Imaging Procedures

right ventricle

Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the

lateral oblique elbow

The proximal radius and ulna are seen free of superimposition in the following projection

apposition

The relationship between the ends of fractured long bones is referred to as

1 and 2 only

Types of mechanical obstruction found in pediatric patients include 1. volvulus 2. intussusception 3. paralytic ileus

2 and 3 only

Ulnar flexion/deviation will best demonstrate which carpal(s)? 1. Medial carpals 2. lateral carpals 3. Scaphoid

2 and 3 only

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed 1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula 2. following inversion or eversion injuries 3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

plantodorsal projection of the os calcis

in which of the following positons/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

1 only

in which of the following tangential axial projections of the patella is complete relaxation of the quadriceps femoris required for an accurate diagnosis? 1. supine flexion 45 degrees (Merchant) 2. prone flexion 90 degrees (Settegast) 3. prone flexion 55 degrees (Hughston)

RAO

A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?

1 and 2 only

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following? 1. Sacral vertebrae 2. Thoracic vertebrae 3. Lumbar vertebrae

2 and 3 only

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate 1. a fracture 2. a foreign body 3. soft tissue

to the level of the laryngeal prominence

A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed

1 and 2 only

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best? 1. Radial head 2. Capitulum 3. Coronoid process

1 and 2 only

A radiolucent sponge can be placed under the patient's waist for a lateral porjection of the lumbarsacral spine to 1. make the vertebral column parallel with the IR 2. place the intervertebral disk spaces perpendicular to the IR 3. decrease the amount of SR reaching the IR

Ewing sarcoma

A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

lateral

All elbow fat pads are best demonstrated in which position?

metformin should be withheld 48 hours before IV iodinated contrast studies

All of the following statements regarding the use of iodinated contrast agents with patients taking metformin hydrochloride are true except

the femoral neck

All the following are palpable bony landmarks used in radiography of the pelvis except

right and left lateral decubitus abdomen

All the following positions are likely to be employed for both single- and double- contrast examinations of the large bowel except

The midsagittal plane (MSP) is parallel to the IR

All the following statements regarding an exact PA projection of the skull are true except

single-contrast studies help to demonstrate intraluminal lesions

All the following statements regarding large bowel radiography are true except

The left lung has two fissures

All the following statements regarding respiratory structures are true except

intertrochanteric line

All the following structures are associated with the posteriro femur except

AP erect, both shoulders

An acromioclavicular separation will be best demonstrated in the following projection

contrecoup

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as

myleogram

An intrathecal injection is associated with which of the following examiantions?

hilus

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

right main stem bronchus

Aspirated foreign bodies in older children and adults are most likely to lodge in the

C4

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

2 and 3 only

Below-diaphragm ribs are better demonstrated when 1. The patient is in the AP erect position 2. respiration is suspended at the end of full exhalation 3. the patient is in the recumbent position

2 and 3 only

Central ray angulation may be required for 1. magnification of anatomic structures 2. foreshortening or self-superimposition 3. superimposition of overlying structures

cathartics and cleansing enemas

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for a lower GI series is most likely to be

NPO after midnight

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be

1 and 3 only

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by 1. trauma or other pathology 2. greater than 90-degree flexion 3. less than 90-degree flexion

superior vena cava

Deoxygenated blood from the head and thorax is returned to the heart by the

gastric or bowel mucosa

Double-contrast examinations of the stomach or large bowel are performed to better visualize the

1, 2 and 3

During GI radiography, the position of the stomach may very depending on 1. the respiratory phase 2. body habitus 3. patient position

1 and 2 only

During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate 1. the filling of the ureters 2. the renal pelvis 3. the superior calyces

right lateral decubitus

During a double-contrast BE, which of the following positions would afford the best double-contrast visualization of the lateral wall of the descending colon and the medial wall of the ascending colon?

transverse colon

During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?

LPO

During an upper gastrointestinal (GI) examination, a stomach of average shape demonstrates a barium-filled fundus and double contrast of the pylorus and duodenal bulb. The position used is most likely

2 and 3 only

During atrial systole, blood flows into the 1. right ventricle via the mitral valve 2. left ventricle via the biscuspid valve 3. right ventricle via the tricuspid valve

2 and 3 only

During chest radiography, the act of inspiration 1. elevates the diaphragm 2. raises the ribs 3. depresses the abdominal viscera

subarachnoid space

During myelography, contrast medium is introduced into the

1 and 2 only

Elements of correct positioning for PA projection of the chest include 1. Weight evenly distributed on feet 2. Elevation of the chin 3. Shoulders elevated and rolled forward

1 and 2 only

Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) usually involves 1. cannulation of the hepatopancreatic ampulla 2. introduction of contrast medium into the common bile duct 3. introduction of barium directly into the duodenum

2 and 3 only

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include 1. epicondyles parallel to the IR 2. lesser tubercle in profile 3. suprimposed epicondyles

1 and 2 only

Examples of synovial pivot articulations include the 1. atlantoaxial joint 2. radioulnar joint 3. temporomandibular joint

emphysema

Flattening of the hemidiaphragms is characteristic of which of the following conditions?

Cholecystokinin

Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbaldder?

0 degrees (perpendicular)

For an AP projection of the knee on a patient whose measurement from ASIS to tabletop is 21 cm, which CR direction will best demonstrate the knee joint?

1, 2 and 3

For the AP projection of the scapula, the 1. patient's arm is abducted at right angles to the body 2. patient's elbow is flexed with the hand supinated 3. exposure is made during quiet breathing

midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter

1 and 2 only

For which of the following conditions is operative cholangiography a useful tool? 1. Patency of the biliary ducts 2. Biliary tract calculi 3. Duodenal calculi

AP projection, left lateral decubitus position

Free air in the abdominal cavity is best demonstrated in which of the following positions?

Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position

How should a chest examination to rule out air-fluid levels be obtained on a patient with traumatic injuries?

1, 2 and 3

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of 1. uterine tubal patency 2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity 3. uterine position

2 and 3 only

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include 1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb 2. both joints must be included in long bone studies 3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required

1/2 inch distal to the nasion

In a lateral projection of the nasal bones, the CR is directed

1, 2 and 3

In a lateral projection of the normal knee, the 1. fibular head should be somewhat superimposed on the proximal tibia 2. patellofemoral joint should be visualized 3. femoral condyles should be superimposed

subarachnoid space between the third and fourth lumbar vertebrae

In myelography, the contrast medium generally is injected into the

1 only

In the lateral projection of the scapula, the 1. vertebral and axillary borders are superimposed 2. acromion and coracoid processes are superimposed 3. inferior angle is superimposed on the ribs

occipital bone

In the AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull, with the CR directed 30 degrees caudad to the orbiomeatal line (OML) and passing midway between the external auditory meati, which of the following is best demonstrated?

abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

In the AP axial projection, or bilateral "frog-leg" position, which of the following is most likely to place the long axes of the femoral necks parallel with the plane of the IR?

1 and 2 only

In the AP projcetion of the ankle, the 1. plantar surface of the foot is verticle 2. fibula projects more distally than the tibia 3. calcaneus is well visualized

15 degrees caudad to C4

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

intervertebral foramina nearest the IR

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the structures best seen are the

1 and 3 only

In the lateral projection of the anke, the 1. talotibial joint is visualized 2. talofibular joint is visualized 3. tibia and fibula are superimposed

1 and 2 only

In the lateral projection of the foot, the 1. plantar surface should be perpendicular to the IR 2. metatarsals are superimposed 3. talofibular joint should be visualized

tangential metatarsals/toes

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

medial oblique

In which of the following projections is the talofibular joint best demonstrated?

Internal rotation

In which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

lateral oblique foot

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second cuneiforms best deomonstrated?

compound

In which type of fracture are the splintered ends of bone forced through the skin?

1, 2 and 3

Ingestion of barium sulfate is contraindicated in which of the following situations? 1. Suspected perforation of a hollow viscus 2. Suspected large bowel obstruction 3. Preoperative patients

1, 2 and 3

Inspiration and expiration projections of the chest are performed to demonstrate 1. partial or complete collapse of pulmonary lobe(s) 2. air in the pleural cavity 3. foreign body

parietoacanthal (Water's method) projection

Lateral deviation of the nasal septum may be best demonstrated in the

AP projection

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

adduction

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

2 and 3 only

Myelography is a diagnostic examination used to demonstrate 1. internal disk lesions 2. posttraumatic swelling of the spinal cord 3. posterior disk herniation

AP projection

Narrowing of the upper airway, as seen in pediatric croup, can be best visualized in the

1 and 2 only

Orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories? 1. Bell-Thompson scale 2. Bucky tray 3. Cannula

thyroid cartilage

The laryngeal prominence is formed by the

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Patients are instructed to remove all jewelry, hair clips, metal prostheses, coins, and credit cards before entering he room for an examination in

1, 2 and 3

Prior to the start of an IVU, which of the following procedures should be carried out? 1. Have patient empty the bladder 2. Review the patient's allergy history 3. Check the patient's creatinine level

2 and 3 only

Shoulder arthrography is performed to 1. evaluate humeral luxation 2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear 3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

emergency and trauma radiography

Standard radiographic protocols may be reduced to include two views, at right angles to each other, in which of the following situations?

weight-bearing

Sternoclavicular articulations are likely to be demonstrated in all of the following except

1 and 2 only

Structures comprising the neural, or vertebral, arch include 1. pedicles 2. laminae 3. body

1 and 2 only

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the 1. orbital floor 2. inferior rectus muscle 3. zygoma

1 and 2 only

Structures located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ) include the following 1. cecum 2. vermiform appendix 3. sigmoid

anatomic object(s) of interest is/are in the path of the CR

Subject/object unsharpness can result from all of the following except when

1 and 2 only

Terms used to describe movement include 1. plantar flexion 2. valgus 3. oblique

hiatal hernia

The AP Trendelenburg position is often used during an upper GI examination to demonstrate

2 only

The AP projection of the coccyx requires that the CR be directed 1. 15 degrees cephalad 2. 2 inches superior to the pubic symphysis 3. to a level midway between the ASIS and pubic symphysis

2 and 3 only

The CR is parallel it the intervertebral foramina in the following projection(s) 1. Lateral cervical spine 2. Lateral thoracic spine 3. Lateral lumbar spine

2 and 3 only

The act of expiration will cause the 1. diaphragm to move inferiorly 2. sternum and ribs to move inferiorly 3. diaphragm to move superiorly

30 degree oblique

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)

2 and 3 only

The axiolateral, or horizontal beam, projection of the hip requires the IR to be placed 1. Parallel to the central ray (CR) 2. parallel to the long axis of the femoral neck 3. in contact with the lateral surface of the body

hypersthenic

The body habitus having short and wide heart and lung area and a high transverse stomach is the

a patent ductus arteriosus

The condition that results from a persistent connection between the fetal aorta and pulmonary artery is

pulse

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxationof the heart are called

1 and 2 only

The female bony pelvis differs from the male bony pelvis in the following way(s) 1. The male greater/false pelvis is deep 2. the male acetabulum faces more laterally 3. The female coccyx is more vertical

The occipital bone

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except

2 and 3 only

The four major arteries supplying the brain include the 1. brachiocephalic artery 2. common carotid arteries 3. vertebral arteries

skeletal

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

right iliac

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

aspiration

The inhalation of liquid or solid particles into the nose, throat, or lungs is referred to as

pelvis

The innominate bone is located in the

bregma

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

laminae

The long, flat structures that project posteromedially from the pedicles are the

Nose

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine view?

body

The lumbar vertebral lamina is represented by what part of the "scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

nasopharynx

The most proximal protion of the pharynx is the

gender

The most significant risk factor for breast cancer is

metaphysis

The ossified portion of a long bone where cartilage has been replaced by bone is known as the

serosa

The outermost wall of the digestive tract is the

avoid superimposition on the apices

The patient's chin should be elevated during chest radiography to

midcoronal plane

The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

tangential projection wrist, Gaynor-Hart method

The projection/method often used to detect carpal canal defect is

1 and 2 only

The right posterior oblique position (Judet method) of the right acetabulum will demonstrate the 1. anterior rim of the right acetabulum 2. right iliac wing 3. right anterior iliopubic column

epiphysis

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

T5

The sternal angle is at approximately the same level as the

in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR

The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

distal

The term that refers to parts away from the source or beginning is

hematemesis

The term used to describe the presence of blood in vomit is

turned outward

The term valgus refers to

midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR

The thoracic zygapophyseal joints are demonstrated with the

yellow marrow

The tissue that occupies the central cavity of the adult long bone body/shaft is

1 and 3 only

The true lateral position of the skull uses which of the following principles? 1. Interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR 2. MSP perpendicular to the IR 3. Infraorbitomeatal line (IOML) parallel to the transverse axis of the IR

paralytic

The type of ileus characterized by cessation of peristalsis is termed

1 and 2 only

The type(s) of articulations lacking a joint cavity include 1. Fibrous 2. Cartilaginous 3. Synovial

2 and 3 only

The upper surface of the foot may be described as the 1. planter surface 2. anterior surface 3. dorsum

fourth lumbar vertebra

The uppermost portion of the iliac crest is at approximately the same level as the

toward the affected side

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

the recumbent position

To demonstrate esophageal varices, the patient must be examined in

1, 2 and 3

To demonstrate the entire circumference of the radial head, exposure(s) must be made with the 1. epicondyles perpendicular to the IR 2. hand pronated and supinated as much as possible 3. hand lateral and in internal rotation

a line between the maxillary occlusal plane and the mastoid tip is vertical

To demonstrate the first two cervical vertebrae in the AP projection, the patient is positioned so that

CR is directed perpendicular to the IR

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the

must be supported parallel to the IR

To evaluate the interphalangeal joints in the oblique and lateral positions, the fingers

1 and 2 only

To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should 1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure 2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm 3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98-105 degree F) to aid in retention

1 and 2 only

To reduce the amount of scattered radiation reaching the IR in CR/DR imaging of the lumbosacral region, which of the following is (are) recommended? 1. close collimation 2. lead mat on table posterior to the patient 3. decreased SID

25 to 30 degrees LPO

To visualize or "open" the right sacroiliac joint, the patient is positioned

respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx

Tracheotomy is an effective technique used to restore breathing when there is

2 and 3 only

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that 1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR 2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally 3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly

spondylolisthesis

What is the name of the condition that results in the forward slipping of one vertebra on the one below it?

high and horizontal

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

trochlea

What portion of the humerus articulates with the ulna to help form the elbow joint?

axial plantodorsal projection

What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the planter surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

dome of the acetabulum

What structure is located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

1, 2 and 3

When evaluating a PA axial projection of the skull with a 15 degree caudal angle, the radiographer should see 1. petrous pyramids in the lower third of the orbits 2. equal distance from the lateral border of the skull to the lateral rim of the orbit bilaterally 3. symmetrical petrous pyramids

1 and 2 only

When examining a patient whose elbow is in partial flexion, how should an AP projection be obtained? 1. With humerus parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 2. With forearm parallel to IR, CR perpendicular 3. Through the partially flexed elbow, resting on the olecranon process, CR perpendicular

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following is (are) effective in reducing exposure to sensitive tissues for frontal views during scoliosis examinations? 1. Use of PA position 2. Use of breast shields 3. Use of compensating filtration

cardiac apex

Which of the anatomic structures listed below is seen most anteriorly in a lateral projection of the chest?

1 and 2 only

Which of the following are characteristics of the hypersthenic body type? 1. Short, wide, transverse heart 2. High and peripheral large bowel 3. Diaphragm positioned low

1 and 2 only

Which of the following are components of a trimalleolar fracture? 1. Fractured lateral malleolus 2. Fractured medial malleolus 3. Fractured anterior tibia

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following are mediastinal structures? 1. Heart 2. Trachea 3. Esophagus

2 and 3 only

Which of the following articulate(s) with the bases of the metatarsals? 1. The heads of the first row of phalanges 2. The cuboid 3. The cuneiforms

1 and 2 only

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic? 1. condyloid 2. sellar 3. Gomphosis

1 and 3 only

Which of the following articulations participate(s) in formation of the ankle mortise? 1. talotibial 2. talocalcaneal 3. talofibular

hepatic flexure

Which of the following barium-filled anatomic structures is best demonstrated in the LPO position?

1 and 2 only

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the knee joint? 1. Femur 2. Tibia 3. Patella

2 and 3 only

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen? 1. Ilium 2. Ischium 3. pubis

inferior costal margin

Which of the following bony landmarks is in the same transverse plane as L2-3?

1 and 2 only

Which of the following can be used to demonstrate the intercondyloid fossa? 1. Prone, knee flexed 40 degrees, CR directed caudad 40 degrees to the popliteal fossa 2. supine, IR under flexed knee, CR directed cephalad to knee, perpendicular to tibia 3. prone, patella parallel to IR, heel rotated 5 to 10 degrees lateral, CR perpendicular to knee joint

Osgood-Schlatter disease

Which of the following conditions is limited specifically to the tibial tuberosity?

Hydronephrosis

Which of the following conditions is often the result of ureteral or stricture?

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP? 1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities 2. A fiberoptic endoscope 3. Polyethylene catheters

Hysterosalpingogram

Which of the following examinations involves the introduction of a radiopaque contrast medium through a uterine cannula?

IVU

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following factors can contribute to hypertension? 1. Obesity 2. Smoking 3. Stress

Avulsion fracture

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

use restraint only when necessary

Which of the following guidelines should be followed when performing radiographic examinations on pediatric patients?

1 and 2 only

Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel? 1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA) 2. Stent Placement 3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) appropriate technique(s) for imaging a patient with a possible traumatic spine injury? 1. Instruct the patient to turn slowly and stop if anything hurts 2. Maneuver the x-ray tube instead of moving the patient 3. Call for help and use the log-rolling method to turn the patient

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colle's fracture? 1. Transverse fracture of the radial head 2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid 3. Posterior or backward displacement

2 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in a lateral projection of the cervical spine? 1. Intervertebral foramina 2. Zygapophyseal joints 3. Intervertebral joints

1 only

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP axial projection of the cervical spine? 1. C3-7 cervical bodies 2. Intervertebral foramina 3. zygpophyeal joints

1 only

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur? 1. Patellar surface 2. Intertrochanteric crest 3. Linea aspera

1 and 3 only

Which of the following is (are) part of the bony thorax? 1. Manubrium 2. clavicles 3. 24 ribs

1 only

Which of the following is (are) proximal to the tibal plateau? 1. Intercondyloid fossa 2. Tibial condyles 3. Tibial tuberosity

1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull? 1. The IOML is parallel to the IR 2. The MSP is parallel to the IR 3. The CR enters 3/4 inch superior and anterior to the EAM

1 and 2 only

Which of the following is (are) true regarding radiographic examination of the acromioclavicular joints? 1. The procedure is performed in the erect position 2. Use of weights can improve demonstration of the joints 3. the procedure should be avoided if dislocation or separation is suspected

pulmonary embolism

Which of the following is a condition in which an occluded blood vessel stops blood flow to a portion of the lungs?

flexion and extension laterals

Which of the following is a functional study used to demonstrate the degree of AP motion present in the cervical spine?

intussusception

Which of the following is a major cause of bowel obstruction in children?

oblique the hand no more than 45 degrees

Which of the following is an important consideration to avoid excessive metacarpophalangeal joint overlap in the oblique projection of the hand?

left scaroiliac joint

Which of the following is demonstrated in a 25-degree RPO positon with the CR entering 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS?

radial styloid process

Which of the following is proximal to the carpal bones?

angel the CR 10 degrees posteriorly

Which of the following is recommended to better demonstrate the tarsometatarsal joints in a dorsoplanter projection of the foot?

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint? 1. Scapular Y projection 2. Inferosuperior axial 3. Thransthoracic lateral

2 and 3 only

Which of the following positions can be used to demonstrate the axillary ribs of the right thorax? 1. RAO 2. LAO 2. RPO

1 and 2 only

Which of the following positions demonstrates the sphenoid sinuses? 1. Modified Waters (mouth open) 2. Lateral 3. PA axial

erect

Which of the following positions is essential in radiography of the paranasal sinuses?

LPO

Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

dorsal decubitus position

Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

lateral decubitus, affected side up

Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

tangential patella

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

RPO

Which of the following positions will best demonstrate the right zygapophyseal articulations of the lumbar vertebrae?

30-degree RPO

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral zygapophyseal articulation?

LAO

Which of the following positions will most effectively move the gallbladder away from the vertebrae in an asthenic patient?

patient AP with 30 to 35 degree angle cephalad

Which of the following positions will provide an AP projection of the L5-S1 interspace?

lateral oblique

Which of the following positions will separate the radial head, neck, and tuberosity from superimposition on the ulna?

AP and scapular Y

Which of the following positions would be the best choice for a right shoulder examination to rule out fracture?

45-degree internal rotation

Which of the following positions would best demonstrate the proximal tibofibular articulation?

1 and 3 only

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip? 1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician 2. The AP axiolateral projection should be avoided 3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

AP or PA through the foramen magnum

Which of the following projections can be used to supplement the traditional "open-mouth" projection when the upper portion of the odontoid process cannot be well demonstrated?

AP (medail) oblique

Which of the following projections is most likely to demonstrate the carpal pisiform free of superimposition?

medial oblique 15-20 degrees

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the mortise?

lateral oblique

Which of the following projections of the elbow will demonstrate the radial head free of ulnar superimposition?

PA oblique scapular Y

Which of the following projections or positions will best demonstrate subacromial or subcoracoid dislocation?

2 and 3 only

Which of the following projections require(s) that the humeral epicondyles by perpendicular to the IR? 1. AP humerus 2. Lateral forearm 3. Internal rotation shoulder

AP oblique, medial rotation

Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the tarsal navicular with minimal superimposition?

retrograde urography

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

arteries, arterioles, cappillaries, venules, veins

Which of the following sequences correctly describes the path of blood flow as it leaves the left ventricle?

1 and 2 only

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle? 1. Clavicular body 2. Acromioclavicular joint 3. Sternocostal joint

horizontal beam lateral

Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

sphenoidal

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Water's method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?

submentovertical (SMV)

Which of the following skull positions will demonstrate the cranial base, sphenoidal sinuses, atlas, and odontoid process?

1 and 2 only

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to evaluation criteria for a PA projection of the chest for lungs? 1. Sternal extremities of clavicles are equidistant from vertebral borders 2. Ten posterior ribs are demonstrated above the diaphragm 3. The esophagus is visible in the midline

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements is (are) correct, with respect to a left lateral projection of the chest? 1. The MSP must be perfectly vertical and parallel to the IR 2. The right posterior ribs will be projected slightly posterior to the left posterior ribs 3. Arms must be raised high to prevent upper-arm soft-tissue superimposition on lung field.

1 and 3 only

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding a PA projection of the paranasal sinuses? 1. The OML is elevated 15 degrees from the horizontal 2. The petrous pyramids completely fill the orbits 3. The frontal and ethmoidal sinuses are visualized

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding knee x-ray arthrography is (are) true? 1. Ligament tears can be demonstrated 2. Sterile technique is observed 3. MRI can follow x-ray

completely within the orbits

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct? 1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position 2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation 3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions

1, 2 and 3

Which of the following statements regarding the Norgaard method, "Ball-Catcher's position," is (are) correct? 1. Bilateral AP oblique hands are obtained 2. It is used for early detection of rheumatoid arthritis 3. The hands are obliqued about 45 degrees, palm up

2 and 3 only

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true? 1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR 2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft 3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained

2 and 3 only

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)? 1. Spleen 2. Gallbaldder 3. Hepatic flexure

jugular notch

Which of the following structures is located at the level of the interspace between the second and third thoracic vertebrae?

1 and 2 only

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone? 1. Posterior clinoid processes 2. Dorsum sella 3. Posterior arch of C1

angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad

Which of the following techniques would provide a posterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surface of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?

AP erect

Which of the following views would best demonstrate arthritic changes in the knees?

AP abdomen

Which of the following will best demonstrate the size and shape of the liver and kidneys?

a postpubertal adolescent

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogenous glandular breast tissue?

Internal rotation

Which position of the shoulder demonstrates the lesser tubercle in profile medially?

diarthrodial

Which type of articulation is evaluated in arthrography?

10 to 15 degrees caudal

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15-20 degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

facial bones

With the PA, the MSP centered to the grid, the OML forming a 37-degree angle with the IR, and the CR perpendicular and exiting the acanthion, which of the following is best demonstrated?

15 to 30 degrees caudad

With the patient in the PA position, which of the following tube angle and direction combinations is correct for an axial projection of the clavicle?A

trendelenburg position

With the patient recumbent on the x-ray table with the head lower than the feet, the patient is said to be in the

coronoid process

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

Rami

With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

first metacarpal

With which of the following does the trapezium articulate?

1 and 2 only

which of the following blood chemistry levels must the radiographer check prior to exretory urography? 1. Creatinine 2. Blood urea nirtogen (BUN) 3. Red blood cells (RBCs)

voiding cystourethrogram

which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?