HP: Exam 2
13) Identify the anatomical features associated with the myocardium. Select all that apply. a) fibrous membrane that stabilizes the heart b) a layer that is excitable c) a layer that has extensive network of blood vessels d) a layer made of cells that have many mitochondria e) a layer that is continuous with the endothelium of blood vessels f) a layer that also covers cardiac valves g) a layer made of epithelial cells tightly sealed to prevent any exchange between blood and layer below
*Myocardium is the middle layer! b) a layer that is excitable c) a layer that has extensive network of blood vessels d) a layer made of cells that have many mitochondria
16) Which muscle property best explains the autorhythmicity of the heart? a) electrical excitability b) involuntary control c) extensibility d) contractility
A
21) Which of the following are the contractile proteins of muscle? a) actin and myosin b) dystrophin and actin c) myosin and nebulin d) tropomyosin and troponin
A
28) The A band corresponds to the full length of which component of the sarcomere? a) thick filament b) thin filament c) titin filament d) tropomyosin
A
29) During a concentric muscle contraction, _______ moves along _______ toward the M line. a) actin; myosin b) myosin; actin c) tropomyosin; actin d) tropomyosin; troponin
A
36) Certain pesticides inhibit acetylcholinesterase. What effects would this have on muscle fibers? a) it would lead to increased muscle contractions b) it would lead to increased muscle relaxation c) it would lead to decreased muscle contractions d) it would not change muscle fiber activity
A
4) Which type(s) of muscle have transverse tubules? a) cardiac and skeletal b) cardiac, skeletal and smooth c) skeletal and smooth d) skeletal only
A
43) Hydrogen ions interfere with the ability of the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium. Given this information, what effect do you think a decrease in pH would have on the force of muscle contraction? a) decreased force of contraction b) increased force of contraction c) no effect on force of contraction d) no contraction
A
44) The skeletal muscle action potential is MOST DIRECTLY important for which process? a) activating the DHP receptor b) activating the ryanodine receptor c) promoting cross-bridge formation d) triggering neurotransmitter release
A
52) Which molecule can be used to quickly regenerate ATP by a direct phosphorylation reaction? a) creatine phosphate b) glycogen c) lactic acid d) pyruvate
A
57) Which process requires sufficient oxygen to occur? a) aerobic respiration b) anaerobic glycolysis c) creatine phosphate reaction d) aerobic respiration and anaerobic glycolysis
A
7) Sarcomeres are present in which type(s) of muscle? a) cardiac and skeletal b) cardiac, skeletal and smooth c) skeletal and smooth d) skeletal only
A
41) _____ _____ is defined as the volume of air per minute that actually reaches the respiratory zone.
Answer: Alveolar ventilation
5) _____ are proteins that disable foreign substances such as bacteria and viruses that invade the body.
Answer: Antibodies
11) ____ ____ is the primary site of hematopoiesis.
Answer: Bone; marrow
51) _____ is defined as the change in volume per unit change of transmural pressure.
Answer: Compliance
12) Thrombopoietin is a hormone that stimulates the formation of red blood cells from megakaryocytes in red bone marrow.
Answer: False
19) Without a plasma membrane, erythrocytes cannot synthesize new components to replace damaged ones.
Answer: False
23) By triggering relaxation of bronchiolar smooth muscle, signals from the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) facilitate bronchodilation and decreased resistance.
Answer: False
24) The precursor cell that synthesizes hemoglobin during erythropoiesis is known as a reticulocyte. Answer: False
Answer: False
29) When a person is in a supine position, the force of gravity causes ventilation and perfusion to be less at the base of the lungs than at the apex. Answer: False
Answer: False
3) The ability of a blood vessel's smooth muscle to maintain a state of partial contraction is called elastic recoil.
Answer: False
30) Erythrocytes are the primary cells that combat invading pathogens and abnormal cells in the body.
Answer: False
32) Blood flow is inversely proportional to the pressure gradient.
Answer: False
37) An end plate potential flows in one direction along a skeletal muscle fiber.
Answer: False
45) Imagine you have two blood vessels that are identical, except that one is longer than the other. The resistance to blood flow will be greater in the shorter vessel.
Answer: False
46) According to Boyle's law, each gas in a mixture of gases exerts its own pressure as if no other gases are present.
Answer: False
48) Venous pressures are typically low because veins have low compliance.
Answer: False
50) Skeletal muscle cells contain enough ATP to maximally contract for several minutes.
Answer: False
52) Clotting factor II combines with clotting factor X in the presence of Ca2+ to form the active enzyme prothrombinase.
Answer: False
53) Glucose enters skeletal muscle cells via simple diffusion.
Answer: False
58) A person with type O blood can receive blood from a person with type AB blood.
Answer: False
62) A whole muscle is controlled by activation of a single motor unit.
Answer: False
64) Baroreceptors that initiate the carotid sinus reflex help regulate systemic blood pressure, while baroreceptors that initiate the aortic reflex help regulate blood pressure in the brain.
Answer: False
65) The mean arterial pressure is maintained by a positive feedback loop involving the cardiovascular center.
Answer: False
66) An infant is likely to develop hemolytic disease of the newborn when he or she has the same blood group and Rh antigen as his or her mother.
Answer: False
67) Endothelial cells lining the hypothalamus help produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and contribute to the blood-brain barrier.
Answer: False
69) Immunoglobulin D antibodies present in mother's milk provide protection to a breast feeding infant.
Answer: False
70) Macrophages release interleukin-6 (IL-6) that acts on the hypothalamus and causes a fever.
Answer: False
75) No energy is expended during an isometric contraction because no actual movement is occurring.
Answer: False
98) The action potential in an autorhythmic single-unit smooth muscle fiber consists of a depolarizing phase due to the opening of voltage-gated sodium channels, and a repolarizing phase due to opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and closing of voltage-gated sodium channels.
Answer: False
52) _____ _____ is a clinical application of Henry's law used to treat diseases caused by anaerobic bacteria, such as those that cause tetanus and gangrene.
Answer: Hyperbaric; oxygenation
40) During the depolarizing phase of a skeletal muscle action potential, ______ ions are moving _____ the cell and during the repolarizing phase _____ ions move _____ _____ the cell.
Answer: Na+, into; K+; out of
35) _____ volume is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximum expiration.
Answer: Residual
101) All three types of muscle can undergo hypertrophy.
Answer: True
15) In the process of vasomotion, the smooth muscles of precapillary sphincters contract and relax alternately resulting in intermittent blood flow through capillaries.
Answer: True
20) The surfactant in alveolar fluid reduces surface tension by disrupting the cohesive forces between water molecules.
Answer: True
27) Basophils stain blue-purple with an alkaline dye.
Answer: True
37) The loss of a large amount of blood from blood vessels is known as hemorrhage.
Answer: True
38) Just like a neuronal action potential, a muscle action potential consists of a depolarizing phase caused by opening of voltage-gated sodium channels followed by a repolarizing phase due to opening of voltage-gated potassium channels and closing of voltage-gated sodium channels.
Answer: True
40) Arterioles contribute the most resistance to blood flow among all the blood vessels by maintaining blood pressure.
Answer: True
59) Muscle fatigue can be due to inadequate release of acetylcholine by motor neurons onto skeletal muscle fibers.
Answer: True
64) The force a motor unit exerts depends on the rate at which the somatic motor neuron discharges action potentials because calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum faster than it is pumped back by the Ca2+-ATPase pump.
Answer: True
66) A shock can be best described as the failure of the cardiovascular system to deliver sufficient oxygen and nutrients to meet cellular metabolic needs.
Answer: True
68) A toxin from poison ivy is likely to show a delayed hypersensitive reaction in an allergic individual.
Answer: True
85) Cardiac muscle cells generate most of their ATP through aerobic respiration.
Answer: True
89) In cardiac muscle cells, entry of calcium from the extracellular fluid triggers release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
Answer: True
35) A somatic motor neuron releases _____ onto skeletal muscle to cause it to contract.
Answer: acetylcholine
54) Substances that delay, suppress, or prevent blood clotting are known as _____.
Answer: anticoagulants
18) When the _____ system is at rest, most of the blood is found in the systemic veins and venules.
Answer: cardiovascular
38) How is the inspiratory capacity of the lungs calculated? a) adding vital capacity and residual volume b) adding residual volume, expiratory reserve volume, and inspiratory reserve volume c) adding inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume d) adding vital capacity and residual volume e) adding tidal volume and inspiratory reserve volume
Answer: e
53) The process of dissolution of a clot is called _____.
Answer: fibrinolysis
20) The storage form of glucose that is present in muscles cells is known as ______.
Answer: glycogen
54) Glucose can be made in skeletal muscle cells through the breakdown of ______.
Answer: glycogen
100) Growth of skeletal muscle fibers in adults is primarily through the process of ______.
Answer: hypertrophy
92) Myosin heads can stay attached to actin longer in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle, because smooth muscle can enter a/n ______ state.
Answer: latch
66) The muscle action potential travels down the T tubule system during the _____ period.
Answer: latent
58) In the pulmonary circulation, a low level of _____ causes vasoconstriction of arterioles.
Answer: oxygen
8) The _____ is a funnel-shaped tube that extends from the nasal and oral cavities to the larynx and esophagus.
Answer: pharynx
10) Myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells give rise to ____ cells that develop into just one or two types of blood cells.
Answer: progenitor
25) Pressure-driven movement of fluids and solutes from interstitial fluid into blood capillaries is called _____.
Answer: reabsorption
68) Clusters of neurons located in the medulla oblongata and pons of the brain stem send action potentials to the respiratory muscles to alter the size of the thoracic cavity. These clusters together make up the _____ _____.
Answer: respiratory; center
34) The process of platelet formation is known as _____.
Answer: thrombopoiesis
37) The pressure difference between the inside and outside walls of a hollow object is known as ____ pressure.
Answer: transmural
95) Another name for single-unit smooth muscle is ______ smooth muscle
Answer: visceral
14) After eating some questionable taco meat, your friend Joshua begins to throw up those risky tacos he ate only a few hours before. Which muscle function best explains why this might have occurred? a) production of body movement b) storage and movement of substances within the body c) thermogenesis d) stabilization of body position
B
18) Which property of muscle allows the stretched muscles to go back to their original shape and size? a) contractility b) elasticity c) electrical excitability d) extensibility
B
2) Which of the following is the best explanation for why the statement "I can control my heart rate" is not entirely true? a) It is not possible to consciously control other factors that affect heart rate, like breathing and physical activity, and so it is also not possible to consciously control heart muscle contractions. b) It is possible to consciously control other factors that affect heart rate, like breathing and physical activity, but it is not possible to consciously control heart muscle contractions. c) It is not possible to consciously control other factors that affect heart rate, like breathing and physical activity, but it is also possible to consciously control heart muscle contractions. d) It is possible to consciously control other factors that affect heart rate, like breathing and physical activity, and it is possible to consciously control heart muscle contractions.
B
23) Which molecule has an ATP-binding site? a) actin b) myosin c) tropomyosin d) troponin
B
3) Given what you know about the musculature of the respiratory system, what is the most likely explanation for why you can change your breathing rate at any time? a) the smooth muscles of the respiratory tract can be consciously controlled, unlike like other involuntary systems in the body b) breathing rate is achieved through skeletal muscles, which are under partial voluntary control c) in addition to smooth muscles that allow for conscious control, there are likely skeletal muscles involved that can be consciously controlled d) there are skeletal muscles involved in breathing that display smooth muscle-like autorhythmicity
B
32) What happens immediately after ATP attaches to myosin? a) myosin head attaches to actin b) myosin head detaches from actin c) myosin head hydrolyzes ATP to ADP d) myosin head pivots from 90o angle to 45o angle
B
39) Activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscle cells most directly leads to a/an a) action potential b) end plate potential c) autorhythmic potential d) receptor potential
B
45) Which of the following best describes the activity of the ryanodine receptor? a) nociceptor b) mechanoreceptor c) thermoreceptor d) chemoreceptor
B
46) If you had a drug that physically blocked the ryanodine receptor itself, where in the cell would the drug be binding? a) sarcolemma b) sarcoplasmic reticulum c) mitochondrion d) troponin
B
5) Calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum is important for contraction of which type(s) of muscle? a) cardiac and skeletal b) cardiac, skeletal and smooth c) skeletal and smooth d) skeletal only
B
58) Jeff is holding his arm out to support a heavy book. After a while of maintaining the contraction, he is no longer able to exert any muscle force. This is a result of which phenomenon? a) glycogenolysis b) muscle fatigue c) summation d) aerobic respiration
B
8) Which type(s) of muscle contraction can be regulated by acetylcholine? a) cardiac and skeletal b) cardiac, skeletal and smooth c) skeletal and smooth d) skeletal only
B
10) Which type(s) of muscle contraction is regulated by autonomic motor neurons? a) cardiac only b) cardiac and skeletal c) cardiac and smooth d) cardiac, skeletal and smooth
C
12) Which muscle function explains why you get hot during strenuous exercise? a) production of movement b) involuntary stabilization c) thermogenesis d) moving substances within the body
C
19) The muscle action potential quickly spreads into the muscle fiber as it travels along the _____, which is an extension of the _____. a) myofibril; sarcoplasm b) myofibril; sarcoplasmic reticulum c) transverse tubules; sarcolemma d) transverse tubules; sarcoplasm
C
24) Which molecule blocks the myosin-binding sites by wrapping around the thin filament? a) actin b) myosin c) tropomyosin d) troponin
C
26) Which molecule helps to anchor thin filaments to the ends of the sarcomere? a) dystrophin b) myomesin c) nebulin d) titin
C
27) Which muscle protein is responsible for attaching the M line to the Z line? a) myosin b) actin c) titin d) nebulin
C
30) During an isotonic muscle contraction, what happens to the H zone? a) it does not change b) it gets longer c) it gets shorter d) it gets longer and shorter, successively
C
33) After a person or animal dies, the muscles of the body become very flaccid for a short period of time, before rigor mortis sets in. Which of the following is a possible explanation for why this brief state of flaccidity occurs? a) Muscle cells become overexcited following death. b) ATP is depleted and therefore there exists no energy for the contraction cycle. c) Skeletal muscles require stimulation from the nervous system to contract, which ceases upon death. d) Ca2+ leaks out of cells causing myosin to attach to actin.
C
34) You are a scientist performing an experiment on some isolated skeletal muscle fibers. You observe that when you observe the muscle fibers under a microscope and apply a small amount of calcium, the fibers contract, but then after a short time they relax back to their original length. Which of the following is (are) possible explanation(s) for this observation? a) The applied Ca2+ activates the muscle, but following the refractory period the Ca2+ loses its effect and the muscle relaxes. b) The applied Ca2+ activates the muscle, but the muscle soon dephosphorylates its myosin and relaxes. c) The applied Ca2+ at first activates the muscle, but then is pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum and is stored. d) All of the choices are possible.
C
42) Muscle contraction begins when calcium levels ______ and ends when they ______. a) decrease; decrease b) decrease; increase c) increase; decrease d) increase; increase
C
6) Calcium from the extracellular fluid is important for contraction of which type(s) of muscle? a) cardiac only b) cardiac and skeletal c) cardiac and smooth d) cardiac, skeletal and smooth
C
9) Which type(s) of muscle contraction can be regulated by norepinephrine? a) cardiac only b) cardiac and skeletal c) cardiac and smooth d) cardiac, skeletal and smooth
C
51) Identify the process in the image. Infected body cell - Helper T cell - Inactive cytotoxic T cell
CD8 cell activation
11) Which type(s) of muscle contraction is regulated by somatic motor neurons? a) cardiac and skeletal b) cardiac, skeletal and smooth c) skeletal and smooth d) skeletal only
D
13) Which of the following muscle functions can explain why your head falls down when you begin to fall asleep during class? a) production of body movement b) storage and movement of substances within the body c) thermogenesis d) stabilization of body position
D
15) Larry is stretching out his leg muscles before going for a run. Which property of muscle allows Larry to do this without hurting himself? a) contractility b) elasticity c) electrical excitability d) extensibility
D
17) Which muscle property best explains how the heart generates your blood pressure? a) elasticity b) involuntary control c) extensibility d) contractility
D
22) Which of the following are regulatory proteins of muscle? a) actin and myosin b) dystrophin and titin c) myomesin and nebulin d) tropomyosin and troponin
D
25) Which molecule's activity is directly regulated by the presence and binding of calcium? a) actin b) myosin c) tropomyosin d) troponin
D
31) What happens during the power stroke of the contraction cycle? a) myosin head attaches to actin b) myosin head detaches from actin c) myosin head hydrolyzes ATP to ADP d) myosin head pivots from 90o angle to 45o angle
D
41) Curare is a plant based poison which is used by South American indigenous people as a toxin for hunting, the prey once shot by a dart coated with the toxin asphyxiate due to relaxation of skeletal muscles. Curare has also found use as a surgical anesthetic, again for its property of relaxing skeletal muscle. Which of the following is a possible mechanism for how curare could work? a) curare inhibits acetylcholinesterase b) curare activates ryanodine receptors c) curare blocks sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca2+ ATPase pumps d) curare blocks nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
D
57) A person whose erythrocytes are as seen in the image below is likely to have a blood group of type AB. (Picture of Antigen A)
FALSE
71) When the body produces movements, ______ function as fulcrums for levers and ______ act as the levers.
JOINTS; BONES
22) Capillary exchange is less inhibited in the hypothalamus due to the lack of the blood-brain barrier.
True
72) If blood flow is 88 cm3/sec under resting conditions, what is the velocity of blood flow in venules that have a cross-sectional area of 2000 cm2? a) 0.044 cm/sec b) 0.02 cm/sec c) 0.22 cm/sec d) 4.4 cm/sec e) 2.2 cm/sec
a) 0.044 cm/sec
26) Consider that the surface tension of an alveolus is 10 and its radius is 2. Using the law of Laplace, calculate the pressure inside the alveolus. a) 10 b) 20 c) 12 d) 24 e) 18
a) 10
35) Assuming that blood vessels are of the same size, the vessel with the highest blood flow will be a vessel with a pressure of a) 60 mmHg at one end and 15 mmHg on the other end b) 50 mmHg at one end and 20 mmHg on the other end c) 40 mmHg at one end and 25 mmHg on the other end d) 50 mmHg at one end and 30 mmHg on the other end e) 65 mmHg at one end and 25 mmHg on the other end
a) 60 mmHg at one end and 15 mmHg on the other end
60) A buildup of which of the following can lead to skeletal muscle fatigue. a) ADP b) creatine phosphate c) ATP d) oxygen
a) ADP
80) Which statement accurately describes the influence exercise has on the resting cardiac output? a) An athlete has about the same resting cardiac output as a healthy untrained person of the same size because when the stroke volume increases the heart rate will decrease. b) An athlete has a higher resting cardiac output than a healthy untrained person of the same size because both stroke volume and heart rate increase as a result of training. c) An athlete has a lower resting cardiac output than a healthy untrained person of the same size because both stroke volume and heart rate decrease as a result of training. d) An athlete has about the same resting cardiac output as the healthy untrained person of the same size because stroke volume decreases and heart rate increases once the exercise stops.
a) An athlete has about the same resting cardiac output as a healthy untrained person of the same size because when the stroke volume increases the heart rate will decrease.
42) Main ions that contribute to excitation-contraction coupling in the heart are a) Ca2+ b) Cl - c) K+ d) Mg2+
a) Ca2+
99) Release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum in smooth muscle cells can be due to activation of which types of channels? a) Ca2+ induced Ca2+ channels and IP3-gated channels b) Ca2+ induced Ca2+channels and store-operated channels c) IP3-gated channels and mechanically-gated channels d) IP3-gated channels and store-operated channels
a) Ca2+ induced Ca2+ channels and IP3-gated channels
47) Why do people with slow lipid absorption rates experience uncontrolled bleeding? a) Deficiency of vitamin K in such individuals affects the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X . b) Vitamin K deficiency results in the inactivation of clotting factor XIII. c) Reduced lipid absorption causes deactivation of the enzyme prothrombinase. d) Excess lipid concentration in the blood of these individuals inhibits the process of clot retraction. e) Deficiency of vitamin K lowers Ca2+ levels in the blood and affects the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin.
a) Deficiency of vitamin K in such individuals affects the synthesis of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X .
57) What is the physiology behind the increase in our heart rate in fight-or-flight situations? a) Epinephrine binds to β2 receptors and leads to the vasodilation of the cardiac muscle arterioles. b) Norepinephrine binds to β2 receptors and leads to the vasoconstriction of the cardiac muscle arterioles. c) Epinephrine binds to α1 receptors and leads to the vasodilation of the cardiac muscle arterioles. d) Norepinephrine binds to α1 receptors and leads to the vasoconstriction of the cardiac muscle arterioles. e) Epinephrine binds to α2 receptors and leads to the vasodilation of the cardiac muscle arterioles.
a) Epinephrine binds to β2 receptors and leads to the vasodilation of the cardiac muscle arterioles.
*73) What type of receptor is involved in the positive ionotropic effect of epinephrine or norepinephrine on the heart contractility? a) G protein coupled receptor b) receptor tyrosine kinase c) ion channel receptor d) intracellular receptor
a) G protein coupled receptor
10) Identify the true statement about a metarteriole. a) It functions as a shunt to help blood avoid the capillaries. b) It extends from an artery to a vein. c) It is permeable to large substances in the blood. d) The metarteriole wall is devoid of a basement membrane. e) The metarteriole structure is similar to that of a vein.
a) It functions as a shunt to help blood avoid the capillaries.
53) Identify the true statement about pulmonary gas exchange. a) It involves the conversion of deoxygenated blood to oxygenated blood. b) It facilitates the diffusion of CO2 from the air to blood. c) It involves the diffusion of O2 from pulmonary capillaries to the alveoli. d) It takes place in the systemic capillaries and tissue cells. e) It is dependent on the partial pressures of O2 and CO2 in areas of diffusion.
a) It involves the conversion of deoxygenated blood to oxygenated blood.
34) What is tidal volume of the lungs? a) It is the volume of air inspired or expired during a single breathing cycle under resting conditions. b) It is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired after a normal inspiration. c) It is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a normal expiration. d) It is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after a maximum expiration. e) It is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration.
a) It is the volume of air inspired or expired during a single breathing cycle under resting conditions.
50) Identify the true statement about a pulse. a) It occurs due to the alternate expansion and recoil of an artery after each systole of the left ventricle. b) It causes the blood to exert a hydrostatic pressure, generated due to ventricular contraction, on the walls of blood vessels. c) It is strongest in the capillaries near the heart. d) It is normally higher than the heart rate. e) It can be palpated using the subclavian artery.
a) It occurs due to the alternate expansion and recoil of an artery after each systole of the left ventricle.
71) What would be the effect of dehydration on the stroke volume and why? a) It would decrease stroke volume because of lower preload. b) It would increase stroke volume because of the higher afterload. c) It would decrease stroke volume because of increased the EDV. d) It would increase stroke volume because of decreased contractility.
a) It would decrease stroke volume because of lower preload.
2) What is another term for macrophages found in the liver? a) Kupffer cells b) histiocytes c) wandering macrophages d) hepatocytes e) Langerhans cells
a) Kupffer cells
40) Action potential in the contractile cardiac muscle fibers has a unique shape with a long plateau. What ion channels are responsible for the plateau phase of cardiac action potential? a) L type voltage gated Ca2+ channels b) T type voltage gated Ca2+ channels c) fast voltage gated K+ channels d) F type Na+ channels
a) L type voltage gated Ca2+ channels
44) Why are some people allergic to penicillin? a) Penicillin is a hapten that combines with proteins in the body to stimulate antibody production. b) Penicillin's composition allows it to act as an antibody for most invading microbes. c) Compromised immune systems often perceive penicillin as an antigen. d) The antigenic determinants on penicillin cause it to repel body proteins that prevent an immune attack. e) Penicillin's composition is similar to that of an invading microbe or antigen.
a) Penicillin is a hapten that combines with proteins in the body to stimulate antibody production.
55) Identify the true statement about intravascular clotting. a) Roughened endothelial surfaces of a blood vessel initiate this type of clotting. b) This clotting process is dependent on the activation of protein C. c) This process involves clot formation in the autonomous nervous system. d) Clot formation in this process is unlikely to result in a pulmonary embolism. e) This clotting process is independent of the rate of blood flow.
a) Roughened endothelial surfaces of a blood vessel initiate this type of clotting.
31) The normal physiological pacemaker of the heart is a) SA node b) AV node c) bundle of His d) AV bundle
a) SA node
33) Which autorhythmic fibers start the impulse that is responsible for a P wave in the ECG? a) SA node b) AV node c) AV bundle d) Purkinje fibers
a) SA node
78) Identify a neural change that causes an abrupt increase in ventilation at the start of an exercise. a) Sensory information from proprioceptors in muscles is sent to the dorsal respiratory group. b) Motor information from the primary motor cortex reaches the pontine respiratory center. c) Deactivation of the limbic system takes place. d) The pre-Bötzinger complex gets activated. e) The pre-Bötzinger complex sends action potentials for sternocleidomastoid muscle contraction.
a) Sensory information from proprioceptors in muscles is sent to the dorsal respiratory group.
16) Which of the following occurs during expiration? a) The external intercostals relax, and the ribs become depressed. b) Alveolar pressure becomes equal to atmospheric pressure. c) The diaphragm descends at least 1 cm. d) Intrapleural pressure increases considerably. e) The abdominal muscles expand and push the ribs upward.
a) The external intercostals relax, and the ribs become depressed.
18) Why is the alternative complement pathway known as an innate immune response? a) The pathway does not require antibodies to be activated. b) The pathway enhances immune reactions. c) The pathway proceeds with an interaction of carbohydrate molecules. d) The pathway is activated when mannan-binding lectins bind to carbohydrates. e) The pathway is a cascade of immune reactions,
a) The pathway does not require antibodies to be activated.
41) While examining a patient with a heart condition, the physician notices heart murmurs. Identify the true statement in the context of this scenario. a) The patient's blood flow is turbulent. b) Blood flow to the patient's heart is limited. c) There is minimal resistance to the patient's blood flow. d) The patient's blood flow is laminar. e) The patient's blood flow is intermittent.
a) The patient's blood flow is turbulent.
3) What is the function of the cilia in the nose? a) They move mucus and trapped particles down toward the pharynx. b) They lubricate the lining of the respiratory tract. c) They cause the inhaled air to become turbulent. d) They facilitate the movement of mucus along the respiratory tract. e) They help increase the total surface area for gaseous exchange.
a) They move mucus and trapped particles down toward the pharynx.
11) Flow of air into and out of the lungs can be attributed to a) a pressure gradient between the atmosphere and the alveoli b) a pulsating contraction and relaxation movement of the trachea c) the air turbulence created in the nasal conchae d) the rigidity of the diaphragm that maintains the pressure in the thorax e) a change in the volume of the intrapleural fluid
a) a pressure gradient between the atmosphere and the alveoli
63) Match the kind of immunity with its characteristic. a) active natural immunity b) active artificial immunity c) passive natural immunity d) passive artificial immunity 1) develops in a baby that is breastfed 2) forms when a person suffers from chicken pox for the first time 3) occurs when a child receives a rabies injection following a monkey bite 4) develops when a person receives vaccination for hepatitis B
a) active natural immunity: 2) forms when a person suffers from chicken pox for the first time b) active artificial immunity: 4) develops when a person receives vaccination for hepatitis B c) passive natural immunity: 1) develops in a baby that is breastfed d) passive artificial immunity: 3) occurs when a child receives a rabies injection following a monkey bite
86) Aerobic exercise is recommended for improving long term cardiovascular health. But what is the immediate effect of aerobic exercise on the cardiovascular system? a) aerobic exercise increases stroke volume b) aerobic exercise decreases blood pressure c) aerobic exercise decreases the heart rate d) aerobic exercise activates parasympathetic system
a) aerobic exercise increases stroke volume
60) Antigen-antibody reactions facilitate the cross-linking of pathogens to one another via a) agglutination b) precipitation c) activation d) opsonization e) margination
a) agglutination
22) Which of these is a constituent of the globin portion of hemoglobin? a) amino acids b) magnesium c) nucleic acids d) enzymes e) iron
a) amino acids
27) What is a likely consequence of capillary impermeability at the site of tissue injury? a) antibodies will not be able to repair the injured tissue b) the amount of blood flowing to the injured site will increase c) dead blood cells will get accumulated in the blood stream d) the effectiveness of leukotrienes is reduced e) the classical complement pathway will not be activated
a) antibodies will not be able to repair the injured tissue
63) Where are chemoreceptors located? a) aortic bodies b) vagus nerves c) glossopharyngeal nerves d) vasomotor nerves e) posterior pituitary
a) aortic bodies
25) Which of the valves listed below is NOT supported by muscular structures? a) aortic valve b) mitral valve c) tricuspid valve d) atrioventricular valve
a) aortic valve
49) Blood is most likely to spurt from an injury when the injured or damaged blood vessel is a/an a) artery b) vein c) capillary d) venule e) arteriole
a) artery
94) Contraction in smooth muscle is regulated by which branch(es) of the nervous system? a) autonomic b) somatic c) endocrine d) both autonomic and somatic
a) autonomic
33) What would happen if both arteriole length and vasodilation decrease at the same time? a) blood pressure would decrease b) blood flow rate would decrease c) friction between the arteriolar walls would increase d) resistance by the blood flow would increase e) blood viscosity would increase
a) blood pressure would decrease
64) How would you prevent the occurrence of myasthenia gravis? a) by destroying acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies b) by increasing the production of myelin sheaths on neurons c) by activating CD8 cells to breakdown anergic cells in the lymph d) by reducing the aggressive costimulant activity on antigenic fragments e) by suppressing the self-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins
a) by destroying acetylcholine receptor autoantibodies
***62) How does the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system regulate mean arterial pressure? a) by producing the hormone angiotensin II b) by regulating blood vessel length c) by stimulating the production of vasopressin d) by inhibiting the activation of β2-adrenergic receptors e) by inhibiting the production of aldosterone
a) by producing the hormone angiotensin II
91) In smooth muscle fibers, calcium binds to a) calmodulin b) myosin light chain kinase c) tropomyosin d) troponin
a) calmodulin
46) Match each of the pressures with its definition. a) capillary hydrostatic pressure b) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c) plasma colloid osmotic pressure d) interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure 1) the pressure on capillary walls due to the presence of plasma proteins 2) the pressure on capillary walls due to the immobilization of plasma protein colloids 3) the pressure exerted on the inner surfaces of capillary walls by water in blood 4) the pressure exerted on the outer surfaces of capillary walls by water in interstitial fluid
a) capillary hydrostatic pressure: 3) the pressure exerted on the inner surfaces of capillary walls by water in blood b) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure: 4) the pressure exerted on the outer surfaces of capillary walls by water in interstitial fluid c) plasma colloid osmotic pressure: 2) the pressure on capillary walls due to the immobilization of plasma protein colloids d) interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure: 1) the pressure on capillary walls due to the presence of plasma proteins
50) What is unlikely to happen if a T cell recognizes an antigen but does not undergo costimulation? a) clonal selection b) anergy c) negative selection d) T cell deletion e) self-tolerance
a) clonal selection
17) Hemoglobin is bright red in color when it a) combines with oxygen b) releases oxygen c) combines with nitric oxide d) combines with carbon monoxide e) releases carbon dioxide
a) combines with oxygen
21) Match the part of the heart to its function. a) coronary arteries b) AV valves c) ventricular septum d) SA or AV nodes 1) supply oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle cells 2) initiate the automatic heart rhythm 3) prevent mixing oxygenated and deoxygenated blood 4) forces one directional blood flow 5) initiate the changes of electrical potential in the heart
a) coronary arteries: 1) supply oxygen and nutrients to the heart muscle cells b) AV valves: 4) forces one directional blood flow (REMEMBER VALVES PREVENT BACKFLOW FROM OCCURING**** and so does chordae tenadae*** or however you spell that c) ventricular septum: 3) prevent mixing oxygenated and deoxygenated blood d) SA or AV nodes: 2) initiate the automatic heart rhythm
14) Which of these is the family of hormones that stimulates the development of leukocytes from progenitor cells? a) cytokines b) neuropeptides c) mineralocorticoids d) androgens e) somatotropins
a) cytokines
49) In the ECG what does the P-wave represent? a) depolarization of the atria b) repolarization of the atria c) hyperpolarization of the bundle branches d) repolarization of left ventricle
a) depolarization of the atria
15) Why is gastric juice effective against bacterial toxins? a) due to its acidic nature b) due to its antigen-binding ability c) due to its high specific gravity d) due to the rise in blood pH level that accompanies its release e) due to the feedback mechanisms controlling its production
a) due to its acidic nature
5) The actions of which of the following help maintain adequate blood circulation during diastole? a) elastic arteries b) muscular arteries c) continuous capillaries d) sinusoids e) venules
a) elastic arteries
80) A competitive sprinter will likely have a higher than average number of which type of muscle fiber? a) fast glycolytic b) slow oxidative c) fast oxidative glycolytic d) equal amounts of all three
a) fast glycolytic
81) Which type(s) of muscle fibers has/have the most creatine phosphate? a) fast glycolytic b) slow oxidative c) fast oxidative glycolytic d) All of the choices have equal amounts.
a) fast glycolytic
82) Which muscle fiber types are BEST equipped for anaerobic respiration? a) fast glycolytic b) slow oxidative c) fast oxidative glycolytic d) All of the choices are equal.
a) fast glycolytic
15) Identify the anatomical feature associated with the parietal layer of epicardium. a) fibrous membrane that stabilizes the heart b) a layer that is excitable c) a layer that has extensive network of blood vessels d) a layer made of cells that have many mitochondria e) a layer that is continuous with the endothelium of blood vessels f) a layer that also covers cardiac valves g) a layer made of epithelial cells tightly sealed to prevent any exchange between blood and layer below
a) fibrous membrane that stabilizes the heart
47) Match the equations with their representations. a) flow equation b) resistance equation c) compliance d) Poiseuille's law 1) R = ηL/r4 2) F = πΔPr4/8ηL 3) F = ΔP/R 4) C = ΔV/ΔP
a) flow equation: 3) F = ΔP/R b) resistance equation: 1) R = ηL/r4 c) compliance: 4) C = ΔV/ΔP d) Poiseuille's law: 2) F = πΔPr4/8ηL
37) Match the lung capacities with their respective definitions. a) functional residual capacity b) inspiratory capacity c) vital capacity d) expiratory reserve volume e) inspiratory reserve volume 1) the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a normal expiration 2) the maximum volume of air that can be inspired after a normal expiration 3) the volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration 4) the maximum volume of air that can be inspired after a normal inspiration 5) the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration
a) functional residual capacity: 3) the volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration b) inspiratory capacity: 2) the maximum volume of air that can be inspired after a normal expiration (inspired, expiration)*** c) vital capacity: 5) the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximum inspiration (expired, inspiration)*** d) expiratory reserve volume: 1) the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a normal expiration (expired, expiration)*** e) inspiratory reserve volume: 4) the maximum volume of air that can be inspired after a normal inspiration (inspired, inspiration)***
65) What happens when partial pressure of CO2 is high in blood? a) hemoglobin releases O2 more readily b) acidity of the blood decreases c) hydrogen ion concentration decreases d) saturation curve shifts to the right e) production of lactic acid increases
a) hemoglobin releases O2 more readily
82) Match the types of hypoxia with their respective causes. a) hypoxic hypoxia b) anemic hypoxia c) ischemic hypoxia d) histotoxic hypoxia 1) inability of tissues to use the O2 adequately due to toxic agents 2) too little O2 delivered to the tissues 3) too little functioning hemoglobin present in the blood 4) low partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood
a) hypoxic hypoxia: 4) low partial pressure of O2 in arterial blood b) anemic hypoxia: 3) too little functioning hemoglobin present in the blood c) ischemic hypoxia: 2) too little O2 delivered to the tissues d) histotoxic hypoxia: 1) inability of tissues to use the O2 adequately due to toxic agents
32) What is a common characteristic of maturing B cells and T cells? a) immunocompetence b) memory c) antibody production d) degranulation e) positive selection
a) immunocompetence
11) When inserting pacemaker leads into the left ventricle of the heart where would you insert a catheter? a) in a systemic artery b) in a systemic vein c) in a pulmonary artery d) it does not matter, the CV system is a closed circuit so I will get there eventually
a) in a systemic artery
10) During atrial fibrillation the electrical activity of atria is desynchronized and the atria do not contract. That causes the formation of blood clots in the atria. If a clot from the atria detaches and gets into circulation it might cause the blockage of blood flow to a certain area. Where would you find a blood clot that originated in the right atrium? a) in the arteries in the lungs b) in the coronary circulation c) in one of the arteries in the legs d) in the left ventricle
a) in the arteries in the lungs
43) What event is responsible for the excitation-contraction coupling in the myocardium? a) increase of Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm b) removal of Ca2+ from the troponin c) transport of Ca2+ to sarcoplasm by the ATPase d) inactivation of Ca2+ release channels in the SR
a) increase of Ca2+ concentration in the sarcoplasm
74) What brings about an immediate cessation of breathing followed by coughing or sneezing? a) irritation of the airways b) a drop in blood pressure c) stretching of the anal sphincter muscle d) a stimulated limbic system e) a prolonged somatic pain
a) irritation of the airways
74) Concentric and eccentric are types of ______ contractions. a) isotonic b) isometric c) elastic d) None of the choices is correct.
a) isotonic
87) How does the duration of the refractory period in cardiac muscle cells compare to that in skeletal muscle cells? a) it is longer in cardiac muscle cells b) it is shorter in cardiac muscle cells c) it is the same in cardiac and skeletal muscle cells d) cardiac cells have no refractory period
a) it is longer in cardiac muscle cells
67) During the exchange of O2 and CO2 in systemic capillaries, H+ combines with HCO3 − inside erythrocytes to form H2CO3. What happens to this H2CO3? a) it splits into CO2 and H2O b) it splits into CO2, H2, and Oc) it reacts with Cl2 to form HCl and CO2 d) it reacts with H+ to form HCO3 − and O2 e) it splits into CO and H2O2
a) it splits into CO2 and H2O
39) Which is a function of the platelet-derived growth factor? a) it stimulates platelets to help repair damaged blood vessel walls b) it causes proliferation of vascular smooth muscle fibers c) it binds to platelet receptors to initiate signal transduction pathways d) it inhibits the contraction of vascular smooth muscles e) it facilitates the formation of a platelet plug
a) it stimulates platelets to help repair damaged blood vessel walls
3) Centrifuged blood has three distinct layers. One of the components of the thin buffy middle layer is a) leukocytes b) erythrocytes c) hepatocytes d) megakaryocytes e) reticulocytes
a) leukocytes
73) Jimothy is out cutting firewood with his dad and when they finish they need to carry it back to their campsite. Jimothy wants to impress his dad with how much would he can carry. What would be the most efficient way for him to carry the most wood while using the least amount of energy? a) loading as many logs as close to his elbows as possible b) loading as many logs in his hands as possible c) loading some logs near his elbows and most on his hands d) loading some logs near his hands and making multiple trips
a) loading as many logs as close to his elbows as possible
36) A disadvantage of a spirometer is that it cannot be used to a) measure residual volume b) measure inspiratory reserve volume c) determine minute ventilation d) assess the effect of medication e) assess the efficiency of autoregulatory mechanisms
a) measure residual volume
21) Which of the processes is common to natural killer cells and the alternative complement pathway? a) microbial cell cytolysis b) host cell phagocytosis c) membrane complex formation d) granzyme production e) blood vessel perforation
a) microbial cell cytolysis
96) In which type of smooth muscle do graded contractions occur by recruitment of additional muscle fibers? a) multi-unit b) single-unit c) both multi- and single-unit d) smooth muscles do not have graded contractions
a) multi-unit
48) What is a difference between the processing of an endogenous antigen and an exogenous antigen? a) one uses major histocompatibility complex I (MHC-I) proteins, and the other uses major histocompatibility complex II (MHC-II) proteins b) one involves fragmentation of antigenic proteins, and the other involves fusion of peptide fragments to form antigenic proteins c) one takes place exclusively in the lymph nodes, and the other takes place exclusively inside a body cell d) one involves synthesis of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins at the endoplasmic reticulum, and the other involves synthesis of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins in the cytoplasm e) one involves exocytosis of the antigen-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein compound, and the other involves diapedesis of the antigen-MHC compound
a) one uses major histocompatibility complex I (MHC-I) proteins, and the other uses major histocompatibility complex II (MHC-II) proteins
37) Which channel is responsible for depolarization phase of action potential in the contractile cardiac muscle fibers? a) opening of voltage gated Na+ channels b) closing of voltage gated Na+ channels c) opening of fast voltage gated K+ channels d) closing of slow voltage gated K+ channels
a) opening of voltage gated Na+ channel
7) When electricians assemble electrical circuits, they do it either parallel or in-series depending on the application. Isn't it amazing that evolution came up with the same idea way before the electricians did? Thinking about blood distribution throughout the body, which circuit is more widely represented in human body? a) parallel b) in series c) both about even d) There is no similarity between blood flow and electrical current flow.
a) parallel
44) The pressure of a specific gas in a mixture is called its a) partial pressure b) hydrostatic pressure c) osmotic pressure d) differential pressure e) absolute pressure
a) partial pressure
66) When the heart rhythm speeds up or slows down, which phase of cardiac cycle is affected more than others? a) passive ventricular filling b) atrial contraction c) isovolumetric ventricular contraction d) ventricular ejection e) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
a) passive ventricular filling
57) The cardiac cycle proceeds in a series of 5 phases. Identify the phases of cardiac cycle for the state atrial diastole, ventricular diastole. Select all that apply. a) passive ventricular filling b) atrial contraction c) isovolumetric ventricular contraction d) ventricular ejection e) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
a) passive ventricular filling e) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
74) Binding of epinephrine to β1 adrenergic receptors in the heart causes a) production of second messengers that activate protein kinase A and phosphorylation of myosin heads b) inhibition of Ca2+ ATPase in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and decreased Ca2+ uptake c) opening of voltage gated Na+ channels and depolarization d) no effect, heart does not have functional β1 receptors
a) production of second messengers that activate protein kinase A and phosphorylation of myosin heads
49) Which of the following is a process associated with clot retraction? a) release of factor XIII by platelets b) release of phospholipids by platelets c) activation of the enzyme prothrombinase d) activation of clotting factor XII e) conversion of plasminogen to plasmin
a) release of factor XIII by platelets
1) Blood returning to the heart from the systemic circulation first enters the a) right atrium b) left atrium c) right ventricle d) left ventricle
a) right atrium
68) Select the appropriate relationship between the valves opening and closing and pressure changes during the cardiac cycle. a) semilunar valves begin to open when the pressure in the ventricles exceed diastolic blood pressure in the aorta or pulmonary artery b) semilunar valves begin to open when the pressure in the ventricles exceed systolic pressure in the aorta or pulmonary artery c) atrioventricular valves begin to open when the pressure in the ventricles exceeds the pressure in the atria d) atrioventricular valves begin to close when the pressure in the aorta or pulmonary artery exceeds the pressure in the ventricles
a) semilunar valves begin to open when the pressure in the ventricles exceed diastolic blood pressure in the aorta or pulmonary artery
7) Plasma without its clotting proteins is known as a) serum b) immunoglobulin c) lymph d) intrapleural fluid e) bile
a) serum
12) Which of the following is the function of the blue-colored cell in the image? a) signaling the immune system about the presence of an invading microbe b) facilitating the production of T and B lymphocytes c) secreting an oily substance to coat the skin's surface d) producing a dark pigment that protects the skin from ultraviolet rays e) triggering primary lymphoid organs to produce anti-inflammatory hormones
a) signaling the immune system about the presence of an invading microbe
79) Gradual increase in ventilation during moderate exercise is due to a) slightly decreased partial pressure of O2 b) decreased O2 consumption c) slightly decreased partial pressure of CO2 d) decreased temperature e) reduced CO2 production
a) slightly decreased partial pressure of O2
38) A location where cytotoxic T cells and B cells get activated to undergo clonal selection is a) spleen b) thymus c) blood d) lymph e) bone marrow
a) spleen
88) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a cardiac contractile muscle cell? a) tetanus b) troponin c) transverse tubules d) sarcomeres
a) tetanus
**83) Which of the following is the cause of stroke volume increase during intense physical activity a) the increase of end diastolic volume b) the elongation of filling time of the ventricles c) the increase of the heart rate d) the decrease of venous return
a) the increase of end diastolic volume
20) The left ventricle has the thickest wall of the 4 chambers of the heart. What is the physiological explanation for that? a) the left ventricle is the strongest pumping chamber of the heart b) the left ventricle transfers blood from the systemic circulation to be oxygenated c) the left ventricle uses only anaerobic glycolysis as energy source d) the left ventricle does not have any valves
a) the left ventricle is the strongest pumping chamber of the heart
19) The left ventricle works harder than the right ventricle because a) the left ventricle pumps blood a longer distance than the right b) there is a lower resistance to blood flow in the left ventricle c) the left ventricle pumps larger volume of blood d) All of the choices are correct.
a) the left ventricle pumps blood a longer distance than the right
63) Which of the following is correct regarding unfused tetanus in a skeletal muscle fiber? a) the muscle is being stimulated at a high rate, with some time to relax slightly between stimuli b) the muscle is being stimulated at a high rate, with no time to relax slightly between stimuli c) the muscle is producing its maximum tension d) the muscle is fatigued
a) the muscle is being stimulated at a high rate, with some time to relax slightly between stimuli
67) Why do fast glycolytic skeletal muscle fibers have the greatest cross sectional area? a) they are used for producing the greatest amount of force b) they have the biggest thick filaments c) they have the most sarcoplasmic reticulum d) they are used for fine control of movement
a) they are used for producing the greatest amount of force
35) Why is humoral immunity likely to be ineffective against cancer cells? a) this form of immunity involves antigen-antibody reactions in body fluids b) killing cancer cells requires memory of previous encounters with cancerous cells c) this form of immunity is known for its nonspecificity d) cancer cells are a result of invading agents that are viral in nature e) this form of immunity is cell mediated
a) this form of immunity involves antigen-antibody reactions in body fluids
48) Which of the following most accurately describes the effect of decreasing Ca2+ concentration on sarcomere activity? a) troponin is deactivated and tropomyosin covers the actin binding site b) tropomyosin is deactivated and troponin covers the actin binding site c) myosin no longer hydrolyzes ATP and detaches from actin d) myosin no longer binds ATP and recocks into an upright position
a) troponin is deactivated and tropomyosin covers the actin binding site
13) The process that results in an increase in the blood volume flowing to the skeletal muscles is known as a) venoconstriction b) vasomotion c) vasoconstriction d) capillary exchange e) bulk flow
a) venoconstriction
67) In the context of allergic reactions, when is a person likely to go into anaphylactic shock? a) when large amounts of an allergen enters the person's blood stream b) when the allergen is of an animal source c) when the allergic reaction is delayed d) when the person is desensitized to an allergen e) when a rare allergen comes in contact with self-reactive antibodies
a) when large amounts of an allergen enters the person's blood stream
58) How is the percent saturation of hemoglobin calculated? a) (Amount of O2 that can potentially be bound/ Amount of O2 actually bound) x 100 b) (Amount of O2 actually bound/ Maximum amount of O2 that can potentially be bound) x 100 c) (Number of O2 molecule bound/ Total number of O2 molecules available) x 100 d) (Volume of O2 per mL of blood/ Total volume of blood) x 100 e) (Mass of O2 molecule/ Total mass of blood) x 100
b) (Amount of O2 actually bound/ Maximum amount of O2 that can potentially be bound) x 100
60) What is the average volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of passive ventricular filling? a) 60mL b) 100mL c) 130 mL d) 5L
b) 100mL
36) If diastolic pressure is 90 mmHg and systolic pressure is 180 mmHg, what would mean arterial pressure be? a) 90 mmHg b) 120 mmHg c) 150 mmHg d) 210 mmHg e) 270 mmHg
b) 120 mmHg
73) Identify the true statement about regulation of ventilation. a) A stimulated limbic system decreases the rate and depth of ventilation. b) A decrease in body temperature decreases respiratory rate. c) Stretching the anal sphincter muscle decreases the rate of respiration. d) A prolonged somatic pain decreases respiratory rate. e) Physical or chemical irritation of the pharynx increases ventilation.
b) A decrease in body temperature decreases respiratory rate.
59) Which statement correctly describes events during cardiac cycle? a) Atrial systole immediately follows the ventricular systole. b) At least one pair of cardiac valves is closed in every phase of the cardiac cycle. c) Blood flows through the heart in every phase of the cycle. d) The pressure in the ventricles is always higher than the pressure in the atria.
b) At least one pair of cardiac valves is closed in every phase of the cardiac cycle.
34) Identify the correct representation of the flow equation. a) F = R/ΔP b) F = ΔP/R c) F = ΔP*R d) F = ΔP+R e) F = R-ΔP
b) F = ΔP/R
26) Identify a consequence that can be attributed to the failure of one of the starling forces. a) Lymphatic vessels fail to drain excess interstitial fluid. b) Fluids from blood fail to pass into interstitial spaces. c) Unfiltered plasma proteins pass into the interstitial fluid. d) Lymphocytes fail to pass through capillary walls. e) Metabolic waste substances pass into the interstitial spaces.
b) Fluids from blood fail to pass into interstitial spaces.
11) Why is the skin classified as a component of innate immunity? a) It is a physical, not a chemical, barrier to antigens invading the human body. b) It does not initiate specific immune responses against antigens based on recognition. c) It has a high concentration of monocytes that convert to wandering macrophages. d) It is the primary location for the actual lysis of infected cells. e) It allows the entry of selective microorganisms and foreign bodies.
b) It does not initiate specific immune responses against antigens based on recognition.
28) How does vasodilation help when ventilation exceeds perfusion? a) It reduces blood flow to the underventilated alveolus. b) It increases O2 delivery to the overventilated alveolus. c) It facilitates the expulsion of excess CO2. d) It decreases the level of CO2 in the alveolus and the surrounding tissues. e) It enables the dilation of bronchiolar smooth muscle.
b) It increases O2 delivery to the overventilated alveolus.
93) How does the ATPase activity of myosin heads in smooth muscle compare to that of skeletal muscle? a) It is faster in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle. b) It is slower in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle. c) It occurs at the same speed in smooth muscle as in skeletal muscle d) Smooth muscle uses a different enzyme other than ATPase.
b) It is slower in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle.
2) What is the primary function of the smooth muscle of a blood vessel? a) It enhances capillary permeability. b) It regulates the diameter of the lumen. c) It secretes chemical mediators that influence the contraction of a blood vessel. d) It provides resistance to blood flow. e) It maintains blood flow during ventricular relaxation.
b) It regulates the diameter of the lumen.
54) After heart attack, scar tissue develops in the heart causing a detour of action potentials traveling in the conduction system. In which part of an ECG trace would change be detected? a) QRS complex because it is the depolarization phase of the majority of the heart muscle b) PQ interval because it corresponds to travel of the potential in the fibers of the conduction system c) P wave because the excitation cannot travel backward to atria d) T wave because scar tissue can't re polarize properly
b) PQ interval because it corresponds to travel of the potential in the fibers of the conduction system
55) How does reactive hyperemia differ from active hyperemia? a) Reactive hyperemia is characterized by excess cellular consumption of oxygen, while active hyperemia is characterized by depletion of cellular oxygen. b) Reactive hyperemia is caused by a blocked blood supply, while active hyperemia is caused by an increase in metabolic activity. c) Reactive hyperemia involves the action of paracrines, while active hyperemia involves a myogenic response. d) Reactive hyperemia involves vasodilation of nearby arterioles, while active hyperemia involves vasoconstriction of arterioles. e) Reactive hyperemia involves removal of metabolites from tissues, while active hyperemia does not.
b) Reactive hyperemia is caused by a blocked blood supply, while active hyperemia is caused by an increase in metabolic activity.
40) Explain why oxygen therapy is used in the treatment of a person with emphysema. a) Reduced lung compliance promotes carbon dioxide absorption by the alveoli. b) Reduced surface area for gas exchanges leads to lower blood oxygen levels. c) The individual begins expelling oxygen from the body during expiration. d) The individual's hemoglobin exhibits increased affinity to carbon monoxide. e) The amount of air retained in the lung at the end of expiration decreases significantly.
b) Reduced surface area for gas exchanges leads to lower blood oxygen levels
22) Heart valves ensure that blood will flow one-way. Which of the following accurately describes therole differences in pressure play in valve function? a) AV open when pressure in the ventricles exceeds pressure in the atria. b) SL open when pressure in the ventricles exceeds pressure in the arteries. c) AV open when pressure in the ventricles exceeds pressure in the arteries. d) SL open when pressure in the ventricles exceeds pressure in the atria.
b) SL open when pressure in the ventricles exceeds pressure in the arteries.
66) What happens during anergy? a) T cells recognize self-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins. b) Self-reactive T cells that are unresponsive to antigenic stimulation remain in the body. c) Self-reactive T cells that are weakly responsive to antigens are eliminated from the body. d) T cells react with self-peptide fragments. e) T cells undergo apoptosis and die.
b) Self-reactive T cells that are unresponsive to antigenic stimulation remain in the body.
77) Which of the following occurs when cardiac output rises? a) The amount of O2 diffusing from alveolar air into the blood decreases. b) The amount of blood flowing to the lungs increases. c) The amount of O2 consumed by muscles decreases. d) The surface area available for O2 diffusion decreases. e) The amount of CO2 retained by the lungs increases.
b) The amount of blood flowing to the lungs increases.
4) Explain why smokers cough to remove foreign particles from their airways. a) Deposits of carbon in the epiglottis obstruct expectoration of trapped particles. b) The cilia are paralyzed by nicotine and are unable to help in the expulsion of trapped particles. c) The air turbulence created by the act of coughing prevents cilia from trapping the foreign particles. d) An increase in the periciliary fluid by nicotine causes mucus to thicken. e) The presence of nicotine causes cilia to entangle and inhibits their ability to trap foreign particles.
b) The cilia are paralyzed by nicotine and are unable to help in the expulsion of trapped particles.
23) What happens when protein content in the interstitial fluid increases? a) The osmosis of fluid from blood into the interstitial space decreases. b) The osmosis of fluid from blood into the interstitial space increases. c) The diffusion of proteins from the interstitial space to the blood increases. d) The diffusion of proteins from the interstitial space to the blood decreases. e) It has no effect on the osmosis of fluid or the diffusion of proteins.
b) The osmosis of fluid from blood into the interstitial space increases.
48) Henry's law states: a) In a mixture of non-reacting gases the total pressure exerted is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the individual gases. b) The quantity of a gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas and its solubility. c) At constant temperature the product of the pressure and volume of a given mass of an ideal gas in a closed system is always constant. d) For a given mass of an ideal gas at constant pressure and in a closed system its volume is directly proportional to its absolute temperature. e) For a given mass and constant volume of an ideal gas the pressure exerted on the sides of its container is directly proportional to its absolute temperature.
b) The quantity of a gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure of the gas and its solubility.
15) Identify the true statement about red blood cells. a) Their formation is initiated by cytokines. b) Their color is due to the pigment hemoglobin. c) They are biconvex discs with a diameter of 5-6 μm. d) They are nucleated structures. e) They defend the human body against foreign pathogens.
b) Their color is due to the pigment hemoglobin.
75) Identify the true statement about peripheral chemoreceptors. a) They respond to changes in hydrogen ion concentration in the cerebrospinal fluid. b) They are sensitive to changes in partial pressure of O2 in the blood. c) They respond to changes in partial pressure of CO2 in the cerebrospinal fluid. d) They are insensitive to partial pressure of CO2 in the blood. e) They are insensitive to changes in hydrogen ion concentration in the blood.
b) They are sensitive to changes in partial pressure of O2 in the blood.
49) Which is the first signal in the activation of a T cell? a) the fusion of antigenic peptide fragments and major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins b) a T cell receptor recognizing an antigen using the CD4 protein c) a T cell undergoing clonal selection d) the exocytosis of the antigen-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein compound into the plasma membrane e) a T cell receptor recognizing a peptide fragment of a self-protein
b) a T cell receptor recognizing an antigen using the CD4 protein
41) Excitation-contraction coupling in the heart can be described as a) a cyclical change in heart function leading to production of action potentials that can be recorded as ECG b) a sequence of processes that link the electrical changes in the heart to its contraction c) the changes in heart metabolism in response to contraction d) production of special type of depolarizations that only happen in the autorhythmic fibers
b) a sequence of processes that link the electrical changes in the heart to its contraction
61) Which of the following defines a motor unit? a) a single motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates b) a single muscle fiber and all of the motor neurons that innervate it c) all of the motor neurons and muscle fibers necessary to produce a single movement d) a group of motor neurons and muscle fibers that activate together
b) a single muscle fiber and all of the motor neurons that innervate it
47) After a skeletal muscle has contracted, which process is most important for lowering Ca2+ levels in the cytoplasm? a) activity of the acetylcholine receptor b) activity of the Ca2+-ATPase pump c) closing of the Ca2+ release channels (ryanodine receptor) d) closing of the dihydropyridine receptor
b) activity of the Ca2+-ATPase pump
56) Marathon runners often complete their events between 4 and 5 hours. Throughout the majority of this endurance event, which process is producing ATP? a) anaerobic respiration b) aerobic respiration c) glycolysis fermentation d) creatine phosphate reaction
b) aerobic respiration
47) In the processing and presenting of an exogenous antigen, when do the class II major histocompatibility complex (MHC-II) molecules merge with the vesicles containing the antigen peptide fragments? a) during the formation of a phagolysosome containing the antigen b) after the MHC-II molecules are packed into vesicles c) before the MHC-II molecules are packed into vesicles d) before the antigenic protein is split into peptide fragments e) during the fragmentation of the antigenic protein
b) after the MHC-II molecules are packed into vesicles
8) Which is the most abundant plasma protein? a) globulin b) albumin c) fibrinogen d) bilirubin e) creatinine
b) albumin
43) Immunogenicity is defined as a) an antigen's ability to react with an antibody b) an antigen's ability to initiate an immune response c) an antigen's ability to interrupt clonal selection d) an antibody's ability to differentiate between different molecules e) an antibody's ability to execute adaptive immune responses
b) an antigen's ability to initiate an immune response
38) Resistance in blood flow in a blood vessel increases with a) a decrease in plasma protein levels b) an increase in blood viscosity c) a decrease in blood vessel length d) an increase in capillary exchange e) a decrease in blood vessel radius
b) an increase in blood viscosity
55) Lactic acid is produced through which process(es)? a) aerobic respiration b) anaerobic respiration c) creatine phosphate reaction d) All of the choices are correct.
b) anaerobic respiration
3) One of the functional tests of lung's oxygenating capacity requires comparing blood oxygen levels in most and least oxygenated points of the cardiovascular system. Where are these points respectively? a) aorta and pulmonary vein b) aorta and pulmonary artery c) systemic veins and pulmonary artery d) pulmonary veins and left ventricle
b) aorta and pulmonary artery
9) Which of the following blood vessels are collectively known as microcirculation? a) arteries, veins, and capillaries b) arterioles, capillaries, and venules c) veins, capillaries, and venules d) arterioles, arteries, and capillaries e) veins, venules, and arterioles
b) arterioles, capillaries, and venules
55) The cardiac cycle proceeds in a series of 5 phases. Identify the phase of cardiac cycle for the state when atria are in systole, and ventricles in diastole. a) passive ventricular filling b) atrial contraction c) isovolumetric ventricular contraction d) ventricular ejection e) isovolumetric ventricular
b) atrial contraction
58) During passive ventricular filling phase, which are the correct states of the heart valves? a) atrioventricular valves are closed, semilunar valves are open b) atrioventricular valves are open, semilunar valves are closed c) all four valves are closed d) all four valves are open
b) atrioventricular valves are open, semilunar valves are closed
51) If QRS complex and T wave represent depolarization and repolarization of ventricles respectively; why is T wave wider and smaller than QRS complex? a) because QRS complex represents force of contraction b) because repolarization is slower than depolarization c) because T wave is a composite of depolarization of atria and ventricles d) because QRS complex is a composite of depolarization of atria and ventricles
b) because repolarization is slower than depolarization
42) What happens when blood flow is turbulent? a) organs get more blood b) blood and blood vessel wall interactions increase c) blood vessels burst, causing fatality d) resistance to blood flow decreases e) blood flow resembles smooth layers gliding over one another
b) blood and blood vessel wall interactions increase
44) The hydrostatic pressure that blood exerts on the walls of blood vessels is known as a) transmural pressure b) blood pressure c) plasma colloid pressure d) mean arterial pressure e) venous pressure
b) blood pressure
43) What happens when blood flows through the systemic circulation after leaving the aorta? a) blood pressure increases b) blood pressure decreases c) blood pressure remains constant d) blood flow becomes turbulent e) blood flow rate increases
b) blood pressure decreases
60) Mean arterial pressure is likely to decrease when a) blood vessel radius decreases b) blood viscosity decreases c) stroke volume increases d) heart rate increases e) β2-adrenergic receptors are activated
b) blood viscosity decreases
20) Which of the following is a similarity between dermicidin and defensin? a) both are produced by sweat glands b) both are antimicrobial proteins c) both are involved in reducing the amount of available iron in the blood d) both are involved in the formation of the membrane attack complex e) both are part of the adaptive immune responses
b) both are antimicrobial proteins
67) What is true about right and left side of the heart during cardiac cycle? a) both right and left ventricles develop the same pressure b) both right and left sides of the heart pump the same amount of blood c) left side of the heart contracts before the right side does d) right ventricle develops higher force of contraction than the left
b) both right and left sides of the heart pump the same amount of blood
51) How can a scuba diver prevent himself or herself from developing decompression sickness? a) by ascending rapidly to the sea surface b) by ascending slowly to the sea surface c) by using nitrogen-free compressed air for breathing underwater d) by using compressed gas with high oxygen concentration e) by ensuring adequate humidification of the compressed air he or she is breathing underwater
b) by ascending slowly to the sea surface
75) Patients with heart failure may be prescribed a beta blocker for their conditions. How is this useful? Inhibition of β adrenergic receptors in the heart causes a) increase of heart contraction force b) decrease of heart contraction force c) no change in heart contraction force
b) decrease of heart contraction force
39) Clonal selection of lymphocytes involves the production of a) eosinophils and basophils b) effector cells and memory cells c) cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells d) macrophages and residual bodies e) antigens and antibodies
b) effector cells and memory cells
28) Cardiac muscle fibers differ from skeletal muscle fibers in that cardiac fibers are a) longer and greater in diameter b) electrically coupled to one another c) multinucleated d) lacking cell junctions called desmosomes
b) electrically coupled to one another
30) The term used to define the normal pattern of quiet breathing is a) apnea b) eupnea c) hyponea d) polypnea e) dyspnea
b) eupnea
44) During platelet activation, phosphorylation of soluble N-ethylmaleimide-sensitive factor attachment protein receptors (SNARE proteins) triggers a) formation of second messengers inositol trisphosphate (IP3) and diacylglycerol (DAG) b) exocytosis of platelet granules c) reorganization of the actin cytoskeleton d) activation of protein kinase C e) release of calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum
b) exocytosis of platelet granules
69) To which muscle does the dorsal respiratory group send action potential? a) abdominal muscles b) external intercostals c) internal intercostals d) sternocleidomastoid muscles e) scalene muscles
b) external intercostals
39) What ion channels in the contractile cardiac muscle fiber are open and conducting during the initial repolarizing phase of an action potential? a) fast voltage-gated Na+ channels b) fast voltage-gated K+ channels c) L-type voltage-gated Ca2+ channels d) slow voltage-gated K+ channels
b) fast voltage-gated K+ channels
9) What happens if the epiglottis fails to function? a) air humidification and warming does not occur b) food or liquid substances flow into the airways c) cilia fail to trap and eliminate foreign particles d) periciliary fluid volume reduces e) the cough reflex for foreign material expulsion does not occur
b) food or liquid substances flow into the airways
45) In cardiac muscle cells, what cellular mechanism is responsible for generating force of contraction? a) interaction between tropomyosin, troponin and myosin filaments b) formation of cross bridges between myosin heads and actin c) shortening of tropomyosin filaments d) actin pulling the intercalated discs together
b) formation of cross bridges between myosin heads and actin
14) Arteries a) carry blood towards the heart b) function as pressure reservoirs c) contain valves d) have thinner walls than veins e) play an important role in the skeletal muscle pump
b) function as pressure reservoirs
36) If the SA node is damaged and stops functioning, what will most likely occur? a) heart rate will increase b) heart rate will decrease c) nobody will notice, heart rate won't change d) the heart will stop without a functioning SA node
b) heart rate will decrease
48) Which disorders of the heart can be seen on an ECG? a) valve defects b) hypoxia of the cardiac muscle c) hypertension d) low cardiac output
b) hypoxia of the cardiac muscle
45) If you have an identical twin, you and your twin are likely to have a) an identical number of B cells, helper T cells, and cytotoxic T cells b) identical major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins c) identical antigens with similar immunogenicity and reactivity d) identical antigen presenting cells (APCs) e) an identical number of effector and memory cells
b) identical major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins
8) Is the pulmonary circulation parallel or in series to the systemic circulation? a) parallel b) in series c) both d) they are independent
b) in series
78) Which of the following would increase the tension produced by a skeletal muscle contraction? a) increased recruitment of motor units b) increased frequency of muscle action potentials c) recruitment of more fast glycolytic muscle fibers d) All of the choices are correct.
b) increased frequency of muscle action potentials
10) Pleurisy is a condition characterized by a) thinning of the parietal and visceral pleura b) inflammation of the pleural membranes c) diffusion of intrapleural fluid through visceral pleura into the lungs d) thickening of the intrapleural fluid e) bacterial infection of the intrapleural fluid
b) inflammation of the pleural membranes
38) The second phase of the contractile fiber's cardiomyocyte action potential is called a) slow depolarization b) initial repolarization c) final rapid repolarization d) slow repolarization
b) initial repolarization
70) A disadvantage of using a vasodilator is that a) it causes contraction of precapillary smooth muscles b) it decreases total peripheral resistance c) it decreases blood flow through capillary beds d) it increases blood pressure e) it increases venous return
b) it decreases total peripheral resistance
26) What is the function of the fibrous skeleton of the heart? a) it helps valves to open and stay open during systole b) it electrically isolates atria and ventricles c) it strengthens the tension of the cardiac muscle d) it makes sure the coronary blood vessels never collapse
b) it electrically isolates atria and ventricles
8) Which of the following is a function of the spleen? a) it filters foreign materials in the human body from the lymph b) it filters foreign materials in the human body from the blood c) it produces hormones that speed up the human body's aging process d) it produces hormones that cause the maturation of B cells e) it produces substances involved in allergic reactions
b) it filters foreign materials in the human body from the blood
90) How does contraction and relaxation in smooth muscle compare to that in skeletal muscle? a) it is faster in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle b) it is slower in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle c) it occurs at the same speed in smooth muscle as in skeletal muscle d) smooth muscle does not relax
b) it is slower in smooth muscle than in skeletal muscle
6) Blood flow through the systemic circulation is "parallel". What is the physiological importance of such an arrangement? a) it makes blood flow faster increasing the speed of delivery of essential nutrients and gases b) it prevents organs from receiving used up blood that has passed through another organ already c) it allows for central unified control of blood flow and blood pressure d) it prevents back up of blood in systemic circulation in case of heart failure
b) it prevents organs from receiving used up blood that has passed through another organ already
9) What organ's blood circulation is the exception to the rule of parallel flow, and one capillary bed between artery and vein? a) brain b) kidney c) heart d) striated muscle
b) kidney (some other places are gastrointestinal and the liver!)
33) Both myeloid stem cells and lymphoid stem cells are produced during the process of a) erythropoiesis b) leukopoiesis c) thrombopoeisis d) vasodilation e) phagocytosis
b) leukopoiesis
69) Imagine you want to produce a finely controlled movement (like picking up a wine glass by the stem). Would it be better to recruit a motor unit with a lower number of muscle fibers, or a motor unit with a higher number of muscle fibers? a) higher b) lower c) either will do equally well
b) lower (MORE PRECISE)
29) Which is one of the functional characteristics of cardiac myocytes that makes them adapted for the hard and continuous work they do? a) each cardiac myocyte maintains electrical independence b) mechanical integrity of the muscle is maintained by intercalated discs c) excitation spreads ONLY through the specialized conduction system d) they rely only on Ca2+ channels for creation of action potentials
b) mechanical integrity of the muscle is maintained by intercalated discs
30) What would it mean if net filtration pressure is -5 mmHg? a) net inward pressure and fluid filtration b) net inward pressure and fluid reabsorption c) net outward pressure and fluid filtration d) net outward pressure and fluid reabsorption
b) net inward pressure and fluid reabsorption
10) Which of the following is a difference between the thymus and the spleen? a) one is bilobed, and the other is bean shaped b) one is surrounded by connective tissue, and the other is not c) one produces hormones to hasten aging, and the other does not d) one is located above the heart, and the other is located near the neck e) one is the site for lymphocyte degradation, and the other is the site for lymphocyte production
b) one is surrounded by connective tissue, and the other is not
20) Glucose is able to pass across capillary walls through intercellular clefts or fenestrations because it is a) highly viscous b) polar in nature c) a lipid-soluble substance d) a large molecule e) anionic in nature
b) polar in nature
79) Epinephrine is often administered in the emergency room to patients admitted to the hospital as a result of the accident. Administration of epinephrine has a) negative ionotropic effect b) positive chronotropic effect c) negative effect on afterload d) negative effect on O2 saturation
b) positive chronotropic effect
13) Which of the following is a function of keratinocytes? a) protecting from harmful ultraviolet radiation b) preventing the entry of water-borne microbes c) producing collagen fibers and glycoproteins d) detecting the presence of foreign materials e) initiating the breakdown of infected cells
b) preventing the entry of water-borne microbes
25) Which of these is a feature specific to the ingestion phase of phagocytosis? a) opsonin b) pseudopod c) phagolysosome d) perforin e) residual body
b) pseudopod
2) Where in the circulatory system would you find blood with lowest oxygen saturation levels? a) pulmonary vein b) pulmonary artery c) aorta d) coronary arteries
b) pulmonary artery
24) Which cardiac valve prevents reflux of blood back into the right ventricle? a) aortic valve b) pulmonary valve c) bicuspid valve d) tricuspid valve
b) pulmonary valve
68) A man ruptures an aortic aneurysm that results in excessive blood loss. What course of action should a doctor take to treat him? a) refer the patient to a surgeon b) replace the victim's body fluids c) treat the victim for glomerulosclerosis d) start the victim on vasodilators e) administer an antihypertensive drug to the victim
b) replace the victim's body fluids
16) Identify the structure shown in the image. It's a picture of a capillary with many, many holes! a) venules b) sinusoids c) fenestrated capillaries d) metarteriole e) arterioles
b) sinusoids
77) Which type(s) of muscle fibers is/are most fatigue resistant? a) fast glycolytic b) slow oxidative c) fast oxidative glycolytic d) All of the choices are equally fatigue resistant.
b) slow oxidative
79) A competitive marathon runner will likely have a higher than average number of which type of muscle fiber? a) fast glycolytic b) slow oxidative c) fast oxidative glycolytic d) equal amounts of all three
b) slow oxidative
83) Which muscle fiber type would you expect to have the greatest number of mitochondria? a) fast glycolytic b) slow oxidative c) fast oxidative glycolytic d) All of the choices have equal amounts
b) slow oxidative
30) What property distinguishes adaptive immunity from innate immunity? a) flexibility b) specificity c) susceptibility d) reversibility e) immunogenicity
b) specificity
30) Autorhythmic activity of the heart is the result of a) innervation of the heart by vagus nerve b) spontaneous generation of action potentials in the conduction system c) response to nerve stimulation of sympathetic nerves innervating the heart d) the interaction of somatic and autonomic nervous systems
b) spontaneous generation of action potentials in the conduction system
18) What causes the alveoli to assume the smallest possible diameter in the lungs? a) airway resistance b) surface tension c) gas pressure d) capillary action e) Poiseuille flow
b) surface tension
*44) Calcium influx into cardiac contractile fibers is responsible for all the following EXCEPT a) the plateau phase of action potential b) the depolarizing phase of action potential c) Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum d) exposing myosin binding sites on actin
b) the depolarizing phase of action potential
52) ST segment on the ECG trace is measured from a) the end of the QRS complex to the end of T wave b) the end of QRS to the beginning of T wave c) the beginning of QRS to the end of T wave d) the beginning of QRS the end of T wave
b) the end of QRS to the beginning of T wave
21) One of the factors that contributes to erythrocytes having a small life cycle is a) the lack of a plasma membrane b) the lack of a nucleus c) their affinity to carbon monoxide d) the presence of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase e) their ability to bind with carbon dioxide
b) the lack of a nucleus
56) Blood is categorized into different blood groups based on a) the hemoglobin concentration of the blood b) the presence or absence of various antigens c) the presence or absence of the Rh factor d) the different types of antibodies present in the blood e) the leukocyte concentration of the blood
b) the presence or absence of various antigens
7) In the skeletal muscle pump, milking is likely to stop if a) the production of blood vessels decreases b) the size of lumen increases c) blood pressure increases d) blood viscosity decreases e) the elasticity of muscular arteries increases
b) the size of lumen increases
65) To which part of the human body does the blood deliver calcium and phosphate ions? a) the respiratory system b) the skeletal system c) the nervous system d) the integumentary system e) the muscular system
b) the skeletal system
9) Identify the true statement about platelets. a) they are nucleated fragments of cells b) they promote blood clotting c) they are formed from primary lymphoid organs d) they can be visualized using eosin e) they are known as band cells
b) they promote blood clotting
64) Why does the heart muscle go through the period of isovolumetric ventricular contraction? a) to increase the contractility of the ventricles b) to develop enough pressure to overcome the pressure in the aorta c) to "top up" volume of blood in the ventricles by contracting the atria d) to give time to the electrical impulses to spread and depolarize the muscle
b) to develop enough pressure to overcome the pressure in the aorta
12) The apex of the heart is normally pointed a) exactly at the midline b) to the left of the midline c) to the right of the midline d) it is different for males vs females
b) to the left of the midline
31) Which factor remains unaffected during the build-up of severe plaque inside the walls of coronary arteries? a) blood pressure b) venous return c) total peripheral resistance d) systolic pressure e) parasympathetic stimulation
b) venous return
53) The ST segment in the ECG corresponds to which mechanical events of the cardiac cycle? a) a pause between ventricular systole and atrial diastole b) ventricular systole c) ventricular relaxation d) ventricular diastole e) nothing in particular, it's a flat line
b) ventricular systole
41) In the formation of a platelet plug, the chemical involved during platelet adhesion is a) thromboxane A2 b) von Willebrand factor (VWF) c) serotonin d) transferrin e) platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)
b) von Willebrand factor (VWF)
1) Which type(s) of muscle can display(s) autorhythmicity? a) cardiac only b) cardiac and skeletal c) cardiac and smooth d) cardiac, skeletal and smooth
c
66) The lower the amount of oxyhemoglobin (Hb-O2), the higher the CO2 carrying capacity of the blood. What is this relationship called? a) Tyndall effect b) chronotropic effect c) Bohr effect d) Haldane effect e) inotropic effect
c) Bohr effect
43) Which of the following activates phospholipase C during platelet activation? a) G12 protein b) Rho protein c) Gq protein d) protein kinase C e) phospholipase A2
c) Gq protein
24) Which of the following statements BEST describes the term bulk flow? a) It is the process in which substances pass across capillary walls by being enclosed in tiny vesicles. b) It is the osmosis of large quantities of fluids and solutes from capillary walls to surrounding tissues. c) It is the movement of large numbers of ions, molecules, or particles in the same direction. d) It is the movement of substances from blood into capillaries against the pressure gradient. e) It is the process by which solute exchange takes placed between blood and interstitial fluid.
c) It is the movement of large numbers of ions, molecules, or particles in the same direction.
37) What is likely to happen if lymphocytes do not undergo clonal selection in response to a particular antigen? a) Lymphocytes are likely to increase in number through other procedures. b) A decrease in the rate of production of cytotoxic T cells is likely in case of another encounter with the same antigen. c) Lymphocytes are unlikely to be available to respond to another encounter with the same antigen. d) A second encounter with the same antigen is highly unlikely because of a primary lymphocyte response. e) Production of B cells in the bone marrow is likely to reduce significantly.
c) Lymphocytes are unlikely to be available to respond to another encounter with the same antigen.
a) Yes, we have to get him to the emergency room as soon as possible. He needs a pacemaker! b) No, we had an exam earlier today and since he slept very little the sympathetic system activation lowered his heart rate. c) No, most likely he has been doing endurance training that slowed his heart rate to match his increased stroke volume. d) Not unless he is on a low carbohydrate diet that causes less action potentials to occur in the cardiac muscles.
c) No, most likely he has been doing endurance training that slowed his heart rate to match his increased stroke volume.
55) What is the difference between pulmonary and systemic gas exchange? a) Pulmonary gas exchange occurs only in the nasal cavity, while systemic gas exchange occurs only in the blood. b) Pulmonary gas exchange occurs only in the blood vessels, while systemic gas exchange occurs only in the lymphatic vessels. c) Pulmonary gas exchange occurs only in the lungs, while systemic gas exchange occurs throughout the body. d) Pulmonary gas exchange occurs throughout the body, while systemic gas exchange occurs only in the blood. e) Pulmonary gas exchange occurs throughout the body, while systemic gas exchange occurs only in lungs.
c) Pulmonary gas exchange occurs only in the lungs, while systemic gas exchange occurs throughout the body.
50) On an electrocardiogram, which wave represents the repolarization of muscle cells of the ventricles? a) P wave b) QRS complex c) T wave d) R wave
c) T wave
25) What happens when ventilation exceeds perfusion in the lungs? a) The CO2 level in the alveolus and surrounding tissue increases. b) The O2 level in the alveolus decreases. c) The bronchiolar smooth muscles contract. d) The pulmonary arteriole constricts. e) The air flow to the overventilated alveolus increases.
c) The bronchiolar smooth muscles contract.
21) A premature infant is undergoing treatment for respiratory distress syndrome. Identify a true statement in the context of this scenario. a) The infant has excessive amounts of surfactant in the alveolar fluid. b) The infant's alveoli are inflating after each expiration. c) The infant's alveolar surface tension is extremely high. d) The infant shows signs of reduced work of breathing. e) The infant shows signs of high lung compliance.
c) The infant's alveolar surface tension is extremely high.
18) During the heart dissection lab, you are supposed to cut the wall of right ventricle first. But you get a little disoriented how to properly position a heart on your table. Nevertheless you make the cut and open the heart. Of the following, which is the best way to recognize that you are in the correct ventricle? a) The walls of the ventricle I opened are thick. b) There are four holes leading to this chamber with no valves. c) The valve inside the chamber I opened has three flaps. d) There is no valve where the large blood vessels attach.
c) The valve inside the chamber I opened has three flaps.
61) Identify the true statement about people with type O blood. a) They are also known as universal recipients. b) They have both A and B antigens on their erythrocytes. c) They have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma. d) They can only donate blood to people with type O blood. e) They are at a higher risk of developing vitamin K deficiency.
c) They have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in their plasma.
14) What is the function of the external intercostal muscles during inspiration? a) They help decrease alveolar pressure. b) They increase the pressure within the thoracic cavity. c) They help increase the volume of the thoracic cavity. d) They help promote elastic recoil of the chest walls. e) They elevate the sternum and the upper two ribs.
c) They help increase the volume of the thoracic cavity.
62) The blood group of a person is B+. What does this mean? a) This person has anti-B antibodies and A antigens. b) This person has anti-B antibodies but no Rh antigens. c) This person has both B and Rh antigens. d) This person has both A and B antigens. e) This person has B antigens but no Rh antigens.
c) This person has both B and Rh antigens.
39) If an individual's blood studies show decreased resistance to blood flow, he or she is likely to be suffering from a) polycythemia b) dehydration c) anemia d) obesity e) malaria
c) anemia
24) Which of the following is likely to occur in the absence of the complement protein C3b during phagocytosis? a) phagocytosis will be suppressed b) monocytes will not convert to macrophages c) antibodies will help to initiate phagocytosis d) B cell proliferation will increase e) pre-T cells will not mature to T cells
c) antibodies will help to initiate phagocytosis
35) Purkinje fibers in the heart are the modified muscle fibers that a) form the high resistance path through the heart b) are a primary pacemaker for the healthy heart c) are able to generate spontaneous depolarizations d) have unusually large number of contractile filaments
c) are able to generate spontaneous depolarizations
23) The tricuspid valve's job is to ensure that blood flows in one direction. If there is a defect of the tricuspid valve, where is backflow expected to happen? a) backflow of blood from aorta into the left ventricle b) backflow of blood from left ventricle into the right atrium c) backflow of blood from right ventricle to right atrium d) backflow of blood from left ventricle to left atrium
c) backflow of blood from right ventricle to right atrium
***76) How does atherosclerosis increase afterload? a) because it dilates the arteries and lowers blood pressure b) because it causes the semilunar valves to close too early c) because it narrows the arteries and increases the blood pressure d) because it increases the venous return volume
c) because it narrows the arteries and increases the blood pressure
53) The rate of blood flow to which part of our body is independent of changes in the body's metabolic demand? a) liver b) kidney c) brain d) skin e) heart
c) brain
59) How does adenosine initiate vasodilation of a coronary arteriole? a) by binding to second messenger cyclic adenosine monophosphate b) by activating a protein kinase c) by binding to an A2A purinergic receptor d) by phosphorylating an adenosine triphosphate-sensitive potassium channel e) by hyperpolarizing the cell membrane
c) by binding to an A2A purinergic receptor
1) A blood vessel with thin, porous walls that facilitate the exchange of substances between blood and body tissues is known as a/an a) artery b) vein c) capillary d) arteriole e) venule
c) capillary
7) The nose helps make the incoming air warm and humid by a) stimulating the lubrication of the respiratory tract lining b) facilitating decreased mucus secretion c) causing a turbulence of the inhaled air d) secreting large amounts of periciliary fluid e) promoting ciliary growth
c) causing a turbulence of the inhaled air
40) Platelet activation involves a) secretion of the von Willebrand factor (VWF) b) adhesion of platelets to exposed collagen fibers c) change in platelet structure d) formation of a platelet plug e) decreased synthesis of thromboxane A2
c) change in platelet structure
69) The first heart sound (lubb) is associated with which of the events listed? a) opening of the semilunar valves b) opening atrioventricular valves c) closure of the atrioventricular valves d) closure of the semilunar valves
c) closure of the atrioventricular valves
45) The series of chemical reactions that culminates in the formation of fibrin threads is known as a) agglutination b) hemorrhage c) coagulation d) transfusion e) thrombopoiesis
c) coagulation
81) Athletes experience the decrease of the resting heart rate as their fitness increases. This so called resting bradycardia is the result of a) decreased sympathetic activity decrease in cardiac motor neurons activity b) decreased oxygen consumption c) compensation for increased stroke volume d) damage to the heart from too much of exercise
c) compensation for increased stroke volume
17) Identify the true statement about the complement system? a) this system represents the first line of innate defense b) complement proteins are synthesized in the spleen and the thymus c) complement proteins are activated in the presence of microbial agents d) this system can be activated in four ways e) complement proteins circulate in the lymph
c) complement proteins are activated in the presence of microbial agents
62) The amount of O2 binding to hemoglobin is reduced when a) partial pressure of O2 is 60 mmHg b) the sites for binding are pulmonary capillaries c) cooperativity is low d) inspired air has high humidity e) skeletal muscles are at rest
c) cooperativity is low
49) When you begin to contract skeletal muscles, which is the first source used to replenish lost ATP? a) glucose b) glycogen c) creatine-phosphate d) fatty acids and ketone bodies
c) creatine-phosphate
77) Deep breathing is one of the nonpharmacological ways to increase activity in the vagus nerve. Activation of vagus nerve leads to a) higher ATP consumption be the heart muscle b) irregular heart beat c) decrease of the heart rate d) increased force of contraction in the heart
c) decrease of the heart rate
97) In smooth muscle, thin filaments are attached to a) Z-lines b) troponin c) dense bodies d) caveolae
c) dense bodies
46) Electrocardiogram is a powerful technique that allows health professionals to look at the heart's a) pumping force b) pressure changes during cardiac cycle c) depolarization and repolarization cycles d) dynamics of blood flow
c) depolarization and repolarization cycles
71) Imagine you are stung by a bee. Why are you likely to exhibit signs of edema? a) due to excessive lymphatic drainage b) due to excessive reabsorption c) due to increase in capillary permeability d) due to inadequate filtration e) due to increased concentration of plasma proteins
c) due to increase in capillary permeability
4) Parallel mode of blood flow means that a) all blood vessels run parallel to one another b) arteries run from one organ to another delivering blood in specified order c) each organ receives equally oxygenated blood from its own arterial branch d) arteries and veins are always parallel to each other
c) each organ receives equally oxygenated blood from its own arterial branch
60) Agglutination is mostly associated with a) T-lymphocytes b) platelets c) erythrocytes d) enzymes e) B-lymphocytes
c) erythrocytes
13) In a patient with hypoxia, the kidneys produce an excess of a) thrombopoietin b) globulins c) erythropoietin d) cytokines e) albumins
c) erythropoietin
72) When you bend your arm at the elbow, the movement is known as a) agonism b) extension c) flexion d) pronation
c) flexion
12) The second step in the image below is unlikely to be seen when an individual....It's a picture of a leg in three positions...Look at the picture on the document! a) has legs of unequal length b) is in a supine position c) has a leg injury d) is cycling e) is running
c) has a leg injury
33) CD4 cells are also known as a) mast cells b) dendritic cells c) helper T cells d) cytotoxic T cells e) B cells
c) helper T cells
48) If you are being treated with the drug desmopressin, you are likely to be suffering from a) reactive hyperemia b) emphysema c) hemophilia d) sickle-cell disease e) leukemia
c) hemophilia
56) Which is a factor that helps maintain an optimal rate of pulmonary and systemic gas exchange in our body? a) minimal functional alveolar surface area for gas exchange b) greater diffusion distance between the alveoli and blood c) higher partial pressure difference between alveolar and blood O2 d) low solubility of CO2 in the blood e) higher molecular weight of O2
c) higher partial pressure difference between alveolar and blood O2
78) Ach secreted from the synapses of the parasympathetic nerve endings in the heart causes a) an increase of the duration of the action potential in SA node b) lower amplitude of action potential in SA node c) hyperpolarization of cells in SA node d) conduction to speed up between atria and ventricles
c) hyperpolarization of cells in SA node
32) An individual undergoes a weight-loss surgery in which the surgeons remove a quarter of the person's stomach. Two weeks after the surgery, the individual develops pernicious anemia. What is likely to have caused the development of this form of anemia? a) excessive hematocrit production b) inadequate hemolysis c) inadequate secretion of erythropoietin d) excessive iron absorption e) inadequate absorption of vitamin B12
c) inadequate secretion of erythropoietin
82) Which of the following factors is responsible for increase of cardiac output during aerobic exercise? a) increased arterial blood pressure b) decreased venous return c) increased preload d) increased heart filling time
c) increased preload
56) The cardiac cycle proceeds in a series of 5 phases. Identify the phases of cardiac cycle for the state atrial diastole, ventricular systole. Select all that apply. a) passive ventricular filling b) atrial contraction c) isovolumetric ventricular contraction d) ventricular ejection e) isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
c) isovolumetric ventricular contraction d) ventricular ejection
49) Why is CO2 more soluble in blood plasma than O2? a) it is lighter than O2 b) its partial pressure is lower than that of O2 c) it is highly soluble in water d) its specific gravity is lesser than that of O2 e) it is a higher affinity to hemoglobin than O2
c) it is highly soluble in water
5) Why is the thymus categorized as a primary lymphoid organ? a) it is the production site for leukotrienes b) it is the production site for monocytes c) it is the maturation site for pre-T cells d) it is the proliferation site for mature B cells e) it is the antigen-presenting site
c) it is the maturation site for pre-T cells
72) The strength of cardiac muscle contraction for a particular preload (ionotropic effect) is regulated by a) degree of activation of motor neurons b) level of amino acids in blood c) level of calcium in blood d) presence or absence of inflammatory mediators
c) level of calcium in blood
1) Blood is a type of a) mineralized tissue b) rigid connective tissue c) liquid connective tissue d) epithelial tissue e) muscle tissue
c) liquid connective tissue
68) Although an individual person's distribution of skeletal muscle fiber types is primarily genetically determined, there exists some evidence that fiber types can change in response to exercise to a limited degree (ie. a slow glycolytic fiber can change to a fast oxidative fiber). If such a change were to occur, which of the following proteins MUST change in some manner as the transition from one muscle type to another occurs? a) actin b) troponin c) myosin d) Ca2+-ATPase
c) myosin
1) Which cell of the immune system would you MOST want to protect from bacterial infections that cause tissue damage? a) eosinophils b) basophils c) neutrophils d) mast cells e) natural killer cells
c) neutrophils
29) Which leukocyte type is the first to respond in the case of an infection? a) basophils b) eosinophils c) neutrophils d) monocytes e) lymphocytes
c) neutrophils
11) Identify the part indicated in the image. It's a picture of a purple rounded circle in a blood vessels.....Look at the picture on document! a) vesicle b) basement membrane c) nucleus of endothelial cell d) lumen e) intercellular cleft
c) nucleus of endothelial cell
16) Hemoglobin is responsible for a) immunity b) blood clot c) oxygen transport d) antibody formation e) erythropoiesis
c) oxygen transport
17) In pericarditis, excessive fluid accumulates in the pericardial cavity impairing heart's pumping ability. An immediate intervention to prevent heart tamponade is inserting a needle and draining the fluid. What layers of membranes would a cardiologist have to puncture to get there? a) myocardium b) endocardium c) parietal layer of pericardium d) visceral layer of pericardium
c) parietal layer of pericardium
29) During the process of inflammation, what would occur if there is inadequate production of adhesion molecules? a) chemotaxin production will increase significantly b) fibrinogen will undergo rapid conversion to fibrin c) phagocytes will continue to circulate in the blood stream d) defensive proteins will migrate back to their production sites e) antibodies will migrate into the lymph instead of the interstitial space
c) phagocytes will continue to circulate in the blood stream
53) In antibody-mediated immunity, antibodies are secreted by a) active cytotoxic T cells b) memory B cells c) plasma cells d) active helper T cells e) memory CD8 cells
c) plasma cells
19) Which of the following is a consequence of the interaction seen in the image? a) activation of the classical complement pathway b) breakdown of the membrane attack complex c) rupture of a microbial cell d) suppressed histamine release e) increased opsonin production
c) rupture of a microbial cell
70) To maintain cardiac output adequate to the metabolic needs of the body in case of heavy blood loss the heart would a) speed up its contraction rate b) increase the contractility of heart muscle c) simultaneously speed up its contraction rate and increase the contractility of heart muscle d) the cardiac output will decrease and only the transfusion of blood can help
c) simultaneously speed up its contraction rate and increase the contractility of heart muscle
86) At low concentrations, the plant alkaloid ryanodine locks ryanodine receptors into a half open state, allowing Ca2+ to flow. How will the actions of ryanodine compare between skeletal and cardiac muscle? a) skeletal muscle will be activated, but cardiac muscle will not be activated b) skeletal muscle will not be activated, but cardiac muscle will c) skeletal and cardiac muscle will both be activated d) skeletal and cardiac muscle will both be activated only if dihydropyridine is also present
c) skeletal and cardiac muscle will both be activated
4) Which of the following takes place during vasoconstriction? a) diameter of the lumen increases b) blood pressure drops drastically c) smooth muscle cells become tense d) vascular resistance increases e) mean arterial pressure decreases
c) smooth muscle cells become tense
62) Identify the true statement about the secondary response. a) the antibody titer is lower during the secondary response b) no antibodies are present after the initial contact with an antigen c) the antibody titer mainly comprises immunoglobulin G d) this response is initiated by effector cells e) antibodies have a low affinity for an antigen on a second encounter
c) the antibody titer mainly comprises immunoglobulin G
62) What is an EDV? a) the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of passive ventricular filling phase b) the volume of blood in the atria before they contract c) the volume of blood in the ventricles after atria contract d) the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of isovolumetric relaxation
c) the volume of blood in the ventricles after atria contract
40) Identify the true statement about memory cells that are produced during clonal selection of lymphocytes. a) they require a costimulator to elicit a secondary immune response b) they are also known as plasma cells c) they are inactive participants in the primary immune response to an antigen d) they die immediately after the completion of an immune response e) they are found exclusively among helper T cells
c) they are inactive participants in the primary immune response to an antigen
25) Identify the true statement about leukocytes. a) they contain the pigment hemoglobin b) they appear pink under a light microscope without artificial staining c) they are nucleated structures d) they transport carbon dioxide in blood e) they function as determinants of various blood groups
c) they are nucleated structures
13) Exposing the pleural cavity to the atmosphere results in a) excessive inflation of the lungs b) negative intrapleural pressure c) uncoupling of the lung from the chest wall d) contraction of the chest wall inward e) elevation of oxygen levels in the blood
c) uncoupling of the lung from the chest wall
2) In the process of respiration, the step in which air flows into and out of the lungs is called a) systemic circulation b) inflation reflex c) ventilation d) bronchoconstriction e) perfusion
c) ventilation
85) What happens to the events of the cardiac cycle during exercise? a) the time for passive filling of the ventricles increases b) the lengths of systole decreases more than diastole c) ventricles contract with greater force d) the preload and stroke volume decrease
c) ventricles contract with greater force
39) What do you get when you add inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume, and expiratory reserve volume? a) total lung capacity b) functional residual capacity c) vital capacity d) inspiratory capacity e) expiratory capacity
c) vital capacity
65) Approximately how many cardiac cycles does the heart complete each day? a) 1 b) 1,000 c) 10,000 d) 100,000
d) 100,000
61) Calculate the ejection fraction for a person with 135 mL EDV, and 65 mL of ESV. a) 65 mL b) 70 mL c) 48% d) 52%
d) 52%
102) Which type(s) of muscle cells contribute to homeostasis? a) cardiac b) skeletal c) smooth d) All of the choices are correct.
d) All of the choices are correct.
103) Sharon has a mutation in the genes for the calcium ATPase pumps that are responsible for pumping Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing the proteins to have decreased function. Homeostasis of which of the following systems will be strongly impacted by her mutation? a) digestive and urinary b) nervous and reproductive c) immune and skeletal, and nervous d) All of the choices are correct. e) None of the choices is correct.
d) All of the choices are correct.
47) Why does alveolar air have less O2 compared with inhaled air? a) Reduced surface tension in the alveoli leads to reduced O2 concentration in the alveolar air. b) The air turbulence in the nasal conchae dissipates most O2 from inhaled air. c) The O2 concentration in the atmosphere is less than CO2 concentration. d) Alveolar air is humidified and, therefore, has more water vapor and less O2. e) Alveolar air is the air in the anatomical dead space that does not participate in the gas exchange.
d) Alveolar air is humidified and, therefore, has more water vapor and less O2.
12) Identify the true statement about the resting phase in a respiratory cycle. a) During this phase, alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric pressure. b) The resting phase is characterized by a flattened diaphragm. c) Alveolar pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure in this phase. d) Alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure during this phase. e) The external intercostal muscles remain contracted during this phase.
d) Alveolar pressure is equal to atmospheric pressure during this phase.
81) Why is a person likely to feel breathless, nauseous, and dizzy at 12,000 ft. above sea level? a) Lungs retain higher volumes of CO2 at high altitudes. b) Higher altitudes result in buildup of interstitial fluid and slow down the rate of gas exchange in the alveoli. c) Cold temperatures at higher altitudes damage alveolar walls and reduce the available surface area for oxygen absorption. d) Blood O2 level decreases due to reduced O2 diffusion into the blood. e) Partial pressure of CO2 in the blood increases due to higher partial pressure of CO2 in the atmosphere.
d) Blood O2 level decreases due to reduced O2 diffusion into the blood.
80) How does the respiratory system contribute to homeostasis? a) It helps the endocrine system regulate pH of body fluids. b) It assists the urinary system in the process of formation of angiotensin I. c) It aids return of venous blood to the heart during expiration. d) It helps adjust pH of body fluids through exhalation of carbon dioxide. e) It helps facilitate bowel movements in the digestive system.
d) It helps adjust pH of body fluids through exhalation of carbon dioxide.
6) What would be a likely consequence if the endothelial lining of capillary walls included smooth muscle cells and connective tissues? a) Passage of lymph consisting of lymphocytes would be restricted. b) Resistance to blood flow would increase. c) The process of milking would be terminated. d) Nutrient exchange and waste emission would be limited. e) The risk for varicose veins would increase.
d) Nutrient exchange and waste emission would be limited.
34) A part of the heart's electrical conduction system found within the ventricular myocardium is called a) atrioventricular node b) atrioventricular bundle c) bundle of His d) Purkinje fibers
d) Purkinje fibers
32) What is the correct order the pathway that the excitation moves throughout the heart? a) SA node - Purkinje fibers - AV node - bundle of His b) bundle of His - AV node - Purkinje fibers - SA node c) SA node - bundle of His- AV node - Purkinje fibers d) SA node - AV node - bundle of His - Purkinje fibers
d) SA node - AV node - bundle of His - Purkinje fibers
59) Identify a scenario where agglutination is likely to occur. a) a person with type A receives blood from a person with type A blood b) a person with type B receives blood from a person with type O blood c) a person with type AB receives blood from a person with type B blood d) a person with type B receives blood from a person with type AB blood e) a person with type AB receives blood from a person with type O blood Answer: d
d) a person with type B receives blood from a person with type AB blood
3) Which of the following functions is exclusively performed by a B lymphocyte? a) cytolysis b) antigen presentation c) phagocytosis d) antibody production e) prostaglandin release
d) antibody production
23) When iron is removed from heme, its non-iron portion is first converted to a) bilirubin b) stercobili c) urobilin d) biliverdin e) urobilinogen
d) biliverdin
63) Which factor has NO influence on the EDV? a) time of ventricular diastole b) arterial blood pressure c) venous return d) blood volume
d) blood volume
34) Which of the following is a similarity between cell-mediated immunity and antibody-mediated immunity? a) both immunities are types of innate, or nonspecific, immunity b) neither of the processes takes place in body fluids such as blood and lymph c) both involve the production of protein molecules by cytotoxic T cells for an immunological response d) both involve the assistance of helper T cells e) neither of the processes is triggered by the presence of an unprocessed antigen
d) both involve the assistance of helper T cells
84) The regulatory proteins for cardiac muscle include a) troponin b) tropomyosin c) myosin d) both troponin and tropomyosin
d) both troponin and tropomyosin
70) You are holding a small textbook in your hand, and you begin to flex your elbow to raise the book. You stop with your elbow flexed at about 90 degrees, and the book held out in front of you. What is occurring in your biceps muscle at this time? a) your biceps is in a state of unfused tetanus b) your biceps is latched c) Ca2+ is elevated in biceps muscle fibers d) both your biceps is in a state of unfused tetanus AND Ca2+ is elevated in biceps muscle fibers e) both your biceps is latched AND Ca2+ is elevated in biceps muscle fibers
d) both your biceps is in a state of unfused tetanus AND Ca2+ is elevated in biceps muscle fibers
54) In the case of tissue inflammation, the release of which paracrine helps regulate arteriole radii and blood flow? a) superoxide radicals b) endothelin c) thromboxane d) bradykinin e) serotonin
d) bradykinin
64) How do you prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn during pregnancy? a) by giving a transfusion of Rh+ blood b) by giving a transfusion of Rh- blood c) by administering prostacyclin intravenously d) by administering anti-Rh gamma globulin e) by administering an intramuscular injection of heparin
d) by administering anti-Rh gamma globulin
65) Which event does NOT occur during the relaxation period? a) calcium is pumped by Ca2+-ATPase b) myosin-binding sites are covered by tropomyosin c) actin filaments extend back to their resting position d) calcium levels are rising in the sarcoplasm
d) calcium levels are rising in the sarcoplasm
67) An individual with a history of atherosclerosis experiences severe chest pain. He or she is likely to go into a/an a) obstructive shock b) vascular shock c) hypovolemic shock d) cardiogenic shock e) anaphylactic shock
d) cardiogenic shock
31) A long-drawn and deep inspiration followed by a strong expiration that suddenly sends a blast of air through the upper respiratory passages is called a) laughing b) crying c) sneezing d) coughing e) hiccupping
d) coughing
2) What is transported by blood from the body cells to the kidneys for expulsion in a healthy individual? a) oxygen b) amino acids c) glucose d) creatinine e) fat
d) creatinine
57) A characteristic feature of emphysema is damaged alveolar walls. What is a consequence of this condition? a) decrease in the amount of air retained in the lungs after expiration b) increase in lung elastic recoil during expiration c) increase in mucus production and secretion d) decrease in the rate of pulmonary gas exchange e) increase in the rate of systemic gas exchange
d) decrease in the rate of pulmonary gas exchange
20) Identify a condition that hastens the development of proerythrocytes into reticulocytes. a) retention of nucleus in proerythrocytes b) increased rate of erythropoiesis c) reduced erythrocyte destruction d) decreased oxygen delivery to tissues e) decreased synthesis of erythropoietin
d) decreased oxygen delivery to tissues
14) Which components of the skin contains cells that engage in phagocytosis? a) sebaceous gland b) sweat gland c) epidermis d) dermis e) fat tissue
d) dermis
27) The largest flow through the coronary arteries can be observed a) during ventricular systole b) during isovolumetric ventricular contraction c) during ventricular ejection phase d) during ventricular relaxation
d) during ventricular relaxation
22) What factors affect lung compliance? a) rigidity and osmotic pressure b) Poiseuille flow and gas pressure c) capillarity and airway resistance d) elasticity and surface tension e) osmolality and surface adsorption
d) elasticity and surface tension
47) ECG provides information about a) end diastolic volume of the heart b) stroke volume c) both end diastolic volume of the heart and stroke volume d) electrical potentials of the heart
d) electrical potentials of the heart
26) If a blood cell stains red-orange for a particular dye, it can be concluded that the cell is a/an a) basophil b) monocyte c) neutrophil d) eosinophil e) erythrocyte
d) eosinophil
17) What will happen if the components shown in the image collapse? (Picture of alveoli) a) the mucus layer will disintegrate b) lung ventilation will increase c) ciliary movement will be impaired d) gas exchange will be impaired e) expiration of oxygen will occur
d) gas exchange will be impaired
6) Which of the following is true about men with low levels of testosterone in their body? a) their rate of leukocyte production is low b) their rate of erythrocyte production is high c) hematocrit is high in such men d) hematocrit is low in such men e) they have low immunity
d) hematocrit is low in such men
18) The end products of the reaction between carbon dioxide and water within the erythrocytes are a) hydrogen ions and carbonate ions b) hydrogen ions and peroxide ions c) hydrogen peroxide and carbon monoxide d) hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions e) carbonic acid and oxygen
d) hydrogen ions and bicarbonate ions
1) Where does the process of gaseous exchange take place in the body during respiration? a) between the parietal and visceral pleura b) in the right primary bronchus c) in the tracheal passage d) in the pulmonary capillaries e) at the nasal conchae
d) in the pulmonary capillaries
61) A process characteristic of the primary immune response is a) decrease in immunoglobulin G b) increase in immunoglobulin E c) decrease in immunoglobulin A d) increase in immunoglobulin M e) decrease in immunoglobulin D
d) increase in immunoglobulin M
5) All of the following are the advantages of parallel blood flow in systemic circulation EXCEPT? a) it allows each organ to receive equally oxygenated blood b) it allows for independent regulation of blood flow to each organ c) it makes sure other organs will keep receiving blood when one of them fails d) it makes sure all organs receive the same volume of blood
d) it makes sure all organs receive the same volume of blood
***61) The organ involved in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is the a) pancreas b) thymus c) spleen d) kidney e) appendix
d) kidney
16) Which of the following chambers of the heart is surrounded by the thickest layer of myocardium? a) right atrium b) right ventricle c) left atrium d) left ventricle
d) left ventricle
26) Identify the second stage in an inflammatory response. a) synthesis of bradykinin b) increase in blood vessel permeability c) conversion of soluble fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin d) migration of phagocytes into the interstitial fluid e) decrease in blood vessel permeability
d) migration of phagocytes into the interstitial fluid
28) What do the arrows in the image indicate? It's a picture of the lymphatic capillary will arrows out in the white space directing it into the capillary...Look at the document! a) the direction of diffusion of plasma proteins b) the pressure gradient between the surrounding cells and the capillary c) the fenestrations on the lymphatic capillary walls d) movement of interstitial fluid into the lymphatic capillary e) movement of lymph into the lymphatic capillary
d) movement of interstitial fluid into the lymphatic capillary
50) In the common pathway, what happens during thrombin's second positive feedback loop? a) von Willebrand factor (VWF) production b) release of tissue factor c) acceleration of prothrombin formation d) platelet activation e) histamine production
d) platelet activation
71) Which component of the respiratory center sets the basic rhythm of breathing? a) dorsal respiratory group b) apneustic area c) pneumotaxic area d) pre-Bötzinger complex e) peripheral chemoreceptors
d) pre-Bötzinger complex
51) Glycolysis results in the breakdown of glucose into a) creatine b) fatty acids c) lactic acid d) pyruvic acid
d) pyruvic acid
22) Which of these is a disadvantage of apoptosis of microbial cells initiated by natural killer cells? a) effective only for bacterial infections b) involves nonspecific antibodies c) not as effective as cytolysis d) requires an additional procedure of phagocytosis e) induces rapid viral replication and translation
d) requires an additional procedure of phagocytosis
8) Arterioles are also known as resistance vessels because of their a) large number b) thick walls c) recoil ability d) small diameters e) large radii
d) small diameters
33) A record of lung volumes and lung capacities is known as a/an a) echogram b) mammogram c) sonogram d) spirogram e) histogram
d) spirogram
69) Identify a symptom of shock. a) decreased blood levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine b) increased urine formation c) high blood pH d) systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mmHg e) increased dilation of skin blood vessels
d) systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mmHg
46) Which of the following statements BEST describes antigen presentation? a) the process of oxidant production by antigenic proteins b) the process where antigens adhere to the walls of body cells using adhesion molecules such as integrins c) the process of continuous proliferation and differentiation of antibodies in response to antigens d) the process in which the antigen-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein compound is inserted into a body cell's plasma membrane e) the process in which antigenic proteins break down into peptide fragments to bind with major histocompatibility complex (MHC) proteins
d) the process in which the antigen-major histocompatibility complex (MHC) protein compound is
7) Which of the following changes related to the immune system is likely to occur in a girl who has begun menstruating? a) the concentration of dendritic cells in the body will gradually decrease b) the spleen will function primarily as a hormone-producing organ c) the lymph nodes will contain a high concentration of T cells d) the thymus's function as a primary lymphoid organ will gradually decline e) the bone marrow will produce large amounts of mature B lymphocytes
d) the thymus's function as a primary lymphoid organ will gradually decline
35) What is the function of a platelet plug? a) to restrict leukocyte transportation b) to prevent the occurrence of inflammation c) to stop blood flow to sites of tissue injury d) to stop blood loss from damaged blood vessels e) to stop the expulsion of nitrogenous wastes
d) to stop blood loss from damaged blood vessels
36) One mechanism that reduces blood loss is a) opsonization b) blood doping c) phagocytosis d) vascular spasm e) agglutination
d) vascular spasm
16) Which of the following acts as a trigger for interferon production? a) viral translation b) nuclear wall lysis c) plasma membrane perforation d) viral replication e) lysozyme production
d) viral replication
60) Under what condition does more oxygen combine with hemoglobin? a) at very high altitudes b) when the partial pressure of O2 is low c) when cooperativity between oxygen and hemoglobin is low d) when the partial pressure of O2 is high e) in the body's metabolically active sites
d) when the partial pressure of O2 is high
31) When do basophils release histamine? a) during hemopoiesis b) during the conversion of carbon dioxide to carbonic acid c) during anaerobic respiration d) when tissue injury occurs e) when blood oxygen level is low
d) when tissue injury occurs
42) In an adult, tidal volume of lungs is 600 mL/breath, and respiratory rate is about 14 breaths/min. What is the average minute ventilation? a) 7400 mL/min b) 8000 mL/min c) 6400 mL/min d) 6000 mL/min e) 8400 mL/min
e) 8400 mL/min
5) Which of the following is a function of periciliary fluid? a) It allows only air, but not food or liquid, into the respiratory tract. b) It facilitates thickening of the mucus along the respiratory tract. c) It acts as the site of gas exchange between the air and blood. d) It causes turbulence in inhaled air in the nasal cavity. e) It facilitates movement of mucus along the respiratory tract.
e) It facilitates movement of mucus along the respiratory tract.
31) Identify the true statement about adaptive immunity. a) It is exclusive of the specific recognition of invading microbes. b) It is exclusive of the property of differentiating between foreign substances and its own components. c) The skin is the most important component of adaptive immunity. d) Eosinophils, neutrophils, and basophils are the only cells of the immune system involved in adaptive immunity. e) It involves remembering the invading agents encountered earlier to initiate a response on consecutive encounters.
e) It involves remembering the invading agents encountered earlier to initiate a response on consecutive encounters.
21) Identify a true statement in the context of capillary exchange. a) It involves movement of substances between lymph and interstitial fluid. b) Erythrocytes are able to pass across capillary walls using this mechanism. c) Blood-brain barriers do little to inhibit capillary exchange in the brain. d) Transcytosis is the most important method of capillary exchange. e) Sinusoids allow capillary exchange of molecules such as plasma proteins and blood cells.
e) Sinusoids allow capillary exchange of molecules such as plasma proteins and blood cells.
63) Identify the true statement about the affinity of hemoglobin for O2. a) Presence of carbonic acid in the erythrocytes increases the affinity of hemoglobin for O2. b) The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 increases with an increase in temperature. c) A decrease in the partial pressure of CO2 causes the affinity of hemoglobin for O2 to decrease. d) Presence of 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate increases the affinity of hemoglobin for O2. e) The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 decreases with a decrease in acidity.
e) The affinity of hemoglobin for O2 decreases with a decrease in acidity.
72) What happens in the respiratory center during forced expiration? a) The inspiratory neurons of the dorsal respiratory group send action potentials for scalene muscle relaxation. b) The pre-Bötzinger complex sends action potentials for sternocleidomastoid muscle contraction. c) Neurons in the pontine respiratory center send action potentials to the diaphragm. d) The inspiratory neurons of the dorsal respiratory group get activated. e) The expiratory neurons of the ventral respiratory group get activated.
e) The expiratory neurons of the ventral respiratory group get activated.
51) How does a lack of activated protein C affect an infant? a) The infant has hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) due to Rh incompatibility. b) The infant suffers from an aggravated case of hemophilia. c) The infant exhibits symptoms consistent with vitamin K deficiency. d) The infant is anemic due to dissociation of iron from hemoglobin. e) The infant dies of blood clots due to interruption of clotting factors.
e) The infant dies of blood clots due to interruption of clotting factors.
27) Why is it easier for cancer cells present in the interstitial fluid to enter a lymphatic capillary than a blood capillary? a) Unlike lymphatic capillary walls, blood capillary walls are lined with smooth muscle cells that prevent the entry of foreign substances. b) Unlike blood capillaries, lymphatic capillaries have overlapping ends that facilitate easier passage for interstitial fluid. c) Lymphatic capillaries have thinner walls than blood capillaries. d) The endothelial cells lining the lymphatic capillary walls facilitate quicker transcytosis of substances than blood capillaries. e) The spaces between the endothelial cells of lymphatic capillaries are larger than the pores of blood capillaries.
e) The spaces between the endothelial cells of lymphatic capillaries are larger than the pores of blood capillaries.
14) Identify the anatomical features associated with the endocardium. Select all that apply. a) fibrous membrane that stabilizes the heart b) a layer that is excitable c) a layer that has extensive network of blood vessels d) a layer made of cells that have many mitochondria e) a layer that is continuous with the endothelium of blood vessels f) a layer that also covers cardiac valves g) a layer made of epithelial cells tightly sealed to prevent any exchange between blood and layer below
e) a layer that is continuous with the endothelium of blood vessels f) a layer that also covers cardiac valves g) a layer made of epithelial cells tightly sealed to prevent any exchange between blood and layer below
***6) What would happen if there was no thymus in the human body? a) erythrocyte production would be defective b) pre-T cells would not be produced c) inflammation would not be an allergic reaction d) phagocytosis would not take place e) aging would be a faster process
e) aging would be a faster process
42) One of the functions of the protein Rho is a) releasing calcium ions from the endoplasmic reticulum b) activating protein kinase C c) synthesizing inositol trisphosphate (IP3) d) activating a type of G protein called G12 e) altering the shape of platelets
e) altering the shape of platelets
56) Identify the circumstance that is likely to cause the onset of active hyperemia. a) an individual getting up from a low chair b) an individual resting c) an individual walking slowly d) an individual meditating e) an individual jogging before a workout
e) an individual jogging before a workout
65) With which of the following do T cells interact to develop self-tolerance? a) erythrocytes b) splenocytes c) eosinophils d) mast cells e) dendritic cells
e) dendritic cells
9) Which of the following cells' function is to process and present foreign substances to initiate an immune response? a) eosinophils b) helper T cells c) fixed macrophages d) mast cells e) dendritic cells
e) dendritic cells
50) A scuba diver breathing air under high pressure is likely to experience giddiness due to the a) intrapleural pressure exceeding the atmospheric pressure b) accumulation of excessive fluid in the pleural cavity c) high partial pressure of O2 under high atmospheric pressure d) low solubility of O2 in the blood under high pressure e) dissolution of a considerable amount of nitrogen in the plasma
e) dissolution of a considerable amount of nitrogen in the plasma
19) Surface tension accounts for a) the increase in the size of alveoli b) the maintenance of mucus volume c) muscular contraction during expiration d) the attachment of the lungs to the chest wall e) elastic recoil of the lungs
e) elastic recoil of the lungs
17) A function of the respiratory pump is a) assisting the skeletal muscle pump b) enabling water and nutrient exchange between cells c) stimulating endothelial cells to perform vasomotion d) regulating air volume during inspiration and expiration e) facilitating the flow of venous blood to the heart
e) facilitating the flow of venous blood to the heart
4) Identify a cellular component found in region A shown in the image. It's a picture of a tube with 3 layers. Its asking for the top portion...Look at the document! a) neutrophil b) stem cell c) platelet d) monocyte e) fibrinogen
e) fibrinogen
32) Which action involves a spasmodic contraction of the diaphragm followed by a spasmodic closure of the larynx? a) coughing b) yawning c) sighing d) sneezing e) hiccupping
e) hiccupping
76) The condition in which the partial pressure of CO2 exceeds 40 mmHg is called a) hyperemia b) emphysema c) hypoxia d) narcosis e) hypercapnia
e) hypercapnia
41) Which of the following are important characteristics of an antigen? a) specificity and selectivity b) proliferation and differentiation c) immunocompetence and clonal selection d) recognition and memory e) immunogenicity and reactivity
e) immunogenicity and reactivity
52) A 45-year-old man undergoes a liver transplant. Three months after the surgery, he is diagnosed with cancer due to a chronic hepatitis B infection. If the patient was on drugs to prevent graft rejection, what process has failed to take place in the patient's immune system? a) self-tolerance b) self-recognition c) immunogenicity development d) chemotaxis e) immunological surveillance
e) immunological surveillance
63) An individual presents with symptoms consistent with pulmonary embolism. What approach should the doctor use to treat the individual? a) inject the patient with ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid b) start the patient on citrate phosphate dextrose c) administer an intramuscular injection of anticoagulants to the patient d) administer heparin to the patient orally e) inject the patient with thrombolytic agents
e) inject the patient with thrombolytic agents
4) Which of the following cells of the immune system are similar in their primary function? a) helper T cells and dendritic cells b) monocytes and B cells c) dendritic cells and eosinophils d) basophils and B cells e) mast cells and basophils
e) mast cells and basophils
28) Identify the type of leukocyte shown in the image. (No granules - just look at the document) a) lymphocyte b) eosinophil c) basophil d) neutrophil e) monocyte
e) monocyt
29) The direction of fluid movement is determined by a) capillary hydrostatic pressure b) interstitial fluid hydrostatic pressure c) plasma colloid osmotic pressure d) interstitial fluid colloid osmotic pressure e) net filtration pressure
e) net filtration pressure
36) Which of the following procedures involves clonal selection of a lymphocyte in response to an antigen? a) chemotaxis and diapedesis b) adhesion and opsonization c) transcription and margination d) replication and translation e) proliferation and division
e) proliferation and division
19) Which of the following is a function of systemic veins? a) draining excessive interstitial fluid from tissue spaces b) initiating immune responses against foreign particles c) transporting immature lymphocytes to sites of maturation d) transporting filtered plasma proteins from the lymph to the blood e) providing reserve blood to tissues during emergencies
e) providing reserve blood to tissues during emergencies
57) What is the role of variable regions in an antibody molecule? a) costimulating of other secreted antibodies b) processing and presenting antigens c) determining the type of antigen-antibody reaction d) facilitating flexibility of the midregion of the two heavy chains e) recognizing and binding to specific antigens
e) recognizing and binding to specific antigens
28) Which of the following enhances the adhesion process during phagocytosis? a) fibrinogen and kininogen b) histamine and chemotaxin c) leukotriene and prostaglandin d) opsonin and bradykinin e) selectin and integrin
e) selectin and integrin
24) What is an effect of emphysema? a) surface area for gas exchange increases b) the rate of O2 diffusion across the respiratory membrane increases c) lung elastic recoil increases with a loss of elastic fibers d) size of the chest cage decreases e) the walls of the alveoli are damaged
e) the walls of the alveoli are damaged
52) A state of partial contraction exhibited by arteriolar smooth muscle is called ____ ____.
vascular; tone
