Instrument -Written-

(refer to fig 133) What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern at Riverside Municipal? A. direct B. parallel C. teardrop

A. direct

A temp inversion will normally form only A. in stable air B. in unstable air C. when a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass

A. in stable air If the temp increases with altitude though a layer (an inversion), the layer is stable and convection is suppressed. Air may be unstable beneath in the inversion

(refer to fog 127) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to Category A aircraft Last assigned altitude 3000 ft A. proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER B. proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart C. proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1

A. proceed straight in from CRISY, descending to MDA after CASER

What are the primary benefits of satellite based area navigation (RNAV)? A. provides optimal routing and altitudes B. radio tuning and controller communication is minimized C. standard terminal arrival routes and departure procedures are not required

A. provides optimal routing and altitudes

What does the mini aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display? A. rate of roll and rate of turn B. angle of bank and rate of turn C. angle of bank

A. rate of roll and rate of turn

The Low Level Significant Weather Prog Chart depicts weather conditions A. that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart B as the existed at the time the chart was prepared C. that existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received

A. that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart

What info does a Mach meter present? A. the ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed to sound B. the ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound C. the ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound.

A. the ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed to sound

(refer to fig 101) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station? A. 060* B. 260* C. 270*

B. 260*

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan (refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Route of flight.............................figs 69,70, & 71 flight log & MAG VAR...................................fig 70 JUDDS TWO ARRIVAL...............................fig 72 and Excerpt from AFD FT 3000 6000 9000 12000 BDL 3320 3425+05 3425+05 3430+00 A. 1hour 14 min B. 58 min C. 50 min

B. 58 min

(refer to figs 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation " E" correspond? A. 5 B. 6 C. 15

B. 6

When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as A. 6PSM B. P6SM C. 6SMP

B. P6SM

What affect with a slight crosswind approximately 7 knots have on a vortex behavior? A. The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex drinks. B. The upland vortex would tend to remain over the runway. C. The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

B. The upland vortex would tend to remain over the runway.

(refer to fig 72) How many precision approach procedures are published for Bradley International Airport? A. One B. Three C. Four

B. Three

Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower? A. automatic closing of the IFR flight plan B. airport advisories C. all functions of approach control

B. airport advisories

What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized autorotation? A. altimeter B. airspeed indicator C. VSI

B. airspeed indicator

If a helicopter is in an unusual flight attitude and teh attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery? A. turn indicator and VSI B. airspeed, VSI and altimeter C. VSI and airspeed to detect approaching V s1 or V mo

B. airspeed, VSI and altimeter

when an altimeter is changed form 30.11 to 29.96, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value? A. altimeter will indicate 15 lower B. altimeter will indicate 150 lower C. altimeter will indicate 150 higher

B. altimeter will indicate 150 lower

What conclusion(s) can be drawnfrom a 500 millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180? A. winds aloft at FL180 generally flow across the height contours B. observed temp, wind and temp/dewpoint spread along the proposed route can be approximated C. upper highs, low, trough, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.

B. observed temp, wind and temp/dewpoint spread along the proposed route can be approximated

An abbreviated departure clearance "...CLEARED AS FILED..." will always contain the name A. and umber of the STAR to b\e flown when filed in the fight plan B. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan C. of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment

B. of the destination airport filed in the flight plan

The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially? A. pitch and power B. power only C. pitch only

B. power only

What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage? A. The anvil top has completed its development B. precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base C. a gust front forms.

B. precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base

(refer to fig 130) how does an LDA facility, such as the one at Roanoke Regional, differ from a standard ILS approach facility? A. the LOC is wider B. the LOC is offset from the runway C. the GS is unusable beyond the MM

B. the LOC is offset from the runway

(Refer to fig 13) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power? A. 3 B. 2 C. 1

C. 1

(refer to fig 77) AT which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection? A. 6500 ft MSL B. 1400 ft MSL C. 10200 ft MSL

C. 10200 ft MSL

(refer to fig. 20) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky? A. FL390 B. FL300 sloping to FL400 ft. MSL C. FL340

C. FL340

What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed? A. attitude indicator B. VSI C. airspeed indicator

C. airspeed indicator

The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will A. indicate the angle of bank B. remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed C. increase as angle of bank increases

C. increase as angle of bank increases

An airport may not be qualified for alternate use if A. the airport has AWOS-3 weather reporting B. the airport is located next to ta restricted or prohibited area C. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored

C. the NAVAIDs used for the final approach are unmonitored

What autopilot function should you turn off if icing is suspected? A. HDG (heading) mode. B. AUTO Approach (APP) mode C. turn autopilot off.

C. turn autopilot off.

Which is the max tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the aircraft is directly over the airborne checkpoint? A. plus or minus 6* of the designated radial B. plus 6* or minus 4* of the designated radial C. plus or minis 4* of the designated radial

...A. plus or minus 6* of the designated radial

What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning from straight and level flight to a standard rate turn to the left? A. attitude indicator B. heading indicator C. turn coordinator (miniature aircraft).

A. attitude indicator

(refer to fig 131) What determines the MAP for the straight-n VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS? A. RULSY way point B. .5 NM to RULSY way point C. 2.5 to RULSY at 840 ft MSL

B. .5 NM to RULSY way point

(refer to fig 100) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4? A. 285* B. 055* C. 235*

B. 055*

(refer to instruments in fig 103) On the basis of this info, the magnetic bearing FROM the station would be A. 030* B. 060* C. 240*

B. 060*

(refer to fig 118) During the ILS RWY 12L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative? A. 1420 ft B. 1360 ft C. 1121 ft

B. 1360 ft

(Refer to figs. 27 and 28) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temp is 5*C? A. 134 KCAS B. 139 KCAS C. 142 KCAS

B. 139 KCAS

(refer to figs 96 and 97) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. 11 B. 5 and 13 C. 7 and 11

B. 5 and 13

How wide is an SDF coutse? A. either 3 or 6 degrees B. either 6 or 12 degrees C. varies from 5 to 10 degrees

B. either 6 or 12 degrees

If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12500 ft MSL, but not more than 14,000 ft MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 min, how long during that time is the min flight crew required to use supplemental oxygen? A. 2 hours 20 min B. 1 hour 20 min C. 1 hour 50 min

C. 1 hour 50 min

(refer to fig. 144) which illustration indicates a slipping turn? A. 1 B. 3 C. 2

C. 2

(refer to fig 93) Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace? A. 14500 ft MSL B. 18000 ft MSL C. 60000 ft MSL

C. 60000 ft MSL

(refer to fig 135) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths? A. 5 B. 6 C. 7

C. 7

(refer to fig 32) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. A B. C C. I

C. I

(refer to fig 44) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. A B. C C. I

C. I

(refer to fig 56) What aircraft equipment coded should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. U B. A C. I

C. I

The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon A. true airspeed B. calibrated airspeed C. ground speed

C. ground speed

(refer to fig 29) What is teh TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field? A .363 ft MSL B. 365 ft MSL C. 396 ft MSL

A .363 ft MSL

(refer to fig 58) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for the flight? VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME #1 #2 A. 097* FROM 101* FROM 3.3 B. 097* TO 096* TO 3.2 C. 277* FROM 280* FROM 3.3

A. 097* FROM 101* FROM 3.3

(refer to fig 100) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

A. 1

(refer to fig 104) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 115* radial? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

A. 1

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 4 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 135* magnetic bearing TO the station? A. 1 B. 4 C. 8

A. 1

(refer to fig 81) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR's are satisfactory? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4

A. 1

(refer to fig 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A. 1 B. 8 C. 11

A. 1

(refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan GJT to DRO Route of flight.....................................figs 21 flight log & MAG VAR..........................fig 22 En route chart....................................fig 24 FT 12000 18000 FNM 2408-05 2208-21 A. 1 hour 08 min B. 1 hour 03 min C. 58 min

A. 1 hour 08 min

(refer to figs 21 and 21A, 22 and 22A, 23, 24, 25, and 26) After departing GJT and arriving at Durango Co., La Plata Co. Airport, you are unable to land because of weather. How long can you hold over DRO before departing for return flight to the alternate, Grand Junction Co., Walker Field Airport? Total useable fuel on board, 68 gallons Average fuel consumption 15 GPH Wind and velocity at 16000, 2308-16 A. 1 hour 33 min B. 1 hour 37 min C. 1 hour 42 min

A. 1 hour 33 min

(refer to fig 92) What is the min inflight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a fight at 8500 ft MSL (above 1200 ft AGL ) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours in area 4? A. 1 mile; (E) 1000 ft; (g) 2000 ft; (H) 500 ft. B. 3 miles; (E) 1000 ft; (g) 2000 ft; (H) 500 ft. C. 5 miles (E) 1000 ft; (g) 1 mile ; (H) 1000 ft.

A. 1 mile; (E) 1000 ft; (g) 2000 ft; (H) 500 ft.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180*? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 3 min

A. 1 min

If a standard rated turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right form a heading of 090* to a heading of 270*? A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 3 min

A. 1 min

Approx what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude? A. 10 percent B. 20 percent C. 25 percent

A. 10 percent

To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approx A. 10 percent of the vertical speed B. 30 percent of the vertical speed C. 50 percent of the vertical speed

A. 10 percent of the vertical speed

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an off airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain? A. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course B. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle with 5 SM of course C. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course

A. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course

Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain? A. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course B. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course C. 2000 ft above he highest obstacle within 4 NM of course

A. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4 NM of course

(Refer to fig 69) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS if the OAT is +05*C? A. 119 KCAS B. 124 KCAS C. 126 KCAS

A. 119 KCAS

(refer to fig 133) If the Class B airspace is not effective, what is the LOC/VOR minima for a helicopter if cleared for the S-LOC 9 approach at Riverside Municipal? A. 1200 and 1/4 mile B. 991 and RVR 24 C. 1300 and 1/4 mile

A. 1200 and 1/4 mile

(refer to fig 36A) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S 33 approach procedure? A. 1240 ft MSL; 1 SM B. 1280 ft MSL; 1 1/4 SM C. 1300 ft MSL 1 SM

A. 1240 ft MSL; 1 SM

(Refer to fig. 38) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the OAT is +05*C? A. 129 KCAS B. 133 KCAS C. 139 KCAS

A. 129 KCAS

(refer to fig 24) Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver Center. You should attempt to reestablish contact with Denver Center on: A. 133.425 MHz B. 122.1 MHz and receive on 108.4 MHz C. 122.35 MHz

A. 133.425 MHz

(Refer to fig 44) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the OAT is +5*C? A. 147 KCAS B. 150 KCAS C. 154 KCAS

A. 147 KCAS

(refer to fig 42 and 42A) What is the difference in elevation (in ft. MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L? A. 15 ft B. 18 ft C. 22 ft

A. 15 ft

(refer to fig 139 and 142) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated? A. 1550 ft to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 ft below the glide slope B. 1550 ft to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 ft above the glide slope C. 775 ft to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 ft below the glide slope

A. 1550 ft to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 ft below the glide slope

(refer to fig 64) The course deviation indication (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the #1 and #2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check? VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME #1 #2 A. 162* TO 356* FROM B. 160* FROM 162* FROM C. 341* FROM 330* FROM

A. 162* TO 356* FROM

(refer to fig 73) What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6? A. 174 ft MSL B. 200 ft AGL C. 270 ft MSL

A. 174 ft MSL

(refer to fig 95) Which OBS selection on the #2 NAV would center the CDI? A. 174* B. 166* C. 335*

A. 174*

(refer to instruments in fig 102) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing FROM the station would be A. 175* B. 255* C. 355*

A. 175*

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a max as the aircraft rolls out of a A. 180* turn B. 270* turn C. 360* turn

A. 180* turn

Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is A. 18000 ft MSL B. 24000 ft MSL C.10000 ft MSL

A. 18000 ft MSL

(refer to fig 104) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 315* radial? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

A. 2

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 1 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 060* magnetic bearing TO the station? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5

A. 2

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 240* magnetic bearing TO the station? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

A. 2

What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation with Class C airspace? A. 2-way communications and mode C transponder B. 2- way communications C. transponder and DME

A. 2-way communications and mode C transponder

(refer to fig 55) Using a average ground speed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent form 2400 ft MSL at the 6 DME fix should enable the aircraft to arrive at 2000 ft MSL at the FAF? A. 200 ft per min B. 400 ft per min C. 600 ft per min

A. 200 ft per min

(Refer to fig. 2) What approx wind direction, speed, and temp (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL270? A. 265* true; 100 knots; ISA +3*C B. 270* true; 110 knots; ISA +5*C C. 260* magnetic; 100 knots; ISA -5*C

A. 265* true; 100 knots; ISA +3*C

(refer to fig. 12) What is the approx wind direction and velocity at 34000 ft (see arrow C)? A. 290*/50 knots B. 330*/50 knots C. 090*/ 48 knots

A. 290*/50 knots

(refer to fig. 144) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn? A. 3 B. 1 C. 2

A. 3

Wat is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace 9500 ft MSL with a VFR-on-top clearance during daylight hours? A. 3 SM, 1000 above, 500 below, and 2000 hort B. 5 SM , 500 above, 1000, below, and 2000 hort C. 3 SM, 500 above, 1000 below, and 2000 hort

A. 3 SM, 1000 above, 500 below, and 2000 hort

A "VRB" wind entry in a TAF will be indicated when the wind is A. 3 knots or less B. 6 knots or less C. 9 knots or less

A. 3 knots or less

Unsaturated air flowing up slope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate) A. 3*C per 1000 ft B. 2*C per 1000 ft C. 2.5*C per 1000 ft

A. 3*C per 1000 ft Unsaturated air moving upward and downward cools and warms at about 3*C per 1000 ft.

(refer to fig 68) What is the VASI approach slope angle for RWY 12 at Hounma-Terrebonne? A. 3.0* B. 2.8* C. 2.5*

A. 3.0*

When an alternate airport is required for helicopters on the flight plan, you must have sufficient fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate, and thereafter fly for at least A. 30 min at normal cruising speed B. 45 min at holding speed C. 45 min at normal cruising speed

A. 30 min at normal cruising speed

(refer to fig 34) At which altitude and location on V573 would you expect the navigational signal of the HOT VOR/DME to be unreliable? A. 3000 f at APINE intersection B. 2600 ft at MARKI intersection C. 4000 ft at ELMMO intersection

A. 3000 f at APINE intersection

(refer to fig 135) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths A. 4 B. 5 C. 6

A. 4

(refer to fig 96 and 97) to which aircraft position does HSI presentation "F" correspond? A. 4 B. 11 C. 5

A. 4

(refer to fig 129) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER? A. 4 DME miles from LABER B. 10 DME miles from the MAP C. 12 DME miles form LIT VORTAC

A. 4 DME miles from LABER

When making an airborne VOR check, what is the max allowable tolerance between the two indicators of dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)? A. 4* between the two indicated bearings of a VOR B. plus or minus 4* when set to identical radials of a VOR C. 6* between the two indicated radials of a VOR

A. 4* between the two indicated bearings of a VOR

During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound". The pilot is holding 20* correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic A. 40* to the right of the aircraft's nose B. 20* to the straight of the aircraft's nose C. straight ahead

A. 40* to the right of the aircraft's nose

(refer to fig 85) What is the minimum rate climb per NM to 9000 ft required for the WASH2 WAGGE departure? A. 400 ft B. 750 ft C. 875 ft

A. 400 ft

(refer to fig 130) At what minimum altitude should you cross CLAMM intersection during the S-LDA 6 approach at Roanoke Regional? A. 4200 MSL B. 4182 MSL C. 2800 MSL

A. 4200 MSL

(refer to Runway Incursion Fig) You have requested taxi instructions for takeoff using Runway 16. The controller issues the following taxi instructions: N123, Taxi to runway 16." Where are you required to stop in order to be in compliance with the controller's instructions? A. 5 (five) B. 6 (six) C. 9 (nine)

A. 5 (five)

(refer to fig 95) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM form the radial selected on the #1 NAV? A. 5.0 NM B. 7.5 NM C. 10.0 NM

A. 5.0 NM

The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of a1300 ft MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 3800 ft) SPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000 A. 500 ft B. 1700 ft C. 2500 ft.

A. 500 ft

The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 ft. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 6500 ft) METAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RABR OVC007 17/16 A2980 A. 5180 ft. B. 5800 ft C. 5880 ft.

A. 5180 ft.

(refer to fig 49) What is the usable runway length for landing on runway 21 at PDX A. 5957 ft B. 7000 ft. C. 7900 ft

A. 5957 ft

After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument proficiency check to act as pilot in command under IFR? A. 6 months B. 90 days C. 12 months

A. 6 months

Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP? UA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA MO4/ WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR A. 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial form Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172 B.Reported by a Cessna 172, turbulence and light rime icing in climb to 8000 ft. C. 63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from Oklahoma City, thunderstorm and light rain at 1522 UTC

A. 64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial form Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172

(refer to fig 136) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5*? A. 8 B. 9 C. 11

A. 8

(refer to figs 96 and 97) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation "A" correspond? A. 9 and 6 B. 9 only C. 6 only

A. 9 and 6

(refer to fig 78). When eastbound on V86 between Whitehall and Livingston, the minimum altitude that you should cross BZN is A. 9300 ft B. 10400 ft C. 8500 ft

A. 9300 ft

(Refer to fig 56) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the OAT is +5*C? A. 97 KCAS B. 101 KCAS C. 103 KCAS

A. 97 KCAS

(refer to fig 69) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. A B. B C. U

A. A

All helicopter are considered to be in which approach category for a helicopter IAP? A. A B. A or B, depending upon weight C. B

A. A

Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative? A. A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker. B. ADF or VOR bearings which cross either the outer or middle marker sites may be substituted for these markers. C. DME, but located on the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for the outer or middle marker.

A. A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.

Class G airspace is the airspace where A. ATC does not control air traffic B. ATC controls only IFR flights C. the min visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles

A. ATC does not control air traffic

Pilots on IFR flights seeking ATC in-flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that A. ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service. B. circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion C. ATC Narrow Band Radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability

A. ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.

You rather your destination airport on an IFR flight plan. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of the contact approach? A. Clear of clouds and at least one statute mile visibility. B. A ground visibility of at least two statute miles. C. A flight visibility of at least one half nautical miles

A. Clear of clouds and at least one statute mile visibility

Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause A. Coriolis illusion B. false horizon C. elevator illusion

A. Coriolis illusion

(refer to fig 124) The point on the teardrop procedure where the turn inbound (LOC RWY 35) Duncan/Halliburton, is initiated is determined by A. DME and timing to remain within the 10 NM limit B. timing for a 2 minute max C. estimating ground speed and radius of turn

A. DME and timing to remain within the 10 NM limit

A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check? A. Dec 31, this year B. June 30, next year C. July 31, this year

A. Dec 31, this year

(refer to fig 126) What is the ability to identify the RRS 2.5 stepdown fix with in terms of localizer circle to land minimums for a category C aircraft? A. Decreases MDA by 20 ft B. deceases visibility by 1/2 SM C. without the stepdown fix, a circling approach is not available

A. Decreases MDA by 20 ft

(refer to fig 120) The symbol on the plan view of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A. Denver VORTAC B. Gandi outer marker C. Denver/Stapleton International Airport

A. Denver VORTAC

(refer to fig. 8) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow G on the Radar Summary Chart? A. Echo bases 10000 ft MSL; cell movement toward NE at 15 knots; weak to mod. echoes; rain B. Area movement toward NE at 15 knots; rain decreasing in intensity; echo bases 1000 ft MSL; strong echoes C. Strong to very strong echoes; area movement toward NE at 15 knots echo tops 10000 ft MSL ; light rain

A. Echo bases 10000 ft MSL; cell movement toward NE at 15 knots; weak to mod. echoes; rain

(refer to fig. 8) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow E on the Radar Summary Chart? A. Highest echo tops 30000ft MSL, weak to mod. echoes, thunderstorms and rain showers, and cell movement toward NW at 15 knots B. Echo bases 29000 to 30000 ft MSL, strong echoes, rain showers increasing in tensity, and area movement toward NW at 15 knots. C. Thundershowers decreasing in intensity; area movement toward NW at 15 knots; echo bases 30000 ft MSL

A. Highest echo tops 30000ft MSL, weak to mod. echoes, thunderstorms and rain showers, and cell movement toward NW at 15 knots

(refer to fig 50) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. I B. T C. U

A. I

(refer to fig 49) What determines eh MAP on the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International Airport? A. I-GPO 1.2 DME B. 5.8 NM from ROBOT FAF C. 160* radial of BTG VORTGAC

A. I-GPO 1.2 DME

How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC ? A. IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel is LOC frequency box B. LOC/DME are indicated on en route low altitude frequency box C. LOC/DME frequencies available in the Airman's Information Manual

A. IAP indicate DME/TACAN channel is LOC frequency box

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under A. IFR B. VFR C. DVFR

A. IFR

A contact approach is an approach procedures that may be used A. In lieu of conducting a SIAP. B. If assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach. C. In lieu of a visual approach.

A. In lieu of conducting a SIAP.

(refer to fig. 8) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow F on the Radar Summary Chart? A. Line of echoes; thunderstorms; highest echo tops 45000 ft MSL; no line movement indicated B. Echo bases vary from 15000 ft to 46000 ft MSL; thunderstorms increasing in intensity; line of echoes moving rapidly toward the north C. line of severe thunderstorms moving from south to north; echo bases vary form 4400 ft to 4600 ft MSL; extreme echoes

A. Line of echoes; thunderstorms; highest echo tops 45000 ft MSL; no line movement indicated

Under which condition does advection fog usually form A. Moist air moving over colder ground or water B. warm, most air settling over a cool surface under no wind conditions C. a land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current

A. Moist air moving over colder ground or water Advection fog forms when moist air moves over colder ground or water

(refer to fig 30) Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable to the (GNAT1. MOURN) departure? A. R-333 beyond 30 NM BELOW 6500 ft. B. R-210 beyond 35 NM below 8500 ft. C. R-251 within 15 NM below 6100 ft.

A. R-333 beyond 30 NM BELOW 6500 ft.

the RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but he RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at he time. Which of the following would apply? A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility. B. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system. C. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.

RVR minimums for landing a prescribed and eight IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be operational consideration? A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and implied as ground visibility. B. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HI RL system. C. RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.

A. RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and implied as ground visibility.

The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of A. SIGMETS, CONVECTIVE SIGMETS, AIRMETS, Severe weather forecasts alerts (AWW), and center weather advisories B. SIGMETS, CONVECTIVE SIGMETS, AIRMETS, wind shear advisories, and sever weather forecast alerts (AWW) C. Wind shear advisories, radar weather reports, SIGMETS, CONVECTIVE SIGMETS, AIRMETS, and center weather adviories (CWA)

A. SIGMETS, CONVECTIVE SIGMETS, AIRMETS, Severe weather forecasts alerts (AWW), and center weather advisories

Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temp inversion layer when the relative humidity is high? A. Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds. B. Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light rain. C. Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus, and showery precipitation.

A. Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds a ground based inversion favors poor visibility by trapping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of the atmosphere. Wind just above the inversion may be relatively strong. A wind shear zone develops between the calm and the stronger winds above. Eddies in the shear zone cause airspeed fluctuations as an aircraft climbs or descends though the inversion.

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the northern hemisphere? A. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring B. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the left C. the compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft

A. The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach? A. The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned by a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist. B. pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field of sight; ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist. C. at any time the pilot reports the field inside coat, ATC may clear the pilot for a contact approach; for a visual approach, the pilot must advise that the approach can be made under VFR conditions.

A. The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned by a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.

Which pilot action is appropriate if More than one component of the ILS is unusable? A. Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable. B. Request another approach appropriate to the equipment that is usable. C. Raise the rooms of a total of that required by each component that is unusable.

A. Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable.

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience 2-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In the situation, you should continue your flight under A. VFR and land as soon as practicable B. VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination C. IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination

A. VFR and land as soon as practicable

(refer to fig 59) unless otherwise authorized by ATC, what is the min. equipment for navigation of helicopters on an IFR cross-country flight when in the immediate vicinity of the HUMBLE VORTAC? A. VOR receiver, transponder with mode C capability and 2 way communication B. transponder with mode C capability and 2 way communications C. VOR (or TACAN) and 2 way communication

A. VOR receiver, transponder with mode C capability and 2 way communication

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR? A. VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months B. ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months C. VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system within 12 calendar months

A. VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months

Which meteorological condition is issued tin the form of a SIGMET (WS)? A. Widespread sand or dust storms affecting at least 3000 square miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations B. moderate icing C. Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.

A. Widespread sand or dust storms affecting at least 3000 square miles or an area deemed to have a significant effect on the safety of aircraft operations

What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to a Victor airway? A. You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment B. radar service is terminated C. you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports

A. You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment

Which of the following is required equipment for operating an aircraft within Class B airspace? A. a 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment B. a VOR receiver with DME C. a 4096 code transponder

A. a 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment

To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, an aircraft must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is A. a clock with seep second pointer or digital presentation B. a radar altimeter C. a transponder with altitude reporting capability

A. a clock with seep second pointer or digital presentation list of required equipment on page 5-13

What is a way point when used for an IFR flight? A. a predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV instrument approach B/. a reporting pint defined by the intersection of the VOR radials C. a location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals

A. a predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV instrument approach

What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the plan view on an approach chart indicate? A. a procedure turn is not authorized B. teardrop-type procedure turn in authorized C. racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized

A. a procedure turn is not authorized

When an aircraft is not equipped with a transponder, what requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a flight within Class B airspace? A. a request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight B. the proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules C. the proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC)

A. a request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight

Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of A. a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path B. three separate light unit, each projecting a different color approach path C. three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approx 5 miles

A. a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path

What feature is associated with a temp inversion? A. a stable layer of air. B. An unstable layer of air. C. Air mass thunderstorms

A. a stable layer of air. A temp inversion occurs when the temp increases with altitude. A stable layer of air is characterized by warmer air lying above colder air. With an inversion, the layer is stable and convection is suppressed.

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system? A. a wind change B. an abrupt decrease in pressure C. clouds, either ahead or behind the front.

A. a wind change

what pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight? A. after 5 min, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns B. after 5 min, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft C. determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2* in 5 min of ground operation

A. after 5 min, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns

(refer to fig 108) Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wing tip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a left hand arc with a left crosswind component? A. ahead of the left wing tip reference for the VOR-2 B. ahead of the right wing tip reference for the VOR-1 C. behind the left wing tip reference for the VOR-2

A. ahead of the left wing tip reference for the VOR-2

While recovering form a unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approx level pitch attitude is reached when the A. airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend B. airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement C. altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement

A. airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend

While recovering form an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approx level pitch attitude is reached when the A. airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend. B. airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement C. altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement

A. airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.

While flying a 3* glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope? A. airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope B. airspeed ad pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope C. airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain a on the glide slope

A. airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope refer to diagram 1-30

Which instrument is considered primary for power as the airspeed reaches the desired value during change or airspeed in a level turn? A. airspeed indicator B. attitude indicator C. altimeter

A. airspeed indicator

Conditions that determine the pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are A. airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack B. flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack C. relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component

A. airspeed, air density, wing design, and angle of attack

How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart? A. all fixes that are labeled IAF B. any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix C. the procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring

A. all fixes that are labeled IAF

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available info concerning that flight including A. all instrument approaches at the destination airport B. an alternate airport and adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport C. the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the aircraft's takeoff and landing data

A. all instrument approaches at the destination airport

When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicted on the flight plan form? A. all points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix B. only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR portion of the flight C. only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR route segment

A. all points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix

What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn? A. altimeter B. VSI C. airspeed indicator

A. altimeter

(refer to fig 1) What info should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude? A. altitude for first leg B. altitude for first leg and highest altitude C. highest altitude

A. altitude for first leg

In which situation is advection fog most likely to form? A. an air mass moving inland form the coast in winter B. light breeze blowing colder air out to sea C. warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions

A. an air mass moving inland form the coast in winter

What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway? A. an upsloping runway B. a wider than usual runway C. a downsloping runway

A. an upsloping runway

(Refer to fig. 9) the severe weather outlook chart depicts A. areas of probable severe thunderstorms by the use of a single hatched areas on the chart B. areas of forecast, severe or extreme turbulence, and areas of severe icing for the next 24 hours. C. areas of general thunderstorm activity (excluding severe) by the use of hatching on the chart.

A. areas of probable severe thunderstorms by the use of a single hatched areas on the chart

(refer to fig 130) How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the S-LDA GS 6 approach to Roanoke Regional? A. arrival at 1540 ft on the glide slope B. arrival at 1.0 DME on the LDA course C. time expired for distance form OM to MAP

A. arrival at 1540 ft on the glide slope

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway? A. arrows leading to the threshold mark B. centerline dashes starting at the threshold C. red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway

A. arrows leading to the threshold mark

Assume this clearance is received "CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE-STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT." When would the pilot be expected to commence the side step maneuver? A. as soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight B. any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix C. after reaching the circling minimums for runway 07 right

A. as soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight

A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace A. at and above 10,000 ft MSL, excluding at and below 2500 ft AGL B. at and above 2500 ft above the surface C. below 10000 ft MSL, excluding at and below 2500 ft AGL

A. at and above 10,000 ft MSL, excluding at and below 2500 ft AGL

Where is DME required under IFR? A. at or above 24000 ft MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required B. in positive control airspace C. above 18000ft MSL

A. at or above 24000 ft MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value? A. at standard temp B. when the altimeter setting is 29.92 C. when indicated and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter

A. at standard temp

What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a constant rate? A. attitude indicator and turn coordinator B. heading indicator and attitude indicator C. heading indicator and turn coordinator

A. attitude indicator and turn coordinator

While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the A. attitude indicator shows the approx pitch attitude appropriate for the 160 knot climb B. attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb C. airspeed indication reaches 160 knots

A. attitude indicator shows the approx pitch attitude appropriate for the 160 knot climb

As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per min rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively? A. attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer B. VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator C. airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer

A. attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer

What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight? A. attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer B. attitude indicator for both pitch and bank; airspeed indicator for power C. vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer

A. attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach? A. automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower B. Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot C. when ATC advises "Radar service terminated; resume own navigation"

A. automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

(refer to fig 30) During the arc portion of the instrument departure procedure (GNATS1.MOURN), a left crosswind is encountered. Where should the bearing pointer of an RMI be referenced relative to the wing tip to compensate for wind drift and maintain the 15 DME arc? A. behind the right wing tip reference point B. on the right wing tip reference point C. behind the left wing tip refernce point

A. behind the right wing tip reference point

For helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only A. ceiling 200 ft above eh approach minimums and visibility 1 SM, but not less then the minimum visibility for the approach, at the alternate airport ETA B. ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 ft and 2 miles, respectively C. ceiling 100 ft above airport elevation and 2 SM visibility for 1 hour after the alternate airport ETA

A. ceiling 200 ft above eh approach minimums and visibility 1 SM, but not less then the minimum visibility for the approach, at the alternate airport ETA

When an alternate airport is required, for helicopters, what are the weather mins. that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure? A. ceiling 200 ft above the approach mins and at least 1 SM visibility, but not less than the min visibility for the approach B. ceiling 200 ft above field elevation and visibility 1 SM, but not less than the min visibility for the approach C. 600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility

A. ceiling 200 ft above the approach mins and at least 1 SM visibility, but not less than the min visibility for the approach

(refer to fig. 18 SFC 400MB) The 24 hour low level significant weather prog at 12Z indicates that southwestern Wes Virginia will likely experience A. ceilings less than 100 ft, visibility less than a3 miles B. clear sky and visibility greater than 6 miles C. ceiling 1000 to 3000 ft and visibility 3 to 5 miles

A. ceilings less than 100 ft, visibility less than a3 miles

When flying though stratiform clouds, the best way to alleviate icing is by A. changing altitude to one with above freezing temps or where temps are colder then -10*C B. slowly climbing out of the icing layer C. always descending to find war air below.

A. changing altitude to one with above freezing temps or where temps are colder then -10*C

What is a the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF? KMEM 091740Z 1818 0000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005= A. clam B. unknown C. not recorded

A. clam

when an aircraft is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a A. climb B. descent C. right turn

A. climb

(refer to fig 85) What route should you take if cleared for the Washoe Two Departure and your assigned route is V6? A. climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE where You will be vectored to V6 B. climb on the LOC south course to cross WAGGE at 9000, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC and cross at or above 10000, and proceed on FMG R-241 C. climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC. If at 10000 turn left and proceed on FMG R-241; if not at 10000 enter depicted holding pattern and climb to 10000 before proceeding on FMG R-241

A. climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE where You will be vectored to V6

Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway? A. climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions B. climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions C. climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming form the opposite direction if in VFR conditions

A. climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions

(refer to fig 150) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned. A. climbing turn to the right B. climbing turn to the left C. descenting turn to the right

A. climbing turn to the right

In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur? A. coastal areas B. mountain Slopes C. level inland areas

A. coastal areas

What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have 2-way radio communications failure? A. continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at a altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed to expect, or the MEA B. fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1000 ft above the highest obstacles along the route C. descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEAs along the clearance route

A. continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at a altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed to expect, or the MEA

Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have 2-way radio communications failure? A. continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable B. continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at you ETA, or, if late start approach upon arrival C. land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions

A. continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

What info is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)? A. current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs B. all current NOTAMs C. current FDC NOTAMs

A. current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs

When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight? A. decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack B. increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack C. increase the angle of attack

A. decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack

(refer to fig 87) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended? A. direct B. teardrop C. parallel

A. direct

(refer to fig 117) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHWEST ON THE TWO THREE ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB..." At station passage you note he indications in fig 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. direct only B. teardrop only C. parallel only

A. direct only

(refer to fig 128) What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport? A. direct only B. teardrop only C. parallel only

A. direct only

In the movement area of an airport, what does a "Destination" sign indicate? A. direction to the takeoff runway B. direction from taxiway to runway C. direction for ramp to taxiway

A. direction to the takeoff runway

When tracking inbound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections? A. drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2* B. drift corrections should be made in 5* increments after passing the outer marker C. drift corrections should be made in 10* increments after passing the outer marker

A. drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2*

What are the fuel requirements for a bight IFR flight in a helicopter when an alternate airport is not required? A. enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes B. enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed C. enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, make an approach, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed

A. enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes

To operate under IFR below 18000 ft, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to A. entering controlled airspace B. entering weather conditions below VFR minimums C. takeoff

A. entering controlled airspace

For IFR planning purposes, what are the compulsory reporting points when using VOR/DME or VOTAC fixes to define a direct route not on established airways? A. fixes selected to define the route B. there are no compulsory reporting points unless advised ay ATC C. at the changover points

A. fixes selected to define the route

In a Technically Advanced Aircraft (TAA), the typical warning message is a A. flashing red indication with a repeating tone B. yellow indication with a single tone C. white or green indication with no tone

A. flashing red indication with a repeating tone

How can a pilot determine if a GPS installed in a aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches? A. flight manual supplement B. GPS operator's manual C. aircraft owner's handbook.

A. flight manual supplement

What does a Convective outlook (AC) describe for a following 24 hour period? A. general thunderstorm activity B. a severe weather watch bulletin C. when forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period

A. general thunderstorm activity

The general characteristics of unstable air are A. good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds B. good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform type clouds. C. poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.

A. good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds

(refer to fig 87) Where is the VOR chang-over point on V20 between Beaumot and Hobby? A. halfway point B. MOCKS intersection C. Anahuac Beacon

A. halfway point

Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be A. higher than actual, leading to lower then normal approach B. lower than actual, leading to a higher then normal approach C. higher than actual, leading to higher than normal approach

A. higher than actual, leading to lower then normal approach

To meet the min. required instrument flight experience to act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR, you must have logged within the preceding 6 calendar months in the same category of aircraft: six instrument approaches, A. holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems B. and 6 hours of instrument time in any aircraft C. three of which must be in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown, and 6 hours of instrument time in ay aircraft

A. holding procedures, intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems

'Runway hold position' marking on the taxiway A. identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway B. identifies area where aircraft are prohibited C. allow an aircraft permission onto the runway

A. identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

(refer to fig 124) What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 35 approach to Ducan/Haliburton Field? A. if a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed B. the point where the turn is begun and the type and rate of turn are optional C. a normal procedure turn may be made if eh 10 DME limit is not exceeded

A. if a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed

Where are VFR-on-top operations prohibited? A. in Class A airspace B. during off-airways direct flights C. when flying through Class B airspace

A. in Class A airspace

A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used A. in lieu of conduction a SIAP B. if assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach C. in lieu of a visual approach

A. in lieu of conduction a SIAP

When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used A. in lieu of the OM B. in lieu of visibility requirements C. to determine distance form TDZ

A. in lieu of the OM

(refer to fig. 144) What changes in control displacement should be made so that "2" would result in a coordinated standard rate turn? A. increase left rudder and increase rate of turn B. increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn C. decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.

A. increase left rudder and increase rate of turn

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign? A. indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway B. indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection C. indicates direction to take-off runway

A. indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

What indication is presented by the mini aircraft of the turn coordinator? A. indirect indication of the bank attitude B. direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn C. quality of the turn

A. indirect indication of the bank attitude

(refer to fig 128) What is teh purpose of the 10300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart? A. it provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM B. it provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured C. it is he minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020* and 290* magnetic bearing to PUC VOR

A. it provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM

(refer to fig 89 and 90) What is your relationship to the airway while en route from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC in V8? A. left of course on V8 B. left of course on v382 C. right of course on V8

A. left of course on V8

(refer to figs 35 and 37) What is your position relative to the CONNY intersection on the BUJ.BUJ3 transition? A. left of the TXK R-272 and approaching the BUJ R-059* B. left of the TXK R-266 and past the BUJ R-065 C. right of the TXK R-270 and approaching the BUJ R-245

A. left of the TXK R-272 and approaching the BUJ R-059*

What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9000 ft., on an Winds and Temperatures Alft Forecast (FD) A. light and variable; less than 5 knots B. vortex winds exceeding 200 knots C. light and variable; less than 10 knots

A. light and variable; less than 5 knots

A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and or attitude should report it as A. light turbulence B. moderate turbulence C. light chop

A. light turbulence

Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm? A. lightning B. heavy rain showers C supercooled raindrops

A. lightning

What important info is provided by the Radar Summary chart that is not shown on other weather charts? A. lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms B. types of precipitation C. areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds

A. lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms

To meet instrument experience requirements of 14 CFR part 61, section 61.57 (c), a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions? What other qualifying info must be entered? A. location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot B. number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight C. name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed

A. location and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot

The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight and level flight? A. magnetic compass B. attitude indicator C. miniature aircraft of turn coordinator

A. magnetic compass

During a instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to A. minimum altitude shown on the IAP B. terrain contour info C. natural and man-made reference point info

A. minimum altitude shown on the IAP

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing mins used at that airport should be the A. mins specified for the approach procedure selected B. alternate mins shown on the approach chart C. mins shown for that airport in a separate listing of "IFR Alternate Minimums"

A. mins specified for the approach procedure selected

(refer to fig. 18 SFC 400MB) The US low level significant weather prog chart at 00Z indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect A. mod. or greater turbulence form the surface to FL240 B. mod. or greater turbulence above FL 240 C. no turbulence is indicated

A. mod. or greater turbulence form the surface to FL240

When may VFR waypoints be used on an IFR flight plan? A. never B. always C. when filing a composite flight plan

A. never

What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable? A. no coded identification, but possible navigation indications B. coded identification, but no navigation indications C. a voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance

A. no coded identification, but possible navigation indications

If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected? A. no variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made B. decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb C. constant indicated airspeed during a descent

A. no variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made

(Refer to fig. 9) What type of thunderstorm activity is expected over Montana on April 4th at 0800Z? A. none B. a slight risk of severe thunderstorms C. general

A. none

(refer to fig 131) Other than VOR/DME RNAV, what additional navigation equipment is required to conduct the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS? A. none B. VNAV C. transponder with altitude encoding and Marker Beacon

A. none

What additional flight hours within the preceding 6 calendar months are required to maintain IFR currency in a helicopter, if you already have 3 hours in an instrument simulator? A. none, 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tracking courses must be accomplished B. none, but three instrument approaches must also be accomplished C. 3 hours of actual or simulated instrument time in the same type helicopter

A. none, 6 instrument approaches, holding procedures and tracking courses must be accomplished

(refer to fig 109) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located? A. northeast B. southeast C. southwest

A. northeast

During an IFR flight in IFC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should A. not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance B. wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency C. contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration

A. not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance

While on an IFR flight , a pilot has n emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? A. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible B. squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency C. submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours

A. notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible

(refer to fig. 7) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E? A. occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24000 ft MSL, and tops at 40000 ft MSL B. frequent embedded thunderstorms, less the 1/8 coverage, and tops at FL370 C. frequent lightning in thunderstorms a tFL370

A. occasional cumulonimbus, 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, bases below 24000 ft MSL, and tops at 40000 ft MSL

(refer to figs 46 and 48) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206* radial of the instrument departure procedure? A. on the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206 B. outside the 9 DME arc and past R-206 C. inside the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206

A. on the 9 DME arc and approaching R-206

When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories? A. on tower frequency B. on approach control frequency C. one pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency

A. on tower frequency

After being handed off to the final approach controller during a "no-gyro" surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns A. one half standard rate B. based upon the ground speed of the aircraft C. standard rate

A. one half standard rate

Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI? A. one light projector with tree colors: red, green and amber B. two visual glidepaths for the runway C. three glidepaths, with the center path indicated by a white light

A. one light projector with tree colors: red, green and amber

When can a VFR-on-top clearance be assigned by ATC? A. only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable B. any time suitable condition exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow C. when VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA

A. only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable

(refer to fig 113) Your receive this ATC clearance? ".. HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS.." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. parallel only B. direct only C. teardrop only

A. parallel only

What is the max tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using VOT? A. plus or minus 4* B. plus or minus 6* C. plus or minus 8*

A. plus or minus 4*

The MEP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by the ATC. A. precedes the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver. B. Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures. C. Maintain altitude and continue past MEP for one minute or one mile whichever occurs first.

A. precedes the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.

What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan? A. prior to transitioning IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance B. upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance C. prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan

A. prior to transitioning IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance

What are the min qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight? A. private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft B. private pilot with instrument rating C. private pilot with appropriate category, class, and instrument ratings.

A. private pilot certificate with appropriate category and class ratings for the aircraft

The most frequent type of ground or surface based temp inversion is that produced by A. radiation on clear, relatively still night B. warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. C. the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.

A. radiation on clear, relatively still night An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground radiates and cools much faster than the overlying air. Air in contact with the ground becomes cold while the temp a few hundred feet above changes very little. Thus, temp increases with height.

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide A. rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility B. a warning of the final 3000 ft of runway remaining a viewed form the takeoff or approach position C. rapid identification of the primary runway during reduce visibility

A. rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

What indications are displayed by the mini aircraft of a turn coordinator? A. rate of roll and rate of turn B. direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude C. indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.

A. rate of roll and rate of turn

Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight? A. reducing the interior lighting intensity to a min level B. the use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation C. coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting

A. reducing the interior lighting intensity to a min level

(refer to fig 130) What are the procedure turn restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional? A. remain within 10 NM of CLAMM INT and on the north side of the approach course B. remain within 10 NM of the airport on the north side of the approach course C. remain within 10 NM of the outer marker on the north side of eh approach course

A. remain within 10 NM of CLAMM INT and on the north side of the approach course

If during an ILS approach in IFR condition, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is A. require to immediately execute the missed approach procedure B. permitted to continue the approach and descend to teh localizer MDA C. permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the IS runway

A. require to immediately execute the missed approach procedure

(refer to fig 65 and 66) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection ? A. right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection B. right of V552 and past GRICE intersection C. left of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection

A. right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection

(refer to figs 42A and 43) What is your position relative to CHAAR intersection? The aircraft is level at 3000 ft MSL? A. right of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and approaching the glide slope B. left of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and below the glide slope C. right of the localizer course, past CHAAR intersection and above the glide slope

A. right of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and approaching the glide slope

(refer to fig 143) When the system is in the free gyro mode, depressing the clockwise manual heading drive button will rotate the remote indicating compass card to the A. right to eliminate left compass card error B. right to eliminate right compass card error C. left to eliminate left compass card error.

A. right to eliminate left compass card error

Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of A. rising or falling B. turning C motion reversal

A. rising or falling

If Receiver Autonomous Intergrity Monitoring (RAIM) is not available when setting up a GPS approach, the pilot should A. select another type of navigation and approach system B. continue to the MAP and hold until the satellites are recaptured C. continue the approach, expecting to recapture the satellites before reaching the FAF

A. select another type of navigation and approach system

How can you determine the pressure altitude on an airport without a tower or FSS? A. set the altimeter to 29.92 and read the altitude indicated B. set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude wit local temp C. use your computer and correct the field elevation for temp

A. set the altimeter to 29.92 and read the altitude indicated

You are in IFC and have 2-way radio communication failure. IF you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow? A. set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher B. set transponder to code 7700 for 1 min, then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions C. set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let don in VFR conditnos

A. set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher

How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 ft.? A. set your altimeter to 29.92 B. use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude C. contact an FSS and ask for the presure altitude.

A. set your altimeter to 29.92

(refer to fig 5) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the US low-level significant weather prog chart? A. showery precipitation (e.g rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more of the area B. continuous precipitation (e.g rain) covering half of more of the area C. Showery precipitation (e.g thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area

A. showery precipitation (e.g rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more of the area

To meet the min. instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need A. six instruments approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft B. six hours in the same category aircraft C. six hours in the same category aircraft, and at least 3 of the 6 hours in actual IFR conditions

A. six instruments approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses in the appropriate category of aircraft

Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator? A. slant range distance in NM B. slant range distance in SM C. line of sight direct distance form aircraft to VORTAC in SM

A. slant range distance in NM

Frontal waves normally form on A. slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts B. slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts C. rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.

A. slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts

(refer to fig 87 and 88) What is your position with reference to FALSE intersection (V222) if your VOR receivers indicate as shown? A. south of v222 and east of FALSE intersection B. north of V222 and east of FALSE intersection C. south of V222 and west of FALSE intersection

A. south of v222 and east of FALSE intersection

Which of the following are required for a helicopter ILS approach with a decision height lower than 200 ft HAT? A. special aircrew training and aircraft certification B. both a marker beacon and a radio altimeter C. ATP helicopter certificate and CAT II certification

A. special aircrew training and aircraft certification

(refer to fig 146) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight and level flight A. static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator B. vacuum system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce airspeed C. electrical system has faied; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed

A. static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator

(Refer to Fig. 13) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4? A. strong tailwind B. strong updraft C. significant performance increase

A. strong tailwind

If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate? A. sudden increases in wind speed at at least 16 knots rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute. B. peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer C. rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20* and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks an lulls.

A. sudden increases in wind speed at at least 16 knots rising to 22 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight? A. systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals B. concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area C. continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left

A. systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals

(refer to fig 114) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern A. teardrop only B. parallel only C. direct only

A. teardrop only

Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within A. the 1 min time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view B. a radius of 5 miles form the holding fix C. 10 knots of the specified holding speed

A. the 1 min time limitation or DME distance as specified in the profile view

Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP? A. the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 ft or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace B. that Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the be of the continental control area C. the Class C airspace extending for the surface to 700 or 1200 ft AGL, where designated

A. the Class E airspace extending upward from 700 ft or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace

What is teh difference between a localizer Type Direction Aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer? A. the LDA is not aligned with the runway B. The LDA uses a course width of 6* or 12*, while an ILS uses only 5* C. The LDA signal is generated form a VOR type facility and has no glide slope

A. the LDA is not aligned with the runway

What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility? A. the SDF course width is either 6* or 12* while the LDA course width is approx 5* B. The SDF course has no glide slope guidance while the LDA does C. The SDF has no marker beacons while the LDA has at least an OM.

A. the SDF course width is either 6* or 12* while the LDA course width is approx 5*

During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected? A. the airspeed indicator only B the airspeed indicator and the altimeter C. the airspeed indicator, altimeter, and vertical speed indicator

A. the airspeed indicator only

What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked? A. the airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter B. the airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude C. no airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents

A. the airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter

What min. conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency? A. the approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device B. at least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown C. at last three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown

A. the approaches may be made in an aircraft, flight simulator, or flight training device

What indication should you observe on the turn and slip indicator during taxi? A. the ball moves freely opposite the turn,and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn b. the needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered c. the ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered

A. the ball moves freely opposite the turn,and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn

Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that A. the ceiling is more than 5000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more B. the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted C. the ceiling is at least 3000 ft and visibility is 5 miles or more

A. the ceiling is more than 5000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more

what should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the northern hemisphere? A. the compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring B. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right C. the compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magfnetic heading of teh aircraft

A. the compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring

What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check? A. the date, place, bearing error, and signature B. the date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature C. the date, place, bearing error, aircraft total time and signature

A. the date, place, bearing error, and signature

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable? A. the horizon bar tilts more than 5* while making taxi turns B. the horizon bar vibrates during warmup C. The horizon bar does not align itself with the mini airplane after warmup

A. the horizon bar tilts more than 5* while making taxi turns

The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon A. the horizontal lift component B. the vertical lift component C. centrifugal force

A. the horizontal lift component

(refer to fig 152) Why is the required visibility for LNAV/VNAV higher than that for LNAV alone? A. the location of obstacles along the descent path B. an LNAV/VNAV procedure always has higher visibility minimums C. the location of the MAP in relation to the MDA for LNAV procedure requires lower visibility minimums

A. the location of obstacles along the descent path

What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach? A. the pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist B. the pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field in sight; ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist C. any time the pilot reports the field in sight, ATC may clear the pilot for a contact approach; for a visual approach, the pilot must advise that the approach can be made under VFR conditions

A. the pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist

Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions? A. the radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions B. the avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes indicates C. the clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.

A. the radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR -on- top in a nonradar environment? A. the same reports that are required for any IFR flight B. all normal IFR reports except vacating altitude C. only the reporting of any unforecast weather

A. the same reports that are required for any IFR flight

Which weather phenomenon signal the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm? A. the start of rain at the surface B. growth rate of cloud is maximum C. strong turbulence in the cloud

A. the start of rain at the surface

What temp condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude? A. the temp is above freezing at your altitude B. The temp is below freezing at your altitude. C. You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.

A. the temp is above freezing at your altitude Wet snow at your altitude means that the temperature is above freezing since the snow has begun to melt. For snow to form, water vapor must go from the vapor state to the solid state (known as sublimation) with the temp below freezing. Since melting snow has been encountered, the freezing level mustg be at a higher altitude.

To which meteorological condition does the term "dew point" refer? A. the temp to which air must be cooled to become saturated. B. the temp at which condensation and evaporation are equal. C. The temp at which dew will always form.

A. the temp to which air must be cooled to become saturated. Dew point is the temp to which air must be cooled to become saturated by the water vapor already present in the air. Aviation weather reports normally include the air temp and dew point temp. Dew point, when related to air temp, reveals qualitatively how close the air is to saturation.

During your prefilght planning for an IFR flight you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000 ft scattered with 6 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly to the first airport of intended landing A. then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 min a normal cruising speed B. then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 min at normal cruising speed C. and then fly for 45 min at normal cruising speed

A. then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 min a normal cruising speed

If a pilot encounters freezing drizzle, he can assume that A. there is warmer air above B. the freezing drizzle will accumulate as rime ice C. since freezing drizzle is supercooled it is not a concern for structual icing

A. there is warmer air above

What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR? A. timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later B. timing for the inbound leg begins when initializing the turn inbound C. adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg

A. timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later

Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR? A. to VFR-on-top B. Special VFR to VFR over-the -top C.VFR Over-the-top

A. to VFR-on-top

(refer to fig. 18 SFC PROG) The chart cymbals shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC and northern FL indicate a A. tropical storm B. hurricane C. tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico

A. tropical storm

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter set so the altimeter indicates A. true altitude at field elevation B. pressure altitude at field elevation C. pressure altitude at sea level

A. true altitude at field elevation

An abrupt change from climb to straight and level flight can create the illusion of A. tumbling backwards B. noseup attitude C. a descent with the wings level

A. tumbling backwards

Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate A. turbulence at and below the cloud level B. poor visibility C. smooth flying conditions.

A. turbulence at and below the cloud level Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate bumpy turbulence beneath and in the clouds, but good visibility. The cloud tops indicate the approx upper limit of convection; flight above is usually smooth

During an IFR crass-country flight you picked up rime icing which you estimate is 1/2" thick on the leading edge of the wings. You are now below the clouds at 2000 feet AGL and are approaching your destination airport under VFR. Visibility under the clouds is more than 10 miles, winds at the destination airport are 8 knots right down the runway, and the surface temp is 3 degrees Celsius. You decide to: A. use a faster than normal approach and landing speed B. approach and land at your normal speed since the ice is not thick enough to have any noticeable effect. C. fly your approach slower than normal to lessen the "wind chill" effect and break up the ice.

A. use a faster than normal approach and landing speed

Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for the category? A. use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C. B. use category B minimums C. use category B minimums since they apply to al cirling approaches

A. use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.

Pilots should check for ice accumulation prior to flight by A. using a flashlight to reflect off a white wing B. using ice detection lights C. feeling the control surface, especially the leading edges.

A. using a flashlight to reflect off a white wing

A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to A. vacate 4000 ft without notifying ATC B. climb to, but not descend from 4000 ft, without further ATC clearance C. use any altitude form minimum IFR to 4000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude

A. vacate 4000 ft without notifying ATC

The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is A. variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions. B. changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface C. movement of the air masses

A. variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions. Every physical process of weather is accompanied by or is the result of a heat exchange. Differences in solar energy create temp variations. These temp variations crate forces that drive the atmosphere in its endless motion.

What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog? A. warm, moist air over low flatland areas on clear calm nights B. moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water C. The movement of cold air over much warmer water

A. warm, moist air over low flatland areas on clear calm nights

Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when A. water vapor condenses B. water vapor is present C. the temp and dew point are equal.

A. water vapor condenses When temp reaches the dew point, water vapor can no longer remain invisible but is forced to condense, becoming visible on the ground as dew, appearing in the air as fog or clouds, or falling to the earth as rain

(refer to fig 71 and 71A) What is your position relative to the Flosi intersection Northbound on V213? A. west of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection B. East of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection C. West of V213 and past the Flosi intersection

A. west of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection

When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from you last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach? A. when established on a segment of a published route or IAP B. you may descend immediately to published glide slope interception altitude C. only after you are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC

A. when established on a segment of a published route or IAP

When may ATC request a detailed repor of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? A. when priority has been given B. any time an emergency occurs C. when the emergency occurs in controlled airspace

A. when priority has been given

During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required? A. when radar vectors are provided B. when cleared for eh approach C. none, since it is always mandatory

A. when radar vectors are provided

(refer to fig 73) At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight? A. when reaching 374 ft MSL indicated altitude B. when 3 mins (at 90 knots ground speed) have expired or reaching 374 ft MSL, whichever occurs first C. upon reaching 374 ft AGL

A. when reaching 374 ft MSL indicated altitude

(refer to fig 129) How should the missed approach point be identified when executing the RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field? A. when the TO-FROM indicator changes B. upon arrival at 760 ft on the glidepath C. when time has expired for 5 NM past the FAF

A. when the TO-FROM indicator changes

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as A. white and the far bar as red B. red and the far bar as white C. white and the far bar as white

A. white and the far bar as red

(refer to fig 94) What colors are runway holding position signs? A. white with a red background B. red with a white background C. yellow with a black background

A. white with a red background

Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity? A. with a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport B .with a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport C. turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions.

A. with a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport

(Refer to fig 46) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect? A. 0500 to 2100 local B. 0600 to 2200 local C. 0700 to 2300 local

B. 0600 to 2200 local

(refer to fig 29) What are the hours of operation (local standard tie) of the control tower at Eurgene/ Mahlon Sweet Field? A. 0800-2300 B. 0600-0000 C. 0700-0100

B. 0600-0000

(refer to fig 91) Southbound on V257, at what time should you arrive at DBS VORTRAC if you crossed over CPN VORTAC at 0850 and over DIVID intersection at 0854? A. 0939 B. 0943 C. 0947

B. 0943

(refer to fig. 144) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn? A. 2 B. 1 C. 3

B. 1

(refer to figs 96 and 97) To which aircraft postion does HSI presentation "H" correspond? A. 8 B. 1 C. 2

B. 1

Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC sit at approx 6000 ft AGL? A. 0 B. 1 C. 1.3

B. 1

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan (refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Route of flight..........................figs 62,63,64, & 65 flight log & MAG VAR...................................fig 63 Excerpt from AFD (LFT)...............................fig 64 FT 3000 6000 9000 MSY 1422 1626+15 1630+10 A. 56 min B. 1 hour 02 min C. 1 hour 07 min

B. 1 hour 02 min

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan (refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Route of flight.......................figs 44,45,46,& 47 flight log & MAG VAR...............................fig 45 GROMO TWO DEPT..............................fig 46 and Excerpt from AFD FT 3000 6000 9000 12000 YKM 1615 1926+12 2032+08 2035+05 A. 54 min B. 1 hour 02 min C. 1 hour 07 min

B. 1 hour 02 min

(refer to fig 92) What is the min inflight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1200 ft AGL during daylight hours in area 6? A. 3 miles; (I) 1000 ft; (K) 2000 ft; (L) 500 ft B. 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds C. 1 mile; (I) 500 ft; (K) 1000 ft; (L) 500 ft

B. 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds

If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be require to run clockwise form a heading of 090* to a heading of 180*? A. 30 sec B. 1 min C. 1 min 30 sec

B. 1 min

Aircraft approach categories are based on A. certificated approach speed at max gross weight B. 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at max gross landing weight C. 1.3 times the stall speed at max gross weight

B. 1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at max gross landing weight

(refer to fig 68) What minimum visibility must exist to execute the COPTER VOR/DME 117* approach procedure? A. 3/4 mile B. 1/2 mile C. 1/4 mile

B. 1/2 mile

(refer to fig 136) Which illustration depicts an "on glidepath" indication? A. 8 B. 10 C. 11

B. 10

To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approx A. 50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude B. 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude C. 150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude

B. 100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude

(refer to fig 137) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker? A. 500 ft B. 1000 ft C. 1500 ft

B. 1000 ft

(refer to fig 93) What is generally the max altitude for Class B airspace? A. 4000 ft MSL B. 10000 ft MSL C. 14500 ft MSL

B. 10000 ft MSL

In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2500 ft AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in a ll controlled airspace at and above A. 12500 ft MSL B. 10000 ft MSL C. flight level (FL) 1800

B. 10000 ft MSL

(refer to fig 91) What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298? A .8300 ft B. 11100 ft C. 13000 ft

B. 11100 ft

(refer to fig 93) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway? A. 700 ft AGL B. 1200 ft AGL C. 1500 ft AGL

B. 1200 ft AGL

(refer to fig 89) What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS? A. 123.6, 121.5, 108.6 and 112.8 B. 122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 122.1 C. 122.2, 121.5, 122.0 and 123.6

B. 122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 122.1

(refer to fig 58) On which requencies could you communicate with the Montgomery County FSS while on the ground at College Station? A. 122.65, 122.2, 122.1, 113.3 B. 122.65, 122.2 C. 118, 122.65, 122.2

B. 122.65, 122.2

(refer to fig 36A) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S 33 approach procedure? A. 1240 ft MSL; 1/2 SM B. 1240 ft MSL; 1 SM C. 1280 ft MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM

B. 1240 ft MSL; 1 SM

(refer to fig 121) During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies should the glide slope become inoperative? A. 1157 ft B. 1320 ft C. 1360 ft

B. 1320 ft

(Refer to fig 74) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the OAT is +5*C? A. 129 KCAS B. 133 KCAS C. 139 KCAS

B. 133 KCAS

(Refer to fig 50) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude? (temp +0*C) A. 135 KCAS B. 140 KCAS C. 147 KCAS

B. 140 KCAS

(refer to fig 93) What is the max altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace lass than 1500 ft AGL) A. 18000 ft MSL B. 14500 ft MSL C. 14000 ft MSL

B. 14500 ft MSL

(refer to fig 22 and 24) For planning purposes, what would be the highest MEA on V187 between Grand Junction, Walker Airport, and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport A. 12000 ft B. 15000 ft C. 16000 ft

B. 15000 ft

(refer to fig 32) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the OAT is +8*C? A. 154 KCAS B. 157 KCAS C. 163 KCAS

B. 157 KCAS

(refer to fig 95) Which OBS selection on the #1 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO? A. 175* B. 165* C. 345*

B. 165*

(refer to fig 78) What is the max altitude that you may flight plan in IFR flight on V-86 EAST-BOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs? A. 14500 ft MSL B. 17000 ft MSL C. 18000 ft MSL

B. 17000 ft MSL

(refer to fig 73) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 5 approach procedure? A. 3000 ft MSL B. 1800 ft MSL C. 1690 ft MSL

B. 1800 ft MSL

The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous US extends from A. 18000 ft to and including FL450 B. 18000 ft to and including FL600 C. 12500 ft to and including FL600

B. 18000 ft to and including FL600

(refer to fig 112) you arrive a the15 DME fix on a heading of 350*. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below and what ist he recommended entry procedure? "... HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO EIGHT SIX RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS.." A. 1; teardrop B. 1; direct C. 2; direct

B. 1; direct

(refer to fig 100) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055* radial of the station and heading away from the station? A. 1. B. 2 C. 3

B. 2

(refer to fig 106) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360*. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the TO/FROM indicator and the CDI pointing left of center? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

B. 2

(refer to fig. 84) which altimeter depicts 8000 ft? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

B. 2

An aircraft which is located 30 miles form a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline? A. 1 1/2 miles B. 2 1/2 miles C. 3 1/2 miles

B. 2 1/2 miles

During the initial acceleration on an instrument takeoff in a helicopter, what flight attitude should be established on the attitude indicator? A. level flight attitude B. 2 bar widths low C. 1 bar width high

B. 2 bar widths low

(refer to figs 21,22 and 24) What fuel would be consumed on the flight between Brand Junction Co., and Durango Co., if the average fuel consumption is 17.5 GPH A. 17 gallons B. 20 gallons C. 25 gallons

B. 20 gallons

Approx what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS? A. 100 ft B. 200 ft C. 300 ft

B. 200 ft

To ensure proper airspace protection while holding at 5000 ft in a civil aircraft, what is the max indicated airspeed a pilot should use? A. 230 knots B. 200 knots C. 210 knots

B. 200 knots

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the max speed should not be greater than A. 180 knots IAS B. 200 knots IAS C. 250 knots IAS

B. 200 knots IAS

(refer to fig 152) At what point is the pilot authorized to descend below 5200 ft when cleared to the SUXYO waypoint form the West A. 24 N from AJCIZ B. 24 NM from SUXYO C. 30 NM from SUXYO

B. 24 NM from SUXYO

(refer to instruments in fig 103) On the basis of this info, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be A. 060* B. 240* C. 270*

B. 240*

What is the DA and visibility criteria for a helicopter for the ILS R WY 4 approach if the MM is inoperative? A. 246/24 B. 246/12 C. 460/12

B. 246/12

(Refer to fig. 12) What is the approx wind direction and velocity at BOI (see arrow B)? A. 270*/55 knots B. 250*/95 knots C. 080*/95 knots

B. 250*/95 knots

(refer to fig 93) Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace? A. 1000 ft AGL B. 2500 ft AGL C. 4000 ft AGL

B. 2500 ft AGL

(refer to fig 121) During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is A. 2365 ft MSL B. 2500 ft MSL C. 3000 ft MSL

B. 2500 ft MSL

While you are flying at FL250, you hear ATC an altimeter setting of 28.92 in your area. at what pressure altitude are you flying? A. 24000 ft B. 25000 ft C. 26000 ft.

B. 25000 ft

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the max airspeed above 14000 ft for civil turbojet aircraft? A. 230 knots B. 265 knots C. 200 knots

B. 265 knots

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the max airspeed above 14000 ft? A. 220 knots B. 265 knots C. 200 knots

B. 265 knots

The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to A. the field elevation B. 29.92 C. the current altimeter setting

B. 29.92

(refer to fig 100) which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235* FORM the station ? (wind 050* and 20 kts) A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

B. 3

A VOR receiver with normal five dot course sensitivity shows a three dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approx how for from the course centerline? A. 2 NM B. 3 NM C. 5 NM

B. 3 NM

(refer to fig 134) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2-bar VASI A. 2.75* B. 3* C. 3.25*

B. 3*

When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of A. 20 sec intervals at 1020 Hz B. 30 sec intervals at 1350 Hz C. 60 sec intervals at 1350 Hz

B. 30 sec intervals at 1350 Hz

(refer to fig 80) What is the TDZE for landing on RWY 27R? A. 3649 ft MSL B. 3514 ft MSL C. 3450 ft MSL

B. 3514 ft MSL

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 2 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 255* magnetic bearing TO the station? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5

B. 4

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 6 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 255* magnetic bearing FROM the station? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5

B. 4

While airborne, what is the max permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking on VOR system against the other? A. plus or minus 4* when set to identical radials of a VOR B. 4* between the two indicated bearings to a VOR C. plus or minus 6* when set to identical radials of a VOR

B. 4* between the two indicated bearings to a VOR

(refer to fig 29) Using a ground speed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope? A. 415 ft per min B. 480 ft per min C. 555 ft per min

B. 480 ft per min

(refer to fig 73) Using an average ground speed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure? A. 395 ft per min B. 480 ft per min C. 555 ft per min

B. 480 ft per min

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 3 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 120* magnetic bearing TO the station? A. 4 B. 5 C. 8

B. 5

(refer to fig 135) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath? A. 4 B. 5 C. 6

B. 5

The body of a TAF covers a geographical proximity within a A. 5 NM radius of the center of an airport B. 5 SM radius from the center of an airport runway complex C. 5-10 SM radius from the center of an airport runway complex

B. 5 SM radius from the center of an airport runway complex

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance form clouds for flight at 10500 ft with a VFR-on -top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace) A. 3 SM, 1000 above, 500 below, 2000 hort B. 5 SM, 1000 above, 1000 below, 1 mile hort C. 5 SM, 1000 above, 500 below, 1 mile hort

B. 5 SM, 1000 above, 1000 below, 1 mile hort

(refer to fig 92) A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-top conditions at 12500 ft MSL (above 1200 ft AGL) What is the inflight visibility and distance form clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours for area 1? A. 5 miles; (A) 1000 ft; (B) 2000 ft; (D) 500 ft B. 5 miles; (A) 1000 ft; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1000 ft C. 3 miles; (A) 1000 ft; (B) 2000 ft; (D) 1000 ft

B. 5 miles; (A) 1000 ft; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1000 ft

To level off form a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approx A. 20 ft B. 50 ft C. 60 ft

B. 50 ft

(refer to fig 137) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker? A. 250 ft B. 500 ft C. 750 ft

B. 500 ft

(refer to fig 137) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker A. 100 ft B. 500 ft C. 250 ft

B. 500 ft

When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1000 ft of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between A. 500 ft per min and 1000 ft per min B. 500 ft per min and 1500 ft per min C. 1000 ft per min and 2000 ft per min

B. 500 ft per min and 1500 ft per min

If the air temperature is +8*C at an elevation of 1350 ft and a standard (average) temp lapse rate exists, what will be the approx freezing level? A. 3350 ft MSL B. 5350 ft MSL C. 9350 ft MSL

B. 5350 ft MSL Temp normally decreases with increasing altitude throughout the troposphere. This decrease of temp with altitude is defined as lapse rate. The average decreasing of temp (average lapse rate) in the troposphere is 2*C per 1,000 ft. An 8*C loss is necessary to reach 0*C, or freezing, in this situation. At 2*C/1,000 ft the amount of altitude gain necessary would be: 1. 8*C\2 = 4 or 4000 ft. 2. 1350 ft MSL (altitude at +8*C) +4000 ft (altitude to reach 0*C) ________ 5350 ft MSL (approx freezing level)

How long does a pilot meet the recency of experience requirements for IFR flight after successfully competing an instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made? A. 90 days B. 6 calendar months C. 12 calendar months

B. 6 calendar months

(refer to fig 91) where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520? A. 35 NM from DBS VORTAC B. 60 NM from DBS VORTAC C. 60 NM from JAC VOR/DME

B. 60 NM from DBS VORTAC

At an altitude of 6500 ft MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42. the pressure altitude would be approx A. 7500 ft B. 6000 ft C. 6500 ft

B. 6000 ft

(refer to fig 44 and 49) What is the DA and visibility criteria for a straight-in LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at Portland International? A. 1100 ft MSL; visibility 1 SM B. 680 ft MSL; visibility 1SM C. 680 ft MSL; visibility 1NM

B. 680 ft MSL; visibility 1SM

(refer to fig 96 and 97) To which aircraft posittions(s) does HSI presentation "G" correspond? A. 7 only B. 7 and 11 C. 5 and 13

B. 7 and 11

For a helicopter GPS instrument approach to be practical in a metropolitan area, airspeed must be limited to A. 90 knots B. 70 knots C. 60 knots

B. 70 knots

(refer to fig 93) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP? A. 500 ft AGL B. 700 ft AGL C. 1200 ft AGL

B. 700 ft AGL

(refer to gig 139 and 140) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated? A. 710 ft to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 ft below the glide slope B. 710 ft to the fright of the localizer centerline and 140 ft above the glide slope C. 430 ft to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 ft avove the glide slope

B. 710 ft to the fright of the localizer centerline and 140 ft above the glide slope

(refer to fig 120) Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is A. 7488 ft MSL B. 7500 ft MSL C. 9000 ft MSL

B. 7500 ft MSL

What min. weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan? A. 800 foot ceiling and 1 SM visibility B. 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility C. 1000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from min. en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR

B. 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility

A station is forecasting wind and temp aloft at FL390 to be 300* at 200 knots; temp -54*C. How would this data be encoded in the FD? A. 300054 B. 809954 C. 309954

B. 809954

(refer to fig 131) The control tower at BOS reports "tall vessels" in the approach area. What are teh VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R straight-in approach minimums for Category A aircraft A. 890/24 B. 840/40 C. 890/40

B. 840/40

(refer to fig 91) What is teh minimum crossing altitude at t DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257) A. 7500 ft B. 8600 ft C. 11100 ft

B. 8600 ft

(refer to fig 136) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is 'slightly high" (3.2*) on the glidepath? A. 8 B. 9 C. 11

B. 9

(refer to fig 68) Upon which maximum airspeed is the COPTER VOR/DME 117* approach category based? A. 80 knots B. 90 knots C. 100 knots

B. 90 knots

Upon what maximum airspeed is the instrument approach criteria for a helicopter based? A. 100 knots B. 90 knots C. 80 knots

B. 90 knots

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360* turn, with a bank of approx 15*? A. 135* through 225* B. 90* and 270* C. 180* and 0*

B. 90* and 270*

(refer to fig 78) What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN VAORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86? A. 8500 ft MSL B. 9300 ft MSL C. 9700 ft MSL

B. 9300 ft MSL

(Refer to fig 62) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the OAT is +15*C? A. 91 KCAS B. 96 KCAS C. 101 KCAS

B. 96 KCAS

(refer to figs 41 and 41A) AT which point does the AQN.AQN2 arrival begin? A. AVI VORTAC B. ACTON VORTAC C. CREEK intersection

B. ACTON VORTAC

The most current enroute and destination flight info for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from the A. ATIS broadcast B. AFSS C. Notices to Airman publications

B. AFSS

If the aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace, A. the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace B. ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination C. aircraft must immediately descend below 1200 ft AGL and proceed to destination

B. ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination

(refer to fig 74 and 80) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 27? A. A B. B C. C

B. B

How does baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RNAV approach? A. GPS equipped airplanes use the existing ILS glideslope signal for vertical guidance during baro-VNAV approaches B. By defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes using the local altimeter setting C. using a series of step-down fixes

B. By defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes using the local altimeter setting

(refer to fig 49) You have been cleared to the CREAK intersection via the BTG 054* radial at 7000 ft. Approaching CREAK, you are cleared for the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach to PDX. Descent to procedure turn altitude should not begin prior to A. completion of the procedure turn, and established on the localizer B. CREAK outbound C. intercepting the glide slope

B. CREAK outbound

Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan? A. any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile B. Class E airspace with MC and Class A airspace C. positive control area, Continental Control Area and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile

B. Class E airspace with MC and Class A airspace

Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP? A. Surveillance and precision radar. B. Company compass locator and precision radar. C. A VOR/DME fix.

B. Company compass locator and precision radar.

Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours? A. TAF B. Convective Outlook C. Radar Summary Chart

B. Convective Outlook

Which clouds have eh greatest turbulence? A. Towering cumulus B. Cumulonimbus C. Altocumulus castellanus

B. Cumulonimbus Cumulonimbus clouds are the ultimate manifestation of instability. They are vertically developed clouds of large dimensions with dense boiling tops, often crowned with thick veils of dense cirrus (the anvil). Nearly the entire spectrum of flying hazards are contained in these clouds, including violent turbulence. They should be avoided at all times.

Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur? A. When rudder is used for directional control and instead of allowing the nose will to contact the surface early in the landing role in what one way B. During conditions of standing water,slush, high-speed, and smooth runway texture C. During a landing on anyone runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires

B. During conditions of standing water,slush, high-speed, and smooth runway texture

From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAMs? A. Notices to Airmen Publication B. FAA AFSS/FSS C. Airport Facility Directory

B. FAA AFSS/FSS

When is the temp at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in Winds and Temps Aloft Forecast (FD)? A. When the tempo is standard for the altitude B. For the 3000 foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2500 feet of station elevation C. only when the winds are omitted for that altitude (level)

B. For the 3000 foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2500 feet of station elevation

What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn? A. Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force B. Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal C. Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift

B. Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal

(refer to fig 38) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. C B. I C. A

B. I

(refer to fig 72) At which location or condition does the IGN.JUDDS2 arrival begin? A. JUDDS intersection B. IGN VORTAC C. BRISS intersection

B. IGN VORTAC

Which of the following conditions is required before "timed approaches from a holding fix" may be conducted? A. If more than one missed approach procedure is available, only one may require a course reversal. B. If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal. C. Direct medication between the pilot and a tower must be established prior to beginning the approach.

B. If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal.

In what circumstances would a baro -VNAV approach not be authorized? A. When the ground based NAVAIDs, such as the ILS, are out of service B. In areas of hazardous terrain or when a remote altimeter setting is required C. When the lower limit of the published temp is -20*C and the outside temp is -15*C

B. In areas of hazardous terrain or when a remote altimeter setting is required

(refer to fig. 8) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow D on the Radar Summary Chart? A. Echo tops 4100 ft MSL, strong to very strong echoes within the smallest contour, and area movement toward the NE at 50 knots B. Intense to extreme echoes within the smallest contour, echo tops 29000 ft MSL, and cell movement toward the NE at 50 knots C. Strong to very strong echoes within the smallest contour, echo bases 29000 ft MSL, and cell in NE Nebraska moving NE at 50 knots

B. Intense to extreme echoes within the smallest contour, echo tops 29000 ft MSL, and cell movement toward the NE at 50 knots

What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)? A. It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours B. It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours. C. it indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 MB)

B. It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.

Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach? A. A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker. B. LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative. C. DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker.

B. LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.

When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involve a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope? A. higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear is encountered, then a decrease B. Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, than an increase C. Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.

B. Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, than an increase

(refer to fig 126) What landing minimums apply for a 14 CFR Part 91 operator at Dothan, AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 31 approach at 120 knots? (DME available) A. MDA 860 ft MSL an visibility 2 SM B. MDA 860 ft MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM C. MDA 720 ft MSL and visibility 3/4 SM

B. MDA 860 ft MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM

(Refer to figure 73) after passing the OM, Bradley approach control advises you that the MM on the ILS are RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility? A. DH 424/24 B. No adjustments are required C. DH 374/24

B. No adjustments are required

Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind? A. PITCH ATTITUDE: increases; REQUIRED THRUST: increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: increases; IAS: increases, then decreases to approach speed. B. PITCH ATTITUDE: decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: increases, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: increases; IAS : decreases, then increases to approach speed C. PITCH ATTITUDE : increases REQUIRED THRUST: reduced, then increased: VERTICAL SPEED: decreases; IAS: decreases, then increases to approach speed

B. PITCH ATTITUDE: decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: increases, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: increases; IAS : decreases, then increases to approach speed refer to diagram on 1-30

As part of your GPS preflight planning, RAIM prediction should be verified. This means that A. RAIM availability is assured for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination B. RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination C. if RAIM is predicted to be available, you must still have ILS capability to use a GPS approach

B. RAIM is predicted to be available for your entire route of flight including the GPS approach at your destination

(refer to fig 91) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)? A. long range communications outlet for Great Falls Center B. Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS C. satellite remote controlled by Salt Lake Center with limited service

B. Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS

Which is true regarding STARs? A. STARs are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic B. STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures C. STARs are used at certain airports t decrease traffic congestion

B. STARs are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures

What facilities, if any, may be substituted for and in operative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight in minimums? A. ASR. B. Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change. C. Compass locator, PIR, and ASR.

B. Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change.

What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS? A. The useable off course indications are limited to 35* for the localizer and up to 90* for the SDF B. The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider C. The course width for the locallizer will always be 5* while the SDF course will be between 6* and 12*

B. The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider

Prior to conducting "time approaches from a holding fix," which one of the following is required? A. The time required to fly from the primary facility to the field boundary must be determined by a reliable means. B. The airport where the approaches to be conducted must have a control tower in operation. C. The pilot must have established two-way radio communications with the tower before departing the holding fix

B. The airport where the approaches to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.

The operation of an airport rotating Beacon during daylight hours may indicate that A. The in-flight visibility is less than 3 miles in the ceiling is less than 1500 feet within class E airspace B. The ground visibility is less than 3 miles and or the ceiling is less than 1000 feet in class B, C, or D airspace C. An IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area

B. The ground visibility is less than 3 miles and or the ceiling is less than 1000 feet in class B, C, or D airspace

What does the runway visual range RVR , depicted on a certain straight in IAP charts, represent? A. The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope. B. The horizontal distance of pilots see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft. C. The slant visual range of pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.

B. The horizontal distance of pilots see when looking down the runway from a moving aircraft.

A pilot is making an ILS approach and is passed the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take the electronic glide slope malfunction occurs in the pilot has a VASI insight? A. The pilot should inform ATC is a malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach. B. The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope. C. The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot's decent discretion.

B. The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.

.If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions of it is required when conducting "timed approaches from holding fix"? A. The pilot must contact the airport control tower prior to departing the holding fix inbound. B. The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP. C. The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed straight in MDA minimums for the IAP.

B. The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-on-top clearance? A. VFR only B. VFR and IFR C. VFR when "in the clear" and IFR when "in the clouds"

B. VFR and IFR

(refer to fig 123) The symbol on the plan view of eh VOR/DME-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of A. DEANI intersection B. White Cloud VORTAC C. Baldwin Municipal Airport

B. White Cloud VORTAC

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRM) is A. an airborne radar system for monitoring approaches to two runways B. a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways C. a high update rate radar system for monitoring multiple aircraft to a single runway

B. a radar system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways

When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance? A. a fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent B. a sudden change in airspeed C. a sudden surge of thrust

B. a sudden change in airspeed

(refer to fig 147) Which is the correct sequence for recovery form the unusual attitude indicated? A. level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading B. add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading C. stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to orginal attiude and heading

B. add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading

(refer to fig 107) Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wing tip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a right hand arc with a right crosswind component? A. behind the right wing tip reference for VOR-2 B. ahead of the right wing tip reference for VOR-2 C. behind the right wing tip reference for VOR-1

B. ahead of the right wing tip reference for VOR-2

The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on A. relative humidity B. air temp C. stability of air

B. air temp Temp largely determines the max amount of water vapor air can hold. Warm air can hold more water vapor than cool air.

What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time? A. all time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions B. all time during which the instruction acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions C. only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments

B. all time during which the instruction acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions

Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere? A. low level winds B. ambient lapse rate C. atmospheric pressure

B. ambient lapse rate A change in ambient temp lapse rate of an air mass can tip the balance between stable or unstable air. the ambient laps rate is the rate of decrease in temp with altitude.

If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the A. maneuverability of the airplane will be increased B. amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased C. airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving and increased margin of safety.

B. amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased

Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of A. atmospheric stabilization around cities B. an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products. C. increased temps due to industrial heating

B. an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products. Abundant condensation nuclei enhance the formation of fog. Thus, fog is prevalent in industial areas where byproducts of combustion provide a high concentration of these nuclei

Hand held GPS systems, and GPS systems certified for VFR operation, may be used during IFR operations as A. the principal reference to determine enroute waypoints B. an aid to situational awareness C. the primary source of navigation

B. an aid to situational awareness

The 'runway hold position' sign denotes A. intersecting runways B. an entrance to runway from a taxiway C. an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway

B. an entrance to runway from a taxiway

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normal be routed to the fix by A. the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix B. an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors C. direct route only

B. an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors

What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR-on-top clearance? A. any altitude at least 1000 ft above the meteorological condition B. any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions C. any VFR altitude appropriate for tehe direction of flight at least 1000 ft above the meteorological condition

B. any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions

When may a pilot file a composite flight plan A. when requested or advised by ATC. B. any time a portion of the flight will be VFR C. any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport

B. any time a portion of the flight will be VFR

When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver? A. at the published min altitude for a circling approach B. as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight C. at the localizer MDA min and when the runway is in sight

B. as soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight

(refer to fig 77) At which point does the basic instrument departure procedure terminate? A. when Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact B. at STAKK intersecton C. over the BOZEMAN VOR

B. at STAKK intersecton

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight? A. only when ATC requests Mode C B. at all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC C. when passing 12500 MSL

B. at all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC

What instrument(s) is (are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight? A. heading indicator B. attitude indicator and turn coordinator C. turn coordinator and heading indicator

B. attitude indicator and turn coordinator

What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb form straight and level flight? A. heading indicator B. attitude indicator and turn coordinator C. turn coordinator and heading indicator

B. attitude indicator and turn coordinator

Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard rate turn? A. turn coordinator and attitude indicator B. attitude indicator and turn coordinator C. turn coordinator and heading indicator

B. attitude indicator and turn coordinator

(refer to fig 53) What service is indicated by the inverse "H" symbol in the radio aids to navigation box for PRB VORTAC? A. VOR with TACAN compatible DME B. availability of HIWAS C. en route flight advisory service available

B. availability of HIWAS

If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken? A. enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance B. avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR C. abandon the approach

B. avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR

(refer to fig 152) How do you enter the approach if the aircraft is 27 DME from teh AJCIZ intersection heading 300* A. begin final approach with a procedure turn B. begin final approach without a procedure turn C. Continue to LNAV minimums after completing the procedure turn

B. begin final approach without a procedure turn

A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of A. spinning in the opposite direction B. being in a noseup attitude C. diving into the ground

B. being in a noseup attitude

The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for A. the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temps aloft. B. better vertical separation of aircraft C. more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas

B. better vertical separation of aircraft

During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor? A. centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and load factor is increased B. centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased C. centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased

B. centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased

(refer to 130) What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY/GS 6 approach at Roanoke Regional? A. circling to runway 24 not authorized B. circling not authorized NW of RWY 6-24 C. visibility increased 1/2 mile of circling approach

B. circling not authorized NW of RWY 6-24

(refer to fig 148) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned. A. climbing turn to left B. climbing turn to right C. level turn to left

B. climbing turn to right

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."? A. The pilot must maintain 6000 ft until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure B. climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6000 ft at the pilot's discretion C. the pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6000 ft, but each change in altitude must be reported ATC

B. climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6000 ft at the pilot's discretion

What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected? A. breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths B. consciously breathe at a slower rate then normal C. consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate then normal

B. consciously breathe at a slower rate then normal

(refer to fig 85) What procedure should be followed if communications are lost before reaching 9000 ft? A. at 9000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route if at proper altitude; if not, climb in holding pattern until reaching the proper altitude B. continue climb to WAGGE INT, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then if at or above MCA, proceed on assigned route; if not, continue climb in holding pattern until at the proper altitude C. continue climb on LOC course to cross WAGGE INT at or above 9000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC to cross at 10000 or above, and continue on assigned course

B. continue climb to WAGGE INT, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then if at or above MCA, proceed on assigned route; if not, continue climb in holding pattern until at the proper altitude

You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for eh approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What actin should be taken? A. turn outbound and made a procedure turn B. continue on the assigned heading and query ATC C. start a turn to the inbound heading and inquire if you are cleared for the approach

B. continue on the assigned heading and query ATC

Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual alight attitude? A. increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings B. correct the bank attitude, raise the nose to a level attitude and reduce power C. reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude

B. correct the bank attitude, raise the nose to a level attitude and reduce power

What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying? A. Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control B. cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control C. cross check, emphasis, and aircraft control

B. cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface? A. cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility B. cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility C. stratfiorm clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility

B. cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility

Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by A. decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank B. decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank C. increasing airspeed and increasing the bank

B. decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank

Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle A. deflects from left side of the scale B. deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale C. deflects form half scale left to half scale right.

B. deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale

Which procedure should you follow if you experience 2-way communications failure while holding at a fix with an EFC time? (the holdoing fix is not the same as the approach fix) A. depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time B. depart the holding fix at the EFC time C. proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC

B. depart the holding fix at the EFC time

During an IFR flight in IMC, you enter a holding pattern (at a fix that is not the same as the approach fix) with an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete 2-way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing? A. depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach B. depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach C. depart the holding fix at the earliest of the flight planned ETA or the EFC time, and complete the approach

B. depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach

When turning onto a taxiway form another taxiway the 'taxiway directional sign' indicates A. direction to the take-off runway B. designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection C. designation and direction of exit taxiway form runway

B. designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance form ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED- MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND- SQUAWK 0704 JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE- DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER an abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the A. departure control frequency B. destination airport and route C. requested enroute altitude

B. destination airport and route

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (assume radar environment) A. altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight B. destination airport, altitude, and DP name-number-transition, if appropriate C. clearance limit, and DP name, number, and/or transition, if apppropritae

B. destination airport, altitude, and DP name-number-transition, if appropriate

(refer to fig 113) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern A. parallel only B. direct only C. teardrop only

B. direct only

(refer to fig 113) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. teardrop only B. direct only C. parallel only

B. direct only

During the lift cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts? A. cumulus B. dissipating C mature

B. dissipating

Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received? A. flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace B. entering controlled airspace when IMC exists C. takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist

B. entering controlled airspace when IMC exists

What are the min fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing A. and fly thereafter for 45 min at normal cruising speed B. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 min at normal cruising speed C. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 min at normal cruising speed

B. fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 min at normal cruising speed

Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating? A. when operating in class E airspace B. for a flight in VFR conditions while on a IFR flight plan C. for any flight above an altitude of 1200 ft AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles

B. for a flight in VFR conditions while on a IFR flight plan

(refer to fig 80) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 27R (Billings Logan) approach procedure? A. three B. four C. five

B. four

Winds at 5000 ft AGL on particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. this difference in direction is primarily due to A. a stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes. B. friction between the wind and the surface. C. stronger Coriolis force at the surface.

B. friction between the wind and the surface. Surface winds and winds at altitude can differ due to friction. Friction between the wind and the surface slows the wind

(Refer to fig. 9) Using the DAY 2 CONVECTIVE OUTLOOK, what type of thunderstorms, if any, may be encountered on a flight from Montana to central California? A. Moderate risk area, surrounded by a slight risk area, of possible severe turbulence B. general C. none

B. general

(refer to fig 119) The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at A. DENAY intersection B. glide slope intercept (lightning bolt) C. ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker

B. glide slope intercept (lightning bolt)

As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 ft should be corrected by using a A. full bar width on the attitude indicator B. half bar width on the attitude indicator C. two bar width on the attitude indicator.

B. half bar width on the attitude indicator

(refer to fig 7) The symbol the US HIGH LEVEL SIG WEATHER PROG, indicated by arrow G. represents the A. wind direction at the tropopause (300*) B. height of the tropopause C. height of max wind shear (30000 ft. )

B. height of the tropopause

Where does teh DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and desplayed distance? A. high altitudes for from the VORTAC B. high altitudes close to the VORTAC C. low altitudes far from the VORTAC

B. high altitudes close to the VORTAC

Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft? A. Low clouds B. high clouds C. clouds with extensive vertical development

B. high clouds Two conditions are necessary for structural icing in flight: 1. The aircraft must be flying though visible water such as fain or cloud droplets, and 2. The temp, at the point where the moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0*C or colder.

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI? A. If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red and the far bars will appear white B. if departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white C. if on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white

B. if departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white

(refer to fig 125) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5000 ft MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3000 ft commence? A. as soon as intercepting LOC inbound B. immediately C. only at the point authorized by ATC

B. immediately

Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92? A. in warmer than standard air temp B. in colder than standard air temp C. when density altitude is higher than indicated altitude

B. in colder than standard air temp

During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will A. remain the same regardless of ground speed B. increase as the ground speed increases C. decrease as the ground speed increases

B. increase as the ground speed increases

(refer to fig. 144) What changes in control displacement should be made so that "1" would result in a coordinated standard rate turn? A. increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn B. increase right rudder and increase rate of turn C. decease right rudder and increase angle of bank

B. increase right rudder and increase rate of turn

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude? A. decrease the angle of bank B. increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack C. decrease the angle of attack

B. increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude? A. decrease the angle of attack B. increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the pitch attitude C. decrease the angle of bank

B. increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the pitch attitude

What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying? A aircraft control B. instrument cross check C. instrument interpretation

B. instrument cross check

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND..."? A. the pilot must maintain 6000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure B. it authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude form minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6000 C. the pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6000, , but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.

B. it authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude form minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6000

The "sterile cockpit" rule is good practice not just for airline pilots but for all pilots because A. keeping the cockpit neat and clean keeps you better organized B. it greatly reduces distractions during critical phases of flight C. it keeps radio transmissions to a minimum

B. it greatly reduces distractions during critical phases of flight

For most effective use of the Radar Summary Chart during preflight planning, a pilot should A. consult the chart to determine more accurate measurements of freezing levels, cloud cover, and wind conditions between reporting stations B. know the chart displays precipitation only; it does not display clouds, fog fronts, or other boundaries C. utilize the chart as the only source of information regarding storms and hazardous conditions existing between reporting stations.

B. know the chart displays precipitation only; it does not display clouds, fog fronts, or other boundaries

AS a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 ft should be corrected by using A. two bar widths on the attitude indicator B. less then a full bar width on the attitude indicator C. less than half bar width on the attitude indicator

B. less then a full bar width on the attitude indicator

If you fly into sever turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain? A. constant airspeed B. level flight attitude C. constant altitude and constant airspeed

B. level flight attitude

(refer to fig 151) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned A. climbing turn to the right B. level turn to the right C. level turn to the left

B. level turn to the right

When on a VFR-on-top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on A. true course B. magnetic course C. magnetic heading

B. magnetic course

(refer to fig 133) How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the inbound course of eh ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring or the three IAF's are not utilized? A. execute a standard 45* procedure turn toward Seal Beach VORTAC or Pomona VORTAC B. make an appropriate entry to the depicted holding pattern at Swan Lake ON/INT C. use any type of procedure turn, but remain within 10 NM of Riverside VOR

B. make an appropriate entry to the depicted holding pattern at Swan Lake ON/INT

(refer to fig 94) What sign is designated by illustration 7? A. location sign B. mandatory instruction sign C. direction sign

B. mandatory instruction sign

You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator indicates a descent of 100 ft per minute. In this case, you A. may not proceed under IFR until the instrument is corrected by an authorized instrument repairman. B. may take off under IFR and use 100 foot descent as the zero indication C. may takeoff and proceed under IFR but only in VFR weather

B. may take off under IFR and use 100 foot descent as the zero indication

(refer to fig 152) What waypoints are designated as fly-over waypoints? A. FAF and AGHAN B. missed approach and AGHAN C. missed approach and the IAFs

B. missed approach and AGHAN

(refer to fig. 7) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow C? A light turbulence at F370 within the area outlined by dashes B. mod turbulence at 35000 ft MSL mod to severe CAT has been reported at FL320

B. mod turbulence at 35000 ft MSL

During IFR en route and terminal operations using an approved GPS system for navigation, ground based navigational facilities A. are only required during the approach portion of the flight B. must be operational along the entire route C. must be operational only if RAIM predicts an outage

B. must be operational along the entire route

Which info is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance? A. DP or transition name and altitude to maintain B. name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude C. altitude to maintain and code to squawk

B. name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude

Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn and slip indicator to determine if the A. needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon B. needle is approx centered and the tube is full of fluid C. ball will move freely form on end of the tube to the other when the aircraft i s rocked.

B. needle is approx centered and the tube is full of fluid

The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace A. the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace B. no deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace C. pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination

B. no deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace

Co regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of a helicopter in IMC if you hold a private pilot cert with ASEL, airplane instrument rating, rotorcraft category, and helicopter class rating? A. yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter B. no, you must hold either an unrestricted airline Transport Pilot helicopter certificate or a helicopter instrument rating C. No, however, you may do so if you hold an Airline Transport Pilot helicopter Cert, limited to VFR

B. no, you must hold either an unrestricted airline Transport Pilot helicopter certificate or a helicopter instrument rating

(Refer to fig 4. ) The weather depiction chart indicates the heaviest precipitation is occurring in A. north central Florida B. north central Minnesota C. central South Dakota

B. north central Minnesota

(refer to fig 52 and 54) What is the aircraft's position relative to the HABUT intersection? (the VOR-2 is tuned to 116.5) A. south of the localizer and past the GVO R-163 B. north of the localizer and approaching the GVO R-163 C. south of the localizer and approaching the GVO R-163

B. north of the localizer and approaching the GVO R-163

(refer to fig 7) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F? A. 1/8 to 4/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, max tops at 51000 ft MSL B. occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24000ft with tops to 48000 ft. C. 2/8 to 6/8 coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL540

B. occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24000ft with tops to 48000 ft.

When flying though supercooled water droplets the first sign of structural ice accumulation would be A. the leading edge of the wings B. on probes and antennas C. the windshield.

B. on probes and antennas

(refer to fig. 123) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure? A. one VOR receiver B. one VOR receiver and DME C. two VOR receivers and DME

B. one VOR receiver and DME

As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate? A. two miles or more for each 1000 ft of altitude above the facility B. one or more miles for each 1000 ft of altitude above the facility C. no specific distance is specified since the reception is line of sight

B. one or more miles for each 1000 ft of altitude above the facility

Preventing ice form causing a hazard for aircraft certificated for flight into known icing conditions is accomplished by 1. Spraying alcohol or glycol solution on the aircraft before takeoff. 2. a deicing system on the aircraft 3. an anti-icing system on the aircraft Which statement is true? A. all 3 are true B. only 2 and 3 are true C. only 1 is true

B. only 2 and 3 are true

Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan? A. all of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references B. only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments C. only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions

B. only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments

If icing is suspected on an airplane equipped with deicing equipment, the pilot should A. first confirm ice with the ice light prior to deploying the pneumatic boots B. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice C. operate the pneumatic deicing system once to allow time for the ice removal

B. operate the pneumatic deicing system several times to clear the ice

Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches? A. parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4300 ft and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway B. parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 mile radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course C. landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums

B. parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of 1-1/2 mile radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course

An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot A. completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA designated examiner B. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector C. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved

B. passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector

(Refer to Fig. 13) how will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter? A performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft B. performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft C. performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft

B. performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft

An instrument rated pilot is planning a flight under IFR on July 10, this year. Before conducting the flight, the pilot must have A. performed and logged the prescribed tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than Jan 10, this year B. performed and logged the prescribed tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than Feb 10, this year C. passed an instrument proficiency check between Aug 1 last year and July 1 this year

B. performed and logged the prescribed tasks and repetitions required for instrument currency no earlier than Feb 10, this year

Immediately after passing the final approach fix inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears The pilot is A. permitted to continue the approach and descend to the DH B. permitted to continue to the approach and descend to the localizer MDA C. required to immediately begin the prescribed missed approach procedure

B. permitted to continue to the approach and descend to the localizer MDA

Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations? A. VOR name or identification, date of check, amount of bearing error, and signature. B. place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check and signature C. date of check, VOR name or identification, place of operational check, and amount of bearing error.

B. place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check and signature

During a precision instrument approach (using Category A minimums) a helicopter may not be operated below DH unless A. the ceiling is forecast to be at or above landing minimums prescribed for that procedure B. positioned such that a normal approach to the runway of intended landing can be made C. the visibility is forecast to be at or above the landing minims prescribed for that procedure

B. positioned such that a normal approach to the runway of intended landing can be made

Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92? A. density B. pressure C. standard

B. pressure

Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL210? A. indicated B. pressure C. calibrated

B. pressure

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation? A. use a very rapid cross check B. properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly C. avoid banking in excess of 30*

B. properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly

The suffix "nimbus", used in naming clouds, means a A. cloud with extensive vertical development B. rain cloud C. dark massive, towering cloud

B. rain cloud The prefix "nimbo" or the suffix "nimbus" means rain cloud. Thus stratified clouds form which rain is falling are called nimbostratus. A heavy, welling cumulus type cloud which produces precipitation is a cumulonimbus

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? A. read back the entire clearance as required by regulation B. read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification C. Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions

B. read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification

(refer to fig 145) what is the correct sequence for recovery form the unusual attitude indicated? A. reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings B. reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight C. level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed

B. reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight

(refer to fig. 145) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated? A. reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings B. reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight C. level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.

B. reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the A. ability to resist precession 90* to any applied force. B. resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc. C. deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel

B. resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.

During tehe enroute phase of an IFR flight , the pilot is advised "Radar service terminated" What action is appropriate? A. set transponder to code 1200 B. resume normal position reporting C. activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re-establish radar contact

B. resume normal position reporting

(refer to fig 30 and 30A) What is your position relative to GNATS intersection and the instrument departure routing? A. on departure course and past GNATS B. right of departure course and past GNATS C. left of departure course and have not passed GNATS

B. right of departure course and past GNAT

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? A. continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR B. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area C. course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown

B. safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

MOAs are established to A. prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities B. separate certain military activities form IFR traffic C. restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities

B. separate certain military activities form IFR traffic

What should pilots do if icing is detected while also experiencing a rolling condition? A. lower the flaps to decrease airspeed B. set power and angle of attack for a controlled descent C. retract flaps and increase power

B. set power and angle of attack for a controlled descent

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface? A. with the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000*, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4* of that radial with a TO indication B. set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center with plus or minus 4* of the at radial with a FROM indiation C. set the OBS on 180* plus or minus 4*; the CDI should center with a FROM indiacation

B. set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center with plus or minus 4* of the at radial with a FROM indiation

How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface? A. set the OBS on 180* plus or minus 4*, the CDI should center with a FROM indication B. set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4* of that radial with a FROM indication C. with the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set tot 000*, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4*, of that radial with a TO indicaton

B. set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4* of that radial with a FROM indication

(refer to fig. 18 SFC PROG) A planned low altitude flight from northern Florida to southern Florida at 00Z is likely to encounter A intermittent rain or rain showers, mod. turbulence, and freezing temps above 8000ft. B. showery precipitation, thunderstorms/rain showers covering half or more of the area C. showery precipitation covering less than half the area, no turbulence below 18000 ft, and freezing temps above 12000 ft.

B. showery precipitation, thunderstorms/rain showers covering half or more of the area

Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach? A. one dot per sec. and a steady amber light B. six dots per second and a flashing white light C. alternate dashes and a blue light

B. six dots per second and a flashing white light

How may a pilot satisfy the recent flight experience requirement necessary to act as pilot in command in IMC in powered aircraft? within the previous 6 calendar months, logged A. six instrument approaches and 3 hours under actual or simulated IFR conditions with the last 6 months; three of the approaches must be in the category of aircraft involved B. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems C. 6 hours of instrument time under actual or simulated IFR conditions within the last 3 months, including at least six instrument approaches of any kind. Three of the 6 hours must be in flight in any category aircraft

B. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, and intercepting and tracking courses using navigational systems

What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR oveservation? METAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RERAE42NB42 A. runway 31 ceiling is 2700 ft. B. sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 ft. C. measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.

B. sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 ft.

Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds? A. warm front B. squall line C. air mass

B. squall line

(refer to fig 128) At which points may you initiate a descent to the next lower minimum altitude when cleared for the VOR RWY 36 approach, form the PUC R-095 IAF (DME operative)? A. start descent form 8000 when established on final, from 7500 when at the 4 DME fix, and from 6180 when landing requirements are met B. start descent form 8000 when established on the PUC R-186, from 6400 at the 4 DME fix, and form 6180 when landing requirements are met C. start descent form 8000 at the R-127, from 6400 at the LR-127, form 6180, at the 4 DME fix

B. start descent form 8000 when established on the PUC R-186, from 6400 at the 4 DME fix, and form 6180 when landing requirements are met

Which is a characteristic of stable air? A. fair weather cumulus clouds B. stratiform clouds C. unlimited visibility

B. stratiform clouds

What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars? A. Coriolis force B. surface friction C. the greater density of the air at the surface.

B. surface friction Friction between the wind and the surface slows the wind. As frictional force slows the wind speed, Coriolis force decreases. However, friction does not affect pressure gradient force. Pressure gradient and Coriolis forces are no longer in balance. the stronger pressure gradient force tuns the wind at an angle across the isobars toward lower pressure until the three forces balance. The angle of surface wind to isobars is about 10* over water, increasing with roughness of terrain.

Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot? A. night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft B. symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected C. the pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen

B. symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected

The first place ice is likely to form on an aircraft is the A. wings B. tailplane C. windshield.

B. tailplane

(refer to fig 117) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE XYZ NDB. HOLD NORTHEAST ON THE ZERO FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FRO THE NDB. LEFT TURNS.." At station passage you note he indications in fig 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. direct only B. teardrop only C. parallel only

B. teardrop only

What is a n operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact? A. you have flown into an area of thunderstorms B. temp are above freezing at some higher altitude C. you have flown though a cold front

B. temp are above freezing at some higher altitude

Expect clear ice to form on the leading edge of airfoils when A. liquid water and snow combine with ice B. temps are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the aircraft is at high airspeeds C. the precipitation is small droplets and the aircraft is a t low airspeeds

B. temps are close to freezing, there is a large volume of liquid water precipitation, and the aircraft is at high airspeeds

If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations instrument indications should the pilot expect? A. the altimeter will read lower then normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent B. the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb C. the altimeter will read lower then normal, airspeed greater then normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent

B. the altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the northern hemisphere? A. the compass will indicated a turn to the right, but at a faster rate then is actually occurring B. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the left C. the compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft

B. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the left

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the northern hemisphere? A. the compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring B. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right C. the compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft

B. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right

(refer to fig 152) Why is there a note stating a temperature limitation for executing this approach with BARO-VNAV equipment? A. the descent gradient exceeds the max standard of 400 foot per Nautical Mile at low temperatures B. the decision altitude and final approach segment height above obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temperatures are lower then charted C. the missed approach climb gradient exceeds the airplane maximum standard of 40 to 1 at low temperatures

B. the decision altitude and final approach segment height above obstacles or terrain is unsafe when temperatures are lower then charted

In the event of 2-way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue A. by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received B. the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical C. the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance

B. the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing? A. the mini aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered B. the mini aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right C. both the mini aircraft and the ball will remain centered

B. the mini aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right

What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a right turn while taxiing? A. the mini aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered B. the mini aircraft will show a turn to the right and the ball moves to the left C. both the mini aircraft and the ball will remain centered

B. the mini aircraft will show a turn to the right and the ball moves to the left

During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight and level flight from a 180* steep turn to the right? A. a straight and level coordinated flight indication B. the mini aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left C. the mini aircraft would show a slight descent and wings level attitude.

B. the mini aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left

When departing from an airport not served by a control tower the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that A. ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time B. the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later the 30 mins, of their intentions if not off by the void time C. ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time

B. the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later the 30 mins, of their intentions if not off by the void time

How can the pilot determine, for an ILS runway equipped with MALSAR, that there may be penetration of the obstacle identification surfaces (OIS), and care should be taken in the visual segment to avoid any obstacles? A. the runway has a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) B. the published visibility for the ILS is no lower then 3/4 SM C. the approach chart has a visual descent point (VDP) published

B. the published visibility for the ILS is no lower then 3/4 SM

What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend? A. the method by which the air is lifted B. the stability of the air before lifting occurs. C. the amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.

B. the stability of the air before lifting occurs. Cloud type or structure is determined by whether the air is stable or unstable within the layer forced upward. When stable air is forced upward, the air tends to retain horizontal flow and any cloudiness is flat and stratified. When unstable air is forced upward, the disturbance grows, and resulting cloudiness shows "heaped" or cumulus development.

Pressure altitude is the altitude read on our altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicated height above A. sea level B. the standard datum plane C. ground level

B. the standard datum plane

(Refer to fig. 4) What is the meaning of a bracket (]) plotted to the right of the station circle on a weather depiction chart? A. the station represents the en route conditions within a 50 mile radius B. the station is an automated observation location C. the station gives local overview of flying conditions for a 6 hour period

B. the station is an automated observation location

Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight? A. reducing the lighting intensity to a min level will eliminate blind spots B. the use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation C. coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting

B. the use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation

What relationship exists between the winds at 2000 ft above the surface and the surface winds? A. the winds at 2000 ft and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction. B. the winds a 2000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker. C. The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2000 ft and are usually weaker.

B. the winds a 2000 ft tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker Close to the earth, wind direction is modified by the contours over which it passes and wind speed is reduced by friction with the surface. Also, the winds at the surface are at an angle across the isobars due to the stronger pressure gradient. At levels 2000 ft above the surface, the speed is greater and the direction is usually parallel to the isobars.

SIGMETS are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous A. particularly to light aircraft B. to all aircraft C. only to light aircraft operations

B. to all aircraft

Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart? A. the use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory B. to use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure C. to use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure

B. to use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure

(refer to fig 1) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity? A. total fuel required for the flight B. total useable fuel on board C. the amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45 min reserve

B. total useable fuel on board

Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates A. pressure altitude at sea level B. true altitude at field elevation C. pressure altitude at field elevation.

B. true altitude at field elevation

During standards rate turns, which instrument is considered "primary" for bank? A. heading indicator B. turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator c. attitude indicator

B. turn and slip indicator or turn coordinator

what is the primary bank instrument once and standard rate turn is established? A. attitude indicator B. turn coordinator C. heading indicator

B. turn coordinator

the pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating a. under IFR in positive control airspace B. under IFR, in weather conditions less than the min. for VFR flight, and a in a class A airspace C. in weather conditions less than the min. prescribed for VFR flight

B. under IFR, in weather conditions less than the min. for VFR flight, and a in a class A airspace

When are ATIS broadcasts updated? A. every 30 min if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly B. upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values C. only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value

B. upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported val

What enhances the growth rate of precipitation? A. advective action B. upward currents C. cyclonic movement

B. upward currents Cloud particles collide and merge into a larger drop in the more raped growth process. This process produces larger precipitation particles and does so more rapidly than the simple condensation growth process. Upward currents enhance the growth rate and also support larger drops.

What actions should the pilot take in the event of suspected tailplane icing during an approach? A. leave the autopilot on to assist flying the approach B. use partial or no flaps and no autopilot C. hand fly the approach until the IAF and then use the autopilot

B. use partial or no flaps and no autopilot

The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the A. thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift. B. vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank C. use of ailerons has increased the drag

B. vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank

The primary reason the pitch attitude must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the A. use of pedals has increased the drag B. vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank C. thrust is acting in a different direction in airspeed and loss of lift

B. vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of A. a jet stream B. very strong turbulence. C. heavy icing conditions.

B. very strong turbulence. Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds are formed on the crests of waves created by barriers to the wind flow. The clouds show little movement, hence the name "standing". However, wind can be quite strong blowing though such clouds. The presence of these clouds is a good indication of very strong turbulence and should be avoided.

(refer to fig. 8) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow B on the Radar Summary Chart? A. weak echoes, heavy rain showers, area movement toward the SE B. weak to mod. echoes, rain showers increasing in intensity C. strong echoes, mod. rein showers, no cell movement

B. weak to mod. echoes, rain showers increasing in intensity

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally A. stronger and farther north in the winter B. weaker and farther north in the summer C. stronger and farther north in the summer

B. weaker and farther north in the summer In mid-latitudes, wind speed in the jet stream averages considerably stronger in winter than in summer. Also the jet shifts farther south in winter than in summer.

During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control? A. before penetrating the clouds B. when advised by the tower C. upon completing the first turn after takeoff or upon establishing cruise climb on a straight-out departure

B. when advised by the tower

What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3* glided slope at a constant true airspeed? A. when ground speed decrease, rate of descent must increase B. when ground speed increase, rate of descent must increase C. rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope

B. when ground speed increase, rate of descent must increase

Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact? A. entering instrument meteorological conditions B. when leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach C. correcting an ETA any time a previous ETA is in error in excess of 2 mins

B. when leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach

When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions? A. when operating in the Class E airspace B. when operating in a Class A airspace C. when operating in airspace above 14500 ft.

B. when operating in a Class A airspace

(refer to fig 36A) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated? A. immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF B. when passage of the MAP way point is shown on the ambiguity indicator C. after the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix form the MAP way point

B. when passage of the MAP way point is shown on the ambiguity indicator

Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude? A. when the atmospheric pressure is 29.92 B. when standard atmospheric conditions exist C. when indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude

B. when standard atmospheric conditions exist

For which speed variation should your notify ATC? A. when the ground speed changes more than 5 knots B. when the average true airspeed changes 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater C. any time the ground speed changes 10 MPH

B. when the average true airspeed changes 5% or 10 knots, whichever is greater

When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft? A. at all times when not in radar contact with ATC B. when weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR C. only when advised by ATC

B. when weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR

(refer to fig 94) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having A. yellow lettering with a black background B. white lettering with a red background C. black lettering with a yellow back

B. white lettering with a red background

Dcode the excerpt form the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forcast (FD) of OKC at 39000 ft. FT 3000 6000 39000 OKC 830558 A. wind 130* at 50 kts, temp -58*C B. wind 330* at 105 kts, temp -58*C C. wind 330* at 205 kts, temp -58*C

B. wind 330* at 105 kts, temp -58*C

When the CDI needle is centered during a airborne VOR check, te omni-bearing selector and the OBS indicator should read A. within 4* of the selected radial B. within 6* of the selected radial C. 0* TO, only if you are due south of the VOR

B. within 6* of the selected radial

(refer to fig 94) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are A. white and the dashed lines are nearest the runway B. yellow and the dashed lines are nearest the runway C. yellow and the solid lines are nearest the runway

B. yellow and the dashed lines are nearest the runway

Does the ATC term "cleared to cruise" apply to helicopter IFR operations? A. no, this term applies to airplane IFR operations only B. yes, but the pilot must report leaving an altitude B. yes, in part, it authorizes the pilot to commence the approach at the destination airport at pilot's discretion

B. yes, in part, it authorizes the pilot to commence the approach at the destination airport at pilot's discretion

What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify? A. your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation form all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility B. your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated C. you will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or the radar contact has been lost

B. your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated

(refer to fig 87) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area? A. 122.1, 126.4 B. 123.6, 122.65 C .122.2 122.3

C .122.2 122.3

Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true Altitude)? A. air temp lower than standard B. atmospheric pressure lower then standard C air temp warmer than standard

C air temp warmer than standard

(refer to fig 131) During a missed approach from the VOR/DME RWY4R approach at BOS, what course should be flown to the missed approach holding way point ? A. 036* B. runway heading C. 033*

C. 033*

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 8 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 315* magnetic bearing TO the station? A. 3 B. 4 C. 1

C. 1

Which initial pitch attitude change on the attitude indicator should be made to correct altitude while at normal cruise in helicopter? A. 2 bar width B. 1 1/2 bar width C. 1 bar width

C. 1 bar width

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan (refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Route of flight..........................figs 56,57,58, & 59 flight log & MAG VAR...................................fig 57 Excerpt from AFD (CLL)...............................fig 58 FT 3000 6000 9000 HOU 0507 1015+05 2225+00 A. 1hour 06 min B. 1 hour 10 min C. 1 hour 14 min

C. 1 hour 14 min

(refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. Route of flight.........figs 27, 28,29,30,and 31 flight log & MAG VAR..........................fig 28 GNATS ONE DEPARTURE and excerpt from AFD..........fig 30 FT 3000 6000 9000 OTH O507 2006+3 2215-05 A. 1 hour 10 min B. 1 hour 25 min C. 1 hour 20 min

C. 1 hour 20 min

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan (refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Route of flight.......................figs 74,75,76,77,& 78 flight log & MAG VAR...............................fig 75 HABUT ONE DEPT..............................fig 76 and Excerpt from AFD FT 6000 9000 12000 18000 BIL 2414 2422+11 2324+05 2126-11 A. 1 hour 15 min B. 1 hour 20 min C. 1 hour 25 min

C. 1 hour 25 min

(refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. Route of flight...................figs 38,39 and40 flight log & MAG VAR..........................fig 39 ACTION TWO ARRIVAL.....................fig 41 FT 3000 6000 9000 12000 ABI 2033+13 2141+13 2142+05 A. 1 hour 24 min B. 1 hour 26 min C. 1 hour 31 min

C. 1 hour 31 min

(refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. Route of flight...........figs 32,33,34,35,35A & 36 flight log & MAG VAR..........................fig 33 RNAV FWY 33 & Excerpt from AFD..............fig 36 FT 3000 6000 9000 12000 DAL 2027 2239+13 2240+08 2248+05 A. 1 hour 35 min B. 1 hour 41 min C. 1 hour 46 min

C. 1 hour 46 min

(refer to fig 92) What is the min inflight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1200 ft AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in area 5? A. 1 mile; (I) 2000 ft; (J) 2000 ft; (L) 500 ft B. 3 miles; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds; C. 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds;

C. 1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds;

If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135*? A. 1 min B. 1 min 20 sec C. 1 min 30 sec

C. 1 min 30 sec

(refer to fig 55) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one-half mile deviation from the desired arc? A. 2-3 B. 5 maximum C. 10 to 20

C. 10 to 20

What angular deviation from a VOR course center-line is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI? A. 4* B. 5* C. 10*

C. 10*

When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as eh OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between A. 5* and 6* B. 8* and 10* C. 10* and 12*

C. 10* and 12*

(refer to fig 85) Of the following, which is the minimum acceptable rate of climb (feet per min) to 9000 ft required for the WASH2 WAGGE departure at a GS of 150 knots? A. 750 fpm B. 825 fpm C. 1000 fpm

C. 1000 fpm

(refer to fig 136) Which illustration depicts a "slightly low" (2.8*) indication? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11

C. 11

(refer to figss 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does hSI presentation "I" correspond? A. 4 B. 12 C. 11

C. 11

(refer to fig 136) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5*? A. 10 B. 11 C. 12

C. 12

(refer to figs 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond? A. 9 B. 4 C. 12

C. 12

(refer to figs 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "C" correspond? A. 6 B. 7 C. 12

C. 12

On what frequency should you obtain En Route Flight Advisory Service below FL 180? A. 122.1T/112.8R B. 123.6 C. 122.0

C. 122.0

(refer to fig 41 and 41A) Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control? (ACTON TWO ARRIVAL) A. 119.05 B. 124.15 C. 125.8

C. 125.8

(refer to figs, 41, 42 and 42A) Approaching DFW from Abilene, which frequencies should you expect to use fro Regional Approach Control, control tower, and ground control respectively? A. 119.05; 126.55; 121.65 B. 119.05; 124.15 121.8 C. 125.8; 124.15; 121.8

C. 125.8; 124.15; 121.8...

What is teh max cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 min without using supplemental oxygen? A. 10500 ft B. 12000 ft C. 12500 ft

C. 12500 ft

(refer to fig. 20) What is the max wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high level sig. weather prog chart over Canada? A. 80 B. 103 C. 130

C. 130

(refer to fig 24) What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V187? A. 10900 ft MSL B. 12000 ft MSL C. 13700 ft MSL

C. 13700 ft MSL

What is the max IFR altitude you may fly in a n unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen? A. 12500 ft B. 14000 ft C. 15000 ft

C. 15000 ft

(refer to fig 91) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes useable on V343 for a VFR-on-top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection? A. 14500 and 16500 ft B. 15000 and 17000 ft C. 15500 and 17500 ft

C. 15500 and 17500 ft

(refer to figs 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "f" correspond? A. 10 B. 14 C. 16

C. 16

(refer to figs 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. 4 B. 15 C. 17

C. 17

Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of a the VOT? A. 360* TO and 003* TO, respectively B. 001* FROM and 005* FROM, respectively C. 176* TO and 003* FROM, respectively

C. 176* TO and 003* FROM, respectively

(refer to fig 93) What is the floor of Class A airspace? A. 10000 ft MSL B. 14500 ft MSL C. 18000 ft MSL

C. 18000 ft MSL

(refer to figs 98 and 99) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "B" correspond? A. 9 B. 13 C. 19

C. 19

(refer to fig 129) What is the position of LABER relative to the reference facility? A. 316* 24.3 NM B. 177*, 10 NM C. 198*, 8 NM

C. 198*, 8 NM

(refer to fig 115) You receive this ATC clearance: "..HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO EIGHT SIX RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEG, LEFT TURNS.." You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350*. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure? A. 1; teardrop B. 2; direct C. 1; direct

C. 1; direct

(refer to figs 96 and 97) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation "D" correspond? A. 1 B. 10 C. 2

C. 2

(refer to figs 85 and 86) Which combination of indications confirm that you are approaching WAGGE intersection slightly to the right of the LOC centerline on departure? A. 1 and 3 B. 1 and 4 C. 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3

For operations off established airways at 17000 ft MSL in the contiguous US, (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than A. 75 NM B. 100 NM C. 200 NM

C. 200 NM

For helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight? A. 600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA B. 200 foot ceiling above the airport elevation and 1 SM visibility form 1 hour before to t1 hour after your ETA C. 200 foot ceiling above the approach minimums and 1 SM visibility, but not less than the visibility minimums for the approach, at your ETA

C. 200 foot ceiling above the approach minimums and 1 SM visibility, but not less than the visibility minimums for the approach, at your ETA

In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other min altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of A. 500 ft above the highest obstacle B. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle C. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle

C. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the min. altitude for IFR flight is A. 3000 ft over all terrain B. 3000 ft over designated mountainous terrain; 2000 ft over terrain elsewhere C. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1000 ft above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

C. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1000 ft above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere

En route at FL290, your altimeter is correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 during descent. If the field elevation is 134 ft and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing? A. 100 ft MSL B. 474 ft MSL C. 206 ft MSL

C. 206 ft MSL 3-10

(refer to fig 139 and 141) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1300 foot point from the runway is indicated? A. 21ft below the glide slope and approx 320 ft to the right of the runway centerline B. 28 ft above the glide slope and approx 250 ft to the left of the runway centerline C. 21 ft above the glide slope and approx 320 ft to the left of the runway centerline

C. 21 ft above the glide slope and approx 320 ft to the left of the runway centerline

(Refer to fig. 12) What is the approx wind direction and velocity at CVG at 34,000 ft. (see arrow A)? A. 040*/35 knots B. 097*/40 knots C. 230*/35 knots

C. 230*/35 knots

An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within A 12 calendar months B. 18 calendar months C. 24 calendar months

C. 24 calendar months

(Refer to Fig. 2) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temp (relative ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL270? A. 260* magnetic at 93 kts; ISA +7*C B. 280* true at 113 kts; ISA +3*C C. 255* true at 93 kts; ISA +6*C

C. 255* true at 93 kts; ISA +6*C

(Refer to Fig. 2 ) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temp (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over ALB at FL270? A. 270* magnetic at 97 kts; 1SA -4*C B. 260* true at 110 kts; ISA +5*C C. 275* true at 97 knots; ISA +4*C

C. 275* true at 97 knots; ISA +4*C

(refer to fig 104) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 010* radial? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3

C. 3

(Refer to Fig. 13) if involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur A. 4 and 5 B. 2 and 3 C. 3 and 4

C. 3 and 4

(refer to fig 92) What is the min inflight visibility and distance form clouds required for a VFR-on-top flight at 9500 ft MSL (above 1200 ft AGL) during daylight hours for area 3? A. 2000 ft; (E) 1000 ft; (F) 2000 ft; (H) 500 ft B. 5 miles; (E) 1000 ft; (F) 2000 ft; (H) 500 ft C. 3 miles; (E) 1000 ft; (F) 2000 ft; (H) 500 ft

C. 3 miles; (E) 1000 ft; (F) 2000 ft; (H) 500 ft

(refer to fig 135) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3-bar VASI? A. 2.3* B. 2.75* C. 3*

C. 3*

(refer to fig 87) Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to Lake Charles? A. 50 NM east of DAS B. 40 NM east of DAS C. 30 NM east of DAS

C. 30 NM east of DAS

(refer to fig 65) Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP on V552 from the LFT to the TBD VORTACs? A. CLYNT intersection B. HATCH intersection C. 34 DME from the LFT VORTAC

C. 34 DME from the LFT VORTAC

(refer to figs 41 and 41A) On which heading should you plan to depart CREEK intersection? A. 010* B. 040* C. 350*

C. 350*

(refer to fig 95) Which OBS selection on the #2 NAV would center the CDI and change the TO/FROM indication to a TO? A. 166* B. 346* C. 354*

C. 354*

(refer to instruments in fig 102) On the basis of the info, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be A. 175* B. 255* C. 355*

C. 355*

When using VOT to made a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the A. 090 radial B. 180 radial C. 360 radial

C. 360 radial

The average height of the toposhere in the middle latitudes is A. 20,000 ft B. 25,000 ft C. 37, 000 ft.

C. 37, 000 ft. The height of the troposphere varies with latitude and seasons. It slopes from about 20,00 feet over the poles, to an average of 37,00 feet over the mid-latitudes, to about 65,000 feet over the Equator, and it is higher in summer than in winter

(refer to fig 91) What should be the approx elapsed time form BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots form 260* and your intended TAS is 185 knots? (VAR 17* E) A. 33 min B. 37 min C. 39 min

C. 39 min

(refer to fig 104) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 335* radial? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

C. 4

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 210* magnetic bearing FROM the station? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

C. 4

(refer to fig 82) Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VOR's using one system against the other? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4

C. 4

(refer to fig 83) Which altimeter depicts 12,000 ft.? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4

C. 4

(refer to fig 93) What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace? A. 8 NM B. 5 NM C. 4 NM

C. 4 NM

In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of A. 3 SM from the course flown B. 4 SM from the course flown C. 4 NM from the course flown

C. 4 NM from the course flown

If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360* A. 1 min B. 2 min C. 4 min

C. 4 min

(refer to fig 95) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the #2 NAV? A. 1* B. 2* C. 4*

C. 4*

(refer to figs 27 and 30) To which max service volume distance from the OED VORTAC should you expect to receive adequate signal coverage for navigation at the flight planned altitude? A. 100 NM B. 80 NM C. 40 NM

C. 40 NM

(refer to fig 60A) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4 A. 70 ft MSL B. 54 ft MSL C. 46 ft MSL

C. 46 ft MSL

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 ft per NM to 8000 ft. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in ft per min. A. 210 B. 450 C. 490

C. 490

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 7 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 120* magnetic bearing FROM the station? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5

C. 5

(refer to fig 92) What is the min inflight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13500 ft MSL (above 1200 ft AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours for area 2? A. 5 miles; (A) 1000 ft;(C) 2000 ft; (D) 500 ft. B. 3 miles;(A) 1000 ft; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1000 ft C. 5 miles; (A) 1000 ft; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1000 ft

C. 5 miles; (A) 1000 ft; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1000 ft

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI? A. 2* B. 4* C. 5*

C. 5*

(refer to fig 122) The missed approach point of the ATL S-LOC 8L procedure is located how far from the LOM? A. 4.8 NM B. 5.1 NM C. 5.2 NM

C. 5.2 NM

A jet stream is defined as wind of A. 30 knots or greater B. 40 knots or greater C. 50 knots or greater

C. 50 knots or greater A jet stream occurs in an area of intensified temperature gradients characteristic of the break in the tropopause. The concentrated winds by arbitrary definition, must be 50 knots or greater to classify as a jet stream.

If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090* to a heading of 300*? A. 30 sec B. 40 sec C. 50 sec

C. 50 sec

(Refer to fig 4. ) The weather depiction chart in the area of northwestern Wyoming, indicates A. overcast with scattered rain showers B. 1000 foot ceilings and visibility 3 miles or more C. 500 foot ceilings and continuous rain, less than 3 miles visibility

C. 500 foot ceilings and continuous rain, less than 3 miles visibility

What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF? KCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008 WS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG FM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ= A. 5 ft AGL from 270* at 50 kt B. 50 ft AGL from 270* at 50 kt C. 500 ft AGL from 270* at 50 kt

C. 500 ft AGL from 270* at 50 kt

Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan (refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Route of flight.......................figs 50,51,52,& 53 flight log & MAG VAR...............................fig 51 HABUT ONE DEPT..............................fig 52 and Excerpt from AFD FT 3000 6000 9000 12000 SBA 0610 215+05 2525+00 A. 43 min B. 46 min C. 51 min

C. 51 min

(refer to fig 68) What would be the approach minimums if you must use eh Moisant Field altimeter settings A. 440-1 B. 480 and 1/2 C. 580 and 1/2

C. 580 and 1/2

(refer to fig 105) If the magnetic heading shown for aircraft 8 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the aircraft is on the 090* magnetic bearing FROM the station? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6

C. 6

AIRMETS are issued on a scheduled basis every A. 15 min after the hour only B. 15 min until the AIRMET is canceled C. 6 hours

C. 6 hours

What is the max forecast period for AIRMETS? A. 2 hours B. 4 hours C. 6 hours

C. 6 hours

Max downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as A. 8000 ft per min B. 7000 ft per min C. 6000 ft per min

C. 6000 ft per min

(refer to fig 49) When conducting the LOC/DME RWY 21 approach at PDX, what is the minimum Safe Altitude (MSA) while maneuvering between the BTG VORTAC and CREAK intersection? A. 3400 ft MSL B. 5700 ft MSL C. 6100 ft MSL

C. 6100 ft MSL

(refer to fig 42A) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (use 120 knots ground speed) A. 425 ft per min B. 530 ft per min C. 635 ft per min

C. 635 ft per min

(refer to fig 128) What is the helicopter MSA for a straight-in VOR RWY 36 approach at Price/Carbon County Airport (VOR only)? A. 6090 ft MSL B. 500 ft MSL C. 6400 ft MSL

C. 6400 ft MSL

(refer to fig 52) Using an average ground speed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the instrument departure procedure? A. 425 fpm B. 580 fpm C. 642 fpm

C. 642 fpm

How much colder than standard temp is the forecast temp at 9000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt form the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast? FT 6000 9000 0737-04 1043-10 A. 3* C B. 10* C C. 7* C

C. 7* C According to the winds and temps aloft forecast, the temp is -10* C at 9000 ft. Using the aver lapse rate of 2* C per 1000 ft, the temperature change form sea level to 9000 ft is 18*C. Standard sea level temp is 15*C. Subtract 18*C for 15*C to get -3*C. Compared to the winds and temps aloft forecast for 9000 ft, the difference is 7*C

(refer to fig 77) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the instrument departure procedure? A. 350 fpm B. 475 fpm C. 700 fpm

C. 700 fpm

What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP? A. surface to 700 ft AGL B. 1200 ft AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace C. 700 ft AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

C. 700 ft AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace

(refer to figs 96 and 97) To which aircraft positions(s) does HSI presentation "E" correspond? A. 8 only B. 3 only C. 8 and 3

C. 8 and 3

For IFR operations off of established airways below 18000 ft, VOR navigational aids used to describe the "route of flight" should be A. 40 NM apart B. 70 NM apart C. 80 NM apart

C. 80 NM apart

For helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan? A. ceiling 200 ft above the minimums for the approach to be flown and 1 SM visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach to be flown B. 800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility C. 800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility

C. 800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility

(refer to fig 30) Using an average ground speed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate ( feet per NM) to 4100 ft as specified on the instrument departure procedure? A. 400 fpm B. 500 fpm C. 800 fpm

C. 800 fpm formula on 6-24

(refer to fig 49) With aground speed of 120 knots, approx what min rate of descent will be required between I-GPO 7 DME fix (ROBOT) and the I-GPO DME fix? A. 1200 fpm B. 500 fpm C. 800 fpm

C. 800 fpm...

(refer to fig 46) Using an average ground speed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6300 ft as specified on the instrument departure procedure? A. 350 fpm B. 583 fpm C. 816 fpm

C. 816 fpm

(refer to fig 131) What is the landing distance available for the VOR/DME RNAV RWY 4R approach at BOS? A. 7000 ft B. 10005 ft C. 8850 ft

C. 8850 ft

An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of A. 40 kts B. 80 kts C. 90 kts

C. 90 kts

(refer to fig 27) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan A. T B. U C. A

C. A

(refer to fig 74) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. T B. U C. A

C. A

If the RVR is not reported, but meteorological value the substitute for 2400 RVR? A. A ground visibility of one half NM. B. A slant range visibility of 2400 feet for the final approach segment of the published approach procedure. C. A ground visibility of one half SM.

C. A ground visibility of one half SM.

Which sources of aeronautical info, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport condition(e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)? A. AIM, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) NOTAMs B. airport facility directory, FDC NOTAMs and local (L) NOTAMs C. AFD and Distant (D) NOTAMs

C. AFD and Distant (D) NOTAMs

(refer to fig 73) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International? A. HIRL, REIL, and VASI B. HIRL and VASI C. ALSF2 and HIRL

C. ALSF2 and HIRL

When may you obtain a contact approach? A. ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the runway in sight and are clear of clouds B. ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the cloud and the visibility is at least 1 mile C. ATC may assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile

C. ATC may assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile

How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in class E airspace below 18000 ft? A. the pilot should contact ARTCC at least every 100 NM and request the altimeter setting B. FSS's along the route broadcast the weather info at 15 min past the hour C. ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.

C. ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.

When you obtain a contact approach? A. ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR are conditions exist or you report the runway insights and are clear of clouds. B. ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the clouds and visibility is at least one mile C. ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request is reported visibility is at least one mile.

C. ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request is reported visibility is at least one mile.

Which feature is associated with the tropopause? A. absence of wind and turbulent conditions B. absolute upper limit of cloud formation C. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.

C. Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate. Temperature over the topical tropopause increases with height, but temperatures over the polar tropopause remain almost constant. An abrupt change in temperature lapse rate characterizes the tropopause.

(refer to gig 129) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative forf RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field? A. an approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance B. a transponder and an approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance C. Any approved RNAV receiver

C. Any approved RNAV receiver

(refer to fig. 8) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow C on the Radar Summary Chart? A. Avg. echo bases 2800 ft MSL B. Cell movement toward the NW at 20 knots, intense echoes, and echo bases 28000 ft MSL C. Area movement toward the NE strong to very strong echoes, and echo tops 28000 ft MSL

C. Area movement toward the NE strong to very strong echoes, and echo tops 28000 ft MSL

If the RVR equipment is inoperative for the IAP requires a visibility of 2400 RVR, how should the pilots expect visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR? A. As a slant range visibility of 2400 feet. B. As an RVR of 2400 feet. C. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

C. As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.

Interpret this PIREP. A. MRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT A. Ceiling 6000 ft intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward B. FL 60,000 intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind C. At 6000 ft; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain

C. At 6000 ft; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain

When landed behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land? A. If any crosswind, land on the wind were decide of the runway and prior to the Jets touchdown point. B. At least 1000 feet beyond the Jets touchdown point. C. Beyond the Jets touchdown point

C. Beyond the Jets touchdown point

(refer to fig 76) Which indication would be an acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers when the aircraft is located on the VOR receiver checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport? A. A B. B C. C

C. C

In which airspace is VFR-on-top operation prohibited? A. Class B B. Class E C. Class A

C. Class A

(refer to fig 89) What type airspace exists above Bryce Canyon Airport form the surface to 1200 ft AGL? A. Class D B. Class E C. Class G

C. Class G

What type of clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope? A. Layered clouds with little vertical development. B. Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence. C. Clouds with extensive vertical development

C. Clouds with extensive vertical development. When stable air is forced upward, the air tends to retain horizontal flow and any cloudiness is flat and stratified. when unstable air is forced upward, the disturbance grows and any resulting cloudiness show extensive vertical development.

Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars? A. centrifugal B. pressure gradient C. Coriolis

C. Coriolis Coriolis force is at a right angle to wind direction and directly proportional to wind speed. In the Northern Hemisphere, the air is deflected to the right.

(refer to fig 1) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form? A. DME, ADF, and airborne radar B. DME, transponder, and ADF C. DME, transponder, and RNAV

C. DME, transponder, and RNAV

Which clearance procedures may be issued b ATC without prior pilot request? A. DPs, STARs, and contact approaches B. contact and visual approaches C. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches

C. DPs, STARs, and visual approaches

Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation? A. frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil B. frost decreases control effectiveness C. Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift

C. Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift

An aircraft operated under 14 CFR Part 91 IFR is required to have which of the following? A. radar altimeter B. dual VOR system C. Gyroscopic direction indicator

C. Gyroscopic direction indicator

What are the four families of clouds? A. stratus, cumulus nimbus, and cirrus B. clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air C. High middle low and those with extensive vertical development

C. High middle low and those with extensive vertical development For identification purposes, cloud types are divide into four families. The families are high clouds, middle clouds, low clouds, and clouds with extensive vertical development.

When making a "time approach" from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the A. Holding pattern to starts procedure turn at the assigned time. B. Airspeed at the final approach fix in order to arrive at the missed approach point at the assigned time. C. Holding pattern to leave the final approach fix and bound at the assigned time.

C. Holding pattern to leave the final approach fix and bound at the assigned time.

(refer to fig 62) What aircraft equipment coded should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? A. U B. A C. I

C. I

What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence B. The Coriolis phenomenon in both high and low level air masses is the principal generating force C. It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with low level temp inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

C. It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with low level temp inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.

Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on Jan 5 of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by A. Jan. 5, next year B. Jan 5, 2 years hence C. Jan 31, 2 years hence

C. Jan 31, 2 years hence

(refer to figs 70 and 71) Which VORTAC along the proposed route of flight could provide HIWAS info? A. SPARTA VORTAC B. HUGUENOT VORTAC C. KINGSTON VORTAC

C. KINGSTON VORTAC

What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time? A. Direct headwind B. Direct tailwind C. Light quartering tailwind

C. Light quartering tailwind

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radars radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to A. Execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climbed to the initial approach at altitude. B. Climb to the published circling minimums and proceed direct to the final approach fix. C. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue to turn until established on the missed approach course.

C. Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue to turn until established on the missed approach course.

Which publication cover the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots? A. FAR part 61 B. FAR part 91 C. NSTB part 830

C. NSTB part 830

Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because A. The engines are maximum thrust output at slow airspeed. B. The gear and flaps configuration increases the turbulence to maximum. C. Of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

C. Of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.

When a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight? A. Anytime B. Only if an emergency occurs C. Only in the VFR conditions when not in class A airspace

C. Only in the VFR conditions when not in class A airspace

A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing? What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure? A. Low level significant Weather Prognostic chart, and the Area Forecast B. The Area Forecast, and the Freezing level Chart C. Pilot weather Reports (PIREPS), AIRMETS, and SIGMETS

C. Pilot weather Reports (PIREPS), AIRMETS, and SIGMETS

(refer to fig 95) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the #1 NAV? A. R-175 B. R-165 C. R-345

C. R-345

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of eh runway threshold? A. RAIL B. HIRL C. REIL

C. REIL

(Refer to figures 56 and 60A) to which value may the visibility criteria be reduced, if any, for the S-ILS for approach? A. RVR 20. B. RVR 16. C. RVR 12.

C. RVR 12.

What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA? METAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN BLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42 A. the wind is variable from 290* to 360* B. heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31 C. Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.

C. Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.

(Refer to fig. 12) the wind direction and velocity on the Observed Winds Aloft Chart (see arrow A) is indicated from the A. NE at 35 knots B. NW at 47 knots C. SW at 35 knots

C. SW at 35 knots

What is the expected duration of an individual microburst? A. 2 minutes with max. winds lasting approx 1 min. B. 1 microburst may continue for as long as 2-4 hours. C. Seldom longer than 15 min. form the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

C. Seldom longer than 15 min. form the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.

Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity? A. Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward and area of known VFR conditions B. Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude C. Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

C. Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.

How should your preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight? A. set the altimeter to 29.92. With current temp and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation. B. Set the altimeter first with 29.92 and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting. C. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be with 75 ft of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

C. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be with 75 ft of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight? A. Set the altimeter to the current temp. With current temp and the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation. B. Set the altimeter first with 29.92 and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting. C. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. the indication should be within 75 ft of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

C. Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. the indication should be within 75 ft of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.

What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced up slope? A. First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds. B. Vertical clouds with increasing height. C. Stratified clouds with little vertical development.

C. Stratified clouds with little vertical development. When stable air is forced upward, the air tends to retain horizontal flow and any cloudiness is flat and stratified. When unstable air is forced upward, the disturbance grows and any resulting cloudiness show extensive vertical development.

(refer to fig. 8) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow A on the Radar Summary Chart? A. Moderate to strong echoes; echo tops 30000 ft MSL; line movement toward the NW B. Weak to mod. echoes; avg. echo bases 30000 ft MSL; cell movement toward the southeast; rain showers with thunder C. Strong to very strong echoes; echo tops 30000 ft MSL; thunderstorms and rain showers

C. Strong to very strong echoes; echo tops 30000 ft MSL; thunderstorms and rain showers

(Refer to figure 133.) What action should the pilot take if the marker beacon receiver becomes inoperative during the S - ILS 9 approach at Riverside municipal? A. Substitute SWAN LAKE INT. For the OM and surveillance radar radar for the MM. B. Raise the DH 100 feet (50 feet for the OM and 50 feet for the MM). C. Substitute SWAN LAKE INT. For the OM and use published minimums.

C. Substitute SWAN LAKE INT. For the OM and use published minimums.

From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at your destination at your estimated time of arrival? A. Weather Depiction Chart B. Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Chart C. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast TAF

C. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast TAF

Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA? A. Area forecast B. Radar Summary and weather Depiction Carts C. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast TAF

C. Terminal Aerodrome Forecast TAF

What s the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approx every 30 seconds from a VORTAC? A. the VOR and DME components are operative B. VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service C. The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative

C. The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative

What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an improved IAP, as the pilot is on instrument flight plan includes the clouds? A. The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds B. The pilot must agree to the approach when given by ATC and the controller must have determined that the visibility was at least one mile and be reasonably sure pilot can remain clear of clouds. C. The pilot must request the approach, have at least one mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

C. The pilot must request the approach, have at least one mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts? A. magnetic direction and knots B. magnetic direction and MPH C. True direction and knots

C. True direction and knots

Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear type icing in clouds? A. Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism B. Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting C. Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting

C. Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting Unstable air favors convection. A cumulus cloud forms in a convective updraft and builds upward. the initial lifting that triggers a cumuliform cloud can be wither orograhic or by surface heating. For convective cumuliform clouds to develop, the air must be unstable after saturation.

How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field? A. the ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the rental insight B. Any closer flight plan anytime after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility C. Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility

C. Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility If operating on an IFR flight plan to an airport where there is no functioning code control tower, the pilot must initiate cancellation of the IFR flight plan. This can be done after landing if there is a functioning FSS or other means of direct communications (the sea radio or telephone) with ATC

(refer to fig 1) Which item(s) should be checed in bock 1 for a composite flight plan? A. VFR with an explanation in block 11 B. IFR with an explanation in block 11 C. VFR and IFR

C. VFR and IFR

Which inf, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach? A. the recommended altitude for each mile from the runway B. when reaching MDA C. When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final form the runway, and arrival at the MAP

C. When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final form the runway, and arrival at the MAP

What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach? A. You must have a proceeding aircraft insight, and be able to remain in VFR other conditions. B. You must have the airport insights or the proceeding aircraft insight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions. C. You must have the airport insights or a proceeding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

C. You must have the airport insights or a proceeding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.

(Refer to fig. 9) The severe weather outlook chart, which is used primarily for advance planning, provides what info? A. an 18 hour categorical outlook with a 48 hour valid time for severe weather watch, thunderstorm lines, and of expected tornado activity B. a preliminary 12 hour outlook for severe thunderstorm activity and probable convective turbulence. C. a 24 hour severe weather outlook for possible thunderstorm activity

C. a 24 hour severe weather outlook for possible thunderstorm activity

When operating under IFR with a VFR-on-top clearance, what altitude should be maintained? A. the last IFR altitude assigned by ATC C. an IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown C. a VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.

C. a VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.

(refer to fig 87) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Jefferson County Airport? A. a published LDA localizer course B. a published SDF localizer course C. a published ILS localizer course, which has an additional navigation function

C. a published ILS localizer course, which has an additional navigation function

Aircraft being operated under IFR are required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least A. distance measuring equipment B. dual VOR receivers C. a slip skid indicator

C. a slip skid indicator

When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using a IAP having only circling minimums A. a straight in landing may not be made, but eh pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway B. the pilot ma land straight in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land C. a straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing , and has been cleared to land

C. a straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing , and has been cleared to land

Tailplane icing can be detected by A. a slow and steady decrease in altitude B. flaps failing to operate C. a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose-down pitch.

C. a sudden change in elevator force or uncommanded nose-down pitch.

The Surface Analysis Chart depicts A. actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart. B. frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission C. actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temp, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart

C. actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temp, dew point, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart

What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist? A. steam fog and down slope for B. precipitation induced fog and ground fog C. advection fog and up slope fog

C. advection fog and up slope fog

What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24000 ft MSL? A. notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24000 ft B. continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction C. after immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

C. after immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

Where do squall lines most often develop? A. in an occluded front B. in a cold air mas C. ahead of a cold front

C. ahead of a cold front

What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying? A. instrument cross check B. power control C. aircraft control

C. aircraft control

If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function is provided by the FSS during those periods wen the tower is closed? A. automatic closing of the IFR flight plan B. approach control services C. airport advisory service

C. airport advisory service

In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for particular airport be found? A. aeronautical information manual B. en route low altitude chart C. airport/facility directory

C. airport/facility directory

While flying a 3* glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect? A. airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope B. airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope C. airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

C. airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope

As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively? A. airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer B. VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator C. airspeed indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer

C. airspeed indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer

As power is increased to enter a 500 ft. per min rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively? A. airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer B. VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator C. airspeed indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

C. airspeed indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.

An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on the IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will A. allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR condition B. be at least 1000 ft and1 mile C. allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

C. allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight and level flight? A. attitude indicator B. airspeed indicator C. altimeter

C. altimeter

Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments? A. altimeter and airspeed only B. altimeter and VSI only C. altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

C. altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

As power is reduced to change airspeed form high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, receptively? A. attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer B. altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator. C. altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer

C. altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer

When using GPS for navigation and instrument approaches, any required alternate airport must have A. authorization to fly approaches under IFR using GPS avionics systems B. a GPS approach that is anticipated to be operational and available at the ETA C. an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS

C. an approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS

You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR-on-top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance ad fly a course of 180*, at what altitude should you fly? (assume VFR conditions) A. any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions B. an odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 ft C. an even thousand foo MSL altitude plus 500 ft

C. an even thousand foo MSL altitude plus 500 ft

A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least A. an associated type rating if the airplane is of the multi-engine class B. a first class medical certificate C. an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft

C. an instrument rating in the same category and class of aircraft

In addition to a VOR receiver and two way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace? A. DME and an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability B. standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder C. an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability

C. an operable coded transponder having Mode C capability

NO person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan A. and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff B. prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway C. and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace

C. and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace

Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes? A. any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches B. only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure C. any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

C. any fix that is identified by the letters IAF

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1000 ft, what rate of climb or descent should be used? A. as rapidly as practicable to 500 ft above/below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 ft per min until the assigned altitude is reached B. 1000 ft per min during climb and 500 ft per min during descents until reaching the assigned altitude C. as rapidly as practicable to 1000 ft above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1500 ft per min until reaching the assigned altitude

C. as rapidly as practicable to 1000 ft above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1500 ft per min until reaching the assigned altitude

Where may you use a surveillance approach? A. at any airport that has an approach control B. at any airport which has radar service C. at airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published

C. at airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published

(refer to fig 35 and 35A) At which point does the BUJ.BUJ3 arrival begin? A. at the TXK VORTAC B. at BOGAR intersection C. at the BUJ VORTAC

C. at the BUJ VORTAC

When is the wind group at one of eh forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temps Aloft Forecast? When the wind A. is less than 5 knots B is less then 10 knots C. at the altitude is within 1500 feet of the station elevation

C. at the altitude is within 1500 feet of the station elevation

When 14 CFR part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport, under what conditions are ou not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan for an IFR flight in a helicopter A. when the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2000 ft and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport B. when the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1000 ft above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport C. at your ETA and for 1 hour after your ETA, the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1000 ft above the field elevation, or at least 400 ft above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility of a t least 2 statue miles

C. at your ETA and for 1 hour after your ETA, the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1000 ft above the field elevation, or at least 400 ft above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility of a t least 2 statue miles

For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change? A. altimeter B. VSI C. attitude indicator

C. attitude indicator

What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn? A. turn coordinator B. heading indicator C. attitude indicator

C. attitude indicator

Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a level turn? A. airspeed indicator and VSI B. altimeter and attitude indicator C. attitude indicator and VSI

C. attitude indicator and VSI

While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the A. attitude indicator, airspeed, and VSI indicate a climb. B. vertical speed indication reaches eh predetermined rate of climb C. attitude indicator shows the approx pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb

C. attitude indicator shows the approx pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb

Which instruments should be used to made a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude? A. altimeter and VSI B. manifold pressure gauge and VSI C. attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI

C. attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI

Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn? A. attitude indicator B. heading indicator or magnetic compass C. ball of the turn coordinator

C. ball of the turn coordinator

Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available info concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must A. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to the airport B. list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport C. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed

C. be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed

When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles form the destination? A. immediately after canceling the flight plan B. when advised by ARTCC C. before entering Class D airspace

C. before entering Class D airspace

(refer to fig 125) If cleared for an S-LOC 17R approach at Lincoln Municipal from over TOUHY, it means the flight should A. land straight in on runway 17R B. comply with straight-in landing minimums C. begin final approach without making a procedure turn

C. begin final approach without making a procedure turn

(refer to fig 126) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should A. land straight in on runway 31 B. comply with straight-in landing minimums C. begin final approach without making a procedure turn

C. begin final approach without making a procedure turn

(refer to fig 73) Which sequence of marker beacon indicator lights, and their respective codes, will you receive on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure to the MAP? A. blue- alternate dots and dashes; amber - dashes B. amber- alternate dots and dashes; blue- dashes C. blue- dashes; amber -alternate dots and dashes

C. blue- dashes; amber -alternate dots and dashes

A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if A kinesthetic senses are ignored B. eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments C. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude

C. body signals are used to interpret flight attitude

Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway? A. solid lines B. striped lines C. both solid and striped lines

C. both solid and striped lines

Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog? A. moist air moving over colder ground or water B. cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface C. clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface.

C. clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dew point spread, and over a land surface.

Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two letter coded signal? A. middle marker B. outer marker C. compass locator

C. compass locator

Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prog chart? A. conditions existing at the time of the observation B. interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations C. conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart

C. conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will A. both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath B. constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath C. constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

C. constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

Prior to operating an aircraft not equipped with a transponder in Class B airspace, a request for a deviation must be submitted to the A. FAA administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation B. nearest FAA general aviation district office 24 hours before the proposed operation C. controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight

C. controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight...

How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service? A. precision approaches, weather surveillance, and as a substitute for any inoperative component of a navigation aid used for approaches B. ASR approaches, weather surveillance, and course guidance by approach control C. course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches

C. course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches

An air mass is a body of air that A. has similar cloud formations associated with it. B. creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface C. covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture

C. covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture

What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15000 ft? A. all occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at the altitude B. crew must start using oxygen at 12000 ft and passengers at 15000 ft C. crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14000 ft and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15000 ft

C. crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14000 ft and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15000 ft

A pilot or crew may not perform any activities except those required to safely operate the aircraft during A. the preflight walk around of eh aircraft B. fueling of the aircraft C. critical phases of flight

C. critical phases of flight

What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying? A. aircraft control, cross check, and instrument interpretation B. instrument interpretation, cross check, and aircraft control C. cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

C. cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control

When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight? A. increase the pitch attitude and/or increase the angle of bank B. increase the angle of bank and /or decrease the pitch attitude C. decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the pitch attitude

C. decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the pitch attitude

(refer to fig 133) What is the minimum altitude descent procedure if cleared for the S-ILS 9 approach form Seal Beach VORTAC? A. descend and maintain 3000 to JASER INT, descend to and maintain 2500 until crossing SWAN LAKE, descend and maintain 1260 until crossing AGNES, and to 991 (DH) after passing AGNES B. descend and maintain 3000 to JASER INT, descend to 2800 when established on the LOC course, intercept and maintain the GS to 991 (DH) C. descend and maintain 3000 JASER INT, descend to 2500 while established on the LOC course inbound, intercept and maintain the GS to 991 (DH)

C. descend and maintain 3000 JASER INT, descend to 2500 while established on the LOC course inbound, intercept and maintain the GS to

When an aircraft is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a A. left turn B. climb C. descent

C. descent

(refer to fig 114) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern A. parallel or teardrop B. parallel only C. direct only

C. direct only

(refer to fig 114) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..." What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern A. teardrop only B. parallel only C. direct only

C. direct only

Changing the default sensitivity on your GPS approach will A. deselect the altitude mode B. deselect the altitude and heading mode C. disable the GPS annunciator

C. disable the GPS annunciator

Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground A. during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots B. during periods when the wind velocity is stronger then 35 knots and near mountain valleys C. during periods of strong temp inversion and near thunderstorms

C. during periods of strong temp inversion and near thunderstorms

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure? A. advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure B. advise departure control upon initial contact C. enter "no DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

C. enter "no DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan

To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to A. controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments B. entering weather conditions in any airspace C. entering controlled airspace

C. entering controlled airspace

While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until A. reaching the FAF B. advised to begin descent C. established on a segment of a published route or IAP

C. established on a segment of a published route or IAP

What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions? A. if on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline B. advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing C. execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you

C. execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you

On a GPS approach, the GPS/HSI shows and LNAV/VNAV flag. what should your do? A. descend to the LNAV MDA missed approach point B. follow the glideslope to the LNAV/VNAV DA C. execute the missed approach

C. execute the missed approach

A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as A. elevator illusions B. autokinesis C. false horizons

C. false horizons

What additional instrument approaches, if any, must you perform to meet the recent flight experience requirements for IFR operation in a helicopter? Within the preceding 6 calendar months, you have accomplished: One approach in a helicopter Two approaches in an airplane Two approaches in an approved airplane simulator A. one approach in a an airplane, helicopter, or approved simulator B. none C. five approaches in a helicopter or an approved rototrcraft simulator

C. five approaches in a helicopter or an approved rototrcraft simulator

Which additional instrument experience is required before you may act as pilot in command of a helicopter under IFR? your instrument experience within the preceding 6 calendar months is : 2 hours and one instrument approach in an approved helicopter simulator with holding, intercepting and tracking procedures, and on instrument approach in an airplane A. three instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter B. 1 hour of simulated instrument flight time an two instrument approaches in a helicopter C. five instrument approaches in helicopter or an approved hellicopter simulator

C. five instrument approaches in helicopter or an approved hellicopter simulator

When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC? A. flight through an MOA B. flight into an ADIZ C. flight into class A airspace

C. flight into class A airspace

Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface? A. increased visibility B. convective turbulence due to surface heating C. fog

C. fog

(refer to fig. 7) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D? A. Forecast isolated thunderstorms, tops at FL440, more than 1/8 coverage B. existing isolated cumulonimbus clouds, tops above 43000 ft with less then 1/8 coverage C. forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with tops tat 43000 ft MSL, and less then 1/8 coverage

C. forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds with tops tat 43000 ft MSL, and less then 1/8 coverage

A prog chart depicts the conditions A. existing at the surface during the past 6 hours B. which presently exist form the 1000 millibar through the 700 millibar level C. forecast to exist at a specific time in the future

C. forecast to exist at a specific time in the future

In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation? A. cumulonimbus clouds B. high humidity and freezing temp C. freezing rain

C. freezing rain

For helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available? A. from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2000, and visibility 3 miles B. from 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, reports and forecasts indicated a ceiling of 1000 ft. above the airport elevation and visibility 2 miles C. from the ETA to 1 hour after the ETA, reports and forecasts indicate a ceiling 1000 ft above the airport elevation, or at least 400 ft above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility 2 SM

C. from the ETA to 1 hour after the ETA, reports and forecasts indicate a ceiling 1000 ft above the airport elevation, or at least 400 ft above the lowest applicable approach minima, whichever is higher, and visibility 2 SM

A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by A. warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain. B. the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air. C. ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light

C. ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light An increase in temp with altitude is defined as an inversion. An inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when wind is light. The ground radiates and cools much faster than the overlying air. Air in contact with the ground becomes cold while the temperature a few hundred feet above changes very little. Thus, temperature increases with height.

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight? A. haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see B. the eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily C. haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach

C. haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach

Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight and level flight? A. turn and slip indicator B. attitude indicator C. heading indicator

C. heading indicator

What force causes a helicopter to turn? A. rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis B. vertical lift component C. horizontal lift component

C. horizontal lift component

What force causes an airplane to turn? A. rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis B. vertical lift component C. horizontal lift component

C. horizontal lift component

A high cloud is composed mostly of A. ozone B. condensation nuclei C. ice crystals.

C. ice crystals. The high cloud family is cirriform and includes cirrus, cirrocumulus, and cirrostratus. They are composed almost entirely of ice crystals.

Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes? A. snow B. hail C. ice pellets

C. ice pellets Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at higher altitudes

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures? A. instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot B. the pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC C. if an instrument departure procedure is accepted the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description

C. if an instrument departure procedure is accepted the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description

Under which condition may you act as pilot in command of a helicopter under IFR? Your certificates and rating: private pilot certificate with AMEL and airplane instrument, rotorcraft category rating, and helicopter class rating A. if a certificated helicopter instrument flight instructor is on board B. if you meet the recent helicopter IFR experience requirements C. if you acquire a helicopter instrument rating and meet IFR currency requirements

C. if you acquire a helicopter instrument rating and meet IFR currency requirements

When is an IFR flight plan required? A. when less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E, or Class G airspace, and in Class A airspace B. in all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace C. in Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

C. in Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found? A. on the IAP chart and in the airport/facility directory B. only in ht airport?facility directory C. in the airport facility directory and on the A/G voice communication panel of the en route low altitude chart

C. in the airport facility directory and on the A/G voice communication panel of the en route low altitude chart

If the outside air temp increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will A. decrease and true altitude will increase B. increase and true altitude will decrease C. increase and true altitude will increase

C. increase and true altitude will increase

To remain ion the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be A. decreased if the airspeed is increased B. decreased if the ground speed is increased C. increased if the ground speed is increased

C. increased if the ground speed is increased

The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is that A. it can case breakage of antennas B. it can cause blockage of the pitot tube and or static ports affecting aircraft instruments C. it can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift

C. it can result in aerodynamic degradation including loss of lift

What is an important characteristic of wind shear? A. it is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms B. it usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temp inversion C. it may be associated with either a ind shift or a wind speed gradient oat any level in the atmosphere

C. it may be associated with either a ind shift or a wind speed gradient oat any level in the atmosphere

When icing is detected, particularly while operating an aircraft without deicing equipment, the pilot should A. fly to an area with liquid precipitation B. fly to a lower altitude C. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing

C. leave the area of precipitation or go to an altitude where the temperature is above freezing

During a stabilized autorotation, approx what flight attitude should be established on the attitude indicator? A. 2 bar widths below the artificial horizon B. a pitch attitude that will give an established rate of descent of not more than 500 ft per minute C. level flight attitude

C. level flight attitude

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3-bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should A. start a climb to reach the proper glidepath B. continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight C. level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

C. level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

(refer to fig 42A) Which navigational info and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency? A. localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability B. localizer info only ATIS and DME are available C. localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability

C. localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability

A ceiling is defined as the height of the A. highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6-10 of they B. lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast C. lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

C. lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.

If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to "maintain VFR conditions on top," the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the A. true course B. magnetic heading C. magnetic course

C. magnetic course

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot ot climb to the assigned altitude? A. maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1000 ft level B. climb at a max angle of climb to within per min the last 1000 ft C. maintain an optimum climb on the centeline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1000 ft below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 ft per min

C. maintain an optimum climb on the centeline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1000 ft below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 ft per min

While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot? A. turn outbound on the final approach course, execute a procedure turn, and inform ATC B. turn inbound and execute the missed approach procedure at the outer marker if approach clearance has not been received C. maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC

C. maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC

If a 180* steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and level flight by visual references, the attitude indicator A. should immediately show straight and level flight B. will show a slight skid and climb to the right C. may show a slight climb and turn

C. may show a slight climb and turn

What does declaring "minimum fuel" to ATC imply? A. traffic priority is needed to the destination airport B. emergency handling is require to the nearest useable airport C. merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur

C. merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur

Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group? A. inner marker B. outer marker C. middle compass locator

C. middle compass locator

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-on-top clearance? A. at least 500 ft above he lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1000 ft above the existing meteorological condition B. at least 1000 ft above the lowest MEA appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition C. min IFR altitude, min distance form clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

C. min IFR altitude, min distance form clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

(refer to fig 7) The area indicated by arrow H indicates A. light turbulence below 34000 ft B. isolated embedded cumulonimbus clouds wit bases below FL180 and tops at FL340 C. mod turbulence at and below 34000 ft.

C. mod turbulence at and below 34000 ft.

(refer to fig. 7) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow B? A. light to mod. turbulence at and above 37000 ft MSL B. mod to severe CAT is forecast to exist at FL370 C. mod turbulence form below 24000 ft MSL to 37000 ft MSL

C. mod turbulence form below 24000 ft MSL to 37000 ft MSL

The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope A. must be increased if the ground speed is decreased B will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains constant C. must be decreased if the grond speed is decreased

C. must be decreased if the grond speed is decreased

How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation? A. rel on kinesthetic sense B. use a very rapid cross check C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments

C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments

The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions A. are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience B. occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments

C. must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments

What min navigation equipment is required for IFR flight? A. VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME. B. VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting C. navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

C. navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used

If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions A. the indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing B. the airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero C. no change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase

C. no change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase

For helicopters, is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR= A. yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2000 ft within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA B. no, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1000 ft an d3 miles, respectively C. no, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 100 ft above eh airport elevation (and 400 ft above the approach minima) with 3 miles visibility at he ETA to 1 hour thereafter

C. no, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 100 ft above eh airport elevation (and 400 ft above the approach minima) with 3 miles visibility at he ETA to 1 hour thereafter...

(refer to fig 129) As you approach LABER during a straight-in RNAV RWY 36 approach in a helicopter, Little Rock Approach Control advises that the ceiling is 400 ft and the visibility is 1/4 mile. Do regulations permit you to continue the approach and land? A. no, you may not reduce the visibility prescribed for Category A airplanes by more than 50 percent B. yes, only a 1/4 mile visibility or an RVR of 1200 ft is required for any approach, including RNAV C. no, neither the ceiling nor the visibility meet regulatory requirements

C. no, neither the ceiling nor the visibility meet regulatory requirements

(refer to fig 110) In which general direction form the VORTAC is the aircraft located? A. southwest B. northwest C. northeast

C. northeast

(refer to fig 111) In which general direction form the VORTAC is the aircraft located? A. northeast B. southeast C. northwest

C. northwest

What action should you take if you DME at FL240? A. advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made B. notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed C. notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

C. notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made

What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR -on-top on a westbound flight below 18000 ft? A. even thousand foot levels B. even thousand foo levels plus 500 ft, but not below MEA C. odds thousand foo levels plus 500 ft, but not below MEA

C. odds thousand foo levels plus 500 ft, but not below MEA

Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer. A. in front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell B.In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell C. on all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.

C. on all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.

(refer to fig 128) What is the helicopter landing minimum for the VOR RWY 36 approach at Price/Carbon County Airport? A. 500 foot ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility B. 1 mile visibility C. one-half mile visibility

C. one-half mile visibility

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better establish on course, the additional circuits can be made A. at pilot's discretion B. only in an emergency C. only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

C. only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

(refer to fig 117) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHEAST ON THE ONE FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB. LEFT TURNS.." At station passage you note he indications in fig 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern? A. direct only B. teardrop only C. parallel only

C. parallel only

(refer to gigs 60A and 61) What is your position relative to the PLATS intersection, glide slope, and the localilzer course? A. past PLATS, below the glide slope, and right of the localizer course B. approaching PLATS, above the glide slope, and left of the localizer course C. past PLATS, above the glide slope and right of the localizer course

C. past PLATS, above the glide slope and right of the localizer course

(refer to fig 78 and 79) What is your position relative to the VOR COP southeast bound on V86 between the BOZEMAN and LIVINGSTON VORTACs? The #11 VOR is tuned to 116.1 and the #2 VOR is tuned to 112.2 A. past the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110 B. approaching the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110 C. past the LVM R-246 and east of the BZN R110

C. past the LVM R-246 and east of the BZN R110

The 'N Entry' sign identifies A. the exit boundary for the runway protected area B. an area that does not continue beyond intersection C. paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

C. paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

(refer to fig 91) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport? A. lights on prior request B. no lighting available C. pilot controlled lighting

C. pilot controlled lighting

Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet 14 CFR Part 91 requirements for a particular instrument flight? A. owner B. operator C. pilot in command

C. pilot in command

What are the characteristics at stable air? A. good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds B. poor visibility, intermittent precipitation and cumulus type clouds C. poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds

C. poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds

During a constant bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn? A. rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn would increase. B. rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease C. rate of turn would decrease, and radius of would increase

C. rate of turn would decrease, and radius of would increase

What is the pilot in command's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (pilot complies with speed adjustment). A. reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC B. reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC C. reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

C. reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of an airfoil. A. reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent. B. increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent. C. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

C. reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.

A characteristic of the stratosphere is A. an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude. B. a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet C. relatively small changes in temp with an increase in altitude

C. relatively small changes in temp with an increase in altitude Above the tropopause is the stratosphere. This layer is typified by relatively small changes in temperature with height except for a warming trend near the top

Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation? A. reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible B. rely on the kinesthetic sense C. rely on the indications of the flight instruments

C. rely on the indications of the flight instruments

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by A. removal of the navigational feature B. broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel C. removal of the identification feature

C. removal of the identification feature

IF tailplane icing or tailplane stall is detected, the pilot should A. lower the flaps to decrease airspeed B. decrease power to V-FE C. retract flaps and increase power.

C. retract flaps and increase power.

En route at FL290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57 during descent. If the field elevation is 650 ft and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approx indication upon landing? A. 715 ft B. 1300 ft C. sea level

C. sea level

(refer to fig 143) the heading on a remote indicating compass is 120* and the magnetic compass indicates 110*. What action is required to correctly align the heading indicator with the magnetic compass? A. select the free gyro mode and depress the counter-clockwise heading drive button B. select the slaved gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button C. select the free gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button

C. select the free gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button

(refer to fig 143) The heading on a remote indicating compass is 5* to the left of that desired. What action is required to move the desired heading under the heading reference? A. select the free gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button B. select the slaved gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button C. select the free gyro mode and depress the counter- clockwise heading drive button

C. select the free gyro mode and depress the counter- clockwise heading drive button

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace A. Separation form all aircraft B. position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude C. separation form all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

C. separation form all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.

What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 ft or higher on a direct flight off airways? A. set the altimeter to 29.92 before takeoff B. set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92 C. set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92 upon reaching 18000 ft.

C. set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climb-out and 29.92 upon reaching 18000 ft.

To enter a constant airspeed descent form level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should A. first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed B. first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI C. simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.

C. simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.

No pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft under IFR or in weather conditions less than the minimums prescribed for VFR unless that pilot has, within the preceding 6 calendar months, completed at least A. three instrument approaches and logged 3 hours B. six instrument flights under actual IFR conditions C. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, navigational systems, or passed and instrument proficiency check

C. six instrument approaches, holding procedures, navigational systems, or passed and instrument proficiency check

(refer to fig 87) While holding at the 10 DME fix east of LCH for an ILS approach to RWY 15 at Lake Charles Muni airport, ATC advises you to expect clearance for the approach at 1015. At 1000 you experience 2-way radio communications failure. Which procedure should be followed? A. squawk 7600 and listen on the LOM frequency for instructions form ATC. If no instructions are received, start your approach at 1015 B. squawk 7700 for 1 min, then 7600. After 1 min, descend to the minimum final approach fix altitude. Start your approach a 1015 C. squawk 7600; plan to begin your approach at 1015

C. squawk 7600; plan to begin your approach at 1015

During a "no-gyro" approach and prior to being handed off t the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns A. one-half standar rate unless otherwise advised B. any rate not exceeding a 30* bank C. standard rate unless otherwise advised

C. standard rate unless otherwise advised

(refer to fig 149) what is the flight attitude? One system which transmits info to the instruments has malfunctioned. A. level turn to the right B. level turn to the left C. straight and level flight

C. straight and level flight

Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of A. stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence B. cumuliform clouds with little or no turbulence C. stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

C. stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.

(Refer to Fig. 13) The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter? A. decreasing headwind B. Increasing tailwind C. strong downdraft

C. strong downdraft

What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm? A. a cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and a inverted pas rate C. sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

C. sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.

"WND" in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be A. sustained surface wind speed of 6 knots or greater B. sustained surface wind speed of 15 knots or greater C. sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or greater.

C. sustained surface wind speed of 20 knots or greater.

On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should A. swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning form north B. exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude C. swing freely and indicate known headings

C. swing freely and indicate known headings

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate? A. takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines B. instrument takeoffs are not authorized C. takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published

C. takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published

(refer to fig 138) What night operation, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights? A. no aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights B. only taxi operation are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights C. taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights

C. taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights

(refer to fig) What type of entry is recommended to the missed approach holding pattern if the inbound heading is 050*? A. direct B. parallel C. teardrop

C. teardrop

(refer to fig 113) You receive this ATC clearance: "..CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS..: What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern A. parallel only B. direct only C. teardrop only

C. teardrop only

Which conditions result in the formation of frost? A. The temp of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling. B. When dew forms and the temp is below freezing C. temp of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.

C. temp of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.

What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over? A. the indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb) B. the initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM C. the VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent

C. the VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent

(refer to fig 128) how should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County airport is inoperative? A. the airborne DME will always indicate "0" B. the airborne DME will "search," but will not "lock on" C. the airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone

C. the airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone

During IFR operation using an approved GPS system for navigation, A. no other navigation system is required B. active monitoring of an alternate navigation system is always required C. the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route

C. the aircraft must have an approved and operational alternate navigation system appropriate for the route

After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time? A. the airplane is getting closer to the radial B. the OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading C. the airplane is flying away from the radial

C. the airplane is flying away from the radial

During recoveries form unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant A. the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane. B. a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI C. the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement

C. the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant A. the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the mini airplane B. a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI C. the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement

C. the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement

(refer to fig 87) Why is the localizer back course at Jefferson County Airport depicted? A. the back course is not aligned with a runway B. the back course has a glide slope C. the back course has an additional navigation function

C. the back course has an additional navigation function

What are the min weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP? A. the ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2000 ft and 3 miles, respectively B. the ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2000 ft and 3 miles, respectively C. the ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent form MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR

C. the ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent form MEA, approach, and landing under basic VFR

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left form a west heading in the northern hemisphere? A. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right B. the compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from an east heading in the northern hemisphere? A. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the right B. the compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right form an easterly heading in the northern hemisphere? A. the compass will initially indicate a turn to the left B. the compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as your roll into a standard rate turn to the right form a westerly heading in the northern hemisphere? A. the compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction , then turn to a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft. B. the compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

C. the compass will indicate the approx correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth

Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR? A. the first flickering of the TO FROM indicator and CDI a the station is approached B. the first full scale deflection of the CDI C. the first complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator

C. the first complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator

When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage? A. the first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion B. the moment the TO FROM indicator becomes blank C. the first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator

C. the first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator

(refer to fig 7) What info is indicated by arrow A? A. the height of the tropopause in meters above sea level B. the height of the existing layer of CAT C. the height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.

C. the height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.

What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight? A. The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup B. The mini airplane should erect and become stable within 5 min C. the horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 min

C. the horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 min

When making a instrument approach at the elected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply? A. standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2) B. the IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport C. the landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

C. the landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which mins. apply for landing at the alternate? A. 600-1 if the airport has an ILS B. ceiling 200 ft above the published min; visibility 2 miles C. the landing mins for the approach to be used

C. the landing mins for the approach to be used

what causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass? A. Coriolis force at the mid latitudes B. centrifugal force acting on the compass card C. the magnetic dip characteristic

C. the magnetic dip characteristic

Curing normal operation of a vacuum driven attitude indicator, what attitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180* skidding turn to straight and level coordinated flight? A. A straight and level coordinated flight indication B. a nose high indication relative to level flight C. the miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid

C. the miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid

What is the rule for a pilot receiving a Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) clearance? A. the pilot is required to accept the controller's clearance in visual meteorological conditions B. the pilot must accept the clearance if the pavement is dry and he stopping distance is adequate C. the pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions

C. the pilot has the option to accept or reject all LAHSO clearances regardless of the meteorological conditions

What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds? A. the controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds B. the pilot must agree to the approach when given by ATC and the controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds C. the pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

C. the pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan? A. the final approach fix on the expected instrument approach B. the initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach C. the point of fist intended landing

C. the point of fist intended landing

(refer to fig 91) What are the oxygen requirements for a n IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA? A. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 min B. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 min, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen C. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen

C. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen

(refer to fig 89) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight northeast bound from Bryce Canyon on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft? A. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for the part of the flight of more than 30 min B. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more then 30 min, and the passengers must be provide supplemental oxygen C. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15000 ft.

C. the required min crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15000 ft.

What reduction, if any, to visibility requirements is authorized when using a fixed wing IAP fora helicopter instrument approach? A. all visibility requirements may be reduced by one half B. all visibility requirements may be reduced by one forth C. the visibility requirements may be reduced by one-half, but in no case lower then 1200 RVR or 1/4 mile

C. the visibility requirements may be reduced by one-half, but in no case lower then 1200 RVR or 1/4 mile

The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that A. there are thunderstorms in the area B. a cold front has passed C. there is freezing rain at a higher altitude

C. there is freezing rain at a higher altitude Rain falling through colder air may become supercooled, freezing on impact as freezing rain; or it may freeze during its descent, falling as ice pellets. Ice pellets always indicate freezing rain at hight altitude.

What is indicated by the term "embedded thunderstorms"? A. severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line B. thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass C. thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

C. thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.

What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs? A. to provide the latest info on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts B. to issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time C. to advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts and flight restriction prior to normal publcation

C. to advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts and flight restriction prior to normal publcation

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions A. report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued B. use VFR operating procedures C. to see and avoid other traffic

C. to see and avoid other traffic

If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter A. on 29.92 B. on the current airport barometric pressure, if known C. to the airport elevation.

C. to the airport elevation.

(refer to fig 133) Why are two VOR/LOC receivers recommended to obtain an MDA of 1160 when making an S-LOC 9 approach to Riverside Municipal? A. to obtain R-327 of PDZ when on the localizer course B. in order to identify Riverside VOR C. to utilize the published stepdown fix

C. to utilize the published stepdown fix

Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas indicate A. an inversion B. unstable air C. turbulence

C. turbulence Standing lenticular altocumulus clouds are formed on the crests of waves created by barriers to the wind flow. The clouds show little movement, hence the name "standing". However, wind can be quite strong blowing though such clouds. The presence of these clouds is a good indication of very strong turbulence and should be avoided.

What are some characteristics of unstable air? A. nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility B. turbulence and poor surface visibility C. turbulence and good surface visibility

C. turbulence and good surface visibility

Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine? A. check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments B. check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power C. turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregulear mechanical noise

C. turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregulear mechanical noise

When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued? A. every 12 hours as required B. every 24 hours as required C. unscheduled and issued as required

C. unscheduled and issued as required

Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR? A. to all pilots wherever STARs are available B. only if the pilot requests a STAR in the "Remarks" section of the flight plan C. when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR"

C. when ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests "No STAR"

When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound? A. When the wings are level and the wind drift correction angle is established after completing the turn to the outbound heading B. when the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first C. when abeam the holding fix

C. when abeam the holding fix

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 ft on an IFR flight plan? A. when flying above 18000 ft in VFR conditions B. when flying VFR conditions above clouds C. when assigned a VFR-on-top clearance

C. when assigned a VFR-on-top clearance

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A. when visibility is less than 1 mile B. when parallel runways are in use C. when departing form a runway intersection

C. when departing form a runway intersection

At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern? A. abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last B. when the wings are level at the completion of the 180* C. when over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

C. when over or abeam the holding fix, whichever occurs later

Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight? A. whenever the pilot reports the loss of any navigational aid B. when it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic C. when the pilot requests it

C. when the pilot requests it

(refer to fig 55) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight? A. after descending to 1440 ft MSL B. after descent to 1440 ft or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first C. when you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile

C. when you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile

The ILS critical area marking denote A. where you are clear of the runway B. where you must be to start your ILS procedure C. where you are clear of the ILS critical area

C. where you are clear of the ILS critical area

What flight planning info can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts? A. clear air turbulence and icing conditions B. levels of widespread cloud coverage C. winds and temps aloft

C. winds and temps aloft

Where does wind shear occur? A. Exclusively in thunderstorms B. wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and or temp C. with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

C. with either a wind shift or a wind speed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVIGATION" . This phrase means that A. you are till in radar contact, but must make position reports B. radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports C. you are to assume responsibility for our own navigation

C. you are to assume responsibility for our own navigation

When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before A. takeoff B. entering IFR conditions C.entering Class E airspace

C.entering Class E airspace

If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon a. arrival at the DH on the glide slope B. arrival at the middle marker C. expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach

a. arrival at the DH on the glide slope

While on a GPS approach, you receive a RAIM annunciation about the status of RAIM reliability. Your should a. execute an immediate missed approach regardless of where you are on the approach path B. execute an immediate missed approach only if you are past the FAWP C. continue the approach since you have up to 5 mins of GPS accuracy to complete the approach after you receive the annunciation

a. execute an immediate missed approach regardless of where you are on the approach path

Area forecast generally include a forecast period of 18 hours and cover a geographical A. terminal area B. area less than 3000 square mile c. area the size of several states

c. area the size of several states

If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to us an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect? A. the altimeter and airspeed indicator to become inoperative B. the gyroscopic instruments to become inoperative c. the vertical speed to momentarily show a climb

c. the vertical speed to momentarily show a climb