Immuno exam - 1,2,3,4,5 (allt saman)

12. Vaccination can produce autoimmune disease.,is not needed because the disease against that they protect are eradicated -no more present of the world. These statements are A. true -based on immunological and epidemiological studies B. correct -based on immunological surveys C. flase and presented by antivaccination activitists D. are not well studied and that is why they can be tolerated E. are well studied and should be propagated

?

CD4+ T respnding to intracellular pathogen by activation and aggregation of phagocyting cells are A. APC B. CTL -cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. Th0 cells D. NK cells E. Th2 cells These answers does not make sense, since the correct answer is Th1,which is not even an option here. APC are not T-cells, CLT are CD8+, NK cells are not T-cells either and Th0 and Th2 are CD4+cells, but does not engage in this activity

?

Host versus graft reaction is A. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow B. Typical for reaction in second transplantation C. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno D. Characterised by existence of memory cells E. All answers are correct

?

NKT cell(The answers in this question corresponds with the answers in q.9.5 from Lippincotton page 120, butthat question refers to the γδT cell, and not the NKT cell) If the question really refers to the γδTcell, the annswer is D, if it reffers to the NKT cell, I think the answer is B A. can recognise many different antigens B. has surface membrane markers characteristic forNK cells C. changes to memory cells during reexposition to an antigen D. migrates mostly to respiratory organs, skin and peritoneal cavity E. produces slowlier answer to antigen than NK cells do

?

1.2 NK - natural killer identifie the abnormalities on cells by detecting the amount of A. MHC I molecules

A

11.1 Production of of visible aggregates to identify blood groupes by binding IgM with apropriate A or B antigens is: A. aglutination B. complement aktivation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

A

11: Molecule of T cell receptore (TCR) is parallel to a) Fab fragment of IgG b) Fc fragment of IgG c) MHC I d) MHC II

A

12. Exotoxín a) Is immunogenic b) Is the synonyme to toxoid c) Is neutralised by anatoxin d) Is a part of vaccine against tetanus

A

13. To detect corpuscular antigen we use mostly: A. agglutination methods B. precipitation methods C. diffusion method

A

13.11 Which of mentioned type of vaccine will elicit the most protective immunity A. attenuated live virus vaccine B. DNA vakcine C. Killed virus in vaccine D. Rekombinant vaccine E. Subunit vaccine

A

13.6 Molecule of acute phase of infection synthesised in liver during bacterial and viral infection is A. CRP B. Chemokin C. Complement D. Immunoglobulin E. Interleukin

A

13.7 Which of mentioned isotype is consistent with mucous membrane immunity A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM

A

13.9 Even unvaccinated child can be protected against some of vaccination preventable diseases because of A. Herd immunity B. Genetical predisposition C. Antigenic shift D. Imunity escape E. Tolerance

A

14. In serotypisation we detect A. antigenic structure of bacteria with the help of antibodies B. specific immunity with the help of antigens

A

14.2 Patient with history of PNC allergy was given the dose in PNC injection. In minutes the symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, diffuse exanthema arised. She suffered from: A. Anaphylactic reaction B. Anergy C. ADCC D. Ashtma E. Contact hypersensitivity

A

14.4 A patient with known allergy ate unconsciously the cake with peanuts that resulted in diffus exanthema, respiratory distress and diffuse lung symptoms This is typical for: A. hypersensitivity I. Type B. arthus reaction C. serum disease D. IgG binding on extraceluluar matrix in respiratory tract mucous membrane E. IgM dependent disease from immunocomplexes

A

15.1 Imunodeficiency caused by genetic or innate impairment is A. primary B. secondary C. always lethal D. not detectable E. all answers are correct

A

15.2 Secondary immunodeficiency is not consistent with A. Di Geoerge sy B. malnutrition C. HIV infection D. Immunosupresive therapy E. All answers are correct

A

15.5 Deficiency in B cells line is presented by A. Problems in specific humoral immunity B. Problemsin non-specific cellular immunity C. Problems in ADCC D. Problems with DTH E. Several possibilities are correct (if yes which)

A

15.6 Problems with ingestion and degradation of antigen is the deficit fo A. phagocyting cells B. NK cellsk C. T cells D. B cells E. All answers are correct

A

16. 13. A 55-year-old female presents with complaints of pain and stiffness in her hands and wrists that oc curs mainly in the morning. Examination reveals tenderness and swelling in both wrists and hands. Testing reveals the presence of rheumatoid factor. The patient is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. Resulting injury that will likely occur in this patient will result from A. both cell mediated and humoral immunity. B. both type II and type Ill hypersensitivity. C. lgE-mediated immune responses only. D. self-tolerance. E. E. type II hypersensitivity only.

A

16. Specific IgM antibodies in serum from the blood taken from umbilical cord is indicating a) Intrauterine infection of the fetus b) Transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother c) Perinatal infection d) Postnatal infection

A

16.1 Deficiency to inactivate and eliminate of autoreactive cells is the result of A. autoimmunity B. positive selection C. negative selection D. tolerance E. supression

A

16.11 which of the following is the underlying immunological process in ankylosing spondylitis? A. autoimmune disease associated with HLA gene B27 B. Development of autoantibodies against nucleic acids C. immune-mediated destruction of neurons D. immune deficiency associated with HLA gene DR4 E. molecular mimicry of the acetylcholine receptor

A

16.4 Molecular mimicry is resulting from reaction against self structures produced by A. cross reacting antibodies B. loss of toleranie C. loss of negative selection D. loss of anergy of immunologicall priviledged organs E. loss of central tolerance

A

16.5 Central tolerance is produced A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero B. v secondary lymphoid organs in utero C. v primary lymphoid organs after birth D. v secondary lymphoid organs after birth E. by not existence of the 2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after immunological synapsis is produced

A

16.7 Reumatoid factor is A. IgM antibody bound on Fc fragment IgG B. Diagnostical for reumatic feve C. Both are correct

A

17.2. After receiving a kidney transplant from the most appropriate available donor, a 38-year-old female is administered immunosuppressive drugs, including cyclosporine, in order to A. decrease T-cell production of IL-2. B. destroy stem cells in her bone marrow. C. induce involution of her thymus. D. inhibit macrophage release of IFN-y E. reduce plasma cell secretion of lgG antibodies.

A

18.2. An individual is given therapy with human immune globulin (Hig).Which of the following conditions would be appropriate for this type of therapy? A. Agammaglobulinemia B. Allergy C. Rheumatoid arthritis D. Superficial bladder cancer E. Systemic lupus erythematosus

A

18.4. A 12-year-old female with a history of lgE-mediated responses to various common allergens presents with acute bronchial asthma. Which of the following treatment approaches will most likely be used first in her treatment? A. Inhaled beta2-adrenergic receptor agonist B. Injected adjuvants C. Orally administered aspirin D. Subcutaneously injected cytokines E. Systemically administered antihistamines

A

19.7 Which of the following provides evidence of immune evasion by tumor cells? A. Downregulation of MHC I molecules by tumor cells B. Enhanced production of tumor necrosis factor by macrophages C. IFN- -mediated inhibition of tumor cell proliferation D. Generation of antibodies against tumor-specific antigens E. Stimulation of tumor cell apoptosis by increased Bax expression

A

2. Vaccination against small pox was experimentaly described by A. Edward Jenner B. Louis Pasteur C. Ramzes I D. Ali Mao Malin E. Robert Koch

A

20, Number of phagocyting PMNL in % indicates: A. phagocytic activity B. Index of phagocytosis

A

3.5 Which of the mentionned possibilities is the cause of microbicidal activity in respiratory tract A. Lysosyme that degrades 1,4 glycosidical binding of bacteria B. Saliva that break IgA molecules pn mucous membrane C. Fatty acids of commensal bacteria degrading the peptidoglycan of pathogens D. Tears enabling ingestion of microbes by phagocytes E. Lysosyme degrading DNA and RNA produced by pathogenic microbes.

A

4.4 Which of mentionned cells are leading cells in allergic reactions A. basofils B. dendritic cells C. lymphocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

A

5. Detection of concentration of lysosyme is samples from patient we use: A. M. lysodeicticus B. E. coli C. Precipitation D. Agglutination

A

5.2 Primary immunity to Gram - negative bacterium involves A. Nonspecific stimulation of complement B. Production of specific somatically generated receptors C. Productin and secretion of specific antibodies D. Production of specific cytokines by lymphocytes E. Stimulation of KIR on NK cells

A

5.5 Alternative pathway of complement is activated by A. Cell surface molecules, that are largely recognised as foreign for host B. Mannose containing rests of glycoproteins on some microbes C. Stimulation of KAR on NK cells D. Immunocomplexes of antigen and antibodies E. TLR receptors binding PAMP

A

6 Molecule of acute phase of infection synthesised in liver during bacterial and viral infection is A. CRP B. Chemokin C. Complement D. Immunoglobulin E. Interleukin

A

6.11 Which of mentioned molecules is present on every mature T helper cell A. CD4 B. CD8 C. GlyCAM-1 D. IgA E. IgG

A

6.6 Classical complement pathway is activated by A. Activation of C1 B. Cleavage and activation of C4, C2 and C3 C. IgA binding to specific epitop D. Production of Membrane Attack Complex E. Production of C3 convertase

A

6.9 The structure of TCR is formed by A. heterodimer of ab (gd) bound on membrane of T cell B. complex of heavy and light chains C. molecules CD3 a CD247 on the membrane of T cell D. complex of MHC with peptid (pMHC) E. soluble IgM molecule

A

7.5 lymph nodes have two main regions A. cortex and medulla B. lymph and cortex C. reticulum and cortex D. lymph and medulla E. reticulum and medulla

A

7.8 Which are primary lymfoid organs A. Bone marrow B. Lymphatic node C. Peyer´s plaques D. Spleen E. Tonsils

A

8.2 Existence of BCR and TCR specific only for one antigen is enabled by: A. rearrangemet of genes for variable part of immunoglobulin molecule B. maturation of immunity C. exclusion of allels D. Isotype swich E. Junction diversity

A

8.3 Presence of only mother´s or only father´s genes for V chains is enabled by A. Exclusion of allels B. Antibody diversity C. Isotype switch D. Junction diversity E. Random rearrangement of VD and VDJ

A

8.4 Antibody specificity is produced by A. Recombination of V, D and J genes B. Rearrangemet of VD and J segments for heavy chains C. Affinity maturation for antigen caused by mutation D. Recombination of CL with CH1, CH2, CH3 or CH4 domens E. Transport of VL allel from mother´s on father´s chromosome

A

<h6>10.1 T cells recognise epitop to which they are exposed for the first time by</h6> A. randomly generated TCRs B. MHC molecule C. Ig molecule D. One of many molecule on the surfacei E. PRR

A

Glucocorticoids exert immunosuppressive effects by A. binding to intracellular receptors and influencing gene transcription. B. impairing the ability of platelets to aggregate. C. inhibiting cyclooxygenase and thromboxane production. D. stimulating IL-2 production and T-cell proliferation. E. upregulating cell-su ace receptors for cytokines

A

NK - natural killer identify the abnormalities on cells by detecting the amount of A)- MHC I molecules B- Non self molecules C- PAMP - pathogen-associated molecular patterns D- PRR - pattern recognition receptors E- SGR - somatically generated cell surface receptors

A

Polymorphonuclear leukocytes (or PMNs) a) can be attracted to the site of an infection following activation of complement b) are derived from bone marrow stem cells c) are a type of phagocyte that can engulf and kill bacteria d) all of these

A

Serological reactions are reactions of A- antigen with antibody to detect specific immunity B- antigen with antibody to detect nonspecific immunity C-antigen with complement to detect nonspecific immunity D-antigen with complement to detect specific immunity

A

The immunogloulins can transfere tha placentar bariere A- IgG B-IgM C-IgA D-IgD

A

What are the principal classes of lymphocytes? a) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes b) memory cells and naïve cells c) natural killers and B lymphocytes d) APC and NK

A

eumicrobia is A- the presence of nonpathogenic or faculatatively pathogenic bacteria on the surface of mucous membrane is optimal composition and number B- the presence of bacteria, fungi, ciruses and parasites on the surface of mucous membrane in optimal composition and number C-the disease cause by wrong composition and number of bacteria on mucouse membrane. D- the presence of nonpathogenic microbes in biological sample

A

phagocytic activity and index of phagocytosis are laboratory tests to detect the state of the A- nonspecific immunity B-specific cellular immunity C-specific humeral immunity D-production of interferon

A

secondary serological answer after antigen exposition is typically and predominatly a) IgG b) IgM c) IgA d) IgD e) memory cells only

A

the CH50 is thetest to determine A- hemolytic activity of the complement B- the streth of hemolytic activity C- activation of complement by alternative path D- activation of complement by classical path

A

to detect specific cell immunity ( to mycobacterium tuberculosis) in vivo is used: a) mantoux test b) IGRA- inferion gama release assay (Quantiferion) c) ELISA d) Western bloth

A

what are the ready and present mechanisms to protect against microbes? a) native immunity b) T and B cellular immunity c) specific humoral immunity d) specific adaptive immunity

A

what are the two types of adaptive immunity? a) cellular and humoral b) Th1 and Th2 c) T helper and T cytotoxic d) T and B cells

A

what is the role of MHC molecules in the recognition of infected cells by NK cells? I. Statement- NK cells express inhibitory receptors that recognize MHC class I molecules on host cells and can then suppress NK cell activation. II statement- in virally infected cells, MHC class I molecules are downregulated and therefor fail to engange inhibitory receptors and thus NK cells can be activated to kill these infected cells. a) I. is coorect b) II. Is correct c) I. and II. Is correct d) none of statements is correct

A

whats the role of CTL cells? a) recognize peptide fragments of protein antigens displayed on other cells. b) produce cytokins that activate phagocytes to destroy ingested microbes, .... Leukocytes, and activate B lymphocytes c) kill infected cells harboring microbes in the cytoplasm d) to produce antibodies

A

where are effector T lymphocytes genereated and where do they home? a) are generated in thymus, home to secondary lymphoid organs and recirculate between these organs b) are genereated in lymph nodes and home to the tissue where they are activated

A

17.5 MHC I and II genes are characterised by A. Codominancy B. Heterozygocy C. Multiple locusesi D. Autosimale dominant transmission E. Several answers are correct (which)

A,B

What are the examples of microbial substances recongnized by the innated immune system? a) lipopolysaccharide b) flagellin c) double-stranded DNA d) mannose e) all answers are correct

A,B,D

6. Titer is A. Dilution of serum B. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum C. For ex. 1:124 D. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive E. Is to detect precipitation F. Is used to detect nonspecific immunity

A,B???

Bind together the cell type and its function a) humoral 1. Th1 b) cellular 2. Th2

A-2 B-1

. Ddetetion of lysosyme is the test of a) specific cellular immunity b) non-specific cellular immunity c) specific humoral immunity d) non-specific humoral immunity e) bactericidal activity of saliva

B

.2 Which of below mentioned molecules induce the strongest specific immune reaction in man A. 250 000 Da self plasmatic protein B. 150 000 Da toxin produced by bacterium C. 500 Da plasmatic protein from monkey D. 400 Da molecule from foreign man E. 200 Da molecule of carbohydrate that is the same in all biological species

B

1. Substance that resemble toxin, that has its antigenic and immunogenic properties but not toxic properties is called A. antitoxin B. toxoid C. toxin D. antibody E. hapten

B

1.5 Immunological memory deals with A. Activation of phagocyting cells leading to ingestion of mibrobial invaders B. Changes of adaptive immunity after repeated exposition to the antigen of the same microbe C. Stability of innate immunity reaction to reexposition to the same microbe D. Recognition of PAMP via PRR E. Stimulation of defective host cell with reduced amount of MHC molecules to do the apoptosis

B

13.10 Herd effect is not possible A. if more than 85 % are vaccinated B. for tetanus and rabies C. diphtheria, pertussis, haemophilus meningitis D. measles, rubeolla, mumps E. poliomyelitis, variola - small pox

B

14.7 Patient treated by PNC with symptoms of dyspnoe, hypotnesion, tachycardia, malaise with positivity of antibodies against PNC present on erytrocytes are typical for: A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by IgG B. hypersensitivity II type mediated by IgG C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG D. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG and IgM E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cellsi

B

16. 14. A 47-year-old-male has a history of end-stage renal failure and required a kidney transplant. Approximately 4 weeks after receiving his transplanted kidney, he developed oliguria (decreased production of urine), fever, hypertension, and pain or tenderness over the allograft. On the basis of these findings, the most likely underlying immunological process is A. autoimmunity. B. acute rejection. C. chronic rejection. D. hyperacute rejection. E. peripheral tolerance.

B

16. Mean number of phagocyted elements by 1 PMNL is indicated by: a. Fagocyting activity b. Index of fagocytosis

B

17 . To detect dynamics of total antibodies we need A. one sample B. at least 2 samples

B

17.1. A23-year-oldfemale has HLAgenotypeA3/A8, B1/B8, C4/C1 . For each locus, the maternal allele is listed first and the paternal allele second. Several potential donors are available for an organ graft. Which of the following donors would be the closest match? A. Donor A: A8/A27, B24/B8, C4/C9 B. Donor B: A3/A3, B27/B8, C1/C1 C. Donor C: A8/A6, B44/B8, C4/C1 D. Donor D: A6/A27, B1/B8, C4/C2 E. Donor E: A3/A8, B1/B27, C9/C4

B

17.2 Transplantat from the genetically identical twin is A. autotransplantat B. isotransplantat C. allotransplantat D. heterotransplantat E. idiotransplantat

B

17.4. With no therapeutic intervention, the most likely outcome for a transplanted skin graft obtained from an unrelated donor who is HLA identical to the recipient is A. acute rejection. B. chronic rejection. C. graft-versus-host disease. D. hyperacute rejection. E. long-term success.

B

17.5. What are the possible ABO blood types of children to the union of a man who has blood type AB and a woman who has blood type 0? A. A only B. A and B only C. A, B, and AB only D. A,B,AB,and0 E. 0 only

B

17.7 Accelerated reaction to graft is characterised by rejection A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

B

18. Antigen presenting cells (APC): a. Are not in lymph nodes b. Can phagocyte c. Do not present antigen to T cells

B

18. Which of mentioned way is correct to indicate the titer of antigodies: A. 16O B. 1: 16O C. 1 x16O

B

19.5. which of the following is a cytokine known to have antitumor activity? A. Epidermal growth factor B. interferon-y C. interleukin-2 D. inerleukin-12 E. platelet-derived growth factor

B

2. Discrimination of immunocompetent cells of specific immunity is possible based on a) Morpfological signs b) Specific surface molecules c) Spontaneous production of cytokines d) Presence of granules

B

2. Specific passive immunity naturally acquired is A. From transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother B. After disease C. After vaccination D. After aplication of specific immune serum

B

2.5 Antibodies mediated accumulation of macrophages in the site of pathogen arises thanks to A. Receptors for complement B. Fc receptors C. KIR - killer activation receptors D. PRR - pattern recognition receptors E. TLR - toll like receptors

B

20.To myeloid line are not involved: a. Eozinofils b. NK cells c. Macrophages

B

3. CH50 is a A. Specific immunity function B. Nonspecific immunity function

B

3. Inactivation of serum is done by heating the fresh serum to 37 °C for 3O´(min.) A. correct B. Wrong

B

3.3 Permanent uretral catheter as one of the cause of cystitis (inflamation of urine bladder) results in A. production of conditions favorable for changes of molecules between epitelium and environment B. introduction of microorganisms in urethra C. secretion of mucus from epithelial cells D. changes of pH of urine E. all possibilities are correct

B

4. Antibodies of acute phase of infection are a. IGD b. IgM c. IgE d. IgA e. IgG

B

4.1 Which of mentioned cells are present on the place of infection by worms A. basofils B. eosinofils C. lymphocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

B

4.8 Predominant form of leucocytes in the blood of patient with longlasting pyogenic bacterial infection are A. B lymphocytes B. Juvenil and inmature neutrofils C. Monocytes a macrophages D. Natural killers E. T lymphocytes

B

4.9 Cells of lymphoid line A. Are most frequent leucocyte population B. Is formed by T, B, and NK cells C. Contain cytoplasmatic granules D. Differentiat from precursors of myeloid cells E. Phagocyte rests of foreign cells

B

5. Presentation of extraceluluar bacteria to T cells is enabled by molecules on APC a) MHC I b) MHC II c) IgG d) TcR

B

5. Significant for infection is A. decrease in titer B. increase in titer C. change from positivity to negativity and 4 fold increase of titer

B

5. To detect dynamics of total antibodies we need A. one sample B. at least 2 samples

B

6. Number of polypeptid chains is the biggest in a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgD

B

6.5 In patient with allergy the cross binding of the allegen molecule with Fab fragment of immunoglobulin will activate degranulation of mediators: A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. Histamin E. Mastocytes

B

6.7. The role of classical complement pathway is to: A. Cleave to immunoglobulin molecules on Fc fragments B. Lyse microbe C. Recognise specific epitops on microbes D. To start degranulation of histamin E. Inhibit degranulation of histamin

B

6.8 MHC II molecules are expressed on A. All cells with nucleus B. Antigen presenting cells C. on erytrocytes D. on mastocytes E. on T cells

B

7. Activation of complement immediatly after the secopnd exposition to antigen is done by A. Alternativepath B. Classicalpath C. MBL path

B

7. Antibodies connected with innate (maternally derived) immunity of newborne baby is A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgA E. IgD

B

7. MHC II molecule is active in a) Recognision of antigens b) Presentation of antigens c) Neutralisation of antigens d) Stimulation of cytotoxic immunity

B

7.4 Thymus is the place of primary differenciation of A. B cells B. T cells C. Erytrocytes D. Heamtopoetic stem cells E. Neutrofils

B

9.8 B-1 B cells when compared with B-2 B cells A. arise later in development B. are more important for innate immunity mechanisms C. have IgD than IgM molecules D. recognise more antigens E. require T cell cooperation for activation

B

Defense molecules prepared in the time of the first contact with the antigen, with constant efficiency in any next contact with the same antigen and present from the time of the birth are typical for: A-specific immunity B-Nonspecific immunity

B

Immunological memory deals with A- Activation of phagocyting cells leading to ingestion of mibrobial invaders B- Changes of adaptive immunity after repeated exposition to the antigen of the same microbe C- Stability of innate immunity reaction to reexposition to the same microbe D- Recognition of PAMP via PRR E- Stimulation of defective host cell with reduced amount of MHC molecules to do the apoptosis

B

Part of nonspecific cell immunity function is detected by a) concentration of lysosome b) bactericidal acitivity of serum c) phagocyting acitivity d) number of lymphocytes

B

Recognition of self molecules by immune system is important for A) - Activation of natural killers involved in innate immunity B)- Binding and identification of consequences of the future cooperation C)- Induction of TCR and BCR expression on the self molecules D)- Stimulation of binding with E)- Activation of processes leading to kill the cell presenting self molecules

B

Rosette test is the method to identify: A- polymorphonuclear leucocytes B-T and B lymphocytes C-all leucocytes D-all mononuclears

B

Significant for infection is A. decrease in titer B. increase in titer C. change from positivity to negativity and 4 fold increase of titer

B

The sites physiologically sterile in the human body are: A-colon B-Lungs C-urethra D-external ear

B

number of polypeptide chains is the highest in the molecule of A- IgG in serum B- IgM in serum C- IgE in serum D- IgD in serum

B

the cell walls of many gram positive bacteria can easily destroyed by the enzyme known as? A) lipase b) lysosome c) pectinase d) peroxidase

B

the test that identifies the activity of the lysosome is the test to measure tools of: A-spesific cellular immunity B-non specific cellular immunity C-specific humoral immunity D-non specific humoral immunity

B

where is the immune answer innitated? a) in peripheral lymphoid organs b) in central lymphoid organs c) in lymph d) in blood

B

which is not a professional antigen-presenting cells (or APC?) a) B cell b) polymorphonuclear leukocyte c) dendritic cell d) all of the above

B

1. In vaccination against variola - small pox - the attenuated annimal virus was used to prevent human virus infection (antigenic similarity and cross reacting immunity). Similar principle is used in vaccination against A. tuberculosis B. tetanus C. measles D. poliomyelitis E. pertussis

C

1. On the surface of cytotoxic T cells is a) IgG b) CD 4 c) CD 8 d) p 24

C

1.6 Which of below mentionned structures on microbes are recognised by human immune system molecules. A. MHC I molekuly B. MHC II molekuly C. PAMP D. PRR E. SGR

C

10.2 Which of below mentioned bind peptid to MHC II A. CD4+ T B. CD8+ T C. Dendritic cells D. gd T cells E. neutrofils

C

10.3 Fragments of intracelular pathogen are presented to T cell A. by activation of PRR on the cell surface B. by pinocytosis to gd T cells C. by molecules of MHC I to CD8+ T cells D. by molecules of MHC II to CD8+ T cell E. by molecules of MHC II to CD4+ T cell

C

10.7 Formation of pMHC I on infected cell A. Results in BCRs cross binding and signalisation to the nucleus B. CD4+ T cell secretion of IL-4 C. CD8+ T cell killing of infected cell D. Naive Th1 cell secretion of cytokines E. Th0 cells differentioate to Th2 cell

C

11.4 Antigen antibody binding that will result in incapability of microbe to bind on target cells is: A. agglutination B. complement activation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

C

12. Vaccination can produce autoimmune disease., is not needed because the disease against that they protect are eradicated - no more present of the world. These statements are A. true - based on immunological and epidemiological studies B. correct - based on immunological surveys C. flase and presented by antivaccination activitists D. are not well studied and that is why they can be tolerated E. are well studied and should be propagated

C

12.1 State of unresponsivness of T lymphocytes that exists after production of immunological synapsis is sa nazýva A. allergy B. apoptosis C. anergy D. autoimmunity E. hypersensitivity

C

14.1 Patient with symptoms of sneezing, congestion in nose, respiratory problems becoming worse when he enters his house that is wet and molds are present on the walls and with skin tests for hypersensitivity positive has: A. Contact dermatitis B. DTH C. Hypersensitivity type I D. Hypersensitivity type II E. Hypersensitivity type III

C

14.6 Glomerulonefritis can be caused by: A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD4+T cells B. hypersensitivity II type mediated by IgM antibodies C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by free IgG molecules D. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by B cells E. hypersenzitivitu IV typu mediated by IgG or IgM i

C

15. Imunoglobuline other than monomeric structure is a) IgG, IgE, IgD b) IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE c) IgM, IgA, d) IgG, IgE

C

15. Titer is indicating A. dilution of antigen B. dilution of antibodies C. quanitative value of specific serological reaction D. qualitative value of specific serological reaction

C

16. 3 Inativation and destructon of lymphocytes bearing the BCR or TCR recognising self molecules results in A. autoimmunity B. positive selection C. negative selection D. tolerance E. supression

C

16.10 A 35-year-old male presents with symptoms of fatigue paresthesia (numbness and tingling) of his arms and legs, and occasional blurred vision of 2 months duration. Tests reveal several areas of demyelination within the central nervous system. Diagnosis of which of the following conditions is supporting by these findings? A. ankylosing spondylitis B. Hashimoto thyroiditis C. multiple sclerosis D. Reactive arthritis E. systemic lupus erythematosus

C

16.9 Autoimmune disease is characterised by A. production of antibodies against self structures B. production of specific T cells against self structures C. reactions (cellular and humoral immunity) against self structures

C

17. Part of nonspecific cell immunty function is detected by a. Concentration of lysosyme b. Bactericidal activity of serum c. Phagocyting activity d. Number of lymphocytes

C

17.5 Acute reaction to graft is characterised by rejection A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

C

17.9 Host versus graft reaction is A. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow B. Typical for reaction in second transplantation C. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno D. Characterised by existence of memory cells E. All answers are correct

C

19. Bactericidal activity of serum is test of a. quantitative to detect specific immunity b. qualitative to detect specific immunity c. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity d. qualitative to detect non specific immunity

C

19. Serotypisation is to detect: A. specific humoral immunity B. specific cellular immunity C. antigenic structure of microbe

C

1Which of below mentionned structures on microbes are recognised by human immune system molecules. A- MHC I molekuly B- MHC II molekuly C- PAMP D-PRR E. SGR

C

2.1 Synthetic molecule that bind the receptors on B cells, but does not stimulise their production of specific antibodies unless it is conjugated with bigger immunogenic molecules is A. adjuvans B. carrier C. hapten D. immunogen E. tolerogen

C

2.3 During early stages of lymphocyte development the receptor-epitop binding can results in inactivation or death of the lymphocyte, or unresponsivness. The epitop is A. hapten B. immunogen C. tolerogen D. carrier E. adjuvans

C

2.4 Natural killers induce lysis of infected cell, that has the decreased exposition of MHC I molecules. NK cells do this by activation of receptors: A. receptors for complement B. Fc receptors C. KAR - killer activation receptors D. KIR - killer inhibition receptros E. TCR

C

2.6 Allergic reaction is induced by A. adjuvans B. hapten C. immunogen D. tolerogen E. no of answer is correct

C

2.8 Immunocompetent cells - lymphocytes - are stimulated by binding of antigens to the surface receptors. This activity is influenced by: A. A single and the only receptor per cell B. A single type of receptor found on all cells C. Integration of several signals generated by multiple receptors on single cells D. Multiple receptors that bind soluble ligands only E. Nonspecific receptors binding a wide spectrum of ligands

C

3. Antigen react with antibodies A. Only in vivo B. Only in vitro C. In vivo and in vitro

C

3.1 Vaginal candidosis (infection produced by funguses - microbes) after ATB therapy is caused by: A. The ammount of secreted lysosyme in vagina B. The ammount of secreted mucus in vagina C. Changes in physiological flora D. pH in vagina E. changes of function of epitelial cells

C

3.4 Which of mentionned possibilities is the example of physiological barrier inhibiting colonisation by microorganisms A. respiratory tract with pH - 9,0 - 11,0 B. skin - pH around 8,0 C. stomac - pH 1,0 - 3,0 D. upper part of GIT pH - 6,5 - 7,5 E. vagina pH around 7,0

C

4.2 NK cells - natural killers - belong to: A. basofils B. eosinofils C. lymphocytes (white blood cell) D. monocytes E. neutrofils

C

5.1 PAMP - pathogen-associated molecular patterns A. Enable lymphocytes to recognise microbes and disrupt them B. Are cystein-rich peptides of leucocytes C. Are recognised by PRR - receptors of innate immunity D. Are proteins on the surface of infected cell E. Induce secretion of interferons

C

6.3 Constant regions of heavy chains in molecules of immunoglobulin influence A. Epitope B. Fab fragment C. Isotype D. Idiotype E. Antigentic specificity

C

7.1 TCR - receptor on CD8+T cells - recognises fragments of peptid bound in A. CD3 molecule B. CD4 molecule C. MHC I molecule D. MHC II molecule E. MHC III molecule

C

7.6 Which of molecules is present on CD4+ T cell A. BCR B. CD1d C. CD3 D. CD8 E. CD19

C

8. Complement fixation reaction is a) in vivo reaction to detect activity of complement b) reaction detectiong concentration of complemnt molecules in serum of patient c) is serological reaction d) is reaction in vitro to detect 50% of hemolytical activity of complement

C

8.1 Changes of IgM to IgE is enabled by the process: A. Immunity maturation B. Allel exclusion C. Isotype switch D. Junction diversity E. somatic hypermutation

C

<h5>9.6 NKT cells </h5> A. are usually CD8 pocitive B. bind with pMHC II C. have TCR D. synthesise immunoglobulin E. present Ig on their surface

C

<h6>10.2 Which of below mentioned bind peptid to MHC II </h6> A. CD4+ T B. CD8+ T C. Dendriticcells D. gd T cells E. neutrofils

C

<h6>10.8 Activation of B cell results in </h6> A. Presentation of MHC I by dendritic cells B. Recognition of epitop by surface IgD and IgM C. Transmission of signal from BCR and CD4+ T cell to the nucleus D. Isotypte switch E. Lysis of antigen by proteasomes

C

B lymphocytes exprime the molecule of immunoglobulin a) that is specific for 2 to 10 different antigens b) in phagosome and cytoplasma c) on their surface membrane d) only before leaving bone marrow

C

Mononuclears are: A- all phagocyting cells B-only macrophages C- Blood monocytes, tissue macrophages, lymphocytes. D- all leucocytes

C

Pre-pro-B cells A. contain either K or A light chains B. demonstrate surface expression of pseudo-IgM C. express lgA and lgB BCR accessory molecules D. Have VDJ joining of genes E. express surrogate light chains

C

Synthetic molecule that bind the receptors on B cells, but does not stimulise their production of specific antibodies unless it is conjugated with bigger immunogenic molecules is A- adjuvans B- carrier C- hapten D- immunogen E. tolerogen

C

What is the roles of cytokine type I interferons in the defense against infections a) stimulates inflammation in part of helping to recruit neutrophils and monocytes to sites of infection b) is made by macrophages and dendritic cells and contributes to NK cell and T cell activation c) inhibits viral replication (the antiviral state)

C

Which of the following expresses CD3 surface antigen? a) basophil b) oeosinophil c) T-lymphocytes d) neutrophils

C

agranulocytes are (mononuclear leukocytes) A- neurofils B- basophils C- lymphocytes D- all monocytes

C

granulocytes are A-all leucocytes B-all monocytes C-neurtrofils, eosinofils, basophils D-only PMNL- polymorphonuclear lymphocytes

C

what is the role of effector lymphocytes a) B myphocytes are neutralizing microbial antigens b) T and B cells are secreting cytokins that stimulise other cell activity c) T cells protect against pathogens or eliminate pathogens d) they self renew and are prepared to boost the immunity during next exposition

C

10.5 CD4+ T respnding to intracellular pathogen by activation and aggregation of phagocyting cells are A. APC B. CTL - cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. Th0 cells D. NK cells th1 E. Th2 cells

D

10.5 CD4+ T respnding to intracellular pathogen by activation and aggregation of phagocyting cells are A. APC (antigen-presenting cells) B. CTL - cytotoxic T lymphocytes C. Th0 cells D. Th1 cells E. Th2 cells

D

11.2 C3b is able to bind on a microbe that will make it more attractive for phagocytosis. This process is A. agglutination B. complement activation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

D

12.3 Which of mentioned cells need cooperation of pMHC with costimulatory 2nd signals from APC to be activated. A. anergised T cells B. B cells C. Mastocytes D. Naïve T cells E. Natural killers

D

13.2 in a patient with salmonella infection, which of the following mechanisms will most likely be the earliest adaptive response for clearing the infection while bacteria are present within intracellular endosomes? A. antibody-mediated neutralization of free bacteria B. complement-mediated lysis of infected host cells C. CTL recognition of bacterial peptides presented by MHC II D. DTH responses generated by CD4+ T cells E. types I hypersensitivity mediated by IgE antibodies

D

13.3 A 25 -year-old man is exposed to the roundworm Ascaris but does not develop clinical signs of infection. Which of the following mechanism is likely to be responsible for his resistance to infection? A. antibody-mediated destruction of worm-infected host cells B. CTL-induced apoptosis of worm-infected host cells C. complement-mediated lysis of worm attached to host tissues D. IgE-mediated type I hypersensitivity disrupting worm attachment E. phagocytosis of worms followed by necrosis of phagocytes

D

14. The first vaccination was directed against A. Rabies B. measels C. tetanus D. small pox E. chicken pox

D

14.3 Which of mentione reaction is induced by interaction of host cell membrane with IgM or IgG antibodies A. Arthus reaction B. Serum disease C. hypersenzitivity I type D. hypersensitivity II type E. hypersensitivity IV type

D

16. 15. A 20-year-old woman presents with right lower abdominal cramp-type pain associated with diarrhea and weight loss. Blood tests reveal a low hemoglobin level and high white blood cell counts. She is diag nosed with Crohn disease. The tissue that is most affected in this autoimmune disease is A. connective tissue. B. erythrocytes. C. pancreatic cells. D. the small intestine. E. the thyroid.

D

16.2 Deficiency of immune system to recognise epitop and eliminate it is A. autoimmunity B. positive selection C. negative selection D. tolerance E. supression

D

17. To detect soluble molecules - toxin for ex. Which test can be use: A. agglutination B. precipitation C. diffusion D. B and C is correct

D

17.3. A 6-year-old male receives a bone marrow transplant from his father during treatment for acute myelogenous leukemia. Of primary concern will be the potential development of A. acute rejection. B. an allergic reaction. C. autoimmune responses. D. graft-versus-host disease. E. immediate hypersensitivity.

D

17.4 Transplantat of skin from of animal given to man is A. Autotransplantat B. Isotransplantat C. Allotransplantat D. Heterotransplantat E. idiotransplantat

D

17.8 Hyperaccute reaction to graft is characterised by A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

D

18.5. Following a bone marrow transplant, which of the following therapies will be most appropriate to inhibit T cell-mediated immunity and the development of graft-versus-host responses? A. Adjuvants B. Aspirin C. Corticosteroids D. Cyclosporine E. Cytokines

D

19.3. Which of the following is correct regarding tumor specific transplantation antigens (TSTAs)? A. Also present in high concentration on normal somatic cells B. Often found on normal fetal cells as well as on tumor cells C. Readily identified on most naturally occurring tumors D. Result from mutant proteins expressed by tumor cells E. Stimulate apoptosis on cells that express them

D

19.4. According to the immune surveillance theory, A. antibodies arise during fetal development that can destroy tumors. B. cancer cells rarely arise within a normal individual. C. innate immune responses eliminate specific tumor cell antigens. D. tumors arise only if malignant cells escape immune detection. E. tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes prevent malignant transformations.

D

19.6 Lymphokine-activated killer (LAK) cells are indistinguishable from A. B lymphocytes. B. macrophages. C. malignant somatic cells. D. NK cells. E. T lymphocytes.

D

2.7 Binding of epitop on Fab portion of molecule before its Fc fragment anchors in target structure is not required for A. molecule of the carrier B. conjugate of hapten-carrier C. hapten D. IgE E. IgG

D

3.2 Repeated pneumoniae - infectious inflamation of lung- caused by oportunistic pathogens in patient with impaired cilliated epitelium of bronchuses is conditioned by: A. decreased IgA antibodies production B. changes in total antibodies production C. decrease of pH D. decrease of nonspecific immune reactions E. impairement of specific immune mechanism

D

4. Serotypisation is the method to detect A. Specific immunity B. Nonspecific immunity C. Antibody titer D. Antigenic structure of microbe

D

4. The antigen can be bound for better visualisation of aglutination on: A. Other corpuscular antigen or body B. erytrocyete C. latex particules D. all answers are correct

D

4.6 Red blood cells arise from A. granulocyte line B. lymfocyte line C. monocyte line D. myeloid line E. trombocyte line

D

5.3 Nonspecific immune mechanisms do not include A. chemokines B. complement C. defenzines D. memory cells E. Interferon type 1

D

6. By detecting the concentration of C3, C4 components of complement in serum of patient we detect: a. Specific cell immunity b. Specific humoral immunity c. Non specific cellular immunity d. Non specific humoral immunity

D

6. Detection o acute phase inflamation in serum of patient is to detect A. Specific cell immunity B. Špecific humoral immunity C. Non specific cell immunity D. Non specific humoral immunity

D

6.1 Epitop-specific receptors on T lymfocytes (TCR) are present A. In cytoplasma and/or on membrane bound proteins B. In plasma, lympha other body fluids C. On surface of plasmatic cells D. As transmembrane polypeptides E. In lipid bilayer of nucleus

D

7.2 B lymphocytes exprime the molecule of immunoglobulin A. That is specific for 2 to10 different antigens B. In phagosome and cytoplasma C. In membrane complex containing CD3 D. On their surface membrane E. Only before leaving bone marrow

D

7.3 Primary lymfoid organs are those in which A. Specific immunity is activated B. Filtration of cell debrits are performed C. Circulating leucocytes communicate mutually D. Lymphocytes undergo the basical differenciation E. PRRs bind antigens

D

7.9 White pulpe of spleen is rich on A. erytrocytes B. CD4+CD8+T cells - double positive C. NK cells D. Plasmatic cells E. Precursores of B cells .

D

8.5 During restimulations of memory B cells the minor mutation in DNA encoding variable part of light and heavy chains will result in A. Isotype swich B. Decrease of antigenic specificity C. Exclusion of allels D. Specificity maturation E. .apoptosis of the cell

D

9.5 γδT cell A. can recognise many different antigens B. has surface membrane markers characteristic for NK cells C. changes to memory cells during reexposition to an antigen D. migrates mostly to respiratory organs, skin and peritoneal cavity E. produces slowlier answer to antigen than NK cells do

D

The Foxp3 nuclear transcription factor is expressed within A. B cells B.CD4+/CD8+(doublepositive)thymocytes C. CD8+ cytotoxic cells D. CD4+CD25+T regulatory cells E. Th2 cells

D

To differentiate microscopically the immunocompetent cells of nonspecific immunity is possible on the base of: A- morphological markers B- specific surface molecules C- a and b is correct D- The presence of stainable granules.

D

What is the role of memory lymphocytes a) to neutralize microbial antigens b) to secrete cytokins that stimulates other cell acitivity c) to protect against pathogens or eliminate pathogens d) the self enew and surivive indefinitely to respond more rapidly and vigorously when challenged by antigen

D

booster dose is a) the 1st dose of immunoglobulin b) the 1st dose of antigen c) the 2nd dose of immunoglobulin d) the 2nd dose of antigen

D

test of bactericidal activity of the serum is the test to detect A- function of immunity with quantitative result B-fuction of immunity with quantitative result C- quantitative determination of specific immunity D- quantitative determination of non-specific immunity

D

the mechanismsm by which the epithelium of the skin prevents the entry of microbes? a) relatively imperable epithelial barrier b) the epithelial cells secrete antimicrobial peptides c) the skin also contains protective intraepithelial lymphocytes d) all answers correct

D

1.3 PRR - pattern recognition receptors - can bind A. B and T lymphocytes B. Host-cell molecules C. MHC I molecules D. NK cells E. PAMP

E

1.4 SGR (e.g. BCR resp TCR) on B and T lymphocytes are A. Bound only to MHC I molecules B. Encoded to recognise PAMP C. First to be produced after exposition to foreign molecule D. Of the same specificity in everybody E. Randomly generated during intrauterine development

E

10.6 Presence of lipopolysaccharid from bacterial cell wall in the tissue stimulates (nonspecific stimulation) A. APC cells to cytokines secretion B. Release of cytokines to activate leucocytes C. Stimulation and sectretion of IFN- g that activate leucocytes D. Th0 cells differentiate to Th1 cells E. All answere are correct

E

11.3 Test (diffusion in agar) that identifies production on not soluble complexes of soluble antigen with antibody is the example of A. agglutination B. complement activation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

E

11.5 Which of mentione izotypes of antbodies activate complemet cascade if bound to antigen A. IgA and IgD B. IgA and IgE C. IgA and IgM D. IgE and IgG E. IgG and IgM

E

12.5 in activated T cells, CD152 (CTLA4) A. becomes sequestered within the golgi B. binds to the appropriate surface pMHC C. induces progression through the cell cycle D. stimulates transcription of IL-2 mRNA E. begins to move to the membrane and bind CD80/86

E

13.4 Whicb of mechanisms are/is responsible for repeated infection with influenza virus A. Neutralisation antibodies are short living B. Low stimulation of CD4+ T cells to produce memory cells C. Intracellular localisation disable stimulation of immune system D. Hypersensitivity type 1 is present only in second exposition E. Variability of viral antigens

E

13.5 A 35-year-old woman left the united states for the first time and traveled ot Brazil, where she contracted malaria, a protozoan infection of erythrocyte. Which of the following describes the state of immunity resulting form this infection? A. Antibody-mediated neutralization of the protozoa clears the infection B. CTL-induced apoptosis of infected erythrocytes clears the infection C. Complement-mediated lysis of infected erythrocytes clears the infection D. DTH mediated by CD4+ T cells clears the infection E. host immunity is evaded by protozoa reproducing within erythrocyte

E

13.8 Which of characteristic is consistent with mucous membrane immunity A. Rapid answer against all molecules B. Chronical inflammation producing unfavourable conditions form microbes C. IL-2 and IFN-g produce favourable environment for TH1 D. Secretion of IgG is more important than secretion of IgA E. Tolerance to foreign antigens is more regular than exceptional

E

14.5 Contact dermatitis example of A. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD4+T cells B. hypersensitivity I type mediated by CD8+T cells C. hypersensitivity II type mediated by CD8+T cells D. hypersensitivity III type mediated by CD4+T cells E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cells

E

15.3 Deficiency in lymphoid line is presented by A. Impairment in specific humoral immunity B. Impairment in non-specific cellular immunity C. Impairment in ADCC D. Impairment in DTH E. All answers are correct

E

15.4 Deficiency in T cell immunity is presented by A. Mild specific humoral immunity impairment B. Non-specific cellular immunity impairment C. Impairement in ADCC D. DTH impairement E. All answers are correct||||

E

15.7 Deficiency in complement system will be presented by important impairment of A. opsonization B. bacterial lysis C. inflammation generation D. non-specific immunity E. all answers are correct

E

16. 12. A 30-year-old female presents with fatigue, weight loss, arthritis of her hands, and a malar ("butterfly") rash. Blood tests reveal decreased hemoglobin and the presence of antinuclear antibodies. These find ings support which of the following diagnoses paired with its underlying immunologic process? A. Graves disease: autoantibodies to thyroid-stimulating hormone receptor B. Myasthenia gravis: autoimmunity associated with HLA gene DR3 C. Reiter syndrome: immune-mediated destruction associated with HLA gene B27 D. Rheumatoid arthritis: immune deficiency associ ated with HLA gene DR4 E. Systemic lupus erythematosus: autoantibodies to chromosomal proteins

E

16. Activation of complement after the 1st exposition to antigen is done by A. Alternative way B .Classical waye C MBL way D All answers are correct E A and C is correct

E

16.6 Periferal tolerance is produced A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero B. in primary lymphoid organs after birth C. by regulatory inhibition of autoreactive cells D. not existence of the 2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after formation of immunological synapsis E. C and D is correct

E

16.8 Immunologically privileged organs or tissues are A. cornea B. placenta C. lumen of tubules of testes D. brain E. all are correct

E

17.1 Transplantation success depend on A. Family relationship B. Genetical match C. imunosupresive therapy D. ABC is correct E. BC is correct

E

17.6 Chronical reaction to graft is characterised by rejection A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

E

19.1. Which of the following may be expected in cells over expressing Src? A. Enhanced rate of apoptosis B. Death by necrosis C. Increased expression of MHC I molecules D. Senescence (loss of ability to divide) E. Unregulated cell division

E

19.2. A bone marrow biopsy from a patient with acute lymphocytic leukemia reveals the presence of a mutated form of p53 within leukemic cells. This mutation is likely responsible for which of the following? A. An increase in the Bax-to-Bc/-2 ratio B. Decreased activity of NK cell KIR function C. Excess activity of a GTP-binding protein D. Growth of malignant cells as a solid tumor E. Loss of suppression of cell growth

E

19.8 A new method to reduce the incidence of cervical cancer involves A. administration of tumor necrosis factor to the cervix. B. injection of antibodies against other patients' cervical tumors. C. stimulation of antibody-mediated cell lysis of cervical tumor cells. D. use of patient's tumor cells to develop an individu alized vaccine. E. vaccination against human papillomavirus

E

4.3 In microscopic smear of the pus from bacterial infection site there will be mostly present A. bazofils B. eozinofils C. lymphocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

E

4.5 Which of mentionned cells engulf extracellular bacterial antigens and are not antigen presentig cells A. basofils B. dendritic cells C. eosinofils D. macrophages E. neutrofils

E

5.4 Which of below mentionned molecules are expressed on the surfaces of human infected cells or abnormal cells and are recognised as stress molecules by NK cells A. Alfa or beta defensines B. C3 convertase and properdine C. Cytokines and chemokines D. Interferon and/or interferon beta E. MICA and MICB

E

6.10 Migration of B lymfocyte to a specific place (e.g. lymphatic node) depend on production of A. antibodies B. CD8 molecule C. CD3 molecule D. complement E. Selectins

E

6.2 Antibody (immunoglobulin) A. Is synthesised and secreated by B and T cells B. Binds several different epitop at once C. Contains 4 different polypeptids of light chains D. Recognises specific epitopes and self molecules E. Recognises antigens that lead to destruction of the antigens

E

6.4 The cleavage of the immunoglobulin molecule by pepsin results in production of A. Separated heavy and light chains B. Inhibition of antigen binding C. 2 individual antigen binding fragments D. In cold crystalising structures E. Dimer of antigen binding molecules

E

7.7 Positive selection of T cell: A. Is done in bone marrow B. Means production of specific TCR C. Is the migration of stem cells to tymus D. Is programmed death of autoreactive T cells E. Recognition of self MHC by double positive thymocytes

E

9.1 Which of problems is typical for patients with aplasia of tymus A. problems of B cells development only B. inactivation of complement system C. dysfunction of NK cells D. dysfunction of cellular immunity E. dysfunction in T lymphocyte differenciation and B cell mediated immunity

E

<h5>9.2 Negative selection of T cells is produced in</h5> A. periferal blood circulation B. bone marrowi C. lymphatic node D. spleen E. thymus

E

<h6>10.4 Imunological synapsis is </h6> A. binding of PAMP to PRR B. Restriction of CD4+ T cells for MHC I molecule C. Selective anergy of T cells D. Recognition of free peptides by T cells E. Contact between APC and T cell (antigen presenting cell

E

<h6>10.6 Presence of lipopolysaccharid from bacterial cell wall in the tissue stimulates (nonspecific stimulation)</h6> A. APC cells to cytokines secretion B. Release of cytokines to activate leucocytes C. Stimulation and sectretion of IFN- g that activate leucocytes D. Th0 cells differentiate to Th1 cells E. All answere are correct

E

PRR - pattern recognition receptors - can bind A- B and T lymphocytes B- Host-cell molecules C- MHC I molecules D- NK cells E- PAMP (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

E

SGR (somatically generated receptors) (e.g. BCR (B-cell receptors) resp TCR (T-cell receptors)) on B and T lymphocytes are A- Bound only to MHC I molecules B- Encoded to recognise PAMP C- First to be produced after exposition to foreign molecule D- Of the same specificity in everybody E- Randomly generated during intrauterine development

E

15. CH50 is a F. detection of hemolytical activity of complement G. Specific immunity function qualitative test H. Nonspecific immunity function qualitative test

F

17.10 Graft versus host reaction is F. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow G. Typical for reaction in second transplantation H. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno I. Characterised by existence of preformed antibodies J. All answers are correct

F

20. Serologica reactions are reactions of F. antigen with antibody to detect specific immunity G. antigen with antibody to detect nonspecific immunity H. antigen with complement to detect nonspecific immunity I. antigen with complement to detect specific immunity

F

18. . Bactericidal activity of serum is test: e. quantitative to detect specific immunity f. qualitative to detect specific immunity g. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity qualitative to detect non specific immunity

G

16 .Measurement of C3, C4 complementu molecules in seurm of patient detect: e. Špecific cell immunity f. Špecific humoral immunity g. Nonspecific cell immunity h. Nonspecific humoral immunity

H

2. Complete antigen: F. hapten G. semihapten H. imunogen

H

18. Cells of lymphoid system i. Produce immunoregulative cytokins ii. Do not influence other part of immune system iii. Do not influence specific immunity

I

7. Biological properties of complement are: F. Lysis of cell (formation of MAC) G. Opsonisation H. Stimulation of fagocytosis chemotaxis of leucocytes I. All answers are correct

I

Antibodies connected with innate intrauterine disease of newborne baby is h. IgM i. IgG j. IgE k. IgA l. IgD

I

Biological properties of complement are: F. Lysis of cell (formation of MAC) G. Opsonisation H. Stimulation of fagocytosis chemotaxis of leucocytes I. All answers are correct

I

Titer is I. Dilution of serum J. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum K. For ex. 1:124 L. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive M. Is to detect precipitation N. Is used to detect nonspecific immunity

I,K

A patient with known allergy ate unconsciously the cake with peanuts that resulted in diffus exanthema, respiratory distress and diffuse lung symptoms This is typical for: A. hypersensitivity I. type B. arthus reaction C. serum disease D. IgG binding on extraceluluar matrix in respiratory tract mucous membrane E. IgM dependent disease from immunocomplexes

a

Alternative pathway of complement is activated by A. Cell surface molecules, that are largely recognised as foreign for host B. Mannose containing rests of glycoproteins on some microbes - Mannan-binding lectin pathway C. Stimulation of KAR on NK cells - D. Immunocomplexes of antigen and antibodies E. TLR receptors binding PAMP

a

Antibody specificity is produced by A. Recombination of V, D andJ genes B. Rearrangemet of VD andJ segments for heavy chains C. Affinity maturation for antigen caused by mutation D. Recombination of CLwithCH1, CH2, CH3 or CH4 domens E. Transport of VL allel from mother ́s on father ́s chromosome

a

Cells of lymphoid system A. Produce immunoregulative cytokins B. Do not influence other part of immunesystem C. Do not influence specific immunity

a

Central tolerance is produced A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero B. vsecondary lymphoid organs in utero C. vprimary lymphoid organs after birth D. vsecondary lymphoid organs after birth E. by not existence of the2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after immunological synapsis is produced

a

Classical complement pathway is activated by A. Activation ofC1 B. Cleavage and activation of C4, C2 andC3 C. IgA binding to specific epitop D. Production ofMembrane Attack Complex E. Production of C3 convertase

a

Deficiency to inactivate and eliminate of autoreactive cells is the result of A. autoimmunity B. positive selection C. negative selection D. tolerance E. supression

a

Detection of concentration of lysosyme is samples from patient we use: A. M. lysodeicticus B. E. coli C. Precipitation D. Agglutination

a

Even unvaccinated child can be protected against some of vaccination preventable diseases because of A. Herd immunity B. Genetical predisposition C. Antigenic shift D. Imunity escape E. Tolerance

a

Existence of BCR andTCR specific only for one antigen is enabled by: A. rearrangemet of genes for variable part of immunoglobulin molecule B. maturation of immunity C. exclusion of allels D. Isotype swich E. Junction diversity

a

Exotoxín a) Is immunogenic b) Is the synonyme to toxoid c) Is neutralised by anatoxin d) Is a part of vaccine against tetanus

a

Imunodeficiency caused by genetic or innate impairment is A. primary B. secondary C. always lethal D. not detectable E. all answers are correct

a

In serotypisation we detect A. antigenic structure of bacteria with the help of antibodies B. specific immunity with the help of antigens

a

Molecular mimicry is resulting from reaction against self structures produced by A. cross reacting antibodies B. loss of toleranie C. loss ofnegative selection D. loss ofanergy ofimmunologicall priviledged organs E. loss of central tolerance

a

Molecule of T cell receptore (TCR) is parallel to a) Fab fragment of IgG b) Fc fragment of IgG c) MHC I d) MHC II

a

Molecule of acute phase of infection synthesised in liver during bacterial and viral infectionis A. CRP B. Chemokin C. Complement D. Immunoglobulin E. Interleukin

a

NK - natural killer identify the abnormalities on cells by detecting the amount of A. MHC I molecules B. Non self molecules C. PAMP - pathogen-associated molecular patterns D. PRR - pattern recognition receptors E. SGR - somatically generated cell surface receptors

a

Number of phagocyting PMNL in % indicates: A. phagocytic activity B. Index of phagocytosis

a

Patient with history of PNC (penicillin) allergy was given the dose in PNC injection. In minutes the symptoms of hypotension, tachycardia, diffuse exanthema arised. She suffered from: A. Anaphylactic reaction B. Anergy C. ADCC D. Ashtma E. Contact hypersensitivity

a

Presence of only mother ́s or only father ́s genes for V chains isenabled by A. Exclusion of allels B. Antibody diversity C. Isotype switch D. Junction diversity E. Random rearrangement of VD and VDJ

a

Primary immunity to Gram - negative bacterium involves A. Nonspecific stimulation of complement B. Production of specific somatically generated receptors C. Productin and secretion of specific antibodies D. Production of specific cytokines by lymphocytes E. Stimulation of KIR on NK cells

a

Problems with ingestion and degradation of antigen is the deficit fo A. phagocyting cells B. NK cellsk C. T cells D. B cells E. All answers are correct

a

Production of of visible aggregates to identify blood groupes by binding IgM with apropriateA or B antigens is: A. aglutination B. complement aktivation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

a

Result 1: 160 of serological reaction a) is the titer of antibodies b) is the highest dilution with positive reaction of Ag + Ab c) is the lowest dilution with positive Ag+Ab reaction d) is negative result of serological reaction

a

Secondary immunodeficiency is not consistent with A. Di Geoerge sy B. malnutrition C. HIV infection D. Immunosupresive therapy E. All answers are correct

a

Specific passive immunity naturally acquired is A. From transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother B. After disease C. After vaccination D. After aplication of specific immune serum

a

T cells recognise epitop to which they are exposed for the first time by A. randomly generatedTCRs B. MHC molecule C. Ig molecule D. One of many molecule on the surfacei E. PRR

a

The structure ofTCR is formed by A. heterodimer of ab (gd) bound on membrane of T cell B. complex of heavy and light chains C. molecules CD3 aCD247 on the membrane of T cell D. complex of MHC with peptid (pMHC) E. soluble IgM molecule

a

To detect corpuscular antigen we use mostly: A. agglutination methods B. precipitation methods C. diffusion method

a

Vaccination against small pox was experimentaly described by A. Edward Jenner B. Louis Pasteur C. Ramzes I D. Ali Mao Malin E. Robert Koch

a

Which are primary lymfoid organs A. Bone marrow B. Lymphatic node C. Peyer ́s plaques D. Spleen E. Tonsils

a

Which of mentioned cells are the source of the 2ndsignal to T cell after immunological synapsis is produced A. APC B. Anergised T cell C. CD4+T cells D. B cells E. Naive T cells-thymocytes

a

Which of mentioned isotype is consistent with mucous membrane immunity A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG E. IgM

a

Which of mentioned molecules is present on every mature T helper cell A. CD4 B. CD8 C. GlyCAM-1 D. IgA E. IgG

a

Which of mentioned type of vaccine will elicit the most protective immunity A. attenuated live virus vaccine B. DNA vakcine C. Killed virus in vaccine D. Rekombinant vaccine E. Subunit vaccine

a

Which of mentionned cells are leading cells in allergic reactions A. basofils B. dendritic cells C. lymphocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

a

Which of the following mentioned possibilities is cause of microbicidal activity in respiratory tract: A. Lysosyme that degrades 1,4 glycosidical binding of bacteria B. Saliva that break IgA molecules pn mucous membrane C. Fatty acids of commensal bacteria degrading the peptidoglycan of D. pathogens Tears enabling ingestion of microbes by phagocytes E. Lysosyme degrading DNA and RNA produced by pathogenic microbes.

a

Deficiency in B cells line is presented by A. Problems in specific humoral immunity B. Problemsin non-specific cellular immunity C. Problemsin ADCC D. Problems with DTH E. Several possibilities are correct (if yes which)

a, b, c, e

MHC IandII genes are characterised by A. Codominancy B. Heterozygocy C. Multiple locusesi D. Autosimale dominant transmission E.Several answers are correct (which)

a, b, c, e

Titer is A. Dilution of serum B. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum C. For ex. 1:124 D. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive E.Is to detect precipitation F. Is used to detect nonspecific immunity

a, c, d

1.1 Recognition of self molecules by immune system is important for A. Activation of natural killers involved in innate immunity B. Binding and identification of consequences of the future cooperation C. Induction of TCR and BCR expression on the self molecules D. Stimulation of binding with E. Activation of processes leading to kill the cell presenting self molecules

b

18.1. Which of the following describes a common use of an adjuvant? A. To diminish 8-cell clone expansion and antibody synthesis B. To enhance the effect of a vaccine C. To improve antibody deficiencies D. To inhibit translation of genes encoding numerous cytokines E. To treat inflammatory diseases including autoimmune disorders

b

Accelerated reaction to graft is characterised by rejection A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

b

Activation of complement immediatly after the second exposition to antigen is doneby A. Alternative path B. Classical path C.MBL path

b

Antibodies connected with innate (maternally derived) immunity of newborne baby is A. IgM B. IgG C. IgE D. IgA E. IgD

b

Antibodies mediated accumulation of macrophages in the site of pathogen arises thanks to A. Receptors for complement B. Fc receptors C. KIR - killer activation receptors D. PRR - pattern recognition receptors E. TLR - toll like receptors

b

Antibodies of acute phase of infection are A. IGD B. IgM C. IgE D. IgA E. IgG

b

Antigen presenting cells (APC): a. Are not in lymph nodes b. Can phagocyte c. Do not present antigen to T cells

b

B-1 B cells when compared with B-2 B cells A. arise later in development B. aremore important for innate immunity mechanisms C. have IgD than IgM molecules D. recognise more antigens E. require T cell cooperation for activation

b

CH50 is a A. Specific immunity function B. Nonspecific immunity function

b

Cells of lymphoid line A. Are most frequent leucocyte population B. Is formed by T, B, and NK cells C. Contain cytoplasmatic granules D. Differentiat from precursors of myeloid cells E. Phagocyte rests of foreign cells.

b

Discrimination of immunocompetent cells of specific immunity is possible based on a) Morpfological signs b) Specific surface molecules c) Spontaneous production of cytokines d) Presence of granules

b

Herd effect is not possible A. if more than 85 % are vaccinated B. for tetanus and rabies C. diphtheria, pertussis, haemophilus meningitis D. measles, rubeolla, mumps E. poliomyelitis, variola -small pox

b

Immunological memory deals with A. Activation of phagocyting cells leading to ingestion of mibrobial invaders B. Stability of innate immunity reaction to reexposition to the same microbe C. Recognition of PAMP via PRR D. Stimulation of defective host cell with reduced amount of MHC molecules to do the apoptosis

b

In patient with allergy the cross binding of the allegen molecule with Fab fragment of immunoglobulinwill activate degranulation of mediators: A. IgA B. IgE C. IgG D. Histamin E. Mastocytes

b

Inactivation of serum is done by heating the fresh serum to 37 °C for 3O ́(min.) A. correct B. wrong

b

MHC II molecule is active in a) Recognision of antigens b) Presentation of antigens c) Neutralisation of antigens d) Stimulation of cytotoxic immunity

b

MHC II molecules are expressed on A. All cells with nucleus B. Antigen presenting cells C. on erytrocytes D. on mastocytes E. on T cells

b

Mean number of phagocyted elements by 1 PMNL is indicatedby: a. Fagocyting activity b. Index of fagocytosis

b

Patient treated by PNC with symptoms ofdyspnoe, hypotnesion, tachycardia, malaise with positivity of antibodies against PNC present on erytrocytesare typical for: A. hypersensitivity Itype mediated by IgG B. hypersensitivity IItype mediated by IgG C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG D. hypersensitivity III type mediated by IgG andIgM E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cellsi

b

Permanent uretral catheter as one of the cause of cystitis (inflamation of urine bladder) results in A. production of conditions favorable for changes of molecules between epitelium and environment B. introduction of microorganisms in urethra C. secretion of mucus from epithelial cells D. changes of pH of urine E. all possibilities are correct

b

Predominant form of leucocytes in the blood of patient with longlasting pyogenic bacterial infection are A. B lymphocytes B. Juvenil and inmature neutrophils - neutrophils are predominant in all infections C. Monocytes a macrophages D. Natural killers E. T lymphocytes

b

Presentation of extraceluluarbacteria to T cells is enabled by molecules on APC a) MHC I b) MHC II c) IgG d) TcR

b

Recognition of self molecules by immune system is important for A. Activation of natural killers involved in innate immunity B. Binding and identification of consequences of the future cooperation C. Induction of TCR and BCR expression on the self molecules D. Stimulation of binding with E. Activation of processes leading to kill the cell presenting self molecules

b

Substance that resemble toxin, that has its antigenic and immunogenic properties but not toxic properties is called A. antitoxin B. toxoid C. toxin D. antibody E. hapten

b

The role of classical complementpathway is to: A. Cleave to immunoglobulin molecules onFc fragments B. Lysemicrobe C. Recognise specific epitops on microbes D. To start degranulation of histamin E. Inhibit degranulation of hi

b

Thymus is the place of primary differenciation of A. B cells B. T cells C. Erytrocytes D. Heamtopoetic stem cells E. Neutrofils

b

To detect dynamics of total antibodies we need A. one sample B. at least 2 sample

b

To myeloid line are not involved: a. Eozinofils b. NK cells c. Macrophages

b

Transplantatfrom the genetically identical twin is A. autotransplantat B. isotransplantat C .allotransplantat D. heterotransplantat E. idiotransplantat

b

Which of below mentioned molecules induce the strongest specific immune reaction in man A. 250 000 Da self plasmatic protein B. 150 000 Da toxin produced by bacterium C. 500 Da plasmatic protein from monkey D. 400 Da molecule from foreign man E. 200 Da molecule of carbohydrate that is the same in all biological species

b

Which of mentioned cells are present on the place of infection by worms A. basofils B. eosinofils C. lymphocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

b

Which of mentioned way is correct to indicate the titer of antigodies: A. 16O B. 1: 16O C. 1 x16O

b

The antigen can be bound for better visualisation of aglutination on: A. Other corpuscular antigen or body B. erytrocyete C. latex particules D. all answers are correct -also bacteria. Not sure about this one...

b, c

12.2 Which of mentioned cells are the source of the 2nd signal to T cell after immunological synapsis is produced A. APC B. Anergised T cell C. CD4+T cells D. B cells E. Naive T cells-thymocytes

c

13.1 A previously healthy 8-month-old girl with fever and wheezing is diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RVS) infection. Assuming that this is the child´s first exposure to RVS, which of the following mechanisms will most likely operate to clear the infection? A. CD4+ T cell-mediated necrosis of infected cells B. complement-mediate lysis of infected cells C. Cytotoxic T cell-induced apoptosis of infected cells D. MHC I presentation of viral peptides on CD8+ T cells E. virus-specific antibodies that neutralize free virus

c

4.7 Which of bellow mentionned cells undergo differenciation in thymus A. basofils B. eosinofils C. lymfocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

c

Activation of B cell results in A. Presentation of MHC Iby dendritic cells B. Recognition of epitop by surface IgD andIgM C. Transmission of signal from BCR andCD4+ T cell to the nucleus D. Isotypte switch E. Lysis of antigen by proteasomes

c

Acute reaction to graft is characterised by rejection A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

c

Allergic reaction is induced by A. adjuvans - helps increasing a reaction B. hapten - needs to be conjugatet to give reaction C. immunogen D. tolerogen - induce unresponsiveness and diminishes responce E. no of answer is correct

c

Antigen antibody binding that will result in incapability of microbe to bind on target cells is: A. agglutination B. complement activation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

c

Antigen react with antibodies A. Only in vivo B. Only in vitro C. In vivo and in vitro

c

Autoimmune disease is characterised by A. production of antibodies against self structures B. production of specific T cells against self structures C. reactions (cellular and humoral immunity) against self structures

c

Changes of IgM to IgE is enabled by the process: A. Immunity maturation B. Allel exclusion C. Isotype switch D. Junction diversity E. somatic hypermutation

c

Complement fixation reaction is a) in vivo reaction to detect activity of complement b) reaction detectiongconcentration of complemnt molecules in serum of patient c) is serological reaction d) is reaction in vitro to detect 50% of hemolytical activity of complement

c

Constant regions of heavy chains in molecules of immunoglobulin influence A. Epitope B. Fab fragment C. Isotype D. Idiotype E. Antigentic specificity

c

During early stages of lymphocyte development the receptor-epitop binding can results in inactivation or death of the lymphocyte, or unresponsivness. The epitop is A. hapten B. immunogen C. tolerogen D. carrier E. adjuvans

c

Formation of pMHC Ion infected cell A. Results in BCRs cross binding and signalisation to the nucleus B. CD4+ T cell secretion of IL-4 C. CD8+ T cell killing ofinfected cell D. Naive Th1 cell secretion ofcytokines E. Th0 cells differentioate to Th2 cell

c

Fragments of intracelular pathogen are presented toT cell A. by activation of PRR on the cell surface B. by pinocytosis to gd T cells C. by molecules of MHC ItoCD8+ T cells D. by molecules of MHC II to CD8+ T cell E. by molecules of MHC II to CD4+ T cell

c

Glomerulonefritis can be caused by: A. hypersensitivity Itype mediated by CD4+T cells B. hypersensitivity IItype mediated by IgM antibodies C. hypersensitivity III type mediated by free IgG molecules D. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by B cells E. hypersenzitivitu IV typu mediated by IgG or IgM i

c

Immunocompetent cells - lymphocytes - are stimulated by binding of antigens to the surface receptors. This activity is influenced by: A. A single and the only receptor per cell B. A single type of receptor found on all cells C. Integration of several signals generated by multiple receptors on single cells D. Multiple receptors that bind soluble ligands only E. Nonspecific receptors binding a wide spectrum of ligands

c

Imunoglobuline other than monomeric structure is a) IgG, IgE, IgD b) IgG, IgA, IgD, IgE c) IgM, IgA, d) IgG, IgE

c

In vaccination against variola -small pox -the attenuated annimal virus was used to prevent human virus infection (antigenic similarity and cross reacting immunity). Similarprinciple is used in vaccination against A. tuberculosis B. tetanus C. measles D. poliomyelitis E. pertussis

c

NK cells - natural killers - belong to: A. basofils B. eosinofils C. lymphocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

c

NKT cells A. are usually CD8 pocitive B. bind with pMHC II C. have TCR D. synthesise immunoglobulin E. present Ig on their surface

c

Natural killers induce lysis of infected cell, that has the decreased exposition of MHC I molecules. NK cells do this by activation of receptors: A. receptors for complement B. Fc receptors C. KAR - killer activation receptors D. KIR - killer inhibition receptros E. TCR

c

Number of polypeptid chains is the biggest in a) IgG b) IgM c) IgE d) IgD

c

On the surface of cytotoxic T cells is a) IgG b) CD 4 c) CD 8 d) p 24

c

PAMP - pathogen-associated molecular patterns A. Enable lymphocytes to recognise microbes and disrupt them B. Are cystein-rich peptides of leucocytes C. Are recognised by PRR - receptors of innate immunity D. Are proteins on the surface of infected cell E. Induce secretion of interferons

c

Part of nonspecific cell immunty function is detected by A. Concentration of lysosyme B. Bactericidal activity of serum C. Phagocyting activity D. Number of lymphocytes

c

Patient with symptoms of sneezing, congestion in nose, respiratory problems becoming worse when he enters his house that is wet and molds are present on the walls and with skin tests for hypersensitivity positive has: A. Contact dermatitis B. DTH C. Hypersensitivity type I D. Hypersensitivity type II E. Hypersensitivity type III

c

Reumatoidfactor is A. IgM antibody bound on Fc fragment IgG B. Diagnostical for reumatic feve C. Both are correct

c

Specific IgM antibodies in serum from the blood taken from umbilical cord is indicating a) Intrauterine infection of the fetus b) Transplacentarly transmitted antibodies from mother c) Perinatal infection d) Postnatal infection

c

State of unresponsivness of T lymphocytes that exists after production of immunological synapsis is A. allergy B. apoptosis C. anergy D. autoimmunity E. hypersensitivity

c

Synthetic molecule that bind the receptors on B cells, but does not stimulise their production of specific antibodies unless it is conjugated with bigger immunogenic molecules is A. adjuvans B. carrier C. hapten D. immunogen E. tolerogen

c

TCR -receptor on CD8+T cells -recognises fragments of peptid bound in A. CD3 molecule B. CD4 molecule C. MHC I molecule D. MHC II molecule E. MHC III molecule

c

Titer is indicating A. dilution of antigen B. dilution of antibodies C. quanitative value of specific serological reaction D. qualitative value of specific serological reaction

c

Transplantat from parents is A. Autotransplantat B. Isotransplantat C. Allotransplantat D. Heterotransplantat E. idiotransplantat

c

Vaginal candidosis (infection produced by funguses - microbes) after ATB therapy is caused by: A. The ammount of secreted lysosyme in vagina B. The ammount of secreted mucus in vagina C. Changes in physiological flora D. pH in vagina E. changes of function of epitelial cells

c

Which of bellow mentionned cells undergo differenciation in thymus A. basofils B. eosinofils C. lymfocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

c

Which of below mentioned bind peptid to MHC II A. CD4+ T B. CD8+ T C. Dendriticcells D. gd T cells E. neutrofils

c

Which of below mentionned structures on microbes are recognised by human immune system molecules. A. MHC I molekuly B. MHC II molekuly C. PAMP D. PRR E. SGR

c

Which of mentioned possibilities is the example of physiological barrier inhibiting colonisation by microorganisms: A. respiratory tract with pH - 9,0 - 11,0 B. skin - pH around 8,0 C. stomac - pH 1,0 - 3,0 D. upper part of GIT pH - 6,5 - 7,5 E. vagina pH around 7,0

c

Which of molecules is present onCD4+ T cell A. BCR B. CD1d C. CD3 D. CD8 E. CD19

c

Serotypisation is to detect: A. specific humoral immunity B. specific cellular immunity C. antigenic structure of microbe

c (antigenic structure of microbe with the help of antibodies)

B lymphocytes exprimethe molecule of immunoglobulin A. That is specific for 2 to10different antigens B. In phagosome and cytoplasma C. In membrane complex containingCD3 D. On their surface membrane E. Only before leaving bone marrow

d

Bactericidal activity of serum is test of A. quantitative to detect specific immunity B. qualitative to detect specific immunity C. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity D. qualitative to detect non specific immunity

d

Binding of epitop on Fab portion of molecule before its Fc fragment anchors in target structure is not required for A. molecule of the carrier B. conjugate of hapten-carrier C. hapten D. IgE - Fc bind IgE before it has encountered their epitope E. IgG

d

By detecting the concentration of C3, C4 components of complement in serum of patient we detect: a. Specific cell immunity b. Specific humoral immunity c. Non specific cellular immunity d. Non specific humoral immunity

d

C3b is able to bind on a microbe that will make it more attractive for phagocytosis. This process is A. agglutination B. complement activation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

d

Deficiency of immune system to recognise epitope and eliminate it is A. autoimmunity B. positive selection C. negative selection D. tolerance E. supression

d

Detection of acute phase inflamation in serum of patient is to detect A. Specific cell immunity B. Špecific humoral immunity C. Non specific cell immunity D. Non specific humoral immunity

d

Detetion of lysosyme is the test of a) specific cellular immunity b) non-specific cellular immunity c) specific humoral immunity d) non-specific humoral immunity e) bactericidal activity of saliva

d

Epitop-specific receptors on T lymfocytes (TCR) are present a) In cytoplasma and/or on membrane bound proteins b) In plasma, lympha other body fluids c) On surface of plasmatic cells d) As transmembrane polypeptides e) In lipid bilayer of nucleus

d

Hyperaccute reaction to graft is characterised by A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

d

Inactivation and destructon of lymphocytes bearing the BCR or TCR recognising self molecules results in A. autoimmunity B. positive selection C. negative selection D. tolerance E. supression

d

Nonspecific immune mechanisms do not include A. chemokines - present B. complement - present C. defenzines - present D. memory cells E. Interferon type 1 - present

d

Primary lymfoid organs are those in which A. Specific immunity is activated B. Filtration of cell debrits are performed C. Circulating leucocytes communicate mutually D. Lymphocytes undergo the basical differenciation E. PRRs bind antigens

d

Red blood cells arise from A. granulocyte line B. lymfocyte line C. monocyte line D. myeloid line E. trombocyte line

d

Repeated pneumoniae - infectious inflamation of lung- caused by oportunistic pathogens in patient with impaired cilliated epitelium of bronchuses is conditioned by: A. decreased IgA antibodies production B. changes in total antibodies production C. decrease of pH D. decrease of nonspecific immune reactions E. impairement of specific immune mechanism

d

Serotypisation is the method to detect A. Specific immunity B. Nonspecific immunity C. Antibody titer D. Antigenic structure of microbe

d

The first vaccination was directed against A. Rabies B. measels C. tetanus D. small pox E. chicken pox

d

To detect soluble molecules -toxin for ex. Which test can be use: A. agglutination B. precipitation C. diffusion D. B and C is correct

d

Transplantat of skin from of animal given to man is A. Autotransplantat B. Isotransplantat C. Allotransplantat D. Heterotransplantat E. idiotransplantat

d

Which of mentione reaction is induced by interaction of host cell membrane with IgM or IgG antibodies A. Arthus reaction B. Serum disease C. hypersenzitivity Itype D. hypersensitivity II type E. hypersensitivity IV type

d

Which of mentioned cells need cooperation ofpMHC with costimulatory 2nd signals from APCto be activated. A. anergised T cells B. B cells C. Mastocytes D. Naïve T cells E. Natural killers

d

White pulpe of spleen is rich on A. erytrocytes B. CD4+CD8+T cells -double positive C. NK cells D. Plasmatic cells E. Precursores ofB cells

d

During restimulations of memory B cells the minor mutation in DNA encoding variable part of light and heavy chains will result in A. Isotype swich B. Decrease of antigenic specificity C. Exclusion of allels D. Specificity maturation E. apoptosis of the cell

d (generation of antibody with increased binding affinity for its epitope)

Antibody (immunoglobulin) a) Is synthesised and secreated by B and T cells - only by B-cells b) Binds several different epitop at once c) Contains 4 different polypeptids of light chains - 2 light, 2 heavy d) Recognises specific epitopes and self molecules e) Recognises antigens that lead to destruction of the antigens

e

Chronical reaction to graft is characterised by rejection A. Within minutes B. Resulting from activity of existing sensibilised T cells C. Resulting from production of new reaction to nonself antigens in graft D. Resulting from preexisting antibodies E. Resulting from the lost of tolerance

e

Contact dermatitis example of A. hypersensitivity Itype mediated by CD4+T cells B. hypersensitivity Itype mediated by CD8+T cells C. hypersensitivity II type mediated by CD8+T cells D. hypersensitivity III type mediatedby CD4+T cells E. hypersensitivity IV type mediated by CD4+T cells

e

Deficiency in complement system will be presented by important impairment of A. opsonization B. bacterial lysis C. inflammation generation D. non-specific immunity E. all answers are correct

e

Deficiency in lymphoid line is presented by A. Impairment in specific humoral immunity B. Impairment in non-specific cellular immunity C. Impairment in ADCC D. Impairment in DTH E. All answers are correct

e

Deficiency inT cell immunity is presented by A. Mild specific humoral immunity impairment B. Non-specific cellular immunity impairment C. Impairement in ADCC D. DTH impairement E. All answers are correc

e

Immunologically privileged organs or tissues are A. cornea B. placenta C. lumen of tubules of testes D. brain E. all are correct

e

Imunological synapsis is A. binding of PAMP to PRR B. Restriction ofCD4+ T cells forMHC I molecule C. Selective anergy of T cells D. Recognition of free peptidesby T cells E. Contact between APC andT cell

e

In microscopic smear of the pus from bacterial infection site there will be mostly present A. bazofils B. eozinofils C. lymphocytes D. monocytes E. neutrofils

e

Migration ofB lymfocyte to aspecific place (e.g. lymphatic node) depend on production of A. antibodies B. CD8 molecule C. CD3 molecule D. complement E. Selectins

e

Negative selection of T cells is produced in A. periferal blood circulation B. bone marrowi C. lymphatic node D. spleen E. thymus

e

PRR - pattern recognition receptors - can bind A. B and T lymphocytes B. Host-cell molecules C. MHC I molecules D. NK cells E. PAMP (pathogen-associated molecular patterns)

e

Periferal tolerance is produced A. in primary lymphoid organs in utero B. inprimary lymphoid organs after birth C. by regulatory inhibition of autoreactive cells D. not existence of the 2nd signal to activate T lymphocytes after formation of immunological synapsis E. C and D is correct

e

Positive selection of T cell: A. Is done in bone marrow B. Means production of specific TCRC.Is the migration of stem cells to tymus D. Is programmed death of autoreactive T cells E. Recognition ofself MHC by double positive thymocytes

e

Presence oflipopolysaccharid from bacterial cell wall in the tissue stimulates (nonspecific stimulation) A. APCcells to cytokines secretion B. Release of cytokines to activate leucocytes C. Stimulation and sectretion of IFN-g that activate leucocytes D. Th0 cells differentiate to Th1 cells E. All answere are correct

e

SGR (somatically generated receptors) (e.g. BCR (B-cell receptors) resp TCR (T-cell receptors)) on B and T lymphocytes are A. Bound only to MHC I molecules B. Encoded to recognise PAMP C. First to be produced after exposition to foreign molecule D. Of the same specificity in everybody E. Randomly generated during intrauterine development

e

Test (diffusion in agar) that identifies production on not soluble complexes of soluble antigen with antibody is the example of A. agglutination B. complement activation C. neutralisation D. opsonisation E. precipitation

e

The cleavage of the immunoglobulin molecule by pepsin results in production of A. Separated heavy and light chains B. Inhibition of antigen binding C. 2 individual antigen binding fragments D. In cold crystalising structures E. Dimer of antigen binding molecules

e

Transplantation success depend on A. Family relationship B. Genetical match C. imunosupresive therapy D. ABC is correct E. BC is correct

e

Whicb of mechanisms are/isresponsible for repeated infection with influenza virus A. Neutralisation antibodies are short living B. Low stimulation ofCD4+ T cells to produce memory cells C. Intracellular localisation disable stimulation of immune system D. Hypersensitivity type 1 is present only in second exposition E. Variability of viral antigens

e

Which of below mentioned molecules are expressed on the surfaces of human infected cells or abnormal cells and are recognised as stress molecules by NK cells A. Alfa or beta defensines B. C3 convertase and properdine C. Cytokines and chemokines D. Interferon and/or interferon beta E. MICA and MICB

e

Which of characteristic is consistent with mucous membrane immunity A. Rapid answer against all molecules B. Chronical inflammation producing unfavourable conditions form microbes C. IL-2 andIFN-g produce favourable environment for TH1 D. Secretion of IgGis more important than secretion of IgA E. Tolerance to foreign antigens is more regular than exceptional

e

Which of mentione izotypes of antbodies activate complemet cascade if bound to antigen A. IgA and IgD B.IgA and IgE C.IgA and IgM D.IgE and IgG E.IgG and IgM

e

Which of mentionned cells engulf extracellular bacterial antigens and are not antigen presentig cells A. basofils B. dendritic cells C. eosinofils D. macrophages E. Neutrofils

e

Which of problems is typical for patients with aplasia of tymus A. problems of B cells development only B. inactivation of complement system C. dysfunction ofNK cells D. dysfunction of cellular immunity E. dysfunction in T lymphocyte differenciation and B cell mediated immunity

e

tivation of complement after the 1st exposition to antigen is done by A. Alternative way B. Classicalwaye C. MBL way D. All answers are correct E. A and C is correct

e

CH50 is a F. detection of hemolytical activity of complement G. Specific immunity function qualitative test H. Nonspecificimmunity function qualitative test

f

Graft versus host reaction is F. Typical for reaction after transplantation of bone marrow G. Typical for reaction in second transplantation H. Characterised by rising success in direction auto, iso, allo, xeno I. Characterised by existence of preformed antibodies J. All answers are correct

f

Serologica reactions are reactions of F. antigen with antibody to detect specific immunity G. antigen with antibody to detect nonspecific immunity H. antigen with complement to detect nonspecific immunity I. antigen with complement to detect specific immunity

f

Complete antigen: F. hapten G. semihapten H. imunogen

h

Measurement of C3, C4 complementu molecules in seurm of patient detect: e. Špecific cell immunity f. Špecific humoral immunity g. Nonspecific cell immunity h. Nonspecific humoral immunity

h

Antibodies connected with innate intrauterine disease of newborne baby is h. IgM i. IgG j. IgE k. IgA l. IgD

i

Titer is I. Dilution of serum J. Indicating the amount of antibodies in not diluted serum K. For ex. 1:124 L. Indicate the number of vial in witch the reaction is positive M. Is to detect precipitation N. is used to detect nonspecific immunity

i, k, l

Bactericidal activity of serum is test: e. quantitative to detect specific immunity f. qualitative to detect specific immunity g. quantitative to detect nonspecific imunity j. qualitative to detect non specific immunity

j