HLTH 314: HW Quizzes 1-4

During a routine checkup, a client states that she is unable to take the antihistamine diphenhydramine (Benadryl) because of one of its most common adverse effects. The nurse suspects that which adverse effect has been bothering the client? a. Drowsiness b. Urinary incontinence c. Decreased libido D. constiptation

A. Drowsiness Drowsiness is usually the main side effect that bothers people who take antihistamines. Constipation can occur with the anticholinergic effect seen in antihistamines but this is not the correct answer in this context. Decreased libido & urinary incontinence are not adverse effects of antihistamines.

The doctor orders a vancomycin (Vancocin) trough level to be drawn on a client. The vancomycin infusion is due to be given at 1200. When does the nurse draw the trough level? a. At 12 hours after the dose is given (at midnight or 0000) b. At approximately one hour after the dose is administered (around 1300) c. At approximately 1100-1130 (before the dose is due) d. At the same time the medication is due (at 1200)

C. At approximately 1100-1130 (before the dose is due) A trough level is when a drug is at the lowest concentration, which is right before the next dose is due. The level should be checked at 11-1130 which is prior to the next dose, which is due at 1200. Drawing a level at 1300 or approximately an hour after administration is considered a peak level. Drawing a level at the time of administration or 12 hours after the dose was given is incorrect.

The nurse is monitoring for therapeutic results of antibiotic therapy in a client with an infection. Which laboratory value would indicate therapeutic effectiveness of this therapy? a. Increased hemoglobin level b. Decreased platelet count c. Decreased white blood cell count d. increased red blood cell count

C. Decreased White Blood Cell Decreased white blood cell counts are an indication of reduction of infection and are a therapeutic effect of antibiotic therapy. The other options are incorrect.

When educating a client recently placed on inhaled corticosteroids, the nurse will discuss which potential adverse effect? a. Rapid heart rate b. Anxiety c. Fatigue d. Oral candidiasis (thrush)

D. Oral candidiasis (thrush) Oral candidiasis (thrush) and dry mouth are two possible adverse effects of inhaled corticosteroids. Others include tongue hypertrophy, hoarseness, and peri-oral dermatitis. The other responses are incorrect.

The nurse is reviewing instructions for vaginal antifungal drugs with a female client. Which statement by the nurse is an appropriate instruction regarding these drugs? a. "Abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment has been completed and the infection has resolved." b. Discontinue this medication if menstruation begins." c. "You may share this medication with your significant other." d. "The medication can be stopped when your symptoms are relived."

a. "Abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment has been completed and the infection has resolved." Female clients taking antifungal medications for the treatment of vaginal infections need to abstain from sexual intercourse until the treatment has been completed and the infection has resolved. The medication needs to be taken for as long as prescribed. Instruct the client to continue to take the medication even if they are actively menstruating. Medication should never be shared with a significant other to reduce the contamination and spread of the infection.

Which client is most at risk for a fungal infection? a. A pt who underwent a kidney transplant last year b. A geriatric pt with chronic pain c. A client with depression and anxiety d. A pediatric pt with pneumonia

a. A pt who underwent a kidney transplant last year Fungal infections thrive as opportunistic pathogens for clients who are immunocompromised, such as those who have received an organ transplant and will need life-long immunosuppressive therapy so as to not reject the transplanted organ. The other options are less at risk for fungal infections.

The nurse is monitoring a client who is in their 26th week of pregnancy and is now complaining of back pain. She is told to take over-the-counter (OTC) acetaminophen (Tylenol) which has shown no evidence of harm to the fetus, however, there are no adequate/well-controlled studies in pregnant women. The nurse recognizes that this medication is in which U.S. Food and Drug Administration pregnancy safety category? a. Category B b. Category X c. Category D d. Category C

a. category B Pregnancy category B fits the description given. Category B indicates no risk to animal fetus; information for humans is not available. Category C indicates adverse effects reported in animal fetus; information for humans is not available. Category X consists of drugs that should not be used in pregnant women because of reports of fetal abnormalities and positive evidence of fetal risk in humans.

The nurse is reviewing pharmacology terms for a group of newly graduated nurses. Which sentence defines a drug's half life? a. The time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug to be absorbed into the circulation b. The time it takes for the drug to cause half of its therapeutic response c. The time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body d. The time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug to reach the target cells

c. The time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body A drug's half-life is the time it takes for one half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body. It is a measure of the rate at which drugs are removed from the body. The other options are incorrect definitions of half-life.

During antibiotic therapy, the nurse will monitor closely for signs and symptoms of a hypersensitivity allergic reaction. Which of these assessment findings may be an indication of a hypersensitivity allergic reaction? (Select all that apply) a. Wheezing b. Swelling of the tongue c. Black, hairy tongue d. Itching e. Shortness of breath f. Diarrhea

A, B, D, E Allergic hypersensitivity reactions may be manifested in many ways, which include wheezing; shortness of breath; swelling of the face, tongue, lips, or hands; itching; or rash. Diarrhea is a known side effect of antibiotic therapy and not an allergic hypersensitivity reaction. Black hairy tongue is an adverse effect of tetracyclines.

The nurse is administering an amphotericin B infusion. Which actions by the nurse are most appropriate? (Select all that apply) a. Monitoring the IV site for sign of phlebitis and infiltration b. Discontinuing the drug immediately if the pt develop s tinging and numbness in the extremities c. If adverse effects occur, reducing the IV rate gradually until they subside d. Administering premedication if indicated e. Using an infusion pump for IV therapy f. Stopping the infusion for zero urine output in one hour g. Administering the medication by rapid IV

A, B, D, and E If the patient develops tingling and numbness in the extremities (paresthesias), discontinue the drug immediately. An infusion pump is necessary for the infusion. Amphotericin B is a vesicant, so monitoring the IV site for signs of phlebitis and infiltration is essential. Premedication to reduce the adverse effects of fever, malaise, and nausea is appropriate for amphotericin B infusion and may be ordered. No urine output for one hour is not an immediate concerning finding to stop the infusion (but should warrant continued monitoring). The medication must be administered at the rate recommended and stopped, not slowed, if adverse reactions occur.

A female client is in the clinic asking for a prescription for preexposure prophylaxis (PrEP). The nurse knows what baseline laboratory data must be collected before the patient can start taking PrEP? (Select all that apply). a. Renal function tests b. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) c. Serologic screening for Hep B d. HIV antibody test e. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level for pregnancy

A, C, D, and E Baseline renal function tests are needed prior to starting PrEP. Serologic screening to rule out Hepatitis B is needed prior to starting PrEP. An HIV antibody needs to be performed within the week of starting PrEP. As a female client, a negative hCG or pregnancy test is needed prior to starting PrEP. A thyroid-stimulating hormone test (TSH) is not needed prior to the initiation of PrEP.

A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students on sympathomimetic properties of certain drugs. Which teaching statements are correct? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY a. Drugs with sympathomimetic drug properties are contraindicated to those with underlying cardiac arrhythmias b. Sympathomimetic toxicity causes decreased level of consciousness and somnolence c. Sympathomimetic properties mimic the sympathetic nervous system which is your "rest & digest" response d. Pupillary dilation is often seen when clients are taking drugs with sympathomimetic properties e. Avoid stimulants, such as caffeine when taking drugs with sympathomimetic properties f. Diabetics should be educated that drugs with sympathomimetic properties can elevate their glucose levels.

A, D, E, and F Sympathomimetic properties mimic the sympathetic nervous system which is your "flight or flight" response. These properties include hypertension, tachycardia, urinary retention, pupillary dilation, CNS stimulation, and increased glucose production. Sympathomimetic toxicity is an aggravation of these symptoms and not sedation/somnolence/decreased level of consciousness (these symptoms are often seen in opioid/benzodiazepine toxicity and overdoses). Sympathomimetic properties include tachycardia and CNS stimulation, thus stimulants such as caffeine should be avoided. Those with underlying cardiac arrhythmias should not take these medications so as not to aggravate or exacerbate their condition with known hypertension and tachycardia that occurs with sympathomimetic properties. Diabetics should also be educated that their blood glucose levels may be elevated when taking a drug with sympathomimetic properties.

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). The nurse notices that he is sweaty, restless, and tachycardic (heart rate 120s). The client admits to taking unprescribed narcotic pain medication daily for the past year that he buys on the street. The nurse recognizes that the patient is experiencing what process? a. Drug withdrawal b. Drug allergic reaction c. Drug tolerance d. Drug toxicity

A. Drug withdrawal The client is experiencing withdrawal from unprescribed narcotic pain medication. Withdrawal is a group of symptoms that occur upon the abrupt discontinuation or decrease in the intake of pharmaceutical or recreational drugs. Drug tolerance is a decreasing response to repetitive drug doses. Drug toxicity occurs when a person has accumulated too much of a drug in their bloodstream, leading to negative effects. A drug allergy is an allergic reaction to a drug, which means that your immune system identifies the drug as foreign and acts to eliminate it from your body.

The nurse changes a client's leg wound and notices it is considerably more red and tender, with purulent drainage. The nurse notifies the healthcare provider, who sends a swab of the wound for culture and immediately starts the client on an intravenous antibiotic. Which type of therapy has been prescribed for this patient? a. empiric b. Maintenace c. Prophylactic d. palliative

A. Empiric Empiric therapy involves drug administration based on the client's symptoms when there is a high likelihood of a certain pathologic condition (i.e. infection). Palliative therapy is used to relieve patients of specific symptoms, pain, and stress related to a terminal illness. Prophylactic therapy is administered to prevent illness or to prevent complications during a planned event or procedure. Maintenance therapy is used in chronic illnesses to prevent the progression of the disease.

A client is taking guaifenesin as part of treatment for a sinus infection. Which instruction will the nurse include during client teaching? a. Increase fluid intake to help loosen and liquefy secretions. b. Report symptoms that last longer than 4 days. c. Avoid driving a car or operating heavy machinery because of the sedating effects. d. Report clear-colored sputum to the prescriber.

A. Increase fluid intake to help loosen and liquefy secretions Increasing fluid intake helps to loosen and liquefy secretions, often IVFs are started in the hospital setting as well for that reason. The client must be fully aware that any discolored, bloody, or frothy sputum should be reported to a healthcare provider; as this may indicate another concerning conditioning. The client must report if symptoms have not improved after 7 days (one week) to rule out or masking of an unknown underlying condition. Guaifenesin does not cause sedation, and therefore the client does not need to avoid driving a car or operating heavy machinery.

The prescriber has changed the client's medication regimen to include the leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) montelukast (Singulair) to treat asthma. The nurse will include which correct education statement for the client regarding the medication? a. It needs to be taken every day on a continuous schedule, even if symptoms improve. b. Keep it close by at all times to treat acute asthma attacks. c. When the asthma symptoms improve, the dosage schedule can be tapered and eventually discontinued. d. The proper technique for inhalation must be followed.

A. It needs to be taken every day on a continuous schedule, even if symptoms improve. LTRAs are indicated for chronic, not acute treatments and are to be taken every day on a continuous schedule, even if symptoms improve. These drugs are taken orally.

A nurse should question the healthcare provider when which drug which is prescribed to her 82-year-old client? a. Montelukast (Singulair) b. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) c. Advair (Fluticasone + Salmeterol) d. Albuterol (Ventolin)

B. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) should be avoided in the elderly due to its anticholinergic (confusion, urinary retention) and sedation effects. The other drugs are relatively safe for the geriatric population.

A client informs the nurse that he stopped taking his azithromycin (Zithromax) because he was experiencing nausea and his symptoms were already improving. The nurse knows that not finishing a course of antibiotics leads to what process? a. Selective toxicity b. Drug resistance c. Superinfections d. Elevated trough levels

B. Drug Resistance Not finishing a course of antibiotics leads to antibiotic drug resistance. This occurs when microorganisms, such as bacteria, evolve mechanisms that allow them to survive and proliferate in the presence of drugs or medications that were originally effective against them. In other words, the bacteria change and become able to resist the effects of an antibiotic. This phenomenon is a major challenge in healthcare, as it can lead to the decreased effectiveness of antibiotics used to treat infections. The other options are incorrect.

A gardener needs a decongestant because of seasonal allergy problems and asks the nurse whether he should take an oral form or a nasal spray. Which of these is a benefit of orally administered decongestants? a. Shorter duration b. Lack of rebound congestion c. immediate onset d. a more potent effect

B. Lack of rebound congestation Decongestants administered by the oral route produce prolonged decongestant effects, but the onset of action is more delayed and the effect less potent (due to first-pass effect) than those of decongestants applied topically (nasal spray). Rebound congestion only occurs with adrenergic nasal decongestant topical use (nasal spray) with sustained use (more than 3 days).

The nurse can prevent medication errors by following which principle? a. use trade/brand names instead of generic names to avoid confusion b. Minimize the use of verbal and telephone orders c. assess for allergies after giving medication d. give medication as the HCP prescribed it, even if there may be a contradiction in the client's past medical history

B. Minimize the use of verbal and telephone orders Minimizing the use of verbal and telephone orders is one way to prevent medication errors. Assessment for allergies should be done before medications are given. Generic names should be used to avoid the many sound-alike trade names of medications. Healthcare providers or pharmacists should always be questioned for any confusion or contraindications regarding the medication being administered.

A client is receiving their 2nd dose of intravenous (IV) penicillin (PCN) and calls the nurse to complain of shortness of breath and difficulty breathing. What priority action will the nurse do first? a. Notify the HCP b. Stop the penicillin infusion. c. Check the client' allergies. d. Take a set of vital signs.

B. Stop the penicillin infusion The priority nursing action is to immediately stop the penicillin infusion. After stopping the infusion it is appropriate to notify the healthcare provider and take vital signs (and apply oxygen). The patient's allergies should be checked before administering any medication to the client.

After receiving a nebulizer treatment with a short-acting beta agonist (SABA), the client states she is feeling slightly nervous and wonders if her asthma is getting worse. What is the nurse's best response? a. "I will notify the physician." b. "The next scheduled nebulizer treatment will be skipped." c. "This is an expected adverse effect. Let me take your pulse." d. "We will hold the treatment for 24 hours.

C. "This is an expected adverse effect. Let me take your pulse." Nervousness, tremors, and cardiac stimulation (tachycardia) are possible and expected adverse effects of SABA medications, such as albuterol. This does not mean that holding and skipping the next treatment is indicated. Checking the client's heart rate is the best action. Notifying the healthcare provider would depend on whether the HR was elevated or if the patient continued to complain of increased nervousness.

A 79-year-old client is receiving a quinolone drug as a treatment for a complicated post-operative incision infection. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effect that is associated with this drug class? a. Hypotension b. Muscle cramping c. Tendonitis and tendon rupture d. double vision

C. Tendonitis and tendon rupture A black box warning is required by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for all quinolones because of the increased risk for tendonitis and tendon rupture with the use of the drugs. The other options are not common adverse effects of quinolones.

The nurse is administering medications to a client who is in renal failure resulting from end-stage renal disease (ESRD). The nurse is aware that clients with kidney failure would most likely have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase? a. Distribution b. Absorption c. Excretion d. Metabolism

C. excretion The kidneys are the organs that are most responsible for drug excretion. Renal function does not affect the absorption and distribution of a drug. Renal function may affect the metabolism of drugs to a small extent, but the liver is the main organ responsible for metabolism.

A female client of child-bearing age is starting antibiotic therapy for her cellulitis. The nurse knows which educational statement is the priority for this client? a. "Take an antacid with each dose as needed" b. "It is best to take antibiotics on an empty stomach, but if GI side effects bother you, take medications with a small amount of food" c. "Make sure you use a second form of contraception if taking oral birth-control while on antibiotic therapy" d. "Avoid tanning beds and direct sunlight while on antibiotic therapy"

C: "Make sure you use a second form of contraception if taking oral birth-control while on antibiotic therapy" The priority educational statement for a female client of child-bearing age is to educate the use of a second form of contraceptives if taking oral birth control pills. Many antibiotics reduce the effectiveness of oral contraceptives and unexpected pregnancy could occur. Although photosensitivity is a known side effect of many antibiotics, it is not the priority educational statement. Taking antibiotics with a small amount of food when experiencing GI side effects is also a correct statement but not a priority education. Taking an antacid with some antibiotics, such as tetracyclines and fluoroquinolones is contraindicated due to a chelation binding effect of the drugs, making them inactive.

Aminoglycosides are a group of bactericidal drugs that are administered in specific systemic infections. Therapeutic drug monitoring measures aminoglycoside drug levels in the blood to avoid toxicities associated with these drugs. Which toxicity associated with aminoglycoside drug therapy will the nurse anticipate? a. Nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity d. Hepatotoxicity c. Gastrotoxicity b. Pulmonary toxicity

a. Nephrotoxicity & ototoxicity Aminoglycosides cause nephrotoxicity (renal damage) and ototoxicity (auditory impairments and vestibular impairments). The other answers are incorrect.

A client is undergoing systemic treatment for a fungal yeast infection. Which antifungal therapy is appropriate for this client? a. Nystatin swish & swallow b. IV Amphotericin B c. Clotrimazole (Lotrimin) powder d. Miconazole (Monistat) cream

b. IV Amphotericin B Systemic treatment is a drug that affects the body as a whole or that acts specifically on systems that involve the entire body-such as cardiovascular, respiratory, gastrointestinal (GI) or nervous systems. System drugs are usually administered orally or intravenously (IV), in this case intravenous (IV) Amphotericin B would be the best answer to treat a systemic fungal infection. The other choices are topical routes of administration and would be appropriate for topical fungal infections.

During drug therapy for pneumonia, a female client develops a vaginal superinfection. The nurse explains that this infection is caused by which of these? a. The infection spreading from the lungs to the new site of infection b. The prescribed course of antibiotics can kill normal flora c. An allergic reaction to the antibiotics d. Resistance of the pneumonia-causing bacteria to the drugs

b. The prescribed course of antibiotics can kill normal flora Normally occurring bacteria are killed during antibiotic therapy, allowing other opportunistic pathogens (such as yeast) to take over and resulting in superinfections. The other options are incorrect.

A client is taking a combination of antiviral drugs as treatment for early stages of a viral infection. While discussing the drug therapy, the patient asks the nurse if the drug will kill the virus. When answering, the nurse keeps in mind which fact about antiviral drugs? a. They can be given in large enough doses to eradicate the virus without harming the body's healthy cells. b. They may also kill healthy cells while killing viruses c. They are given for palliative reason only d. They will be effective as long as the patient is not exposed to the virus again.

b. They may also kill healthy cells while killing viruses Because viruses reproduce in human cells, selective killing is difficult; consequently, many healthy human cells, in addition to virally infected cells, may be killed in the process, and this results in the serious toxicities that are involved with these drugs. The other options are incorrect.

A client is in an urgent care center with an acute asthma attack. The nurse expects which medication will be used for initial treatment? A. An anticholinergic such as ipratropium (Atrovent) b. A topical corticosteroid such as fluticasone (Flonase) c. A short-acting beta2 agonist such as albuterol (Ventolin) d. A long-acting beta2 agonist such as salmeterol (Serevent)

c. A short-acting beta2 agonist such as albuterol (Ventolin) The short-acting beta2 agonists are the first agent used during the acute phase of an asthmatic attack to reduce airway constriction quickly and to restore and open airflow. The other drugs listed are not appropriate for acute asthma attacks. Anticholinergic drugs and long-acting beta2 agonists are used to prevent attacks as maintenance treatments; corticosteroids are used to reduce airway inflammation (also maintenance treatment).

A young adult calls the clinic to ask for a prescription for "that new flu drug." He says he has had the flu for almost 4 days and just heard about a drug that can reduce the symptoms. What is the nurse's best response to his request? a. We will need to do a blood test to verify that you actually have the flu. b. Now that you've had the flu, you will need a booster vaccination, not an antiviral drug. c. Drug therapy should be started within 2 days of symptom onset, not 4 days. d. We will get you a prescription. As long as you start treatment within the next 24 hours, the drug should be effective.

c. Drug therapy should be started within 2 days of symptom onset, not 4 days. These drugs need to be started within 2 days of influenza symptom onset or will not be effective. They can be used to help decrease the severity and duration of flu symptoms. It is not a cure for influenza. Influenza is often diagnosed with flu swab tests from your nose or throat and serum blood draws are often unnecessary. Booster influenza vaccinations are recommended yearly and have no impact on a client's current influenza symptoms or antiviral drug therapy.

Which drugs would be affected by the first-pass effect when administered? (Select all that apply.) a. Penicillin given by IV piggyback infusion b. Transdermal nicotine patches c. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) tablets d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) elixirs e. Esomeprazole (Nexium) capsules f. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets g. Morphine given by IV push injection

c. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) tablets d. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) elixirs e. Esomeprazole (Nexium) capsules Orally administered drugs (elixirs, tablets, and capsules) undergo the first-pass effect, because they are metabolized in the liver after being absorbed into the portal circulation from the small intestine. IV medications (IV push and IV piggyback) enter the bloodstream directly and do not go directly to the liver. Sublingual tablets and transdermal patches also enter the bloodstream without going directly to the liver, thus avoiding the first-pass effect.

Could Prof Reddington care for a hospitalized client with active and open Herpes Zoster (shingles) lesions? a. Yes, she can care for client as long as the Herpes Zoster (shingles) lesions are being treated with antiviral therapy b. NO, cannot care for pt with the Herpes Zoster (shingles) c. No, cannot care for client until the Herpes Zoster (shingles) healed/crust over d. Yes, she can care for the client as there are no contraindications for Herpes Zoster (shingles) , only for Varicella (chichkenpox)

c. No, cannot care for client until the Herpes Zoster (shingles) healed/crust over Active herpes Zoster (shingle) infections with open lesions can be transmitted to pregnant healthcare workers and lead to complications for both mother and fetus. Pregnant healthcare workers should not care for a client with open or active Herpes Zoster (shingles), but they can care for the client when these lesions are healed/crusted over and no longer contagious or transmittable. The other options are incorrect.

A nurse is assessing a client's health history before starting sulfonamides for a urinary tract infection (UTI). What condition is the most concerning for the nurse to be aware of? a. The client finished a course of antibiotics for pneumonia last month b. The client has impaired liver function tests (LFTs) c. The client is 88 years old and is do not resuscitate or intubate (DNR/DNI) d. Currently undergoing chemotherapy and radiation for prostate cancer

d. Currently undergoing chemotherapy and radiation for prostate cancer A client undergoing chemotherapy and radiation is the most concerning aspect of the health history as this indicates the patient is immunocompromised. Immunocompromised individuals have weakened immune systems, which means their ability to fight off infections is compromised. The goal of antibiotic therapy is to reduce the population of invading bacteria to a size that the human immune response can deal with. In immunocompromised patients, the immune system may not be able to provide the necessary support to completely clear the remaining bacterial population in the body, even with antibiotic treatment. Sulfonamides concentrate in the kidneys, which makes them a top drug of choice for UTIs, however, this can further impair/damage pre-existing renal disease, and renal labs, such as BUN/Cr should be monitored over LFTs. Age can be a concern for antibiotic therapy and may warrant further monitoring, but would not be as concerning as the patient's immune status. A patient's code status should not affect the use of antibiotic therapy. A recent pneumonia may indicate this patient now has a secondary infection, which is important information to know (say to confirm the patient is indeed immunocompromised and unable to fight off an infection) but leads back to the more concerning point, which is that the patient who is on chemo/radiation is indeed immunocompromised and successful treatment with antibiotics may not be successful.

The nurse is monitoring a client who has been on antibiotic therapy for 2 weeks. Today the client tells the nurse that he has had watery diarrhea since the day before and is having abdominal cramps. His oral temperature is 101° F (38.3° C). Based on these findings, which conclusion will the nurse draw? a. The client is showing expected side effects of antibiotic therapy b. The client will need to take a different antibiotic c. The client's original infection has not responded to the antibiotic therapy d. The client needs to be tested for Clostridium difficile infection

d. The client needs to be tested for Clostridium difficile infection Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is a common adverse effect of antibiotics. However, it becomes a serious superinfection when it causes antibiotic-associated colitis, also known as pseudomembranous colitis or simply C. diff infection. This happens because antibiotics disrupt the normal gut flora and can cause an overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen Clostridium difficile. The most common symptoms of C. difficile colitis are watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, and fever. Whenever a client who was previously treated with antibiotics develops these symptoms, the client needs to be tested for C. difficile infection. If the results are positive, the client will need to be treated for this serious superinfection.

Which educational statement is correct regarding antiretroviral therapy (ART)? a. Adverse effects of ART are minimal and usually resolve or improve after one month. b. It is important to monitor WBC weekly while on ART. c. The goal of ART is to kill the virus that causes HIV. d. You will take one pill with at least 3 antiretroviral drugs designed to work in different ways to stop the virus at different points in its life cycle.

d. You will take one pill with at least 3 antiretroviral drugs designed to work in different ways to stop the virus at different points in its life cycle. Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is one pill daily with at least 3 antiretroviral drugs designed to work in different ways to stop the virus at different points in its lifecycle; this is to decrease the virus's ability to replicate. The goal of antiviral therapy is viral suppression or reducing viral load. None of these drugs kill the virus, they only prevent the production of the virus and control the population of the virus in the host (person). It is important to monitor viral load (goal is very low or non-detectable) and CD4 counts, a measurement of an HIV person's immune status (goal is an elevated count). Adverse effects with ART can vary in presentational severity but often do affect quality of life and can make drug compliance difficult. PrEP adverse effects are minimal and are often resolved or improved after 1 month.