mg orlally daily belimumab IV every 4 weeks ibuprofen 600 mg orally twice daily

have you missed any doses of prednisone signs of adrenal insufficiency with the darkening of the skin, craving salty food, and hypotension. this happends when you take prednisone, a corticosteroid. patient is not exhibiting any signs of UTI, so the nursse should not ask about pain. pateint is not undergoing a procedure, so the nurse should not ask when the patient last ate. pateint does not have diabetes, so blood glucose monitoring should not be needed.

Abnormal functioning of which body system is responsible for the signs and symptoms of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) disease?

immune signs and symptoms may occur in the respiratory, cardiovascular, and gi symptoms.

which info would the nurse include when teaching a patient newly diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) about managing the disease and preventing set backs?

include aerobic exercise, plan frequent rest periods, aboid crowded public areas, stay in shady areas outdoors, and use mild, nonastringent soap.

which action is most benficial to a patient with severe pet-induced allergy who has two pet dogs?

keep the pets out of the house. avoidance therapy, to keep the pets out of the house.

which signs or symptom is an immunologic indication of AIDS?

lymphadenopathy high blood immunoglobulin levels DEmentia and confusion are cns signs and symptoms fround in AIDS. Nause and diarrhea are GI signs and symptoms Lymphadenopathy and hypergammaglobulinemia are immuologic signs.

when administering an antibiotic IV for the first time, which action is first before checking the five rights?

review the clinical records and ask the patient about any known allergies. EHR have hypersensitivites listed for the patient. patient should be asked about known allergies. checking patients identification band for allergies is part of the five rights process at the bedside before the medication is given.

which disease can be categorized as an autoimmune disease?

scleroderma, rheumatic fever, and goodpasture syndrome autoimmune disorders, Scleroderma, rheumatic fever, and Good pasture syndrome.

common means of HIV transmisstion?

sexual, perinatal and parenteral. sexual(genital, anal, oral sexual contact with exposure of mucous membranes to infected semen or vaginal securetions) perinatal (From placenta from contact with maternal blood and body fluids during birth or from breast milk from an infected mother to child) parenteral (sharing of needles or equipment contaminated with infected blood or receiving contamintaed blood products.)

which is the mechanism of action of epniphrine?

stimulates the alpha- and beta adrenergic receptors. epniphrine stimulates the alpha and beta adrenergic receptors of the autonomic nervous system. constricts the blood vessels and cause bronchodilation. antihistamines block effects of histamines in the gi tract.

which is true regarding the risk for hiv transmission from patients receiving combination antiretrovial therapy (cART)

the patients viral load may drop to undetectable levels, but there is still a risk for transmission.

which defines the concept known as Treatment as Prevention (TAP) of the HIV?

the use of combination antritrovial therapy (cART) reduces viral load to undetectable levels, therby reducing the risk for HIV transmission.

which instruciton would the n urse give to apatient who has had an allergic reaction to environmental airborne allergens?

thoroughly clean cloth drapes, carpeting, and upholstered furniture. thoroughly cleaning cloth drapes, carpet and upholstery will reduce airborne pollen dust mites, and mold.

which type of food item does the nurse instruct a patient with hiv to avoid?

undercooked meat and rare fish. toxoplasma gondii found in cat feces or ingesting infected undercooked meat.