Immunization Delivery Home Study Vaccination Modules
Module 9 - A 16-year-old patient presents to the pharmacy for her first dose of 9vHPV. The patient is instructed to wait in the pharmacy for 15 minutes after receiving the dose. Three minutes after receiving the dose, the patient experiences syncope. What is the recommended response to treat the patient's syncope? • Call the patient's emergency contact to take her to the emergency department. • Call 9-1-1 and wait for emergency services to address the situation. • Lay the patient flat on the ground and elevate her legs. Monitor the patient's vitals and initiate emergency services if the patient does not regain consciousness. • Stand the patient up into a vertical position.
• Lay the patient flat on the ground and elevate her legs. Monitor the patient's vitals and initiate emergency services if the patient does not regain consciousness.
Module 20 - A standing order or protocol should include information about: • The pharmacy workflow and staffing needed to support the vaccination service. • Managing medical emergencies that may occur after administration of a vaccine. • A statement of indemnification for liability. • Details regarding any liability that the signing practitioner assumes as a result of the standing order or protocol.
• Managing medical emergencies that may occur after administration of a vaccine.
Module 23 - Which of the following requires no cost share for the patient and is mainly for those 65 years and older? • Medicare Part D • Medicare Part B • Medicare Part C • Medicaid
• Medicare Part B
Module 15 - Which COVID-19 vaccination has 2 doses administered 28 days apart? • Janssen • Moderna • Pfizer-BioNTech (Comirnaty) • Pfizer-BioNTech
• Moderna
Module 13 - A young adult presenting with swelling of the parotid glands most likely has which of the following diseases: • Congenital Rubella • Measles • Rubella • Mumps
• Mumps
Module 17 - The cold chain for vaccines: • Begins when the provider assumes responsibility when accepting delivery of the vaccine. • Requires that all vaccines be kept refrigerated until they are ready to be prepared for administration. • Applies to vaccines but not to diluents. • Must be maintained from manufacture until the vaccine is administered to the patient.
• Must be maintained from manufacture until the vaccine is administered to the patient.
Module 19 - Which of the following over-the-counter medications may be recommended to treat systemic reactions after vaccination? • Loperamide and bismuth subsalicylate • NSAIDs and acetaminophen • Diphenhydramine and guaifenesin • Dextromethorphan and cetirizine
• NSAIDs and acetaminophen
Module 23 - Which of the following is the correct answer and reason for a 64-year-old patient who asks you if it is better to get their shingles vaccine now or wait till it is covered by Medicare at 65 years? • Now because it must be covered at no cost by commercial insurance. • Wait till 65 years when it is covered by Medicare part B. • Now because it is not covered at 65 years or above. • Wait till 65 years as it is not indicated before 65 years.
• Now because it must be covered at no cost by commercial insurance.
Module 15 - Which of the following is true regarding risk for COVID-19? • Coronary atherosclerosis and other heart disease patients have the highest risk of death. • Older adults and people with underlying medical conditions are some of the patients at highest risk for severe disease and complications. • There has not been an association between number of comorbid conditions and increase in death. • In the workforce, only healthcare professionals are flagged as at high risk for exposure.
• Older adults and people with underlying medical conditions are some of the patients at highest risk for severe disease and complications.
Module 25 - Which setting best facilitates the delivery of a mass vaccination clinic for the general population? • Physician practice • Community pharmacy • Long-term care facility • On-site community event
• On-site community event
Module 7 - A healthy 70-year-old female who received PPSV23 at 66-years of age is inquiring about pneumococcal vaccination. Her pneumococcal conjugate vaccine history is unknown. Which of the following should you recommend? • PCV15 now and then PPSV23 1 year later • PCV13 now • PPSV23 in 1 year • PCV 15 or PCV20 now
• PCV 15 or PCV20 now Patient was previously vaccinated with PPSV23 after 65 years, should receive either one dose of PCV20 or one dose of PCV15, at least 1 year after the dose of PSSV23 is used, it is not necessary to not necessary to repeat the PPSV23 dose
Module 7 - A 14-year-old recently underwent a splenectomy. The person only received the complete PCV13 series as a child. According to the CDC, which of the following vaccines should be recommended? • PCV15 now, followed by PPSV23 in 5 years • PCV20 now followed by PCV15 in 8 weeks • PPSV23 now, followed by PPSV23 in 5 years • PCV15 now, or PCV20 now followed by PPSV23 1 year later
• PPSV23 now, followed by PPSV23 in 5 years
Module 7 - Which of the following is TRUE?
• PPSV23 should not be given to children less than 2 years of age
Module 10 - The whooping cough associated with pertussis occurs in this stage of disease: • Convalescence • Paroxysmal • Initial • Catarrhal
• Paroxysmal
Module 24 - Which of the following best describes the preparation stage of the Transtheoretical Model of Health Behavior Change? • Patients modify their behavior. • Patients are aware that a problem exists and are seriously thinking about overcoming it. • Patients have no intention to change behavior. • Patients intend to take action in the next month to change their behavior.
• Patients intend to take action in the next month to change their behavior.
Module 11 - Which of the following is true regarding varicella zoster transmission? • It is not respiratory transmitted • Covering the lesions will prevent chance of transmission to others. • Period of contagiousness: 1-2 days before rash to 4-7 days later. • The incidence of varicella disease has remained unchanged since vaccinations became available.
• Period of contagiousness: 1-2 days before rash to 4-7 days later.
Module 12 - Which of the following is the reason for the most recent hepatitis A outbreaks? • International travelers • Imported food • Domestic food • Person-to-person transmission
• Person-to-person transmission
Module 21 - Which of the following is true regarding professional liability? • Patients who accept awards from the VICP fund can still file malpractice claims. • Pharmacists should educate and inform patients and their caregivers about the benefits and risks of vaccination. • It is not necessary for a pharmacist to have individual insurance since their place of work would cover them. • Only anaphylaxis needs to be reported to VAERS.
• Pharmacists should educate and inform patients and their caregivers about the benefits and risks of vaccination.
Module 18 - When administering a subcutaneous injection, pharmacists should: • Tell the patient to flex the muscle under the injection site. • Pinch a fold of skin over the triceps muscle • Insert the needle at a 90-degree angle. • Use a 1 to 1-1/2 inch needle.
• Pinch a fold of skin over the triceps muscle
Module 14 - Which disease state(s) can potentially lead to meningitis? • Rotavirus and Polio • Polio and Haemophilus influenzae • Polio • Haemophilus influenzae
• Polio and Haemophilus influenzae
Module 11 - Which of the following complications are correctly matched to the associated condition? • Zoster ophthalmicus-varicella zoster • Pneumonia-herpes zoster • Postherpetic neuralgia-herpes zoster • Ramsey hunt syndrome-varicella zoster
• Postherpetic neuralgia-herpes zoster
Module 15 - Documentation requirements for COVID-19 vaccinations include: • Emergency Use Authorization (EUA) Fact Sheets should be provided after the patient receives the vaccine. • COVID-19 vaccination record cards can be redesigned by the pharmacy. • Only cases of COVID-19 that result in hospitalization or death after the recipient has received COVID-19 vaccine should be reported to VAERS. • Report administration data to your jurisdiction's system (e.g., IIS) within 72 hours after administration.
• Report administration data to your jurisdiction's system (e.g., IIS) within 72 hours after administration.
Module 7 - How is streptococcus pneumoniae primarily transmitted?
• Respiratory droplets or secretions
Module 14 - Which vaccination is NOT part of a combined antigen vaccine? • Haemophilus influenzae • Polio • DTaP • Rotavirus
• Rotavirus
Module 16 - The first step in AHRQ's "SHARE" approach to vaccines is to: • Seek your patient's participation in a discussion. • Ask if your patient has any questions about the vaccine. • Ask if your patient is ready to make a decision about getting the vaccine. • Assess your patient's values and preferences.
• Seek your patient's participation in a discussion.
Module 18 - To prevent errors of vaccine administration, pharmacists should: • Use the same diluent for all vaccines prepared in one sitting. • Memorize vaccine schedules. • Select the appropriate needle length. • Prepare enough vaccine for the entire shift at the beginning of the day.
• Select the appropriate needle length.
Module 16 - If patients believe that influenza vaccines can cause influenza because they were ill after receiving the vaccine last year, pharmacists should educate them that: • It takes 3-4 weeks for the immune system to respond to the vaccine, so it is possible to become ill within that window. • Only immunocompromised individuals can become ill from inactivated vaccines. • Some people experience systemic reactions to influenza vaccine that include mild flu-like symptoms • Influenza vaccine can cause mild influenza infections in some people.
• Some people experience systemic reactions to influenza vaccine that include mild flu-like symptoms
Module 26 - Which of the following facility features is most important for maintaining the cold chain? • Proximity to public transportation • Adequate seating in the waiting area • Access to high-speed internet service • Space for vaccine storage and temperature monitoring
• Space for vaccine storage and temperature monitoring
Module 20 - Which of the following statements about standing orders and protocols is true? • A standing order is similar to a protocol but is usually broader, authorizing the administration of multiple vaccines. • Standing orders and protocols must consider which vaccines may be administered by pharmacists according to state laws and regulations. • Protocols, by definition, apply to all patients within a state. • Standing orders and protocols may be needed for nonprescription products.
• Standing orders and protocols must consider which vaccines may be administered by pharmacists according to state laws and regulations.
Module 10 - Which of the following vaccines is used as a booster every 10 years? • DTaP-IPV • Td • DTaP • DT
• Td
Module 16 - Vaccine hesitancy is defined as: • Lack of confidence in the reliability and competence of the health system. • The delay in acceptance or refusal of a vaccination despite the availability of vaccination services. • The perception that the risk of a disease is low and that vaccines are not necessary. • A lack of trust in the safety and effectiveness of vaccines.
• The delay in acceptance or refusal of a vaccination despite the availability of vaccination services.
Module 25 - After the routine administration of a vaccine, the pharmacy technician should send documentation of the vaccination to: • The National Vaccine Errors Reporting Program (VERP). • The Vaccine Adverse Event Reporting System (VAERS). • The patient's primary care physician. • All of the patient's prescribers in the pharmacy's records.
• The patient's primary care physician.
Module 15 - Which of the following is true regarding 3rd dose and booster doses for COVID-19? • The third dose and booster dose recommendations for immunocompromised patients are only for mRNA vaccines. • Booster doses for all COVID-19 vaccinations are given 6 months after completing the primary series. • A homologous booster dose is a subsequent dose of the vaccine that is a different product than the primary series. • Booster doses must always be from the same product as the primary series.
• The third dose and booster dose recommendations for immunocompromised patients are only for mRNA vaccines.
Module 23 - The Vaccine for Children (VFC) program pays for which of the following? • The administration fee • The refrigerator needed to store the vaccine • The vaccine administration supplies • The vaccine
• The vaccine
Module 11 - Which of the following correctly describes current ACIP recommendations? • The varicella zoster vaccine should be given at birth. • The varicella zoster vaccine should be given at 12-15 months and 4-6 years of age. • The herpes zoster vaccine should be given to patients ≥40 years. • Patients ≥ 13 years without prior evidence of immunity should only receive one dose of varicella zoster vaccine.
• The varicella zoster vaccine should be given at 12-15 months and 4-6 years of age.
Module 13 - Which of the following is the primary reason we have measles outbreaks in the U.S.? • Unvaccinated people with measles coming to the U.S. • There is a shortage of MMR vaccine in the U.S. • Low MMR vaccination rates nationally • Low effectiveness of the MMR vaccine
• Unvaccinated people with measles coming to the U.S.
Module 18 - When administering an intramuscular injection, pharmacists should: • Use a 22- to 25-gauge needle. • Tell patients to flex the muscle into which the vaccine will be injected. • Administer the vaccine in the deltoid or gluteus maximus. • Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.
• Use a 22- to 25-gauge needle.
Module 17 - When storing vaccines in the refrigerator, pharmacists should: • Use dorm-style units. • Keep vaccines and food on separate shelves. • Use water bottles to help stabilize temperatures. • Store vaccines on the bottom of the refrigerator.
• Use water bottles to help stabilize temperatures.
Module 21 - The program which collects data regarding errors of vaccine handling and administration is called: • VERP • VAERS • VICP • VIT
• VERP
Module 21 - Which of the following is an example of a common vaccine administration error? • Receiving a second dose of a vaccine in the opposite arm that the first dose was received in. • Administering a vaccine 3 days after it was due. • Wrong vaccine, route, site, or dosage; or improperly prepared. • Providing a vaccination while the patient is standing.
• Wrong vaccine, route, site, or dosage; or improperly prepared.
Module 13 - During a public health declared mumps outbreak, a 21-year-old college student with a history of 2 MMR vaccine doses as a child wants to know if she needs a dose of MMR now. Which of the following is the best response? • No, as a third dose of MMR is only for measles outbreaks. • Yes, since all college students should have 3 doses of MMR. • Yes, since there is a declared mumps outbreak. • No, as a third dose of MMR is only for rubella outbreaks.
• Yes, since there is a declared mumps outbreak.
Module 17 - Which of the following vaccines must be frozen? • Live attenuated influenza • Zostavax • Inactivated influenza • Tdap
• Zostavax
Module 14 - Which of the following patients is eligible to receive their first dose of the rotavirus vaccine? • An 8-month-old • A 10-week-old presenting to the pediatrician for their 2-month well check. • A newborn 3 days age before leaving the hospital • A 1-year-old with severe GERD
• A 10-week-old presenting to the pediatrician for their 2-month well check.
Module 24 - Which of the following best describes the definition of "vaccine hesitancy"? • Patients who express a desire to receive a vaccine, but then refuse due to fear of needles. • A delay in the acceptance of, or refusal of, a vaccination despite availability of vaccination services. • When patients do not receive vaccinations due to misinformation. • Refusal to receive vaccinations due to religious beliefs.
• A delay in the acceptance of, or refusal of, a vaccination despite availability of vaccination services.
Module 15 - A contraindication to receiving a COVID-19 vaccination includes: • People with a contraindication to mRNA COVID-19 vaccines who request the Janssen COVID-19 vaccine. • A known (diagnosed) allergy to a component of a COVID-19 vaccine. • Any immediate allergic reaction to other vaccines or injectable therapies. • Receipt of COVID-19 vaccine the same day the patient receives an influenza vaccination.
• A known (diagnosed) allergy to a component of a COVID-19 vaccine.
Module 20 - Which of the following best describes a standing order? • A directive from a third-party payer indicating that pharmacists can be reimbursed for administering vaccines. • The order of steps that must be followed when administering a vaccine. • A preapproved document signed by a collaborating physician who authorizes the pharmacist to administer a vaccine. • An order from the state board of pharmacy allowing pharmacists to administer vaccines.
• A preapproved document signed by a collaborating physician who authorizes the pharmacist to administer a vaccine.
Module 18 - When reconstituting a vaccine for injection, pharmacists should: • Always withdraw the entire contents from the reconstituted vial. • Always shake the diluent prior to reconstitution. • Always shake the vaccine prior to reconstitution. • Always refer to the vaccine's package insert for specific information.
• Always refer to the vaccine's package insert for specific information.
Module 18 - When preparing vaccines for administration, pharmacists should: • Always use aseptic technique. • Reuse needles and syringes if multiple vaccines are administered to the same patient. • Prepare all vaccines in a multi-dose vial at the same time. • Prepare enough vaccine for the entire shift at the beginning of the day.
• Always use aseptic technique.
Module 8 - Which of the following is a potential long term complication from meningococcal disease? • Stiff neck • Headache • Amputations • Photophobia
• Amputations
Module 23 - According to the Affordable Care Act, which of the following must be covered without cost-share to the patient? • A vaccine using Medicare Part D. • An ACIP routinely recommended vaccine. • A vaccine from an Out of Network provider. • An ACIP recommended travel vaccine
• An ACIP routinely recommended vaccine.
Module 19 - In a patient experiencing anaphylaxis, pharmacists should administer epinephrine: • Only in conjunction with diphenhydramine • As a first-line treatment • Every 2 minutes until EMS arrives • Intramuscularly in the deltoid
• As a first-line treatment
Module 25 - A pharmacy technician may perform which of the following roles? • Ask patients to complete screening questionnaires. • Educate patients about the risks of vaccines. • Make clinical judgements about a patient's health. • Determine whether a vaccine is appropriate for a patient.
• Ask patients to complete screening questionnaires.
Module 21 - IISs have been shown to increase immunization rates and reduce vaccine-preventable diseases by: • Requiring all vaccines for pediatric, adolescent, and adults be entered. • Tracking vaccine adverse events. • Assisting in vaccination status assessment. • All states reporting into the same vaccination registry.
• Assisting in vaccination status assessment.
Module 12 - What is youngest age that hepatitis B vaccine is recommended in infants and children? • 6 months • At birth • 1 year • 4 weeks
• At birth
Module 11 - Which of the following are true regarding vaccine efficacy and safety for the live varicella vaccine and the recombinant zoster vaccine? • Injection site pain for both vaccines was <5%. • Systemic grade 3 reactions (preventing normal activities) were lower after dose 2 for the recombinant zoster vaccine. • Both vaccines have over 90% effectiveness in prevention of disease after two doses. • Postherpetic neuralgia was not reduced in patients >70 years of age receiving the recombinant zoster vaccine.
• Both vaccines have over 90% effectiveness in prevention of disease after two doses.
Module 24 - Which of the following best describes how to roll with resistance? • Tell patients that you believe in their ability to change. • Explain to the patient the errors in their thinking. • Change strategies to avoid arguing with patients. • Use open-ended questions and reflective statements.
• Change strategies to avoid arguing with patients.
Module 12 - Which of the following is a clinical feature of hepatitis B but not hepatitis A? • Fulminant hepatitis • Dark urine • Chronic infection • Jaundice
• Chronic infection
What type of vaccine is meningococcal quadrivalent vaccine? • Recombinant • Polysaccharide • Viral vector • Conjugate
• Conjugate
Module 7 - Using shared clinical decision-making, which following recommendation is most appropriate for a 68-year-old living in a skilled nursing facility with multiple co-morbid conditions? this patient has received a previous dose of PCV13 at age 65 and PPSV23 at age 66.
• Consider PCV20 at age 71
Module 22 - Westend Pharmacy is launching an immunization program next month. The pharmacy manager, John, has a list of items that still need to be completed. Which item below is not required by OSHA to be completed before implementing the program? • Implement a method for sharps disposal, including having sharps containers available at the pharmacy and a system or vendor to dispose of full containers. • Evaluate employees with potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens for Hepatitis B vaccination status and ensure immunizers have at least one dose prior to administering vaccines. • Ensure safety devices are available for vaccinators to use while administering immunizations. • Create a network with local physicians to refer patients to the new immunization program.
• Create a network with local physicians to refer patients to the new immunization program.
Module 22 - The OSHA Exposure Control Plan is used by employers to achieve what goal? • Improve employee health and wellness. • Develop a team-based environment that fosters creativity and collaboration. • Create a process of controls that aims to eliminate or minimize employee's potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace. • Creates a system for Human Resources to monitor employee health at the workplace.
• Create a process of controls that aims to eliminate or minimize employee's potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens in the workplace.
Module 19 - Which of the following is considered a systemic symptom of anaphylaxis? • Diarrhea and vomiting • Headache • Myalgia • Fever
• Diarrhea and vomiting
Module 21 - The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 established national vaccine documentation requirements which include: • Site of injection. • Edition date of the Vaccine Information Statement (VIS) • The patient/caregiver must be given a Vaccine • Information Statement (VIS) for only the first dose in a series. • Documentation of informed consent.
• Edition date of the Vaccine Information Statement (VIS)
Module 22 - Which statement is true regarding gloves and handwashing? • It is recommended to keep gloves on for the duration of a clinic and not change them between patients. • Employers must make available to employees appropriately sized gloves and a hand washing facility or antiseptic hand cleansers for employees to use while providing immunizations. • Gloves are required to be worn while administering vaccines by the CDC and OSHA. • Pharmacists do not need to wash or use antiseptic cleansers on their hands while providing immunizations if they are wearing gloves.
• Employers must make available to employees appropriately sized gloves and a hand washing facility or antiseptic hand cleansers for employees to use while providing immunizations.
Module 17 - Why is it important to preserve the cold chain for vaccines? • Vaccines stored at temperatures outside the recommended range are more likely to cause systemic adverse events. • Exposure to heat, cold, or light outside recommended ranges can reduce vaccine potency. • Maintaining the cold chain extends the shelf-life for vaccines. • Vaccines stored at temperatures outside the recommended range are more likely to cause localized adverse events.
• Exposure to heat, cold, or light outside recommended ranges can reduce vaccine potency.
Module 19 - An adverse event that is considered a systemic reaction to a vaccine is: • Angioedema • Wheezing • Fever • Tenderness
• Fever
Module 10 - Which of the following is the most common type of tetanus? • Local • Cephalic • Generalized • Neonatal
• Generalized
Module 16 - A simple way to communicate information about risks and benefits of vaccines to all patients is to: • Offer town-hall style events for your community to ask questions about vaccines • Give them Vaccine Information Statements • Recommend patients do their own research online prior to their vaccine appointment • Schedule a 10-minute counseling session prior to each vaccine
• Give them Vaccine Information Statements
Module 9 - Which of the following factors does not need to be considered when utilizing shared decision-making to evaluate the need to vaccinate an adult (27-45 years of age) with 9vHPV vaccine? • Patient's immunocompetency • HPV antibody test results • Patient's sexual history, including lifetime sexual partners. • Patient current relationship status
• HPV antibody test results
Module 24 - Health literacy is considered a part of which domain of social determinants of health? • Neighborhood and built environment • Social and community context • Health care access • Economic stability
• Health care access
Module 12 - Post-vaccination testing for hepatitis b immunity is recommended for which of the following? • Adolescents • IV drug users • Health-care workers • Men who have sex with men
• Health-care workers
Module 8 - Which of the following scenarios is an appropriate shared clinical decision-making for meningococcal vaccine? • 29 year old with asplenia who receives MenB vaccine • 25 year old microbiologist who receives MenACWY • 2-year old with complement deficiency who received MenACWY • Healthy 16 year old who received meningococcal B vaccine
• Healthy 16 year old who received meningococcal B vaccine
Module 7 - For which of the following conditions would PPSV23 be recommended today, assuming the following patients had no prior pneumococcal vaccines aside from the routine pediatric series?
• Healthy 57-year old who received PCV15 1 year ago
Module 22 - Which vaccine is required by OSHA to be offered to all employees with potential exposure to bloodborne pathogens? • Hepatitis A vaccine • Influenza vaccine • Hepatitis B vaccine • Tetanus containing vaccine per current ACIP recommendations (Td or Tdap)
• Hepatitis B vaccine
Module 12 - Which of the following vaccines contains a synthetic adjuvant? • Heplisav • Engerix • Havrix • Recombivax
• Heplisav
Module 9 - Which of the below statements regarding Human papillomavirus (HPV) serotypes is true? • There are only 9 known serotypes of HPV. • High risk serotypes are estimated to cause 99% of cervical precancers • HPV is a small RNA virus transmitted via sexual skin to skin contact. • HPV low risk serotypes, such as type 16, cause about 50% of all cervical cancer cases worldwide.
• High risk serotypes are estimated to cause 99% of cervical precancers
Module 23 - What type of code is used to identify the diagnosis for a patient receiving a vaccine? • ACIP • NCPDP • ICD-10 • CPT
• ICD-10
Module 14 - A patient presents to the pediatric clinic for their 5-year-old well check before entering kindergarten. They received rotavirus at 2 and 4 months and Pentacel (DTaP/IPV/Hib) at 2 and 4 and 6 and 15 months. What vaccine should they need to receive today? • Rotavirus • IPV • Another dose of Pentacel • Hib
• IPV
Module 20 - Which of the following organizations provides standing order templates? • Public Health Institute • National Institutes of Health • Immunization Action Coalition • Infectious Diseases Society of America
• Immunization Action Coalition
Module 20 - An important benefit of standing orders and protocols is that they: • Improve patient access to vaccines and efficiency of services. • Allow for pharmacists to bill as providers for Medicare Part D. • Provide education to patients about the risks and benefits of vaccines. • Ensure that all members of a patient's health care team are informed of vaccines.
• Improve patient access to vaccines and efficiency of services.
Module 22 - Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a reminder and recall system? • Incentivizes patients to make a primary care appointment. • Provides continuity of care • Complies with ACIP recommendations • Helps improve immunization rates
• Incentivizes patients to make a primary care appointment.
Module 15 - Which if the following is true regarding transmission of SARS-CoV-2? • Is not transmitted through contaminated surfaces or objects • Infected individuals who may be presymptomatic, asymptomatic, or symptomatic can transmit the virus. • It is only spread through respiratory droplets • Incubation period is 14 days (range 7-14 days)
• Infected individuals who may be presymptomatic, asymptomatic, or symptomatic can transmit the virus.
Module 25 - Which of the following vaccines would be best delivered in a mass vaccination clinic? • Influenza vaccine • Meningitis vaccines • Tetanus/diphtheria/pertussis vaccine • Herpes zoster vaccine
• Influenza vaccine
Module 16 - Post-vaccination counseling for patients should include: • A review of all steps in the shared decision-making process • A discussion of the risks and benefits of the vaccine • Warnings to self-isolate for 48 hours so that the vaccine does not spread disease to others • Information about adverse reactions that require contact with the health care system
• Information about adverse reactions that require contact with the health care system
Module 11 - Which of the following is true regarding the recombinant herpes zoster vaccination? • It is indicated for prevention of herpes zoster and its complications in patients ≥50 years of age. • It cannot be given to someone who has had the varicella vaccine. • It is approved as a treatment of herpes zoster if administered within 48 hours of onset of symptoms. • It should not be given to someone who previously received the zoster vaccine live.
• It is indicated for prevention of herpes zoster and its complications in patients ≥50 years of age.
Module 25 - A potential advantage of accommodating walk-in vaccines, compared with only scheduling appointments, is that: • It helps the patient receive multi-dose series vaccines according to the recommended schedule. • It allows the pharmacy to ensure that enough vaccine is on hand. • It may allow greater flexibility and convenience for the patient. • It allows the pharmacy to ensure adequate staffing to support demand.
• It may allow greater flexibility and convenience for the patient.
Module 9 - What percentage of HPV infections are cleared by the body and do not develop to CIN2 or CIN3? • 70% • 54% • 92% • 38%
• 70%
Module 17 - Refrigerated vaccines should be maintained at temperatures between: • 32°F and +40°F • 35°F and +46°F • 33°F and +40°F • 34°F and +42°F
• 35°F and +46°F
Module 24 - Which of the following statements best illustrates the affirmation skill in motivational interviewing? • "It sounds like that was a really frustrating experience for you." • "What information do you have about this disease?" • "Can you tell me more about your concerns?" • "Thank you for sharing your concerns with me, I enjoyed speaking with you today"
• "Thank you for sharing your concerns with me, I enjoyed speaking with you today"
Module 13 - When counseling the parent of a 1-year-old receiving the MMR vaccine, they should be told that their child may get a measles-like rash after how long from vaccination? • 6 weeks • 48 hours • 1 week • Immediately
• 1 week
The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) recommends routine vaccination with the meningococcal conjugated quadrivalent vaccine (MenACWY) in which of the following age groups? • 7-8 years of age • 2-3 years of age • 11-12 years of age • 4-6 years of age
• 11-12 years of age
Module 12 - ACIP recommends the hepatitis A vaccine be administered to all children starting at which age? • 12 months • 11 years • 6 months • 5 years
• 12 months
Module 14 - Although the primary series for Hib varies between 2-3 doses, all vaccines are recommended to have a booster dose at age: • A booster is not recommended • 12-15 months • 4-6 years • 2 years
• 12-15 months
Module 8 - An adolescent received his first meningococcal conjugate quadrivalent (MenACWY) vaccine at age 13 years, when should he receive his booster dose? • No booster is needed • 20 years • 16 years • 14 years
• 16 years
Module 13 - A child received the MMR vaccine when he was 9 months of age before moving out of the country with his parents. He is now 4 years old and about to enter Kindergarten. How many, if any, doses of MMR should the child receive now? • 2 • 1 • 3 • None
• 2
Module 10 - DTaP is recommended to be administered using which of the following schedules? • 7-10 years • 2, 4, 6, 12-15 months, 4-6 years • 2, 4, 12-15 months • 11-12 years
• 2, 4, 6, 12-15 months, 4-6 years
Module 13 - Which of the following individuals are contraindicated from receiving the MMR vaccine? • 75-year-old with COPD • 50-year-old with a low platelet count • 23-year-old in her 3rd trimester • 30-year-old with asplenia
• 23-year-old in her 3rd trimester
Module 10 - What is the recommended timing for Tdap during pregnancy? • 27-36 weeks • 13-26 weeks • 1-12 weeks • Before pregnancy
• 27-36 weeks
Module 9 - A 25-year-old female comes to the pharmacy inquiring about the 9vHPV series. What would be the recommended vaccination series? • 3 doses administered intramuscularly at 0, 1-2, 6 months • Patient is not eligible to receive the vaccine due to age • 1 dose administered intramuscularly • 2 doses administered intramuscularly at 0 and 6-12 months
• 3 doses administered intramuscularly at 0, 1-2, 6 months
