Histology FINAL
A 42-year-old woman, who has been a type I diabetic for 30 years, falls when she trips over the vacuum cleaner hose. She tried to break her fall by placing her hand out to save herself and in the process her wrist was forced backward, breaking her radius near the wrist. Which of the following is produced in the first step in healing this bone injury? A: Osteoid B: Hematoma C: Bony callus D: Fibrocartilage E: Compact bone
B: Hematoma
z. The tissue in the center of this image is best characterized as A: dense connective tissue B: elastic cartilage C: fibrocartilage D: hyaline cartilage E: bone
B: elastic cartilage
The tag that directs a protein to the lysosome is A: lysines and arginines. B: mannose-6-phosphate. C: signal sequence. D: KDEL. E: unknown at this time.
B: mannose-6-phosphate.
The mucosal lining of the gut may be comprised of all of the following EXCEPT: a. epithelium b. lamina propria c. muscularis mucosa d. Brunner's glands e. mucus cells
Brunner's glands
z. The vascular structure in this electron micrograph is: Select one: a. a continuous capillary b. a fenestrated capillary without diaphragms c. a sinusoidal capillary d. a fenestrated capillary with diaphragms e. an arteriole
a. a continuous capillary
z. The region labeled B would derive from which germ layer? Select one: a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm
a. ectoderm
z. The structure in the center of the image is a cross sectional view of what region of the respiratory system? Select one: a. terminal bronchiole b. bronchus c. alveolar duct d. pharynx e. respiratory bronchiole
a. terminal bronchiole
The Juxtaglomerular cells are found in the Select one: a. wall of the afferent arteriole b. endothelium of the glomerulus c. epithelium of Bowman's capsule d. wall of the Distal convoluted tubule
a. wall of the afferent arteriole
Odontoblasts stain intensively with basic dyes because of their:
abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum
Deposition of enamel involves: a. secretory ameloblasts b. Tomes processes c. reabsorption of amelogenins d. crystallization of the enamel rod e. all of the above.
all of the above.
Concerning the adrenal gland Select one: a. Its cortex and medulla originate from the same embryonic germ layer. b. Its outermost parenchyma is the zona glomerulosa which secretes mineralcorticoids (e.g. aldosterone) c. The innermost cortical layer is the zona fasciculata which secretes large amounts of estrogens. d. It has an abundant fibrous stroma which divides the organ into lobules. e. The function of the medulla is not known.
b. Its outermost parenchyma is the zona glomerulosa which secretes mineralcorticoids (e.g. aldosterone)
Exocrine glands in which the acini all produce a secretion of heavily glycosylated, hydrophilic proteins are an example of which type of gland? Select one: a. Mixed gland b. Mucous gland c. Tubuloacinar gland d. Serous gland e. Simple gland
b. Mucous gland
Neural crest cells give rise to Select one: a. ectoderm. b. cementoblasts. c. the adrenal cortex. d. ameloblasts. e. the salivary gland parenchyma. f. the muscles of mastication.
b. cementoblasts.
Infants of mothers who smoke cigarettes heavily during pregnancy are most likely to have : Select one: a. limb anomalies b. low birth weight c. abnormal external genitalia d. facial anomalies e. spina bifida
b. low birth weight
The most common supernumerary tooth is the : Select one: a. mandibular fourth molar b. mandibular mesiodens c. extramandibular premolar d. maxillary mesiodens e. extramandibular lateral incisor
b. mandibular mesiodens
z. The item labeled "B" is Select one: a. pre-dentin b. mantle dentin c. primary dentin d. pre-enamel e. enamel
b. mantle dentin
Striated duct cells appear striated when stained by H&E and examined under a light microscope due to the unique arrangement of Select one: a. rough endoplasmic reticulum. b. mitochondria c. ion pumps. d. Golgi complexes. e. lysosomes
b. mitochondria
The only gingival fibers that do not contact a mineralized matrix are: Select one: a. dentogingival. b. alveologingival. c. circular. d. dentoperiosteal. e. transeptal.
c. circular.
z. Based on this image what organ are you looking at? Select one: a. Pituitary b. Adrenal c. Thymus d. Pineal e. Thyroid
d. Pineal
Which of the following has the largest amount of elastic fibers in its wall? Select one: a. inferior vena cava b. pulmonary vein c. thoracic duct d. descending aorta e. splenic artery
d. descending aorta
The frequency, severity, and type of abnormalities produced by the rubella virus usually depend on the:
time of maternal infection
The major function of the normal gingival epithelium is:
to act as a barrier, protecting the underlying connective tissues
The endothelial lining of glomerular capillaries is fenestrated. These tiny "windows" normally restrict the passage of which of the following into the urine filtrate? a. Na+ b. water c. red blood cells, white blood cells, and blood platelets d. serum albumin e. all of the above freely pass into the urine
red blood cells, white blood cells, and blood platelets
Which of the following lymphoid organs contain follicles (nodules): i) spleen ii) thymus iii) lymph node iv) pharyngeal tonsil v) palatine tonsil
spleen, lymph node, pharyngeal tonsil, and palatine tonsil
The primary blood supply to the gingiva is through the:
supraperiosteal vessels
Which of the following teratogens is usually associated with tooth defects, such as discoloration of teeth and hypoplasia of the enamel?
tetracyclines
Tooth enamel and bone are alike EXCEPT for the fact that: a. only bone has hydroxyapatite crystals b. the extracellular calcification is controlled by cells in bone but not in teeth c. enamel is remodeled only by odontoblasts while bone requires osteoclasts d. there are no living cells in the crown enamel of a mature erupted tooth e. enamel is derived from endoderm while bone is derived from ectoderm
there are no living cells in the crown enamel of a mature erupted tooth
What is the order of blood vessels when the Blood is flowing FROM THE HEART into the periphery of the kidneys
1 → Renal artery, 2 → Interlobar artery, 3 → Arcuate artery, 4 → Interlobular artery, 5 → Afferent arteriole, 6 → Glomerular capillary bed, 7 → Efferent arteriole, 8 → Peritubular capillary, 9 → Postcapillary venules, 10 → Interlobular Vein, 11 → Arcuate Vein, 12 → Interlobar Vein, 13 → Renal vein
The periodontal membrane (ligament) is a type of dense connective tissue which connects:
tooth cementum to alveolar bone
Which component of bone impedes the distribution of nutrients and oxygen to osteocytes? A: ECM B: Canaliculi C: Periosteum D: Cell processes E: Haversian canals
A: ECM
Applied to adipocytes, the term multilocular refers to which of the following? A: The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets B: The proliferation of the cells in an obese individual C: The large number of mitochondria in the cells D: The high density of nerves supplying the tissue E: The type of mesenchymal cells also present
A: The large number of small cytoplasmic lipid droplets
z. This is a light micrograph of a specimen stained with a trichrome stain in which intramembranous bone formation is occurring. The RED stained region is composed of: A: collagen type I and hydroxyapatite crystals. B: collagen type II and chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans. C: collagen type III and reticular fibers. D: collagen type I and chondroitin sulfate proteoglycans. E: collagen type IV and non sulfated glycosaminoglycans
A: collagen type I and hydroxyapatite crystals.
The pars nervosa of the posterior pituitary gland functions in the storage and release of: a. ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) b. FSH (follicle stimulating hormone) c. PRL (prolactin) d. ADH (antidiuretic hormone) e. GH (growth hormone)
ADH (antidiuretic hormone)
The organic extracellular matrix of newly formed enamel is composed of:
Amelogenins
Which of the following most accurately describes compact bone? A: Predominant bone type in the epiphyses of adult long bones B: Also known as cancellous bone C: Characterized by the presence of osteons D: Lines the medullary (marrow) cavity E: Forms the diploë in cranial bones
C: Characterized by the presence of osteons
How does articular cartilage differ from most other hyaline cartilage? A: It undergoes mainly appositional growth. B: It contains isogenous groups of chondrocytes. C: It lacks a perichondrium. D: Its matrix contains aggrecan. E: It is derived from embryonic mesenchyme
C: It lacks a perichondrium.
Snare proteins A: help a vesicle to bud off a membrane compartment. B: use energy to do the final pinching off of a vesicle. C: aid a vesicle to find the correct membrane for fusion. D: are peripheral proteins on the inside of a vesicle.
C: aid a vesicle to find the correct membrane for fusion.
z. The image below was stained with Silver stain, therefore the fibers are composed of A: collagen I B: collagen II C: collagen III D: collagen IV E: elastin
C: collagen III
z. The Arrow labeled "A" designates something A: comprised of actin microfilaments. B: comprised of two incomplete microtubules. C: comprised of two complete microtubules. D: present in centrioles and basal bodies. E: stabilized by alpha & beta intermediate filaments.
C: comprised of two complete microtubules.
z. The tissue in the center of this image is best characterized as A: dense connective tissue B: elastic cartilage C: fibrocartilage D: hyaline cartilage E: bone
C: fibrocartilage
z. The black arrows designate the A: integrins within the cell membrane of the epithelial cell. B: lamina lucida. C: lamina densa. D: glycocalyx of the an epithelial cell. E: zonula adherens junction dense line
C: lamina densa.
Which of the following white blood cells contains specific granules that have little affinity for dyes, are similar to lysosomes, and are used to digest bacteria? A: lymphocyte B: platelet C: neutrophil D: eosinophil E: basophil
C: neutrophil
What cells have the following cell surface markers? i) CD3 ii) CD4 iii) CD8 iv) CD28 v) CD40
CD3 = Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells CD4 = T helper cells CD8 = Cytotoxic T cells CD28 = T helper cells CD40 = B cells
What distinguishes cartilage from most other connective tissues? A: Its extracellular matrix is rich in collagen. B: Its predominant cell type is a mesenchymal derivative. C: Its predominant cell type secretes both fibers and proteoglycans. D: It lacks blood vessels. E: It functions in mechanical support
D: It lacks blood vessels.
z. The dark purple material indicated by the arrow was generated by: A: osteoblasts B: osteoclasts C: fibroblasts D: chondrocytes E: osteocytes
D: chondrocytes
z. The structure at the tip of the black arrow contains lots of A: elastic fibers. B: hyaluronan. C: aggrecan. D: collagen I. E: collagen II
D: collagen I.
z. The arrow is pointing to what can best be described as a/an A: chondroblast B: chondroclast C: osteoblast D: osteoclast E: macrophage
D: osteoclast
z. The main tissue in this image can best be described as which of the following? A: adipocytes B: dense irregular connective tissue C: mucous secreting gland D: serous secreting gland E: sweat or eccrine gland
D: serous secreting gland
Lysyl hydroxylase is dependent on A: vitamin A to function correctly in the ECM. B: vitamin A to function correctly in the RER. C: vitamin C to function correctly in the ECM. D: vitamin C to function correctly in the RER
D: vitamin C to function correctly in the RER
The only way to make cap stage dental incisor epithelium contribute to molar formation would be to:
Dissect out the dental incisor epithelium and mix it with dental mesenchyme from a cap stage molar.
In general, the effectiveness of teratogenic factors (drugs, chemicals, biological agents and radiation), are dependent upon: a. critical periods of development b. dosage levels c. a favorable embryonic genotype d. maternal pre-eclampsia (hypertension) e. a, b, and c are correct
E
Which feature is typical of elastic cartilage? A: Primary skeletal tissue in the fetus B: No identifiable perichondrium C: Found in intervertebral discs D: Most widely distributed cartilage type in the body E: Collagen is mainly type II
E: Collagen is mainly type II
A cascade of interactions between which two tissue types is primarily responsible for tooth formation?
Ectomesenchyme and epithelium
Which of the following characteristics of cartilage distinguishes it from most other connective tissues? a. Its extracellular matrix contains collagen. b. Its predominant cell type is derived from mesenchymal cells. c. Its predominant cell type secretes both fibers and ground substance. d. It lacks blood vessels. e. It functions in mechanical support.
It lacks blood vessels.
The smallest incremental lines in the dentin are:
Lines of Von Ebner
Dense regular connective tissue:
May be found in tendons
opsinization
Process that enhances phagocytosis
What is agglutination?
Process that reduces number of infectious particles
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath gives rise to ________, which may give rise to ______:
Rests of Malassez - Periapical cysts
Which of the following lymphoid organs have a cortex and a medulla: i) spleen ii) thymus iii) lymph node iv) pharyngeal tonsil v) palatine tonsil
Thymus and lymph nodes
Each of the following can be used to observe living cells and tissues in tissue culture EXCEPT: a. phase contrast microscope b. differential interference microscope c. transmission electron microscope d. fluorescence microscope e. confocal microscope
transmission electron microscope
All of the following are correct EXCEPT:
When a gene is mutated or deleted that is normally expressed in the developing teeth the result is always abnormal teeth
A calcified body located in the periodontal ligament is called:
a cementicle
During a normal menstrual cycle in the non-pregnant female, the secretory phase of the uterine endometrium is dependent upon the presence, in the ovary, of: a. several secondary follicles b. a corpus luteum c. a minimum of l million primordial follicles d. a corpus albicans e. sperm in the oviduct
a corpus luteum
The col is:
a depression in the interproximal gingiva between teeth which are in contact
Which of the following best describes a nerve fiber? a. a nerve cell body, its processes, and their sheaths. b. the perikaryon. c. an axon. d. a nerve cell process, i.e., axon or dendrite, and its surrounding sheaths e. a group of neurons outside the CNS
a nerve cell process, i.e., axon or dendrite, and its surrounding sheaths
z. The cells labelled C are: Select one: a. "C" cells in the thyroid b. high endothelial cells c. macrophages d. thyroid follicle cells e. thymocytes
a. "C" cells in the thyroid
The muscles of mastication develop from the : Select one: a. 1st branchial arch b. 2nd branchial arch c. 3rd branchial arch d. 4th branchial arch e. 6th branchial arch
a. 1st branchial arch
z. Failure to fuse in this labeled region will develop into a mandibular cleft. Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F
a. A
z. The somites are labeled by what letter? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F
a. A
z. The thymus will develop from which region? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K
a. A
z. Which of the three regions will give rise to melanocytes? Select one: a. A b. B c. C
a. A
Choose the best answer in regards to the lung. Select one: a. Asthma is due to contraction of the smooth muscle in the respiratory system. b. Emphysema patients have a mutation in the dynein gene resulting in non-motile cilia and many respiratory infections. c. Cystic fibrosis patients have breathing problems becasue they have less Type II cells. d. A pneumothorax (collapsed lung) is due to fluid in the lungs. e. Clara cells are found throughout the respiratory system.
a. Asthma is due to contraction of the smooth muscle in the respiratory system.
The acidic pH of the vaginal lumen is due primarily to: Select one: a. Bacterial conversion of the glycogen into lactic acid from exfoliated cells. b. Bacterial conversion of mucus into lactic acid secreted by the vaginal glands. c. Secretion of acidomucopolysaccharides by glands in the vaginal walls. d. Secretion of HCl by cells in the vaginal glands. e. Acidic secretions from the uterine glands entering the vagina through the cervix.
a. Bacterial conversion of the glycogen into lactic acid from exfoliated cells.
Laminin is a structural component of the Select one: a. Basal lamina b. Reticular lamina c. Nuclear lamina d. Rough lamina e. Smooth lamina
a. Basal lamina
EGF (epidermal growth factor) is likely most important for formation of the: Select one: a. Bud stage b. Cap stage c. Bell stage d. Crown stage e. Adult tooth
a. Bud stage
The only way to make cap stage dental incisor epithelium contribute to molar formation would be to : Select one: a. Dissect out the dental incisor epithelium and mix it with dental mesenchyme from a cap stage molar. b. express Msx1 in the dental mesenchyme c. express Msx2 in the dental epithelial tissues d. express both BMP-2 and BMP-4 in the dental epithelium e. pray for a miracle, because it has not been done experimentally.
a. Dissect out the dental incisor epithelium and mix it with dental mesenchyme from a cap stage molar.
Which of the following is NOT part of the attachment apparatus? Select one: a. Gingiva b. Periodontal Ligament c. Cementum d. Alveolar bone
a. Gingiva
Somite formation is induced by Select one: a. Neural groove b. Apical ectodermal ridge c. Zone of polarizing activity d. Dermomyotome e. Notochord f. Lateral plate mesoderm
a. Neural groove
Which structure is partly encapsulated and covered by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium? Select one: a. Palatine tonsil b. Thymic (Hassall's) corpuscle c. Lymph node d. Peyer's patch e. Appendix
a. Palatine tonsil
Which of the following cells secretes inhibin which inhibits the release of FSH? Select one: a. Sertoli cell b. Leydig cell c. type A spermatogonium d. primary spermatocyte e. spermatid
a. Sertoli cell
All of the following are true concerning the liver EXCEPT: Select one: a. The portal space is the area on the liver surface devoid of capsule (of Glisson). b. Bile production is associated with the exocrine function. c. Glycogen, albumin, fibrinogen are examples of endocrine function. d. Glycogen and triglycerides are stored in the hepatocytes. e. The liver has considerable regenerative capacity, up to 75% in some animals.
a. The portal space is the area on the liver surface devoid of capsule (of Glisson).
All of the following are correct EXCEPT: Select one: a. The thymus has afferent lymphatics. b. The spleen contains both B and T cells. c. Lymph nodes contain medullary cords consisting of B cells and plasma cells. d. The palatine tonsils are covered by stratified squamous epithelium. e. The central vein of the spleen is surrounded by lymphocytes.
a. The thymus has afferent lymphatics.
Choose the correct statement. Select one: a. Valves are found in lymphatic vessels, veins, and the heart. b. Elastic arteries only have elastic fibers in the medial layer. c. Blood vessels have connective tissue lining the inside of the vessel and contacting plasma. d. Large veins have circular smooth muscle in the adventitia and longitudinal smooth muscle in media. e. Macrophages diapedese out of arterioles.
a. Valves are found in lymphatic vessels, veins, and the heart.
Regarding blood vessels: Select one: a. Veins have a more prominent adventitia than arteries. b. Arteries have a thicker endothelial lining than veins. c. Arteries have a relatively thinner tunica media than do veins. d. Veins have more elastic tissue than arteries. e. Elastic membranes are less pronounced in arteries than in veins.
a. Veins have a more prominent adventitia than arteries.
The kidney has Select one: a. a cortex and medulla b. lobes completely surrounded by connective tissue c. a cortex but no medulla d. a medullary portion but no cortex
a. a cortex and medulla
The col is : Select one: a. a depression in the interproximal gingiva between teeth which are in contact b. a curvature in the root sheath of developing multirooted teeth. c. a transient change in the outer enamel epithelium during the bell stage d. an age-induced contouring of the alveolar crest e. the point where the external and internal enamel epithelium are continuous.
a. a depression in the interproximal gingiva between teeth which are in contact
z. The primary item produced in large quantities by this section of the body is which of the following? Select one: a. alkaline secretions b. pepsinogen c. Hydrochloric acid d. lysozyme e. IgA
a. alkaline secretions
The peri-sinusoidal space of Disse : Select one: a. allows easy exchange of substances between blood and hepatocytes. b. is related to the secretion of bile which flows in it toward the portal space. c. is bounded by a continuous basal lamina and hepatocytes. d. is filled by macrophages. e. is an artifact created by fixation and processing for light microscopy.
a. allows easy exchange of substances between blood and hepatocytes.
Langerhans cells are : Select one: a. antigen presenting cells of the integument. b. exocrine cells of the pancreas. c. involved in depigmentation. d. the main producers of keratohyaline granules. e. rich in tyrosinase.
a. antigen presenting cells of the integument.
Branchial cysts or lateral cervical cysts : Select one: a. are found along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle b. are formed from a rupture of the membrane between pharyngeal pouches and branchial clefts c. are found in front of the ear d. are remnants of the thyroglossal duct e. all of the above are true.
a. are found along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
The junctional epithelium is attached to the tooth by means of a : Select one: a. basal lamina and hemidesmosomes b. basement membrane and desmosomes c. basal lamina and lamina lucida d. basal lamina and lamina densa
a. basal lamina and hemidesmosomes
Regulation of blood pressure through the contraction of the tunica media of arterioles is achieved by : Select one: a. conversion of angiotensin I to II by the endothelial capillary cells of the lung. b. production of erythropoietin (EPO) by the kidney interstitium. c. stressing of intrafusal fibers. d. release of secretory IgA in the lamina propria of the GI tract. e. activation of the periarteriolar sheath region in the spleen.
a. conversion of angiotensin I to II by the endothelial capillary cells of the lung.
The secondary enamel knot: Select one: a. defines where the future cusps will be b. expresses Msx1 c. defines where the bud stops growing to form the cap or "depression" portion of the cap stage d. will develop into ameloblasts e. is crucial for incisor development
a. defines where the future cusps will be
Which of the following is most likely to have initially contained a "signal peptide" "or "signal sequence" that was bound by a "signal recognition particle/protein" during its translation? a. elastin b. an enzyme of the respiratory chain in mitochondria c. a protein of the large ribosomal subunit d. F-actin e. lamin A
a. elastin
z. What is the best identifier for the item labeled "B"? Select one: a. enamel tuft b. line of Owen c. enamel spindle d. secondary dentin e. tertiary dentin f. primary dentin g. enamel rod
a. enamel tuft
Type II pneumocytes are found in the: Select one: a. epithelial layer of the alveolus. b. lumen of the alveolus. c. epithelial layer of the terminal bronchiole. d. capillary of the alveolus. e. connective tissue of the alveolar septum.
a. epithelial layer of the alveolus.
z. What is the item labeled A in the PDL? Select one: a. free cementicle b. free denticle c. attached cementicle d. attached denticle
a. free cementicle
Which of the following is true of pulmonary surfactant? Select one: a. it acts as an opsonin b. it increases surface tension in the alveolus c. it is secreted by goblet cells d. it is secreted by type I pneumocytes
a. it acts as an opsonin
z. This item is most likely a a. large vein b. muscular artery c. lymphatic vessel d. elastic artery
a. large vein
Which of the following has a stratified squamous epithelium on both of its surfaces and a core of striated muscle between the connective tissues underlying each epithelial surface? Select one: a. lip b. trachea c. gingiva d. colon-rectal junction e. hard palate
a. lip
z. The unique appearance of the cells in this image is predominantly due to Select one: a. macula adherens (a.k.a. desmosomes) b. secretory granules c. zonula adherens d. actin microfilaments e. gap junctions
a. macula adherens (a.k.a. desmosomes)
Electrolyte composition of urine is monitored by the : Select one: a. macula densa. b. JG cells. c. collecting tubule epithelium. d. peritubular capillaries. e. minor calyx.
a. macula densa.
Which of the following cells lining the ileum traps antigens and presents them to adjacent lymphocytes or macrophages? Select one: a. microfold (M) cellb. absorptive cell c. Paneth cell d. goblet cell e. regenerative cell
a. microfold (M)
z. What is the structure labeled with the arrowhead? Select one: a. muscularis externa b. nerve fibers c. lamina propria d. muscularis mucosa e. Auerbach's plexus (aka myenteric plexus)
a. muscularis externa
z. The single black line structure identified by the arrows contains lots of Select one: a. nephrin b. desmin c. actin microfilaments d. collagen I e. elastic fibers
a. nephrin
Melanocytes of the lower leg are derived from Select one: a. neural crest cells b. paraxial mesoderm c. notochord d. somites e. endoderm
a. neural crest cells
What cells make tertiary dentin? Select one: a. odontoblasts b. cementoblasts c. fibroblasts d. osteoblasts e. ameloblasts
a. odontoblasts
z. This histological section is taken from which of the following? Select one: a. pancreas b. parotid salivary gland c. sublingual salivary gland d. Brunner's gland e. submandibular salivary gland
a. pancreas
z. Choose the best answer for the region labeled with B. a. pars granulosa b. euchromatin c. pars fibrosa d. heterochromatin e. microfilaments
a. pars granulosa
The fused basal lamina of the glomerulus is made by Select one: a. podocytes and endothelial cells b. podocytes and mesangial cells c. mesangial cells and endothelial cells d. visceral layer of Bowman's capsule and podocytes e. parietal layer of Bowman's capsule and podocytes
a. podocytes and endothelial cells
The fused basal lamina of the glomerulus is made by Select one: a. podocytes and endothelial cells b. podocytes and mesangial cells c. mesangial cells and endothelial cells d. visceral layer of Bowmans capsule and podocytes e. parietal layer of Bowmans capsule and podocytes
a. podocytes and endothelial cells
Korff's fibers would be found in Select one: a. predentin b. the pulp cavity c. enamel d. cementum e. gingiva f. the PDL
a. predentin
Which of the following is characterized by a folded secretory epithelium which can be simple or pseudostratified, a fibromuscular stroma, and many tubuloalveolar glands? Select one: a. prostrate gland b. bulbourethral gland c. seminal vesicle d. vas deferens e. epididymus
a. prostrate gland
z. The primary function of the cells immediately surrounding the lumen labeled with the number 1 is? Select one: a. pumping ions out of the lumen b. merocrine secretion of mucous products. c. merocrine secretion of serous products. d. pumping proteins into the lumen e. making HCl in the lumen
a. pumping ions out of the lumen
The cervical loop will give rise to what in the adult oral cavity? Select one: a. rests of Malassez b. enamel c. PDL fibroblasts d. rests of Serres e. cementum
a. rests of Malassez
z. The region from arrow tip to arrow tip of B would contain lots of what? Select one: a. smooth muscle cells b. mast cells c. ground substance d. collagen I e. fibroblasts
a. smooth muscle cells
z. The label E refers to which of the following? Select one: a. stellate reticulum b. outer enamel epithelium c. stratum intermedium d. inner enamel epithelium e. ectomesenchyme
a. stellate reticulum
Based on secretion characteristics, the following is the best example of a mixed gland: Select one: a. submandibular gland b. von Ebner's gland c. glands of Littre d.parotid gland e. the thymus
a. submandibular gland
Odontoblasts stain intensely with basic dyes because of their : a. increased mitotic activity b. high content of potassium ions c. numerous infoldings of the plasma membrane d. numerous mitochondria e. abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum
abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum
Dentinal processes in dentinal tubules: a. correspond to osteocyte processes in canaliculi b. are first formed at the DEJ c. span the entire length of the dentin d. may be accompanied by nerve fibers e. all of the above
all of the above
Smooth muscle differs from skeletal muscle because: a. it lacks organized myofibrils b. it contains a single nucleus c. it lacks t-tubules d. it can undergo hyperplasia as well as hypertrophy e. all of the above
all of the above
The first formed dentin: a. is referred to as mantle dentin. b. occurs under the DEJ in the crown of the tooth. c. is rich in type I collagen. d. induces ameloblasts to become secretory ameloblasts. e. all of the above.
all of the above.
The organic extracellular matrix of newly formed enamel is composed of: a. collagen Type I b. keratin c. collagen Type II d. amelogenins e. elastic (oxytalan) fibers.
amelogenins
Programmed cell death (PCD) is also known as: a. hypertrophy b. hyperplasia c. necrosis d. apoptosis e. dysplasia
apoptosis
An ankylosed tooth:
appears submerged as compared to surrounding teeth
z. Which labeled item may develop into a branchial cyst along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K
b. B
All of the following are correct EXCEPT: Select one: a. Specificity, diversity, and memory are important characteristics of the immune system. b. B cells are more numerous than T-cells in blood. c. Interleukin 2 and 4 promote proliferation of B cells. d. T-cells can be very long lived. e. The source of T cell specificity in immune reactions is the T-cell receptor.
b. B cells are more numerous than T-cells in blood.
The following cell surface marker is used by HIV to enter T cells. Select one: a. CD3. b. CD4. c. CD5. d. CD8. e. CD40.
b. CD4.
Cytotoxic T cells are most likely to express which of the following cell surface markers? Select one: a. CD4 b. CD8 c. CD40 d. CD50 e. CD2
b. CD8
What is a major difference between collagen I and elastic fibers? a. Collagen I assembly of procollagen into triple helices occurs in the ECM, elastic fiber formation doesn't utilize triple helices b. Collagen I fiber formation does not utilize a microfibril scaffold and elastic fiber formation does use a microfibril scaffold c. Collagen I and elastin fibers are in very different tissue regions and never observed in close proximity in electron micrographs d. Collagen I fibers generate a unique desmosine crosslink not required in elastic fibers e. Collagen I fiber formation utilize lysyl oxidase and elastic fiber formation does not
b. Collagen I fiber formation does not utilize a microfibril scaffold and elastic fiber formation does use a microfibril scaffold
A cascade of interactions between which two tissue types is primarily responsible for tooth formation? Select one: a. Epithelium and nerve b. Ectomesenchyme and epithelium c. Blood and ectomesenchyme d. Blood and nerve e. Nerve and ectomesenchyme
b. Ectomesenchyme and epithelium
Choose the best answer. Select one: a. The thymus is only derived from ectoderm. b. Epithelial reticular cells are a prominent feature of the thymus. c. B cells are always found in the thymus. d. Approximately 98% of T-cells die in the thymic medulla. e. The thymus of an adult is larger than that of a child.
b. Epithelial reticular cells are a prominent feature of the thymus.
Which antibody would be found at highest concentration in saliva? Select one: a. IgD b. IgA c. IgE d. IgM e. IgG
b. IgA
The specificity trigger (i.e. surface recognition molecules) of B-cells is ____, while those of T-cells would include ____. Select one: a. IgD / IgM b. IgD / T-cell receptors c. IgG / T-cell receptors d. IgG / IgG e. IgE / T-cell receptors
b. IgD / T-cell receptors
Which structure would be most heavily labeled by an immunohistochemical method targeting the CD8 surface antigen? Select one: a. Splenic cords b. Periarterial lymphatic sheath c. Peyer's patch d. Germinal centers e. Lymph node cords
b. Periarterial lymphatic sheath
Which description is true of continuous capillaries? Select one: a. Abundant fenestrations. b. Predominant in both brain and muscle c. Unusually wide lumens d. Phagocytic cells often seen inserted in the intercellular clefts e. Lack a complete basement membrane
b. Predominant in both brain and muscle
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Select one: a. Inner enamel epithelium gives rise to secretory ameloblasts. b. Stellate reticulum cells are derived from ectomesenchyme. c. Hertwig's epithelial root sheath precedes the development of cementum. d. The bulk of the dental papilla gives rise to the pulp. e. Formation of dentin requires tight junctions between odontoblasts.
b. Stellate reticulum cells are derived from ectomesenchyme.
Choose the correct statement. Select one: a. The first antibody to appear in serum during the primary immune response is IgD. b. The most important antibody for the secondary immune response is IgG. c. IL4 is produced by cytotoxic T cells and promotes proliferation of cytotoxic T cells. d. Plasma cells are long-lived and the only source of memory for the immune response. e. B cells have cell surface proteins called the T cell receptors that interact with T cells.
b. The most important antibody for the secondary immune response is IgG.
A Herring body is Select one: a. an apocrine secretion site in the pituitary. b. a storage site for hypothalamus products. c. a secretion point for ACTH. d. signaled from the parathyroid for storage. e. found in the adrenal gland.
b. a storage site for hypothalamus products.
Somatotropin (Growth hormone) is secreted by ___________cells of the ___________of the pituitary gland. Select one: a. basophilic; pars intermedia b. acidophilic; pars distalis c. PAS+; pars distalis d. PAS-; pars nervosa e. basophilic; pars distalis
b. acidophilic; pars distalis
z. What is identified by the arrow and line? Select one: a. thyroid b. adrenal cortex c. parathyroid d. pituitary e. adrenal medulla
b. adrenal cortex
z. The cells of the item labeled #1 respond to Select one: a. angiotensin II b. aldosterone c. renin d. angiotensin I e. angiotensinogen
b. aldosterone
z. The cells labeled by the arrow #3 Select one: a. will develop into ameloblasts. b. are connected together by desmosomes. c. are critical for signaling dental papilla cells. d. are called stratum intermedium. e. are secreting lots of non-glycosylated proteins.
b. are connected together by desmosomes.
When the number of circularly arranged smooth muscle cell layers in the tunica media of an arterial vessel is about 2 to 3, this vessel is called a(n): Select one: a. muscular artery. b. arteriole. c. arteriovenous anastomosis. d. continuous capillary. e. elastic artery.
b. arteriole.
Growth factors perform their function by: Select one: a. being in the nucleus and binding to DNA b. binding to cell surface receptors which then send signals into the cytoplasm and nucleus c. staying in the extracellular matrix and interacting with collagen d. binding to receptor molecules within the cytoplasm and then going into the nucleus e. containing a conserved 180 nucleotide sequence that regulates gene expression
b. binding to cell surface receptors which then send signals into the cytoplasm and nucleus
The last airway division to contain cartilage in the walls is the: Select one: a. trachea b. bronchus c. bronchioles d. terminal bronchioles e. alveolar ducts
b. bronchus
Each of the following may be associated with, connected to, or part of the basal plasma membrane of a polarized epithelial cell EXCEPT: a. hemidesmosomes b. cadherins c. collagen IV d. laminin e. integrins
b. cadherins
Which of the following cells produces a hormone which elevates blood calcium? Select one: a. cells with Herring bodies in the posterior pituitary gland b. chief cells of the parathyroid gland c. oxyphil cells of the parathyroid gland d. C-cells of the thyroid gland e. pinealocytes of the pineal gland
b. chief cells of the parathyroid gland
z. The cell indicated by the arrow C in this light micrograph is a: Select one: a. parafollicular cell in the thyroid gland b. chromophobe in the anterior pituitary gland. c. cell that secretes epinephrine in the adrenal medulla. d. oxyphil cell in the parathyroid gland. e. zona reticularis cell in the adrenal cortex.
b. chromophobe in the anterior pituitary gland.
Hepatocytes : Select one: a. contain very few mitochondria. b. contain an extensive smooth endoplasmic reticulum. c. transport albumin from bile to the blood. d. possess a prominent brush border. e. form bile canaliculi via junctional contacts with endothelial cells.
b. contain an extensive smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
During a normal menstrual cycle in the non-pregnant female, the secretory phase of the uterine endometrium is dependent upon the presence, in the ovary, of: Select one: a. several secondary follicles b. corpus luteum c. a minimum of 1 million primordial follicles d. a corpus albicans e. sperm in the oviduct
b. corpus luteum
The connective tissue core within a villus may contain all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. a lacteal. b. crypt of Lieberkühn. c. arterioles. d. smooth muscle. e. mast cells.
b. crypt of Lieberkühn.
Concerning hormones, which of the following is the appropriate term used for the situation where a hormone secreted by a given cell into the blood vascular system has an effect on a distant target cell? Select one: a. autocrine b. endocrine c. paracrine d. exocrine e. epicrine
b. endocrine
The presence of a large number of fat cells, relatively large blood vessels, lymphatics and nerve fibers, covered by visceral mesothelium best describes which of the following? Select one: a. endocardium b. epicardium c. myocardium d. bundle of His; Purkinje fibers e. parietal pericardium
b. epicardium
Each of the following is a causal event leading to menstruation. Which one of these initiates all of the others? Select one: a. buckling of the coiled arterioles b. fall in blood levels of estrogen and progesterone c. regression of the corpus luteum d. shrinkage of the endometrium e. stasis of blood flow in endometrial arterioles
b. fall in blood levels of estrogen and progesterone
Wisdom teeth develop: Select one: a. in the mesial portion of the oral cavity b. from dental lamina the same way that incisors do c. from cells that express Tlx1 d. by avoiding the bell stage e. only in faculty teaching Dental histology
b. from dental lamina the same way that incisors do
z. Choose the best answer for the item labeled with the number 2 in the image. a. microfilaments b. glycocalyx c. coated vesicle d. glycogen e. cilia
b. glycocalyx
The classical liver lobule: Select one: a. is organized along a distributing vein. b. has a hexagonal shape with central vein in the center. c. has a triangular shape with central veins at each point of the triangle. d. does not have portal triads associated with it. e. is organized around a central bile duct.
b. has a hexagonal shape with central vein in the center.
The pattern of epidermal ridges (dermatoglyphics) is determined by: Select one: a. the rate of keratohyalin granule degradation. b. inductive effects of the underlying embryonic mesoderm. c. the super accretion of melanin granules. d. positioning of melanocytes in the dermis. e. the deep positioning of the Langerhans cells in the dermis.
b. inductive effects of the underlying embryonic mesoderm.
z. Identify the structure indicated by the arrows. Select one: a. acinar cells b. intercalated duct c. striated duct d. interlobular duct
b. intercalated duct
Spermiogenesis Select one: a. occurs before puberty. b. involves cytodifferentiation of spermatids. c. consists of mitosis of spermatogonia. d. occurs in diploid cells. e. includes spermatocytogenesis, meiosis, and spermatogenesis.
b. involves cytodifferentiation of spermatids.
The first branchial arch contributes to the formation of the: Select one: a. muscles of facial expression b. muscles of mastication c. both A and B d. neither A nor B
b. muscles of mastication
The filtration slit is composed of Select one: a. nephron b. nephrin c. renal corpuscle d. nephrogenin e. nephrotete f. basal lamina
b. nephrin
Which of the following would NOT be found in the PDL space? Select one: a. osteoblasts b. odontoblasts c. rests of Malassez d. cementoblasts e. fibroblasts
b. odontoblasts
Skin allows humans to be terrestrial animals because: Select one: a. of the desmosomes in the stratum spinosum. b. of the production and release of acylglucosylceramide in the stratum granulosum. c. of the packed keratohyaline granules intermeshed with the tonofibrils in the stratum corneum. d. the dermis is dense irregular connective tissue. e. eccrine glands regulate water retention in the body.
b. of the production and release of acylglucosylceramide in the stratum granulosum.
z. The organ represented by this light micrograph is: Select one: a. parotid gland b. pancreas c. liver d. submandibular gland e. tongue
b. pancreas
FGF signaling predominantly works in a(n) __________ manner. Select one: a. autocrine b. paracrine c. exocrine d. endocrine e. holocrine
b. paracrine
For fertilization to occur, the spermatozoon must do all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. undergo maturational changes such as the capacitation reaction b. penetrate the tunica albuginea c. penetrate the corona radiata. d. penetrate the egg cell membrane e. penetrate the zona pellucida
b. penetrate the tunica albuginea
Cranial Nerve VII will innervate Select one: a. pharyngeal arch 1 b. pharyngeal arch 2 c. pharyngeal arch 3 d. pharyngeal arch 4 e. pharyngeal arch 5 f. pharyngeal arch 6
b. pharyngeal arch 2
z. The item labeled with D in the image is most likely a(n) Select one: a. sinusoidal capillary. b. postcapillary venule. c. arteriole d. continuous capillary. e. lymphatic vessel.
b. postcapillary venule.
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath gives rise to _____, which may give rise to _____ : Select one: a. odontoblasts - cementoblasts b. rests of Malassez - periapical cysts c. rests of Serres - gingival cysts d. rests of Malassez - cementoblasts. e. Tome's processes - periodontal ligament.
b. rests of Malassez - periapical cysts
WPW (Wolf-Parkinson-White) syndrome causes problems with maintaining normal sinus rhythm because the: Select one: a. cardiac skeleton develops perforations or holes. b. small strands of cardiac muscle cross the cardiac skeleton and "short circuit" the normal impulse. c. purkinje fibers deteriorate in the bundle of His. d. SA node cells become uncoupled at the intercalated disc. e. pathway between the SA node and the AV bundle becomes filled with fibroblasts.
b. small strands of cardiac muscle cross the cardiac skeleton and "short circuit" the normal impulse.
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? Select one: a. inner enamel epithelium gives rise to secretory ameloblasts b. stellate reticulum cells are derived from ectomesenchyme c. Hertwig's epithelial root sheath precedes the development of cementum d. formation of dentin requires tight junctions between odontoblasts e. the bulk of the dental papilla gives rise to the pulp
b. stellate reticulum cells are derived from ectomesenchyme
Regeneration of epithelial cell types in the stomach comes from differentiation of: Select one: a. surface mucous cells b. stem cells in the neck region c. cardiac gland cells d. body chief (peptic) cells e. pyloric submucosal glands
b. stem cells in the neck region
The segment of the GI tract which has mucus-secreting cells, a columnar epithelial lining and mucosal glands containing chief cells and parietal cells is the : Select one: a. esophagus. b. stomach. c. duodenum. d. jejunum and ileum. e. colon.
b. stomach.
Blood that supplies the nutrients to rebuild the endometrium after menstruation is contained in: Select one: a. coiled arteries in the zona spongiosa. b. straight arteries in the stratum basale. c. straight arteries in the stratum functionale. d. coiled arteries in the zona compacta. e. all of the above.
b. straight arteries in the stratum basale.
Concerning major salivary glands, all of the following are correct EXCEPT: Select one: a. parotid glands have striated ducts b. sublingual glands contain no mucous alveoli c. submandibular glands have intercalated ducts d. submandibular glands have mucous acini with serous demilunes e. parotid glands are composed of serous acini
b. sublingual glands contain no mucous alveoli
z. Based on the information in this light micrograph choose the best identification from the list below. Select one: a. pancreas b. submandibular gland c. parotid gland d. Brunner's gland e. von Ebner's gland
b. submandibular gland
z. The arrows labelled B are indicating: Select one: a. secretory portion of a sweat gland b. sweat gland ducts c. a sebaceous gland d. apocrine sweat gland e. cardiac gland
b. sweat gland ducts
Lymph nodes draining a cancerous lesion are taken out by oncologists because Select one: a. it helps the patient live longer since the nodes would aid cancer development. b. they can help determine if the cancerous lesion has metastasized. c. the cells in them don't have any effect on cancerous cells. d. it is easier than taking out the spleen and neither help fight cancer. e. it helps researchers develop antibodies.
b. they can help determine if the cancerous lesion has metastasized.
Which of the following organs is full of adipose in older adults and is a major site of apoptosis? Select one: a. parotid b. thymus c. heart d. stomach e. liver
b. thymus
The most recent thinking on treating a tooth that was knocked out by acute trauma is : Select one: a. to clean off all cells before reimplanting. b. to rinse the tooth in saline before reimplanting. c. throw it in the trash, as there is no chance it will reimplant. d. carefully make a mold of the tooth for use in crafting a replacement. e. punch whoever knocked it out of your mouth.
b. to rinse the tooth in saline before reimplanting.
z. What region of the respiratory system is represented here? Select one: a. soft palate b. trachea c. respiratory bronchiole d. terminal bronchiole e. hard palate
b. trachea
A defect involving only secondary palate (lateral palatine process) fusion failure results in: Select one: a. type I cleft palate b. type II cleft palate c. type III cleft palate d. type IV cleft palate e. macrostomia
b. type II cleft palate
z. The cell indicated by 1 in this micrograph is a: Select one: a. type I pneumocyte b. type II pneumocyte c. macrophage d. B lymphocyte e. Clara cell
b. type II pneumocyte
Cells which synthesize and secrete glucocorticoids (e.g. cortisol) are located in the Select one: a. zona glomerulosa b. zona fasciculata c. medulla of the adrenal gland d. anterior pituitary e. parafollicular cells of the thyroid
b. zona fasciculata
Arrange the following in the correct sequence for impulse conduction in the heart. 1 = AV node, 2 = AV bundle, 3 = SA node, 4 = left or right bundle branch. Select one: a. 1, 2, 3, 4 b. 2, 3, 1, 4 c. 3, 1, 2, 4 d. 3, 2, 1, 4 e. 4, 3, 2, 1
c. 3, 1, 2, 4
The period of development most sensitive to teratogenic insult is: Select one: a. week one b. week two c. 3rd to 8th week d. 9th to 12th week e. 15th to 20th week
c. 3rd to 8th week
Neural Crest Cells can differentiate into all of the following EXCEPT? Select one: a. Odontoblasts b. Chromaffin cells c. Adrenal Cortex d. Thyroid Parafollicular cells (a.k.a. C-cells) e. Melanocytes
c. Adrenal Cortex
z. Assuming this is a MOLAR TOOTH and at this current stage in development, which of the following is critically important to be expressed at this stage for normal tooth development? Select one: a. Hox A cluster genes b. Tlx1 c. Barx1 d. amelogenin e. too many Hox genes to list here f. Hox D cluster genes
c. Barx1
z. The region of this embryo that will give rise to the major portion of the palate is labeled with what letter? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D
c. C
What hormone is produced in response to decreased blood calcium levels? Select one: a. Pepsinogen b. Somatostatin c. Calcitonin d. Parathyroid hormone e. ACTH
c. Calcitonin
In proceeding from a larger intrapulmonary bronchus to a respiratory bronchiole there are changes in the relative amounts of certain components of the wall. Which of the following is CORRECT? Select one: a. Goblet cells increase in number. b. Cartilage increases and smooth muscle decreases. c. Cartilage decreases. d. Both smooth muscle and goblet cells increase. e. The number of ciliated cells and the height of the epithelium increase.
c. Cartilage decreases.
In which of the following structures of the oral cavity would taste buds be localized in the highest concentration? Select one: a. Gingiva b. Filiform papillae c. Circumvallate papillae d. Submandibular gland e. Ventral surface of the tongue
c. Circumvallate papillae
Which of the following components increase(s) as a proportion of the respiratory tract wall from trachea to alveoli? Select one: a. Cilia b. Goblet cells c. Elastic fibers d. Cartilage
c. Elastic fibers
All of the following are correct EXCEPT : Select one: a. Gingival fibers are made of collagen 1. b. Gingival fibers are named on the basis of their origination and final destination. c. Gingival fibers include the interraddicular fibers. d. Gingival fibers include circular fibers. e. Gingival fibers include dentoperiosteal fibers.
c. Gingival fibers include the interraddicular fibers.
The stellate reticulum cells secrete which of the following to aid tooth development? Select one: a. Sonic hedgehog (Shh) b. Amelogenin c. Glycosaminoglycans d. Msx1 e. Collagen
c. Glycosaminoglycans
Ruffled ameloblasts would pump which of the following into the enamel? Select one: a. OH- and Na+ b. H+ and Na+ c. H+ and Ca++ d. OH- and Ca++ e. H+ and K+
c. H+ and Ca++
Which of the following statements is correct regarding intermediate filaments? Select one: a. Intermediate filaments are composed of f-actin. b. Intermediate filaments have motors that help to move things (e.g. vesicles) on them. c. Intermediate filaments are more stable than microtubules. d. Intermediate filaments are more dynamic than microfilaments. e. Intermediate filaments integrate into zonula adherens and zonula occludens.
c. Intermediate filaments are more stable than microtubules.
Ovulation is triggered by a surge in the release of what substance by hypothalamic neurons? Select one: a. FSH b. LH c. LH-RH (GnRH) d. Somatostatin e. Dopamine
c. LH-RH (GnRH)
Which cells originate in the bone marrow and function as antigen-presenting cells in skin? Select one: a. Arrector pili b. Merkel cell c. Langerhans cells d. Keratinocytes e. Melanocytes
c. Langerhans cells
Which of the following components of the epidermis helps in retaining water? Select one: a. Desmosomes b. Keratin c. Lipids d. Adherens junctions e. Keratohyalin granules
c. Lipids
All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT. Select one: a. SHH expression can replace ZPA function in limb development. b. SHH gene encodes for an extracellular signaling molecule important in tooth development. c. MSX1 is expressed in the AER and the early dental lamina. d. MSX1 gene encodes a transcription factor that is critical for tooth development. e. Homeobox genes are essential for tooth development as well as shape.
c. MSX1 is expressed in the AER and the early dental lamina
Cementoblasts develop from which of the following? Select one: a. IEE cells b. Somitomeres c. Neural crest cells d. Dental papilla e. Paraxial mesoderm
c. Neural crest cells
Which of the following major salivary glands is (are) thought to be derived from ectodermal tissue? Select one: a. Sublingual b. Submandibular c. Parotid d. All are derived from ectoderm e. All are derived from endoderm of the foregut
c. Parotid
Anchorage of the tooth to the alveolar process is mediated through : Select one: a. Transseptal fibers b. Oxytalan fibers c. Sharpey's fibers d. Cemental fibers e. Intermediate fibers
c. Sharpey's fibers
z. The numerous lines that our eyes see in the regions labeled C and D are Select one: a. canaliculi. b. Lines of von Ebner. c. Striae of Retzius. d. dentinal tubules. e. Lines of Owen.
c. Striae of Retzius.
Cellular cementum is most likely found around : Select one: a. The cervical portion of the root b. The root of an unerupted tooth c. The apical portion of the root d. The peritubular dentin e. None of the above
c. The apical portion of the root
Resolution in electron microscopy greatly exceeds that of light microscopy due to which of the following? Select one: a. The electron microscope allows much greater magnification of a projected image than a light microscope provides. b. The lenses of an electron microscope are of greatly improved quality. c. The wavelength of the electrons in the microscope beam is shorter than that of a beam of light. d. An electron microscope, since it is connected to a computer, can be much more finely controlled than a light microscope. e. For electron microscopy the tissue specimen does not require staining.
c. The wavelength of the electrons in the microscope beam is shorter than that of a beam of light.
All of the following are true EXCEPT: Select one: a. The pharyngeal tonsil has pleats instead of crypts and is covered by respiratory epithelium. b. The lingual tonsils each have a single crypt and they are smaller than the pharyngeal tonsil. c. There are only two lingual tonsils, two pharyngeal tonsils and two palatine tonsils. d. One function of the spleen is to clear old RBC's and pathogens from the blood. e. One function of the spleen is to produce RBC's during embryonic development. Feedback
c. There are only two lingual tonsils, two pharyngeal tonsils and two palatine tonsils.
All of the following statements concerning respiratory epithelium are true EXCEPT: Select one: a. Approximatey 30 % of the cells are columnar. b. Approximately 30 % of the cells are stem cells. c. There is no observable basement membrane by light microscope and H&E because gas exchange occurs here. d. Together serous, brush, and DNES cells in total constitute approximately 9-10 % of the cells. e. Cilia are a prominent feature of this epithelium.
c. There is no observable basement membrane by light microscope and H&E because gas exchange occurs here.
z. The structure labelled B in this image is a(n): Select one: a. plasma cell b. fibroblast c. Type I pneumocyte d. alveolar macrophage e. Type II pneumocyte
c. Type I pneumocyte
Regarding blood vessels: Select one: a. Veins have more elastic tissue than arteries. b. Arteries have a relatively thinner tunica media than do veins. c. Veins have a more prominent adventitia than arteries. d. Arteries have a thicker endothelial lining than veins. e. Elastic membranes are less pronounced in arteries than in veins.
c. Veins have a more prominent adventitia than arteries.
Shh expression in tooth development, is most analogous to expression in the Select one: a. Apical ectodermal ridge b. Notochord c. Zone of polarizing activity d. Progress zone e. Lateral plate mesoderm
c. Zone of polarizing activity
z. Identify the structure or structures within the red circle in the transmission electron micrograph above by selecting the one correct statement below. a. one microtubule b. a cross-section through a microvillus c. a centriole d. a cross-section through a cilium e. a nuclear pore
c. a centriole
z. In this light micrograph, the black arrow indicates: a. a high concentration of macrophages b. the medullary portion of a thymus. c. a high concentration of plasma cells d. a high concentration of T lymphocytes e. a high concentration of epithelial reticular cells
c. a high concentration of plasma cells
z. Which of the following will be derived from cells labeled with the numbers 4? Select one: a. fibroblasts b. cementoblasts c. ameloblasts d. odontoblasts e. dentin
c. ameloblasts
An ankylosed tooth : Select one: a. is an ectopically erupted tooth which appears on the lingual side of a normal tooth. b. is an undifferentiated tooth germ. c. appears submerged as compared to surrounding teeth. d. is a supernumerary tooth of the newborn which is shed before the normal deciduous tooth erupts. e. is normally found on the mesial aspects of the ankle.
c. appears submerged as compared to surrounding teeth.
Villi : Select one: a. are covered with ciliated cells. b. are characteristic of the small and large intestine. c. are permanent mucosal folds with a lamina propria core. d. disappear when the intestine is distended. e. contain many parasympathetic ganglia of Meissner's plexus.
c. are permanent mucosal folds with a lamina propria core.
z. The structure indicated by the arrow marked A is known as: Select one: a. myoepithelial b. inner enamel epithelium c. dental lamina d. oral ectoderm e. neural crest
c. dental lamina
Which of the following is NOT a gene? Select one: a. indian hedgehog b. sonic hedgehog c. dentin d. BMP-4 e. Barx1
c. dentin
z. What are the linear items labeled A and colored green? Select one: a. transseptal fibers b. alveolar crest fibers c. dentogingival fibers d. dentoperiosteal fibers e. circular fibers f. alveologingival fibers
c. dentogingival fibers
Changes in structure accompanying follicle development include all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. increased size of the atrium b. increased size of the follicle c. disappearance of the theca interna d. increased number of follicle (granulosa) cells e. appearance of zona pellucida
c. disappearance of the theca interna
z. The row of cells indicated by the arrows in this light micrograph is part of the: Select one: a. afferent arteriole b. efferent arteriole c. distal convoluted tubule d. proximal convoluted tubule e. vasa recta
c. distal convoluted tubule
Calcitonin secreting cells can be traced back to the Select one: a. endoderm b. mesoderm c. ectoderm
c. ectoderm
As a resident in pediatrics, you are called to see a newborn who has a unilateral cleft lip and a unilateral cleft of the primary plate. This condition is most likely the result of: Select one: a. failure of fusion of the mandibular processes b. failure of fusion of the medial nasal processes c. failure of fusion of the maxillary process with the medial nasal process d. failure of fusion of the lateral palatine processes with the nasal septum e. failure of fusion of the paired lateral palatine processes
c. failure of fusion of the maxillary process with the medial nasal process
z. The cells at the tip of the arrow labelled #1 are most likely to develop into Select one: a. odontoblasts b. ameloblasts c. fibroblasts d. osteoblasts e. chondroblasts
c. fibroblasts
First Arch Syndrome involves abnormalities of all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. mandible b. palate c. hyoid bone d. eye or eyelid e. middle or external ear
c. hyoid bone
z. Identify the correct tissue Select one: a. duodenum b. jejunum c. ileum d. thymus e. lymph node
c. ileum
z. The item labeled with a #1 and the yellow arrowheads is which of the following? Select one: a. intercalated duct in the submandibular gland b. striated duct in the submandibular gland c. intercalated duct in the sublingual gland d. striated duct in the sublingual gland e. interlobular duct in the sublingual gland f. interlobular duct in the submandibular gland
c. intercalated duct in the sublingual gland
z. This image shows a tissue that Select one: a. has both red pulp and white pulp. b. does not have any plasma cells in it. c. is an inline filter for lymphatic vessels. d. is the location for B cell maturation. e. has no afferent lymphatics.
c. is an inline filter for lymphatic vessels.
z. The circular structure labeled #2 would be primarily responsible for the Select one: a. transport of urine to the glomerulus. b. fine tuning the electrolyte absorption from the urine. c. majority of electrolyte absorption from the urine. d. vascular flow in the kidney. e. transport of urine to the vasa recta.
c. majority of electrolyte absorption from the urine.
The first branchial arch gives rise to: Select one: a. stapes b. posterior belly of the digastric muscle c. malleus and incus d. greater cornu of the hyoid bone e. muscles of facial expression
c. malleus and incus
Clearing of debris and pathogens in the urinary space and associated basement membrane in the kidney glomerulus is done by the: Select one: a. podocyte. b. proximal tubule brush border. c. mesangial cell. d. macula densa. e. capillary endothelial cell.
c. mesangial cell.
The left ventricle of the heart is derived from Select one: a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. mesoderm d. neural crest cells
c. mesoderm
Which of the following will give rise to the muscles of facial expression? Select one: a. pharyngeal arch 1 b. neural crest cells c. mesoderm d. ectoderm e. endoderm
c. mesoderm
z. The tissue in this image is best classified as which of the following? a. unilocular adipocytes b. sweat or eccrine gland c. mucous gland d. serous secreting gland e. loose irregular connective tissue
c. mucous gland
The established lesion of periodontal disease is characterized by what type of inflammatory cell? a. lymphocyte b. plasma cell c. neutrophil leukocyte (PMN) d. macrophages e. basophil leukocyte
c. neutrophil leukocyte (PMN)
What induces the initial stages of CNS development? Select one: a. neural crest cells b. somites c. notochord d. endoderm e. paraxial mesoderm f. ectoderm
c. notochord
The most numerous fibers in the PDL are Select one: a. horizontal fibers b. apical fibers c. oblique fibers d. interradicular fibers e. alveolar crest fibers
c. oblique fibers
Environmental causes of human congenital anomalies may be prevented, to some extent, with proper counseling. Each of the following would be good advice to give a woman who has just missed a menstrual period and may be pregnant EXCEPT: Select one: a. take only those drugs that have been prescribed by your doctor. b. avoid exposure to large amounts of radiation. c. obtain a vaccination for protection against rubella infection. d. stay away from people who have infectious diseases. e. eat a good-quality diet and do not smoke.
c. obtain a vaccination for protection against rubella infection.
The reduced enamel epithelium is composed of all the cells below EXCEPT : Select one: a. ameloblasts b. stellate reticulum c. odontoblasts d. stratum intermedium e. outer enamel epithelium
c. odontoblasts
Which organ secretes compounds that are initially inactive? Select one: a. parotid b. small intestine c. pancreas d. submandibular gland e. kidney
c. pancreas
Concerning hormones, which of the following is the appropriate term used for the situation where a hormone has an effect on an adjacent target cells Select one: a. autocrine b. endocrine c. paracrine d. exocrine e. epicrine
c. paracrine
Dental Sialoprotein (DSP) will be found mostly in Select one: a. predentin b. primary dentin c. peritubular dentin d. tertiary dentin e. globular dentin f. secondary dentin
c. peritubular dentin
Cranial Nerve IX will innervate Select one: a. pharyngeal arch 1 b. pharyngeal arch 2 c. pharyngeal arch 3 d. pharyngeal arch 4 e. pharyngeal arch 5 f. pharyngeal arch 6
c. pharyngeal arch 3
The visceral layer of the glomerulus is comprised of: Select one: a. peritubular capillary endothelium. b. macula densa endothelium. c. podocytes. d. stellate veins. e. vasa recta.
c. podocytes.
During spermiogenesis, the Golgi complex moves to one end of the spermatid nucleus and participates in the formation of: Select one: a. the sperm mid-piece b. the sperm flagellum c. the acrosome d. residual bodies e. androgen binding protein
c. the acrosome
Concerning teeth, all of the following are correct EXCEPT: Select one: a. nerves and vessels enter the pulp through the apical foramen b. cementum covers root dentin while enamel covers crown dentin c. the clinical crown extends from the apex to the neck d. fibers of the periodontal ligament penetrate the cementum e. the periodontal ligament allows some tooth movement
c. the clinical crown extends from the apex to the neck
Concerning teeth, all of the following are correct EXCEPT: a. nerves and vessels enter the pulp through the apical foramen b. cementum covers the root dentin while enamel covers crown dentin c. the clinical crown extends from the apex to the neck d. fibers of the periodontal ligament penetrate the cementum e. the periodontal ligament allows some tooth movement
c. the clinical crown extends from the apex to the neck
Regarding the bell stage of primary tooth development, all of the following are correct EXCEPT : Select one: a. Hertwig's epithelial root sheath forms b. the dental lamina begins to break up c. the permanent tooth is present in the bud stage on the labial aspect of the primary tooth d. the IEE is differentiating from pre-secretory to secretory ameloblasts e. the stellate reticulum is present but diminishing
c. the permanent tooth is present in the bud stage on the labial aspect of the primary tooth
z. If this image were expanded and you could see BELOW the items presented but in the same plane, you would most likely observe Select one: a. lips. b. the parotid. c. the tongue. d. a cheek.
c. the tongue.
The major function of the normal gingival epithelium is : Select one: a. the active transport of tissue fluid from the lamina propria. b. the secretion of a surface covering of fluid. c. to act as a barrier, protecting the underlying connective tissues. d. the absorption of ions from the saliva in the oral cavity. e. all of the above.
c. to act as a barrier, protecting the underlying connective tissues.
Which of the following has 3 distinct layers of smooth muscle in its walls? Select one: a. seminiferous tubule b. epididymus c. vas deferens d. seminal vesicle e. tubuli recti
c. vas deferens
In the adult, it is stated that the abdomen is inferior to the thorax. The corresponding term for an embryo is: a. ventral b. dorsal c. anterior d. cranial e. caudal
caudal
All of the following are components of the portal spaces (triads) of the liver EXCEPT Select one: a. A branch of the hepatic artery. b. A tributary of the bile duct. c. A branch of the portal vein. d. A tributary of the hepatic vein. e. A lymphatic vessel.
d. A tributary of the hepatic vein.
Metachronal beating of cilia Select one: a. is coordinated by gap junctions. b. is altered in Kartagener syndrome. c. is a wave-like motion that facilitates the movement of mucus. d. A,B and C are all correct. e. A and C only are correct.
d. A,B and C are all correct.
The pars nervosa of the posterior pituitary gland functions in the storage and release of Select one: a. ACTH b. FSH c. prolactin d. ADH e. none of the above
d. ADH
All of the following are true of the classical liver lobule EXCEPT? Select one: a. The bile canaculi are specialized spaces between adjacent hepatocyte cellmembranes. b. Blood flows through sinusoids toward the center of the lobule. c. Plasma proteins synthesized by hepatocytes are secreted at the sinusoidal face ofthe cells. d. Bile flows toward the center of the lobule. e. Portal vein blood enters the sinusoids at the periphery of the lobule.
d. Bile flows toward the center of the lobule.
The mucosal lining of the gut may be comprised of all of the following EXCEPT : Select one: a. epithelium b. lamina propria c. muscularis mucosa d. Brunner's glands e. mucus cells
d. Brunner's glands
The duodenum is best characterized by the presence of : Select one: a. a lack of a muscularis mucosa layer. b. Peyers patches. c. a large number of M cells. d. Brunner's glands. e. plicae circulares
d. Brunner's glands.
Which of the following endocrine cells produces a hormone which lowers blood calcium? Select one: a. cells with Herring bodies in the posterior pituitary gland b. chief cells of the parathyroid gland c. oxyphil cells of the parathyroid gland d. C-cells of the thyroid gland e. pinealocytes of the pineal gland
d. C-cells of the thyroid gland
Which description is true of all secondary (peripheral) lymphoid organs? Select one: a. Lack connective tissue capsules b. Contain epithelial-reticular cells c. Contain crypts d. Contain lymphoid nodules e. Capable of antigen-independent lymphopoiesis
d. Contain lymphoid nodules
Transitions in the cell cycle from one phase to the next are regulated by protein kinases whose activity depends on the presence of what other proteins? Select one: a. Tumor suppressors b. Lamins c. Actins d. Cyclins e. Importins
d. Cyclins
z. Which letter designates the area in which you would be most likely to find a Merkel's cell? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E
d. D
Pick the BEST answer. Select one: a. The labiogingival sulcus is formed by apoptosis of the ectomesenchyme. b. Defects in tooth development are only caused by mutations in genes that are normally expressed during tooth development. c. Ameloblasts secrete enamel in the bell stage. d. Defects in the bud stage typically result in no teeth being formed. e. Defects in the cap stage typically result in no teeth being formed.
d. Defects in the bud stage typically result in no teeth being formed
Pick the BEST answer. a. The labioginigval sulcus is formed by apoptosis of the ectomesenchyme. b. Defects in tooth development are only caused by mutations in genes that are not normally expressed during tooth development. c. Ameloblasts secrete enamel in the bell stage. d. Defects in the bud stage typically result in no teeth being formed. e. Defects in the cap stage typically result in no teeth being formed.
d. Defects in the bud stage typically result in no teeth being formed.
Which structure is typical of reticular dermis but not papillary dermis? Select one: a. Type IV collagen fibers b. Meissner tactile corpuscles c. Capillaries d. Dense irregular connective tissue e. Sweat gland ducts
d. Dense irregular connective tissue
The macula densa of the _________________ and the juxtaglomerular cells of the _______________ are neighbors. Select one: a. Proximal convoluted tubule, Distal Convoluted Tubule b. Proximal convoluted tubule, afferent arteriole c. afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole d. Distal Convoluted Tubule, afferent arteriole e. Distal Convoluted Tubule, efferent arteriole
d. Distal Convoluted Tubule, afferent arteriole
Choose the best answer. Select one: a. The thymus is derived from ectoderm. b. B cells are always found in the thymus. c. The thymus of an adult is larger than that of a child. d. Epithelial reticular cells are a prominent feature of the thymus. e. 98% of T-cells die in the thymic medulla.
d. Epithelial reticular cells are a prominent feature of the thymus.
All of the following statements for vascular endothelium are true EXCEPT: Select one: a. It produces Weibel-Palade bodies (factor VIII). b. It converts angotensin I to angiotensin II, primarily in the lung. c. It is anti-thrombogenic. d. It synthesizes elastin. e. It forms occluding junctions with neighboring endothelial cells.
d. It synthesizes elastin.
The product of this cell inhibits the release of LH from the pituitary? Select one: a. type A spermatogonia b. primary spermatocytes c. Sertoli cell d. Leydig cell e. epididymal cell
d. Leydig cell
z. What are the items labeled "A"? Select one: a. enamel rods b. Lines of Owen c. Lines of von Ebner d. Lines of Retzius e. dentinal tubules
d. Lines of Retzius
All of the following are epithelial derivatives EXCEPT : Select one: a. sweat glands b. sweat gland ducts c. sebaceous glands d. Meissner's corpuscle e. hair follicle
d. Meissner's corpuscle
z. This image is from a portion of the GI tract epithelium. What are the cell types labeled with a B? Select one: a. Chief cells b. Plasma cells c. Paneth cells d. Parietal cells e. Mast cells
d. Parietal cells
Choose the correct statement Select one: a. Permanent teeth always erupt lingually to the primary tooth. b. Permanent incisors reach their final position in the oral cavity based on the force of the orbicularis oris. c. Permanent canines do not begin root formation until the primary tooth is shed. d. Permanent premolars develop underneath the primary molars.
d. Permanent premolars develop underneath the primary molars.
What is the first step of collagen production that occurs after the protein undergoes exocytosis? a. Disulfide bond formation b. Assembly of subunits to form a larger structure c. Cross-linking of collagen fibrils with a short linking collagen d. Removal of the terminal domains by procollagen peptidases e. Hydroxylation of lysine and proline
d. Removal of the terminal domains by procollagen peptidases
Stratified cuboidal epithelium would be most readily found in which of the following locations in the oral cavity? Select one: a. hard palate b. dorsal surface of the tongue c. gingiva d. Stensen's duct e. ventral surface of the tongue
d. Stensen's duct
The protective mechanisms of antibodies include all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. Agglutination of pathogens which clumps them together effectively decreasing the number of infectious particles. b. Opsonization of pathogens which facilitates phagocytosis. c. Neutralization of pathogens which blocks them from interacting with cell surface receptors for internalization. d. Stimulating the release of perforins which is important in killing pathogens.
d. Stimulating the release of perforins which is important in killing pathogens.
The protective mechanisms of antibodies include all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. Neutralization of pathogens which blocks them from interacting with cell surface receptors for internalization. b. Opsonization of pathogens which facilitates phagocytosis. c. Agglutination of pathogens which clumps them together effectively decreasing the number of infectious particles. d. Stimulating the release of perforins which is important in killing pathogens.
d. Stimulating the release of perforins which is important in killing pathogens.
Spermatogenesis resembles oogenesis in which of the following? Select one: a. All products of the second meiotic division are viable. b. Both processes are completed during intrauterine life. c. They both stop abruptly at middle age. d. The developing germ cells are associated with supportive cells. e. Germ cells are arrested during prophase of the second mitotic division.
d. The developing germ cells are associated with supportive cells.
All of the following about filtration slits found in the glomerulus are true EXCEPT: Select one: a. They are comprised of Nephrin. b. They block molecules larger than 69K Daltons. c. They allow passage of amino acids and sugars. d. They are located in the fenestrae of the endothelium. e. They expand / contract as foot processes change size via actin microfilaments.
d. They are located in the fenestrae of the endothelium.
All of the following statements are correct EXCEPT : Select one: a. Malformations in tooth development can be caused by defects (mutations) in homeobox genes. b. Malformations in tooth development can be caused by defects (mutations) in structural genes. c. Malformations in tooth development can be caused by genes that are not normally expressed during tooth development being misexpressed in the developing tooth. d. When a gene is mutated or deleted that is normally expressed in the developing teeth the result is always abnormal adult teeth. e. In general defects in the bud stage of tooth development mean that no tooth will form.
d. When a gene is mutated or deleted that is normally expressed in the developing teeth the result is always abnormal adult teeth.
A calcified body located in the periodontal ligament is called : Select one: a. denticle b. an epithelial rest of Malassez c. a rest of Serres d. a cementicle e. a spur
d. a cementicle
The thyroid gland: Select one: a. forms as an outpocketing from the foramen cecum b. forms the thyroglossal duct along its course of descent c. is derived from endoderm d. a, b, and c are correct e. none of the above are correct
d. a, b, and c are correct
Langerhans cells are : Select one: a. the main producers of keratohyalin granules. b. involved in pigmentation. c. rich in tyrosinase. d. antigen presenting cells of the integument. e. exocrine cells of the pancreas.
d. antigen presenting cells of the integument.
Neuroectoderm develops into: Select one: a. epithelial lining of the digestive system b. cardiovascular and lymphatic systems c. urogenital system d. central and peripheral nervous systems e. epithelial lining of the respiratory system
d. central and peripheral nervous systems
Neuroectoderm develops into: a. epithelial lining of the digestive system b. cardiovascular and lymphatic systems c. urogenital system d. central and peripheral nervous systems e. epithelial lining of the respiratory system
d. central and peripheral nervous systems
Which of the following items would NOT be found as part of the mucosal lining of the GI tract? Select one: a. muscularis mucosa b. lamina propria c. simple or stratified epithelium d. ciliated cells e. Goblet cells
d. ciliated cells
If you wanted to find a taste bud quickly, which of the following would you choose to examine? Select one: a. filiform papillae of the tongue b. foliate papillae of the tongue c. the oropharynx d. circumvallate papillae of the tongue e. fungiform papillae of the tongue
d. circumvallate papillae of the tongue
Peyer's patches are : Select one: a. lymphatic regions in the colon. b. absorptive regions of the jejunum. c. lymphatic nodules in stomach mucosa. d. concentrations of lymphatic nodules in the ileum. e. restricted to the appendix.
d. concentrations of lymphatic nodules in the ileum.
z. This low power survey view would lead you to believe that this tissue: Select one: a. has germinal centers with plasma cells. b. is full of elastic fibers. c. contains lots of cords and sinuses. d. contains lots of epithelial reticular cells. e. would contain sinusoidal capillaries.
d. contains lots of epithelial reticular cells.
Which of the following is considered to be the most likely mechanism of tooth eruption? Select one: a. cushion hammock ligament b. contraction of the neurovascular bundle c. cell apoptosis d. dental follicle e. cartilage remodeling
d. dental follicle
z. The tissue indicated by the letter labelled D is: Select one: a. muscle b. hyaline cartilage c. bone d. ectomesenchyme e. stratified epithelium
d. ectomesenchyme
z. The area labeled "A" is best identified as Select one: a. dentin b. bone c. cementum d. enamel
d. enamel
Stereocilia are most prominent in which of the following? Select one: a. tubuli recti b. ampulla of vas deferens c. prostatic urethra d. epididymus e. seminiferous tubules
d. epididymus
z. In this light micrograph of the thymus, the arrows indicate cells that are: Select one: a. B lymphocytes b. T lymphocytes c. plasma cells d. epithelial-reticular cells
d. epithelial-reticular cells
The macula densa is found in the Select one: a. endothelium of the afferent arteriole b. endothelium of the glomerulus c. epithelium of Bowman's capsule d. epithelium of the Distal convoluted tubule
d. epithelium of the Distal convoluted tubule
Identify the CORRECT association : Select one: a. cleft lip - maxillary and lateral nasal processes. b. macrostomia - mandibular and hyoid arches c. oblique facial cleft - maxillary and medial nasal processes d. external ear abnormality - mandibular and hyoid arches e. none of the above are true
d. external ear abnormality - mandibular and hyoid arches
The rests of Serres are believed to give rise to which of the following: Select one: a. denticle b. an epithelial rest of Malassez c. periapical cysts d. gingival cysts e. spurs
d. gingival cysts
In order to sail into the urinary space of Bowman's capsule from the vasculature, the captain would have to traverse the filtration barrier in what sequence? Select one: a. efferent arteriole, basement membrane, fenestrae, podocytes, parietal layer b. distal convoluted tubule, macula densa, JG apparatus, afferent arteriole c. peritubular capillary endothelium, proximal convoluted tubule, lysosomes, vasa recta d. glomerular fenestrated capillary endothelium, basement membrane, podocyte slit process, urinary space e. none of the above
d. glomerular fenestrated capillary endothelium, basement membrane, podocyte slit process, urinary space
z. Which of the following correctly identifies the letter B? Select one: a. central vein b. portal vein c. bile duct d. hepatic artery e. bile canaliculus
d. hepatic artery
First Arch Syndrome involves abnormalities in form or function of all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. palate b. hearing c. mandible d. hyoid bone e. external ear
d. hyoid bone
In the pancreas: Select one: a. the abundant acid enzymes present in the acinar cells make them basophilic. b. centroacinar cells are the mucous cells of the acinus. c. striated ducts reabsorb sodium from the pancreatic secretion. d. intercalated ducts are the intralobular ducts. e. all of the above are true.
d. intercalated ducts are the intralobular ducts.
z. The structures labeled '2' in this light micrograph most likely correspond to what structures seen in an electron micrograph? a. macula adherens b. desmosome c. fascia adherens d. junctional complex e. gap junction
d. junctional complex
Which of the following has a stratified squamous epithelium on both of its surfaces and a core of striated muscle between the connective tissues underlying each epithelial surface? Select one: a. colon-rectal junction b. hard palate c. trachea d. lip e. gingiva
d. lip
You can tell you are in the cortex of the kidney when you can see which of the following in an H&E stained section? Select one: a. loops of Henle b. ureter c. collecting ducts d. macula densa e. vasa recta
d. macula densa
z. The congenital abnormality shown here (which is unilateral macrostomia) results from the decreased fusion of which two items? Select one: a. medial nasal and maxillary processes b. mandibular and lateral nasal processes c. lateral nasal and maxillary processes d. maxillary and mandibular processes e. lateral and medial nasal processes
d. maxillary and mandibular processes
z. The structures labelled with the arrows are a. kinetochores b. centrosomes c. basal bodies d. microtubules e. centrioles
d. microtubules
The mandible near tooth 24 is formed from Select one: a. endoderm b. endochondral ossification c. somitomeres d. neural crest cells e. paraxial mesoderm
d. neural crest cells
z. In this light micrograph of the integument (a.k.a. skin), the number one (1) lies in the: Select one: a. hypodermis b. stratum corneum c. epidermal peg d. papillary layer of the dermis e. reticular layer of the dermis
d. papillary layer of the dermis
Blood-borne lymphocytes can enter lymph nodes by leaving the blood vascular circulation, that is, by diapedesing through the walls of: Select one: a. afferent lymphatic vesssels. b. subcapsular sinuses of the thymus. c. central arteries of the splenic red pulp. d. post-capillary venules in the cortex of the lymph nodes. e. paracortical sinuses of lymph nodes.
d. post-capillary venules in the cortex of the lymph nodes.
Blood-borne lymphocytes can enter lymph nodes by leaving the blood vascular circulation, that is, by diapedesing through the walls of: Select one: a. afferent lymphatic vessels. b. paracortical sinuses of lymph nodes. c. central arteries of the splenic red pulp. d. post-capillary venules in the lymph nodes. e. subcapsular sinuses of the thymus.
d. post-capillary venules in the lymph nodes.
z. What is the best identifier for the item labeled "E"? Select one: a. tertiary dentin b. secondary dentin c. enamel d. primary dentin e. line of Retzius f. line of Owen g. enamel rod
d. primary dentin
If the long portal vessels (veins) of the pituitary gland should become occluded resulting in greatly diminished blood flow Select one: a. the posterior lobe of the pituitary (pars nervosa) would become hypofunctional b. oxytocin hormone secretion would actually decrease c. gonadotrophin (FSH) secretion would actually increase d. prolactin secretion would actually increase e. ACTH secretion would actually increase
d. prolactin secretion would actually increase
The stage in ovarian follicle development that immediately follows the multilaminar primary follicle is the: Select one: a. Unilaminar primary follicle b. primordial follicle c. corpus luteum d. secondary follicle e. Graafian follicle
d. secondary follicle
z. The structure labelled A is: Select one: a. mesangial cell b. Juxtaglomerular cells c. endothelial cell filopodium d. secondary podocyte process e. parietal cell of Bowman's capsule
d. secondary podocyte process
z. The arrow labelled A is indicating: Select one: a. secretory portion of a sebaceous gland b. sweat gland ducts c. secretory portion of an apocrine sweat gland d. secretory portion of a sweat gland
d. secretory portion of a sweat gland
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of stem cells? a. euchromatic nuclei with prominent nucleoli b. limited rER (rough endoplasmic reticulum) c. few mitochondria d. specific granules e. many aggregates of ribosomes (polysomes) in the cytoplasm
d. specific granules
z. Which portion of the GI tract is represented in this image? Select one: a. colon b. stomach-pyloric region c. duodenum d. stomach-fundic region e. stomach-cardiac region
d. stomach-fundic region
z. The uppermost tissue in this image is best characterized as a. simple cuboidal epithelium b. stratified columnar epithelium c. stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium d. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium e. transitional epithelium
d. stratified squamous keratinized epithelium
Based on secretion characteristics, the following is the best example of a mixed gland: Select one: a. parotid gland b. glands of Littre c. von Ebner's gland d. submandibular gland e. the thymus
d. submandibular gland
The primary blood supply to the gingiva is through the : Select one: a. periodontal ligament vessels b. pulpal vessels c. intra-alveolar vessels d. supraperiosteal vessels e. pampiniform plexus
d. supraperiosteal vessels
z. The structure indicated by the black arrow is a: Select one: a. rete peg b. fungiform papilla c. Meissner's corpuscle d. taste bud e. follicle root bulb
d. taste bud
Which of the following teratogens is usually associated with tooth defects, such as discoloration of the teeth and hypoplasia of the enamel? Select one: a. cocaine b. thalidomide c. alcohol d. tetracyclines e. methotrexate
d. tetracyclines
Rete pegs of the epidermis project into : Select one: a. the hypodermis. b. Pacinian corpuscles. c. the reticular layer of the dermis. d. the papillary layer of the dermis. e. Meissner's corpuscles.
d. the papillary layer of the dermis.
Congenital absence of the inferior parathyroids is most likely to be accompanied by absence or poor development of the: Select one: a. anterior portion of the pituitary gland b. thyroid gland c. posterior portion of the pituitary gland d. thymus gland e. cervical sinus
d. thymus gland
A developmental abnormality of midline ENDODERM is: Select one: a. cysts of Rathke's pouch b. spina bifida c. cervical cyst d. thyroglossal cyst e. posterior portion of the pituitary gland
d. thyroglossal cyst
Which of the following organs (or organ region) is involved in decreasing osteoclast activity? Select one: a. hypothalamus b. parathyroid c. liver d. thyroid e. pituitary f. adrenal medulla g. thymus h. adrenal cortex
d. thyroid
The frequency, severity, and type of abnormalities produced by the rubella virus usually depend on the : Select one: a. number of previous infections b. mother's age c. severity of the infection d. time of maternal infection e. sex and age of the fetus
d. time of maternal infection
The periodontal membrane (ligament) is a type of dense connective tissue which connects: Select one: a. tooth dentin to cementum b. tooth dentin to enamel c. tooth enamel to pulpal tissue d. tooth cementum to alveolar bone e. alveolar bone to mandibular bone
d. tooth cementum to alveolar bone
The stage in ovarian follicle development that immediately follows the multilaminar primary follicle is the : Select one: a. unilaminar primary follicle. b. primordial follicle. c. corpus luteum. d. vesicular follicle. e. Graafian follicle.
d. vesicular follicle.
Major events beginning in the second week of development include: Select one: a. notochord differentiation b. somite formation c. heart begins to beat d. yolk sac development e. palatine shelves fuse together
d. yolk sac development
The most common developmental cyst (i.e., follicular cyst) is the:
dentigenerous cyst
Sertoli cells: a. provide physical support of spermatogenic cells. b. phagocytose residual bodies. c. form occluding junctions which act as the blood/testis barrier. d. synthesize and secrete androgen binding protein (ABP). e. do all of the above.
do all of the above.
A monocyte leaves the vasculature in a postcapillary venule because: Select one: a. its cell surface integrins become activated. b. its selectin ligand binds to the endothelial cell integrin (selectin). c. it releases its selectin binding and extravasates between two endothelial cells. d. it slows down and rolls along the endothelial surface because sheer forces have changed (dropped). e. All of the above statements are true.
e. All of the above statements are true.
z. The structure in the middle of the field is: Select one: a. skeletal muscle b. Meissner's corpuscle c. dorsal root ganglion d. Purkinje fiber e. Auerbach's plexus (aka myenteric plexus)
e. Auerbach's plexus (aka myenteric plexus)
The following cell surface marker would be found on a B cell. Select one: a. CD3. b. CD5. c. CD8. d. CD30. e. CD40.
e. CD40.
z. What region will develop into the philtrum of the lip? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F
e. E
The conducting portion of the respiratory system functions in all of the following ways EXCEPT: Select one: a. Transport of air. b. Filtering incoming air. c. Warming incoming air. d. Moistening incoming air. e. Gas exchange.
e. Gas exchange.
z. Pick the best answer for the item labeled D in the associated image. Select one: a. pars fibrosa b. rough endoplasmic reticulum c. smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. microtubules e. Golgi complex
e. Golgi complex
Which of the following would most likely result from a reduction in the number of Paneth cells? Select one: a. Thinning of the glycocalyx b. Elevated levels of undigested proteins c. Decreased mucus in the intestine d. Reduced breakdown of fats e. Increased number of intestinal bacteria
e. Increased number of intestinal bacteria
Which of the following statements is INCORRECT concerning the Dlx3 gene? Select one: a. It encodes a transcription factor. b. It has been linked to Tricho-Dento-Osseus syndrome in humans. c. It has been linked to taurodontism in humans. d. It has been linked to enamel hypoplasia in humans. e. It is not important for tooth development.
e. It is not important for tooth development.
All of the following statements about the tongue are true EXCEPT : Select one: a. It is a muscular organ essential in speech and swallowing. b. Its dorsal surface is covered with numerous papillae of various shapes. c. It uses both intrinsic and extrinsic muscles to perform its functions. d. The sensation for taste is carried by two different cranial nerves. e. It serves as the lymphatic organ that is the site of differentiation of certain lymphocytes, hence the name, T-lymphocytes.
e. It serves as the lymphatic organ that is the site of differentiation of certain lymphocytes, hence the name, T-lymphocytes.
z. The TEM image was taken from the same tissue as the H&E stained image. Therefore the cell labeled "A" in the TEM is a/an Select one: a. bile canaliculus cell b. endothelial cell c. hepatocyte d. Kupffer cell e. Ito cell
e. Ito cell
The major precipitating event in the ovulation of the Graafian follicle is a transient surge of pituitary: Select one: a. MSH (Melanocyte stimulating hormone) b. FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) c. PRL (Prolactin) d. TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone) e. LH (Luteinizing hormone)
e. LH (Luteinizing hormone)
Concerning ovaries: Select one: a. Removal of one ovary results in a reduction of approximately 50% in the number of follicles which ovulate. b. The ovary of a 20 year old woman would contain significantly more secondary oocytes than that of a child. c. If it were possible to examine the ovaries, one could tell if twins were "identical" or "fraternal". d. They contain a medullary region where ovarian follicles containing the oocytes predominate. e. Most primary oocytes are lost through a degenerative process called atresia.
e. Most primary oocytes are lost through a degenerative process called atresia.
The external auricle is entirely formed from Select one: a. Pharyngeal arch 1 b. Pharyngeal arch 2 c. Pharyngeal arch 3 d. Pharyngeal arches 1, 2, and 3 e. Pharyngeal arches 1 and 2
e. Pharyngeal arches 1 and 2
Concerning tooth eruption: Select one: a. Boys usually have earlier tooth eruption than girls in both primary and permanent dentition. b. The natal tooth is the first tooth to appear following birth. c. The first premolar is usually the first tooth to erupt. d. Dr. Peskin recommends that the child's initial visit to the dentist should occur after their third birthday. e. Premature loss of a deciduous tooth may lead to early eruption of its permanent successor.
e. Premature loss of a deciduous tooth may lead to early eruption of its permanent successor.
All of the following statements are true EXCEPT : Select one: a. The oral epithelium can induce tooth formation with any neural crest derived mesenchymal cells. b. The oral epithelial cells send signals to the mesenchymal cells during tooth development c. The mesenchymal cells send signals to the epithelial cells during tooth development d. The mesenchymal cells will become odontoblasts during tooth development e. The mesenchymal cells define where the tooth bud will form to initiate tooth development
e. The mesenchymal cells define where the tooth bud will form to initiate tooth development
z. Based on this image what organ are you looking at? Select one: a. Pineal b. Adrenal c. Pituitary d. Thymus e. Thyroid
e. Thyroid
In general, the effectiveness of teratogenic factors (drugs, chemicals, biological agents and radiation), are dependent upon: Select one: a. critical periods of development b. dosage levels c. a favorable embryonic genotype d. maternal pre-eclampsia (hypertension) e. a, b, and c are correct
e. a, b, and c are correct
Dentinal processes in dentinal tubules: a. correspond to osteocyte processes in canliculi b. are first formed at the DEJ c. span the entire length of the dentin d. may be accompanied by nerve fibers e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Deposition of enamel involves: a. secretory ameloblasts b. Tome's processes c. reabsorption of amelogenins d. crystallization of the enamel rod e. all of the above
e. all of the above
Concerning cleft lip: Select one: a. it occurs in about 1000:1 births b. it occurs in males more than in females c. the incidence is slightly higher with increasing maternal age d. the incidence varies in different populations (races) e. all of the above are true
e. all of the above are true
The eruptive phase is characterized by which of the following: Select one: a. a secretory phase of amelogenesis b. an intraosseous phase when roots begin to form c. a supraosseous phase, where the reduced enamel epithelium comes into contact with the oral epithelium d. a clinical eruption phase with formation of the dentogingival junction e. all of the above are true
e. all of the above are true
During the third week of human development: Select one: a. the process of gastrulation occurs b. the embryo is recognized as a "trilaminar disc" c. the notochord is formed d. some ectoderm becomes isolated to form neural crest e. all of the above statements are correct
e. all of the above statements are correct
A typical branchial (pharyngeal) arch contains: Select one: a. a cranial nerve b. branchiomeric mesenchyme c. an aortic arch artery d. a cartilagenous or skeletal element e. all of the above structures.
e. all of the above structures.
All of the following are associated with the juxtaglomerular apparatus EXCEPT: Select one: a. renin granules. b. modified smooth muscle cells of the tunica media. c. macula densa. d. afferent arteriole. e. angiotensin II converting enzyme.
e. angiotensin II converting enzyme.
Which of the following is typically found in peroxisomes and can help in distinguishing it from a lysosome? Select one: a. protease b. collagenase c. peptidase d. nucleic acid hydrolases e. catalase
e. catalase
A pathological cavity lined by epithelium is called a Select one: a. neoplasm b. carcinoma c. teratoma d. chordoma e. cyst
e. cyst
z. Choose the answer that helps to classify the tissue a. loose regular connective tissue b. stratified squamous epithelium c. dense regular connective tissue d. loose irregular connective tissue e. dense irregular connective tissue
e. dense irregular connective tissue
Sertoli cells: Select one: a. provide physical support of spermatogenic cells. b. phagocytose residual bodies. c. form occluding junctions which act as the blood/testis barrier. d. synthesize and secrete androgen binding protein. e. do all of the above.
e. do all of the above.
Choose the INCORRECT ANSWER: The parietal epithelium of Bowman's capsule is continuous with the Select one: a. visceral layer of Bowman's capsule b. epithelium of the Proximal convoluted tubule c. epithelium of the Distal convoluted tubule d. epithelium of the collecting duct e. endothelium of the afferent arteriole
e. endothelium of the afferent arteriole
z. The structure identified by the arrows is Select one: a. associated with taste buds. b. a taste bud. c. found in the stomach to aid digestion. d. present near the terminal sulcus with 6-11 others like it. e. found in high abundance on the tongue.
e. found in high abundance on the tongue.
z. The item labeled A is ____________ and is shown here in the ______________. Select one: a. bone; mandible b. bone; maxilla c. elastic cartilage; mandible d. elastic cartilage; maxilla e. hyaline cartilage; mandible f. hyaline cartilage; maxilla
e. hyaline cartilage; mandible
Where is oxytocin synthesized? Select one: a. pars tuberalis b. parathyroid c. pars nervosa d. pars distalis e. hypothalamus
e. hypothalamus
All of the following are characteristics of the normal gingiva EXCEPT: Select one: a. pink color b. firm consistency c. scalloped outline of the gingival margin d. it develops as a coalescence of oral and enamel organ epithelium e. increased migration of leukocytes into the junctional epithelium and gingival sulcus
e. increased migration of leukocytes into the junctional epithelium and gingival sulcus
z. The layer of cells labeled C will: Select one: a. proliferate and express GAGs. b. secrete mineralized matrix first. c. turn into those cells labeled D. d. make dentin and project processes into dentinal tubules. e. induce the adjacent cells labeled B to organize and differentiate.
e. induce the adjacent cells labeled B to organize and differentiate.
All of the following are derived from neural crest EXCEPT: Select one: a. ectomesenchyme near the tooth bud b. odontoblasts c. medulla of the adrenal gland d. melanocytes e. inner enamel epithelium
e. inner enamel epithelium
z. The blank space that the arrow is pointing to in this histological image is called what? Select one: a. splenic sinusoid b. urinary space c. space of Disse d. medullary sinus e. liver sinusoid
e. liver sinusoid
The intermaxillary (premaxilla) segment of the developing maxilla contributes to the formation of all the structures listed below, EXCEPT the: Select one: a. philtrum of the lip b. primary or anterior palate c. maxilla d. four incisor teeth e. lower lip
e. lower lip
The majority of antigen processing, antigen presentation, and lymphocyte activation occurs in the Select one: a. lymph node b. spleen c. thymus d. bone marrow e. lymph node and spleen
e. lymph node and spleen
The periodontal ligament normally contains : Select one: a. fibroblasts and denticles b. osteoblasts and osteocytes c. epithelial cells and ameloblasts d. blood vessels and odontoblasts e. mesenchymal cells and fibroblasts
e. mesenchymal cells and fibroblasts
The main difference distinguishing the parotid, submandibular, and sublingual glands from each other is the amount of Select one: a. striated ducts b. intercalated ducts c. mucous demilunes d. centroacinar cells e. mucous secreting cells
e. mucous secreting cells
Most major congenital anomalies result from : Select one: a. numerical chromosomal abnormalities b. structural chromosomal abnormalities c. mutant genes d. infectious agents e. multifactorial inheritance
e. multifactorial inheritance
Insulin is synthesized and secreted by Select one: a. alpha cells of the pancreas b. delta cells of the pancreas c. cells in the medulla of the adrenal gland d. parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland e. none of the above
e. none of the above
Insulin is synthesized and secreted by: Select one: a. alpha cells of the pancreas. b. delta cells of the pancreas. c. cells in the medulla of the adrenal gland. d. parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland. e. none of the above.
e. none of the above.
While it is controversial whether or not cells derived from the notochord remain into late childhood, there is little doubt that the notochord is the original progenitor of the : Select one: a. annulus fibrosus of the intervertebral discs b. vertebral bodies c. costal processes of the vertebrae d. vertebral arches e. nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs
e. nucleus pulposus of the intervertebral discs
z. The arrow labelled 2 indicates: Select one: a. stellate reticulum b. odontoblasts c. inner enamel epithelium d. dental papilla e. outer enamel epithelium
e. outer enamel epithelium
Each of the following may be secreted by enteroendocrine cells EXCEPT Select one: a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin d. serotonin e. pepsinogen
e. pepsinogen
Each of the following may be secreted by enteroendocrine cells EXCEPT: Select one: a. gastrin b. secretin c. cholecystokinin-pancreozymin d. serotonin e. pepsinogen
e. pepsinogen
The human corpus luteum secretes Select one: a. FSH (Follicle stimulating hormone) b. glucocorticoids c. prolactin d. LH (Luteinizing hormone) e. progesterone
e. progesterone
Concerning major salivary glands, all of the following are correct EXCEPT: Select one: a. submandibular glands have intercalated ducts b. parotid glands are composed of serous acini c. parotid glands have striated ducts d. submandibular glands have mucous acini with serous demilunes e. sublingual glands contain only serous alveoli
e. sublingual glands contain only serous alveoli
A unique feature of the duodenum, compared to other portions of the small intestine, is the presence of: Select one: a. enteroendocrine cells in the epithelial lining. b. goblet cells in epithelium and crypts of Lieberkuhn. c. Paneth cells in mucosal glands. d. Peyer's patches in the submucosa. e. submucosal glands.
e. submucosal glands.
z. The group of cells labeled A is/are? Select one: a. embryoblast b. cytotrophoblast c. maternal lacunae d. blastocyst e. syncytiotrophoblast
e. syncytiotrophoblast
Formation of hypotonic urine occurs mostly because : Select one: a. podocyte basement membranes become "leaky". b. renin is released from the JG cells. c. proximal tubules do not reabsorb the normal quantity of sugars. d. the distal tubule fails to meet its glomerulus of origin. e. the collecting duct is impermeable to water.
e. the collecting duct is impermeable to water.
z. This tissue can be classified as: Select one: a. secretory epithelium b. esophagus c. bladder d. stomach e. thin skin
e. thin skin
The following lymphoid organ is characterized by a high rate of programmed cell death (apoptosis). Select one: a. spleen b. lymph node c. pharyngeal tonsil d. GALT e. thymus
e. thymus
Which of the following organs of a normal adolescent would NOT have lymphoid nodules containing germinal centers? Select one: a. lymph node b. spleen c. palatine tonsil d. pharyngeal tonsil e. thymus
e. thymus
In order to prevent self-digestion, the stomach: Select one: a. secretes mucous from luminal epithelium. b. pumps carbonate into the mucous layer from the underlying vasculature. c. forms HCl in the lumen rather than within the cells. d. releases HCl only upon stimulation. e. utilizes all of the above strategies.
e. utilizes all of the above strategies.
z. The structure indicated by the white arrow is: Select one: a. mucus gland of the esophagus b. the muscularis mucosa c. a serous demilune d. multilobular taste bud e. von Ebner's gland
e. von Ebner's gland
Which of the following is most frequently noted in a sample of peripheral blood? a. eosinophils b. basophils c. monocytes d. neutrophils e. erythrocytes
erythrocytes
The jejunum portion of the small intestine is most easily distinguished from other regions of the small intestine by Select one: a. the presence of submucosal glands b. the presence of Peyer's patches c. the presence of BOTH submucosal and Peyer's patches d. the lack of submucosal glands e. the lack of Peyer's patches f. the lack of BOTH submucosal glands and Peyer's patches
f. the lack of BOTH submucosal glands and Peyer's patches
Oogonia are homologous to spermatogonia. Oogonia divide by mitosis during: a. all postnatal periods b. fetal life c. postnatal periods after puberty d. the reproductive period e. none of the above
fetal life
Odontoblasts in the root differ from odontoblasts in the crown because they: a. lack odontoblastic processes. b. form the granular layer of Tomes against cementum. c. form structures known as rests of Malassez. d. form only primary dentin. e. are derived from the inner enamel epithelium (IEE).
form the granular layer of Tomes against cementum.
Wisdom teeth develop:
from dental lamina the same way that incisors do.
z. Classify the tissue which fills most of the light micrograph a. Stratified Cuboidal Epithelium b. Ciliated Simple Columnar Epithelium c. Simple Cuboidal Epithelium d. Simple Columnar Epithelium e. Stratified Columnar Epithelium f. Stratified Squamous Keratinized Epithelium g. Transitional Epithelium h. Simple Squamous Epithelium
g. Transitional Epithelium
z. Lateral nasal swellings are labeled by what letter? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I
h. H
z. The palatine tonsils will develop from which region? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K
h. H
Instead of the peritubular capillary bed some nephrons have... Select one: a. Renal artery b. Interlobar artery c. Arcuate artery d. Interlobular artery e. Afferent artery f. Glomerular capillary bed g. Efferent artery h. Vasa recta i. Postcapillary venules
h. Vasa recta
Instead of the vasa recta the cortical nephrons have Select one: a. Renal artery b. Interlobar artery c. Arcuate artery d. Interlobular artery e. Afferent artery f. Glomerular capillary bed g. Efferent artery h. peritubular capillaries
h. peritubular capillaries
Epithelial cells may be functionally and/or morphologically polarized such that they exhibit an apical region and a basal region. Each of the following is associated with the apical region of a polarized epithelial cell EXCEPT: a. cilia b. microvilli c. hemidesmosomes d. stereocilia e. basal bodies
hemidesmosomes
What are the cell markers ( MHCII, MHCI, TCR) present on the following cells: i) B cell (This one is weird) ii) T helper cell and Cytotoxic T cells (CTL) iii) B cell and macrophage iv) neuron v) skeletal muscle vi) fibroblast vii) epithelium
i) B cell = cross linking of antibodies on cell surface ii) T helper cell and Cytotoxic T cells (CTL) = TCR iii) B cell and macrophage = MHII iv) neuron = MHI v) skeletal muscle = MHI vi) fibroblast = MHI vii) epithelium = MHI
z. The inferior parathyroid glands arise from which region? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K
i. I
The cells of inner enamel epithelium experience which of the following sequence of developmental and functional changes?
inner enamel epithelium -> presecretory ameloblast -> secretory ameloblast -> maturational ameloblast -> reduced ameloblast
The cells of the inner enamel epithelium experience which of the following sequence of developmental and functional changes? a. inner enamel epithelium -> outer enamel epithelium -> maturational ameloblast -> reduced ameloblast b. stellate reticulum -> stratum intermedium -> secretory ameloblast -> odontoblast -> reduced ameloblast c. young odontoblast ->young ameloblast -> odontoblast ->mature ameloblast d. inner enamel epithelium -> presecretory ameloblast -> secretory ameloblast -> maturational ameloblast -> reduced ameloblast e. secretory ameloblast -> maturational ameloblast -> presecretory ameloblast -> odontoblast
inner enamel epithelium -> presecretory ameloblast -> secretory ameloblast -> maturational ameloblast -> reduced ameloblast
Structural specializations that increase the absorptive surface of the small intestine include all of the following EXCEPT : a. plicae circulares b. microvilli c. intracellular canaliculi d. villi e. glycocalyx
intracellular canaliculi
All of the following statements about tooth enamel are correct EXCEPT : a. it is the most heavily mineralized substance in the body b. it is secreted by ameloblasts c. it covers the exposed, visible portion (crown) of the tooth d. it is constantly renewed by secretion of new enamel e. it contains primarily enamelins and tuft proteins when mature
it is constantly renewed by secretion of new enamel
z. The ultimobranchial body will develop from which region? Select one: a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. F g. G h. H i. I j. J k. K
k. K
The smallest incremental lines in the dentin are called : a. lines of Retzius b. lines of von Ebner c. Hunter-Schreger bands d. lamellae e. lines of Epstein
lines of von Ebner
Which of the following has a stratified squamous epithelium on both of its surfaces and a core of striated muscle between the connective tissues underlying each epithelial surface? a. colon-rectal junction b. hard palate c. trachea d. lip e. gingiva
lip
Infants of mothers who smoke cigarettes heavily during pregnancy are most likely to have:
low birth weight
Each of the following organs contains capillaries of the fenestrated type EXCEPT? a. kidney b. liver c. small intestine d. adrenal gland e. lung
lung
The most common supernumerary tooth is the:
maxillary mesiodens
The ovulated mammalian oocyte is arrested at: a. prophase of meiosis I b. metaphase of meiosis I c. prophase of meiosis II d. metaphase of meiosis II e. none of the above
metaphase of meiosis II
A "typical" human cell will exhibit each of the following EXCEPT: a. cytoskeletal filaments and tubules b. mitochondria c. lysosomes d. Golgi complex e. multiple nuclei
multiple nuclei
Most major congenital anomalies result from:
mutlifactorial inheritance
Environmental causes of human congenital anomalies may be prevented, to some extent, with proper counseling. Each of the following would be good advice to give a woman who has just missed a menstrual period and may be pregnant EXCEPT:
obtain a vaccination for protection against rubella infection.
The cell type in bone most probably derived from the blood monocyte is the: a. osteocyte b. periosteal fibroblast c. osteoblast d. osteoclast e. osteoprogenitor cell
osteoclast
FGF signaling predominantly works in a(n) _______ manner.
paracrine
Neutralization
pathogen to cell or cell surface proteins
Which of the following is noted for its abundant secretion of large electron-dense lamellar bodies containing a phospholipid detergent 66% of which is lectin?
pneumocyte type II
In the normal formation of dentin, which is the proper sequence of deposition? a. enamel, mantle dentin, root dentin, tertiary dentin b. predentin, mantle dentin, circumpulpal dentin, root dentin, tertiary dentin c. enamel, mantle dentin, secondary dentin, root dentin, cementum d. circumpulpal dentin, mantle dentin, root dentin, tertiary dentin e. mantle dentin, dentinal tubules, Tombs processes, root dentin, tertiary dentin
predentin, mantle dentin, circumpulpal dentin, root dentin, tertiary dentin