IO Psychology

Which of the following is a disqualifier question in an interview? * 1 point a. We have foreign clients. Is it possible for you to work the night shift? b. You have a two-year gap between your former job and the job before that. Can you tell me about that? c. You worked as a processing manager at your previous job. What does it entail exactly? d. All of the above

A disqualifier question in an interview is one that aims to determine if the candidate possesses a specific requirement or meets essential criteria for the job. Among the options provided, option c does not directly address a potential disqualifying factor. Instead, it seeks clarification about the candidate's previous job responsibilities. So, the correct answer is: c. You worked as a processing manager at your previous job. What does it entail exactly?

According to Herzberg, these are necessary and must be adequate, but not sufficient for job satisfaction and motivation. * 1 point a. Motivator b. Hygiene c. Growth d. Rewards

According to Herzberg's two-factor theory, hygiene factors are necessary and must be adequate, but not sufficient for job satisfaction and motivation. Here's the breakdown: Hygiene factors: These are extrinsic factors that relate to the work environment and context, such as salary, company policies, job security, working conditions, etc. They are necessary to prevent dissatisfaction but don't directly motivate employees. If these factors are inadequate, it can lead to dissatisfaction. Motivators: These are intrinsic factors related to the job itself, such as achievement, recognition, advancement opportunities, the work itself being meaningful, etc. These factors contribute to job satisfaction and motivation. So the answer is: b. Hygiene

According to the path-goal theory, this kind of leader shares information with employees and lets them participate in the decision making. * 1 point a. Supportive-style b. Participative-style c. Instrumental style d. Achievement-oriented style

According to the path-goal theory, the leader who shares information with employees and lets them participate in decision-making is a: b. Participative-style leader. Here's why the other options are not the most fitting descriptions: Supportive-style: This leader focuses on creating a friendly and supportive work environment, but may not necessarily involve employees in decision-making. Instrumental style: This term is not typically used in path-goal theory. Achievement-oriented style: This leader sets challenging goals and expects high performance from employees, but may not always involve them in decision-making processes. A participative-style leader involves employees in setting goals, problem-solving, and decision-making. This increases their ownership and commitment to achieving goals. Sharing information with employees keeps them informed and allows them to make more meaningful contributions to the team's success.

This is the extent to which a person views himself as valuable and worthy. * 1 point a. Self-esteem b. Self-worth c. Self confidence d. Self value

All of the terms you listed are related but have slightly different nuances: Self-esteem: This is the broadest term and encompasses how you value and perceive yourself overall, including your abilities, confidence, and worth. Self-worth: This is very similar to self-esteem but focuses more on your inherent value as a person, independent of your achievements or skills. Self-confidence: This refers to your belief in your abilities to succeed in specific situations. Therefore, while all the options are close, the most accurate answer is: a. Self-esteem

Based on Douglas McGregor, which of the following best described Theory X? * 1 point a. Participative Management style b. Belief that people take pride of their work c. It involves micromanaging people's work d. Trust people to take ownership of their work

Based on Douglas McGregor's Theory X, the answer is: c. It involves micromanaging people's work Here's why the other options are not aligned with Theory X: a. Participative Management style: This approach contradicts Theory X, which emphasizes control and distrust of employees. b. Belief that people take pride of their work: Theory X assumes employees dislike work and need external motivators. d. Trust people to take ownership of their work: Trust and autonomy are absent in Theory X, which relies on close supervision. Theory X represents a pessimistic view of human nature in the workplace. It assumes employees are naturally lazy, dislike work, and avoid responsibility. Managers following Theory X tend to: Micromanage employees to ensure tasks are completed correctly. Offer extrinsic rewards and punishments as motivators. Have a limited view of employee capabilities. This approach can lead to decreased employee morale, motivation, and creativity.

Based on the equity theory, this is the perceived fairness of the actual decisions made in an organization. * 1 point a. Distributive justice b. Procedural justice c. Interactional justice d. Job characteristics model

Based on equity theory, the perceived fairness of the actual decisions made in an organization is: a. Distributive justice Here's why the other options are not the same concept: Procedural justice: This focuses on the fairness of the process used to make decisions, not the outcome itself. For instance, were employees given a voice in the decision-making process? Were procedures followed consistently? Interactional justice: This refers to the perceived fairness in how employees are treated during the decision-making process. For example, were employees treated with respect and dignity? Were explanations provided for decisions? Job characteristics model: This is a separate framework that identifies core job characteristics that can motivate employees. It's not directly related to perceived fairness in decision-making. Distributive justice is concerned with whether the outcomes of decisions, such as rewards, promotions, or punishments, are distributed fairly among employees. Equity theory proposes that employees compare their ratios of inputs (contributions) to outputs (rewards) to the perceived ratios of others. If they feel their ratio is unfair compared to others, they might experience dissatisfaction and be less motivated.

Using the Two-Factor theory, in which situation will the employee be unmotivated? * 1 point a. An employee who is paid a lot of money but has no control over his job. b. An employee who performs a challenging task under his preferred work schedule. c. An employee who has complete responsibility over his job and has to perform it under undesirable working conditions. d. An employee with an uninteresting job who became friends with his coworkers.

Based on the Two-Factor Theory (also known as Herzberg's Motivation-Hygiene Theory), the employee who will likely be unmotivated is: a. An employee who is paid a lot of money but has no control over his job. Here's why the other options don't describe situations leading to demotivation according to the theory: b. An employee who performs a challenging task under his preferred work schedule: This scenario provides both a motivator (challenging task) and a hygiene factor (preferred work schedule). The challenge can provide a sense of accomplishment, while the schedule can contribute to satisfaction with the work environment. c. An employee who has complete responsibility over his job and has to perform it under undesirable working conditions: While undesirable working conditions are a hygiene factor that can cause dissatisfaction, the high level of control (motivator) over the job can counteract this to some extent. d. An employee with an uninteresting job who became friends with his coworkers: Social interaction with coworkers is not directly addressed in the Two-Factor Theory, but it can be a positive factor that contributes to job satisfaction even if the task itself is uninteresting. The Two-Factor Theory suggests that: Motivators (achievement, recognition, growth, etc.) are directly linked to job satisfaction and motivation. Hygiene factors (salary, working conditions, company policies, etc.) prevent dissatisfaction but don't necessarily create motivation. In option (a), the high salary might be a hygiene factor that prevents extreme dissatisfaction, but the lack of control (absence of a motivator) can lead to an overall feeling of unimportance and hinder motivation.

Benny is the CEO of Benny Industries, the primary manufacturer of musical instruments in the Philippines. He is always involved in planning, organizing, and controlling the activities of employees. According to the path-goal theory, Benny employs what leadership style? * 1 point a. Instrumental-style b. Participative style c. Supportive style d. Achievement oriented style

Based on the path-goal theory, Benny most likely employs a d. Achievement oriented style leadership. Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Instrumental-style: This term isn't commonly used in path-goal theory. Participative style: This involves including employees in decision-making, which isn't mentioned in Benny's approach. Supportive style: This focuses on creating a positive and friendly work environment, which might be present with Benny, but the emphasis on planning, organizing, and controlling suggests a stronger directive approach. Achievement oriented style leadership emphasizes setting challenging goals and high expectations for performance. Leaders using this style believe that employees are motivated by a sense of accomplishment and recognition for achieving those goals. Benny's involvement in planning and controlling activities suggests he sets clear expectations and likely emphasizes achievement.

During their father's wake, Gretchen and Marjorie were summoned by Duterte regarding their feud. They talked for hours about it until the two of them reached a conclusion. Before separating, Duterte asked the two of them to shake hands. What did Gretchen and Marjorie employ? * 1 point a. Arbitration b. Mediation c. Counseling d. None of the above because a fight ensued afterwards

Based on the scenario described, Duterte's role seems more aligned with mediation rather than arbitration or counseling. Arbitration involves a neutral third party making a binding decision to resolve a dispute after hearing arguments and evidence from both sides. In this scenario, Duterte does not appear to have made a binding decision; rather, he facilitated communication and negotiation between Gretchen and Marjorie. Counseling involves providing guidance and support to individuals to help them understand and address personal or emotional issues. While Duterte may have provided some guidance during the conversation, the primary focus seems to be on resolving the feud between Gretchen and Marjorie rather than addressing personal or emotional issues. Mediation, on the other hand, involves a neutral third party facilitating communication and negotiation between disputing parties to help them reach a mutually acceptable resolution. This aligns more closely with the scenario described, as Duterte mediated the discussion between Gretchen and Marjorie, helping them reach a conclusion. So, the most appropriate answer is: b. Mediation

John believes that he is intelligent while Michael sees himself as dumb. In testing, we can expect that John should do better while Michael should do poorly based on which of the following? * 1 point a. Galatea effect b. Golem effect c. Pygmalion effect d. Rosenthal effect

Based on the scenario described, where John believes he is intelligent and Michael sees himself as dumb, the expectation that John should do better while Michael should do poorly is based on the Pygmalion effect. The Pygmalion effect, also known as the self-fulfilling prophecy, refers to the phenomenon where individuals' performance is influenced by the expectations others have of them. In this case, John's belief in his intelligence may lead him to approach tasks with confidence and effort, contributing to better performance. Conversely, Michael's belief that he is dumb may lead to lower confidence and effort, potentially resulting in poorer performance. Therefore, the correct answer is: c. Pygmalion effect

Which of the following is based on Murray's psychogenic needs? * 1 point a. Two-factor theory b. Equity theory c. Acquired Needs theory d. IMPACT theory

Murray's psychogenic needs are related to the Acquired Needs theory. The Acquired Needs theory, developed by David McClelland, is based on Murray's psychogenic needs and suggests that individuals acquire needs based on their life experiences. These needs include the need for achievement (nAch), the need for affiliation (nAff), and the need for power (nPow). So, the correct answer is c. Acquired Needs theory.

Cherish feels lost. She doesn't have any motivation to go to work as she feels unsatisfied with her current job. Due to low self-esteem, she avoids accomplishing any tasks. She is currently experiencing * 1 point a. Content plateau b. Career plateau c. Structural plateau d. Life plateau

Out of the options listed, Cherish is most likely experiencing a b. Career plateau. Here's why the other options are not the best fit for Cherish's situation: Content plateau: This refers to a general feeling of satisfaction or stagnation in life, not specifically related to work. While dissatisfaction could be a sign of a content plateau, the lack of motivation and avoidance of tasks point more towards a work-related issue. Structural plateau: This refers to limitations imposed by the organizational structure that hinder career advancement, such as lack of available promotions. While Cherish might feel stuck, the focus in the description is on her lack of motivation and self-esteem, not necessarily structural limitations. Life plateau: This is a broader term encompassing a feeling of stagnation in various aspects of life, not just career. While Cherish might be experiencing a general lack of fulfillment, the details suggest a specific issue with her current job. Career plateau refers to a stagnation or lack of progress in one's career. The symptoms Cherish experiences - lack of motivation, dissatisfaction, and avoidance of tasks - align with this concept. Her low self-esteem might be stemming from this feeling of being stuck and unfulfilled in her current role.

Which of the following personality dimensions that, when possessed by group members, yield to higher performance? * 1 point a. Openness to experience and emotional stability b. Consciousness and emotional stability c. Openness and agreeableness d. Consciousness and openness to experience

Research suggests that a combination of personality traits can contribute to higher group performance. Here's a breakdown of the options: Openness to experience and emotional stability: Openness can bring new ideas and creativity to the group, but emotional stability is crucial for managing stress and maintaining focus during collaboration. This combination could be beneficial. Conscientiousness and emotional stability: Conscientiousness is highly linked to organization, reliability, and meeting deadlines, which are essential for effective teamwork. Emotional stability, as mentioned before, helps manage group dynamics and prevent conflicts. This is a strong combination for performance. Openness and agreeableness: Openness can be valuable, but agreeableness, while promoting cooperation, might lead to a lack of healthy debate and critical thinking within the group. Consciousness and openness to experience: This combination offers both organization and creativity, which can be very effective. Based on this analysis, the two most likely personality dimensions to yield higher performance are: b. Consciousness and emotional stability d. Consciousness and openness to experience Both options provide a strong foundation for effective collaboration and goal achievement. It's important to note that these are just two factors, and team dynamics are complex. A mix of personalities can still be successful as long as members can find ways to work together productively.

Groups perform at their optimum capacity when group size is small. According to research, groups have greatest member satisfaction and performance when they have approximately _______. * 1 point a. 8 members b. 5 members c. 10 members d. 3 members

Research suggests that the ideal group size for optimal performance and member satisfaction falls somewhere between options b. 5 members and d. 3 members. While there's no single perfect number, studies have found that smaller groups, typically around 5 members, tend to have several advantages: Better communication and collaboration: With fewer people, everyone has a higher chance to be heard and contribute, leading to more efficient information sharing and decision-making. Increased accountability: Each member feels a greater sense of responsibility towards the group's goals when the team is smaller. Enhanced coordination: Smaller groups can more easily coordinate their efforts and avoid logistical challenges that might arise with larger teams. Greater member satisfaction: In smaller groups, individuals are more likely to feel valued and have their contributions recognized, leading to higher satisfaction. However, it's important to consider the specific task at hand. Very complex tasks might benefit from a slightly larger group to access a wider range of expertise.

The Job Diagnostic Survey (JDS) measures the extent of which of the following characteristics? * 1 point a. The importance or meaning of a tasks b. If the job allows employees to make decisions c. If a variety of skills is needed to be used d. All of the above

The Job Diagnostic Survey (JDS) measures all of the above characteristics: The importance or meaning of tasks (Task Significance): This assesses the perceived significance of the job and how much it contributes to the bigger picture. If the job allows employees to make decisions (Autonomy): This measures the degree of control employees have over their work and decision-making processes. If a variety of skills is needed to be used (Skill Variety): This assesses the diversity of skills and abilities required to perform the job effectively. The JDS is a core instrument used in job design research. It focuses on five core job characteristics that are believed to influence employee motivation and satisfaction: Skill Variety: As mentioned above. Task Identity: The degree to which a job involves completing a whole and identifiable piece of work. Task Significance: The perceived importance, meaningfulness, and impact of the job. Autonomy: The level of control employees have over their work methods, scheduling, and decision-making. Feedback: The amount of clear and direct information employees receive about their performance. By measuring these characteristics, the JDS helps identify potential areas for job redesign to improve employee well-being and performance.

A group was instructed by the department head to organize a play for the upcoming Christmas party. A man, who was a member of the theater guild in college, was chosen by his group mates to be the leader. The man would be said to have * 1 point a. Expert power b. Referent power c. Legitimate power d. Coercive power

The answer is a. Expert power. Here's why the other options are incorrect: Expert power refers to the influence someone has due to their specialized knowledge or skills. In this case, the man's experience in the theater guild suggests he has expertise in putting on a play, making him a good choice for leader. Referent power is the influence someone has because others admire them or want to be like them. There's no indication the man is admired for unrelated reasons, just his theater experience. Legitimate power comes from a formal position of authority. The groupmates chose him, not because of a pre-assigned leadership role. Coercive power relies on fear or threats. There's no indication the man is forcing anyone to do anything. Since the man's leadership stems from his relevant knowledge and skills, expert power is the best fit. His theater experience makes him seem more qualified to lead the play production.

Julia learned that her aunt, Gretchen, was seeing her cousin Nicole's boyfriend, Atong, behind her back. She immediately shared this news to her mother, Marjorie. Julia can be called what? * 1 point a. Julia is a liaison b. Julia is a deadender c. Julia is an isolate d. Julia is a well-raised daughter

The answer is a. Julia is a liaison. Here's why the other options are incorrect: Deadender: This refers to someone who has reached the end of their career path or a situation with no further opportunities. It doesn't apply to Julia's actions. Isolate: This describes someone who has little or no social interaction with others. Julia is clearly communicating with her mother. Well-raised daughter: This is a judgment call, and the question focuses on Julia's role in spreading information. Liaison refers to someone who acts as a link or intermediary between two parties. In this case, Julia acts as a liaison by passing on information from her aunt (Gretchen) to her mother (Marjorie). While the information might be sensitive, Julia is simply the channel through which it travels.

Wolfie needed to gather a large pool of applicants for an executive post in a prestigious company. At the very least, he needed to gather at least five prospective applicants with a college degree. Pressured by the deadline set by his department head, he turned to many methods in order to source applicants. He was able to find five applicants, all of which were high school graduates trying their luck, and accommodated them to the office. Wolfie completed what aspect of the hiring process? * 1 point a. Recruitment b. Placement c. Selection d. None, he just wasted his time

The answer is a. Recruitment. Here's why: Recruitment focuses on attracting and gathering a pool of candidates for a job opening. Placement is the process of matching a qualified candidate with an open position. Since Wolfie hasn't assessed the suitability of any candidates yet, this stage hasn't been reached. Selection involves choosing the most qualified candidate from the applicant pool. Wolfie hasn't gotten to this stage either. While Wolfie was under pressure and didn't find any college graduates as requested, he did successfully gather a pool of applicants which fulfills the initial stage of recruitment. Even though the applicants weren't qualified based on the college degree requirement, Wolfie did manage to find some potential candidates, which is the core function of recruitment.

All the new employees of Barretto Company are tasked to perform a dance routine in the upcoming company Christmas party. The employees are participating in the company's * 1 point a. Ritual b. Annual socialization c. Hazing procedure d. Performance appraisal

The answer is b. Annual socialization. Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Ritual: Rituals are symbolic acts that are typically repeated. While the dance routine might become a tradition, it's not necessarily symbolic in this case. Hazing procedure: Hazing is the practice of subjecting someone to humiliation or abuse as a way of initiation into a group. While some might find the dance routine silly or embarrassing, it's not meant to be hazing. Performance appraisal: Performance appraisals are evaluations of an employee's job performance. The dance routine is not related to work performance. Annual socialization best describes the company's intention. This event allows new employees to bond with their colleagues in a fun and informal setting. It's a way to break the ice and build camaraderie within the company.

In order to help increase production, a manager always makes his rounds to observe his subordinates. The manager is employing which of the following? * 1 point a. Recency effect b. Hawthorne effect c. Primacy effect d. Contrast effect

The answer is b. Hawthorne effect. Here's why: Hawthorne effect describes the phenomenon where individuals modify their behavior in response to being observed. The manager's frequent rounds of observation might lead the employees to work harder due to the increased attention. Recency effect is the tendency to weigh information presented more recently more heavily. It doesn't directly apply to the manager's ongoing observation. Primacy effect is the opposite of the recency effect, where we give more weight to information presented earlier. It's not relevant here as the manager's observations are continuous. Contrast effect refers to how our perception of something is influenced by what came before it. It's not a direct fit as it doesn't involve observing and potentially influencing behavior. By constantly observing his subordinates, the manager is unknowingly introducing the Hawthorne effect, which may or may not lead to a sustained increase in production.

Jehn is a guidance counselor in a school. Which of Jehn's actions is not considered as an organizational citizenship behavior? * 1 point a. Jehn gets along well with her workmates. b. Jehn washes the plates she used in the office. c. Jehn offers her help to her workmates whenever they ask for it d. None of the above

The answer is b. Jehn washes the plates she used in the office. Here's why: Organizational Citizenship Behavior (OCB) refers to voluntary actions that employees perform that contribute to the positive functioning of the organization, but aren't part of their formal job duties. While all the other options involve actions that go beyond Jehn's core responsibilities as a guidance counselor and contribute to a more positive work environment: Getting along well with workmates fosters a collaborative and supportive atmosphere. Offering help to colleagues demonstrates a willingness to contribute beyond her own tasks. Washing dishes, while helpful, is generally considered a personal responsibility and wouldn't be considered an exceptional contribution to the organization's functioning. It doesn't directly relate to Jehn's role as a counselor or her colleagues' ability to perform their jobs.

This is the foundation of all human resources activities. * 1 point a. Job evaluation b. Job analysis c. Job description d. Job design

The answer is b. Job analysis. Here's why: Job analysis is the systematic process of gathering information about a job. This information forms the foundation for all HR activities because it defines the duties, responsibilities, skills, and knowledge required for the position. Job evaluation assigns a relative worth to a job compared to other positions within the organization. While important, it relies on the information gathered through job analysis. Job description is a document summarizing the key elements of a job, derived from the job analysis. It's a communication tool based on the analysis. Job design focuses on how a job is structured and the tasks it entails. Job analysis provides the groundwork for effective job design. Job analysis is the crucial first step in understanding the needs of a position. This information then informs all subsequent HR activities, including recruitment, selection, performance management, compensation, and training.

People with this trait are more likely to emerge as leaders than their counterpart except * 1 point a. Extraversion b. Neuroticism c. Openness d. None of the above

The answer is b. Neuroticism. Here's why: Extraversion is associated with higher leadership potential. Extraverts tend to be sociable, assertive, and energetic, qualities that can be beneficial in inspiring and motivating others. Neuroticism is a personality trait characterized by anxiety, moodiness, and worry. These qualities are generally not seen as positive leadership traits. Openness to experience is associated with creativity, innovation, and a willingness to consider new ideas. These can be valuable assets for leaders. While all of the listed traits (extraversion, openness, conscientiousness) can influence leadership potential, neuroticism is generally considered a negative influence.

The HR department's priority in hiring is the top 1 applicant, followed by the top 2, then the top three applicants. This is called which method of hiring selection? * 1 point a. Top-down b. Rule of three c. Passing score d. Banding

The answer is b. Rule of three. Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Top-down: This term is more commonly used in management styles, not necessarily hiring selection methods. Passing score: This refers to a minimum score required to move forward in the hiring process. It doesn't specify the number of candidates considered. Banding: This refers to grouping similar jobs together with comparable salary ranges. It's not directly related to the selection process itself. Rule of three is a common practice in hiring where recruiters present the hiring manager with the top three most qualified candidates based on their initial screening and interview process. This ensures the manager sees the strongest contenders while still offering some choice.

Jehn decided to stop going to group studies because she realized that she cannot study as much when surrounded by other people. This is an example of * 1 point a. Social interdependence b. Social inhibition c. Social facilitation d. Coaction

The answer is b. Social inhibition. Here's why: Social interdependence refers to a situation where people rely on each other to achieve a goal. Jehn's decision doesn't necessarily involve relying on others. Social facilitation describes how the presence of others can improve performance on simple tasks. Jehn finds it harder to focus in a group setting, so social facilitation isn't at play. Social inhibition is the exact opposite of social facilitation. It describes how the presence of others can hinder performance on complex tasks, especially due to fear of being judged or evaluated. Since studying can be a complex task for some, and Jehn finds it harder to focus in a group, social inhibition best explains her situation. Coaction refers to a situation where the presence of others influences someone to perform an action they wouldn't do alone. There's no indication that Jehn was pressured to study in a group or that she wouldn't study at all on her own. Jehn's experience highlights how social inhibition can affect study habits. Some people thrive in group settings, while others, like Jehn, find it distracting.

Which of the following is a characteristic of legitimate power? * 1 point a. They can produce the most committed followers. b. They are best at making the subordinates comply to their orders c. Commonly found in the army d. It is a stepping stone to other sources of power

The answer is c. Commonly found in the army. Here's why the other options are incorrect: a. They can produce the most committed followers. Legitimate power is based on position, not necessarily the ability to inspire deep commitment. b. They are best at making the subordinates comply to their orders. While compliance is a likely outcome, it's not the only characteristic. Legitimate power comes with a sense of obligation to follow orders or directives. d. It is a stepping stone to other sources of power. Legitimate power can be a source of power itself, but it doesn't have to lead to acquiring other types of power. Legitimate power is inherent in a position or role within a hierarchy. In the military, officers have legitimate power over enlisted personnel due to their rank and formal authority. People in positions of authority are expected to be obeyed, and legitimate power reflects that expectation.

Merit pay is based on ______. * 1 point a. The amount of production b. Number of products they can individually produce c. Employee performance d. The profit of the company

The answer is c. Employee performance. Merit pay is a system that rewards employees based on their individual achievements or contributions to the company. This is typically assessed through performance reviews that evaluate factors like job duties, skills, behaviors, and contributions to achieving goals. Here's why the other options are not quite accurate: a. The amount of production can be a factor considered in performance evaluations, but it's not the sole factor. Quality of work, problem-solving skills, and initiative are also important aspects. b. Number of products they can individually produce is similar to the amount of production. While high productivity can be a plus, merit pay considers a broader range of performance aspects. d. The profit of the company is not directly tied to individual merit pay. Overall company performance can influence pay decisions, but merit pay focuses on the individual's contributions.

Harvey, a senior in the firm, helps Mike, a new employee, not only to adapt to the policies but to also climb the corporate ladder. This type of training is referred to as * 1 point a. Apprenticeship b. Coaching c. Mentoring d. Internship

The answer is c. Mentoring. Here's why the other options are incorrect: Apprenticeship is a structured training program that combines classroom instruction with on-the-job experience, often in a skilled trade. While Harvey might be providing some on-the-job guidance, there's no indication of a formal program. Coaching focuses on developing specific skills or addressing performance gaps. Harvey is also offering guidance on career advancement, which goes beyond skill development. Internship is a temporary position for students to gain work experience in a particular field. Mike is a new employee, not a student. Mentoring is a relationship where a more experienced person (Harvey) offers guidance, support, and encouragement to a less experienced person (Mike) to help them develop both professionally and personally. Harvey's actions in helping Mike adapt and climb the corporate ladder align with this type of relationship.

Every doll house Jehn makes, she will receive 150 pesos. This is an example of what type of incentive? * 1 point a. Gainsharing b. Merit pay c. Pay-for-performance d. Profit sharing

The answer is c. Pay-for-performance. Here's why: Gainsharing typically applies to a group effort and sharing profits or benefits based on the collective performance. Jehn is working independently making doll houses. Merit pay is usually awarded based on overall performance reviews, not tied directly to a specific output. Pay-for-performance is a perfect fit here. Jehn directly receives a set amount (150 pesos) for each dollhouse she completes (her performance). The more dollhouses she makes, the more she earns. In essence, Jehn's income is directly tied to her output, which is the hallmark of a pay-for-performance incentive.

For the first four months since he entered the company, Robbie wanted to impress his employers and so he always came very early to the office. However, for the next two months, he lost his drive to work hard and thus he was always late. If his performance evaluation shows very high in punctuality, which of the following would be observed? * 1 point a. Primacy effect b. Distribution error c. Recency effect d. Contrast effect

The answer is c. Recency effect. Here's why: Primacy effect refers to our tendency to give more weight to information presented earlier. In this case, Robbie's strong punctuality in the first four months wouldn't be reflected in a very high overall evaluation if his recent performance was poor. Distribution error is a general term for mistakes in data collection or analysis. It doesn't address the specific cognitive bias at play here. Recency effect is the opposite of the primacy effect. It describes our tendency to weigh information presented more recently more heavily. In this scenario, Robbie's recent lack of punctuality would disproportionately influence his overall evaluation, leading to a misleading "very high" score. Contrast effect refers to how our perception of something is influenced by what came before it. It doesn't directly apply here as there's no comparison between two different qualities. Since Robbie's recent performance (being late) is influencing the overall evaluation more than his earlier strong punctuality, the recency effect is at play.

What should you assess if you have an applicant for the police officer position? * 1 point a. Cognitive ability b. Psychomotor ability c. Physical ability d. All of the above

The answer is d. All of the above. Police officers need a variety of skills and abilities to perform their jobs effectively and safely. Here's a breakdown of why each type of ability is important: Cognitive ability: Police officers need strong critical thinking, problem-solving, judgment, and decision-making skills to assess situations, gather evidence, and make sound choices under pressure. Psychomotor ability: This refers to the coordination of mental processes and physical movement. Police officers may need good hand-eye coordination, dexterity, and reaction time to operate vehicles, handle firearms, and use other equipment. Physical ability: Police work can be physically demanding. Officers need to be able to run, jump, climb, restrain suspects, and perform other physical tasks. They should also have the stamina to work long hours and respond to emergencies. In addition to these abilities, police officer positions often assess for: Emotional intelligence: The ability to manage emotions in stressful situations, de-escalate conflicts, and interact effectively with people from diverse backgrounds. Integrity and ethics: A strong moral compass and commitment to upholding the law are essential qualities for police officers. Communication skills: The ability to communicate clearly, concisely, and professionally with the public, colleagues, and superiors. Therefore, a comprehensive assessment process for police officer candidates should consider all of these factors - cognitive, psychomotor, physical abilities, along with emotional intelligence, integrity, and communication skills.

Claudine is a famous lawyer. She knows all there is to know about the law, and she can recite from memory all the provisions of the Constitution easily. Due to this, she always wins her case because of her vast knowledge. However, Claudine finds her life and her career boring because she feels that there is no challenge anymore. She is currently experiencing * 1 point a. Career plateau b. Structural plateau c. Life plateau d. Content plateau

The answer is d. Content plateau. Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Career plateau: This generally refers to a lack of advancement opportunities, which isn't Claudine's issue. She can still potentially climb the career ladder, even if she doesn't feel challenged in her current role. Structural plateau: This applies more to limitations within an organization, like a flat hierarchy with few promotion paths. There's no indication that Claudine's lack of challenge stems from her company structure. Life plateau: This describes a personal choice to prioritize stability over growth, which doesn't seem to be Claudine's case. Content plateau perfectly captures Claudine's situation. She feels unchallenged because her vast knowledge removes the thrill of the fight and the need to strategize for each case.

Jehn learned that an employee from another department would be fired due to violation of rules. She immediately went to her close friends in the company and shared the news. What type of informal communication would be observed? * 1 point a. Single-strand grapevine b. Probability grapevine c. Cluster grapevine d. Gossip grapevine

The answer is d. Gossip grapevine. Here's why the other options are incorrect: Single-strand grapevine refers to information passed from one person to another in a single chain. While Jehn might have started the chain, the information will likely spread to others through gossip. Probability grapevine is a rumor with multiple versions circulating, but it's not clear if the information Jehn received has variations yet. Cluster grapevine describes information flowing from one person to a small group. Jehn sharing it with her close friends fits this pattern, but gossip emphasizes the negative or unverified nature of the information being spread. Gossip grapevine is the most likely scenario because Jehn is sharing what might be unconfirmed information (depending on how she learned about it) about someone else's situation. Gossip emphasizes rumors and spreads information quickly through informal channels.

To support her family, Jehn began working as an ESL teacher in the morning and a waitress in a 24-hr diner. This is an example of what? * 1 point a. Job sharing b. Part-time c. Outsourcing d. Moonlighting

The answer is d. Moonlighting. Here's why: Job sharing involves two or more people splitting the responsibilities of one full-time position. Jehn has two separate jobs, not sharing one. Part-time simply refers to a job that is less than a full-time schedule. While both her jobs might be part-time, there's a specific term for working a second job. Outsourcing refers to contracting work out to a third party, typically another company. Jehn is directly taking on these jobs herself. Moonlighting perfectly describes Jehn's situation. It refers to working a second job, outside of one's primary employment, often to supplement income.

Before the integrity test was developed, which among the following was conducted in order to assess the honesty of the applicants? * 1 point a. Trustworthiness scale b. Polygraph test c. Realistic job previews d. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet

The answer is d. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet. Here's why the other options are incorrect: Trustworthiness scale might be a potential tool used in integrity tests, but the question asks about methods used before integrity tests were developed. Polygraph test (lie detector test) has been used for a long time, but its effectiveness and accuracy are debated. It can still be used today alongside other methods. Realistic job previews are presentations or descriptions that provide a more accurate picture of the job, including its challenges. This wouldn't directly assess honesty. Woodworth Personal Data Sheet was one of the earliest attempts to assess personality and potential for dishonesty in job applicants. Developed in World War I, it contained questions designed to identify potential psychological problems or malingering (faking symptoms). While not very accurate and considered outdated today, it was an earlier method used before comprehensive integrity tests were available.

Which of the following is not preferred by the employees? * 1 point a. Job rotation b. Job enrichment c. Job enlargement d. Job appraisal

The answer is likely to be: c. Job enlargement Here's why: Job rotation: This involves switching employees between different tasks or departments. It can be a good way to prevent boredom, learn new skills, and gain a broader understanding of the company. Job enrichment: This focuses on making an employee's job more challenging and meaningful. It can give them more autonomy, control, and responsibility, which can be very motivating. Job appraisal: While appraisals can sometimes be stressful, they also provide an opportunity for employees to get feedback on their performance and discuss their career goals with their manager. In general, employees appreciate clear and constructive feedback for growth. Job enlargement: This simply adds more tasks to an employee's job, often similar tasks within their current skill set. While it can provide some variety, it doesn't necessarily make the job more interesting or challenging. In fact, it can lead to feeling overloaded or stretched too thin. Therefore, job enlargement is the least likely to be preferred by employees as it doesn't offer the same level of growth or challenge as the other options.

In reference to the theory of Albert Bandura, which of the following sources of self-efficacy is closely related to letting employees experience success to boost their self worth? * 1 point a. Performance attainment b. Verbal persuasion c. Vicarious experiences d. Physiological and emotional arousal

The answer is: a. Performance attainment Here's why the other options are not as closely related: Verbal persuasion: While positive reinforcement and encouragement from others can be helpful, Bandura emphasizes direct experience as the most influential source of self-efficacy. Vicarious experiences: Observing others succeed can inspire confidence, but it doesn't provide the same level of personal validation as achieving success yourself. Physiological and emotional arousal: This source refers to how our physical and emotional state can impact our belief in our capabilities. While feeling calm and confident can be helpful, it's not directly related to experiencing success itself. Performance attainment aligns directly with Bandura's concept. When employees successfully complete tasks or achieve goals, they gain concrete evidence of their abilities. This firsthand experience of mastery is the most powerful way to build self-efficacy and self-worth.

This arises when an individual's expectation on the job is different from what he actually does. * 1 point a. Role ambiguity b. Stress c. Role overload d. Role conflict

The answer is: a. Role ambiguity Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Stress: Stress can be caused by various factors, including role ambiguity, but it's a broader concept. Role overload: This refers to having too much work or tasks assigned, exceeding one's capacity. Role conflict: This arises when an individual faces incompatible demands or expectations from different roles. Role ambiguity specifically refers to the situation where an employee has unclear expectations about their job. They might not understand what exactly is expected of them, how to perform their tasks, or the criteria for success. This lack of clarity can lead to frustration, stress, and decreased job satisfaction.

Leaders who obtained their power on the basis of their position have _____. * 1 point a. Expert power b. Legitimate power c. Coercive power d. Referent power

The answer is: b. Legitimate power Leaders who obtain their power based on their position have legitimate power. This type of power comes from the authority granted by the formal hierarchy of an organization. Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Expert power: This comes from having a high level of knowledge or skill in a specific area. While someone in a high position might also have expertise, it's not the source of their power based solely on the position. Coercive power: This relies on fear or the threat of punishment to influence others. While some leaders might use coercive tactics, legitimate power doesn't inherently involve coercion. Referent power: This is based on personal charisma, admiration, or respect for the leader. While a leader in a high position might also have referent power, it's not guaranteed and doesn't come from the position itself.

Groupthink happens when members become so cohesive and like-minded that they make poor decisions despite contrary information. All of the following are often precursors of groupthink except when ____. * 1 point a. The group is insulated from qualified outsiders. b. The group is heterogenous c. The group is under great pressure to conform d. The group is cohesive

The answer is: b. The group is heterogeneous. Here's why the other options are all precursors to groupthink: The group is insulated from qualified outsiders: This limits exposure to diverse perspectives and can lead to an echo chamber effect where the group reinforces its own ideas without considering alternative viewpoints. The group is under great pressure to conform: This pressure to maintain harmony and avoid conflict can discourage members from voicing dissenting opinions, even if they have them. The group is cohesive: While strong group cohesion can be positive, it can also create a pressure to maintain a unified front, even if it means going along with a flawed decision. Heterogeneity, which means the group has members with diverse backgrounds, experiences, and viewpoints, can actually help to prevent groupthink. With a variety of perspectives, members are more likely to challenge assumptions, consider alternative solutions, and ultimately make better decisions.

When the group believes that someone from the outside is intentionally trying to influence them to do a particular action, they often react by doing the opposite. This phenomenon is referred to as ______. * 1 point a. Audience effect b. Coaction c. Psychological reactance d. Social loafing

The answer is: c. Psychological reactance Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Audience effect: This refers to the phenomenon where people perform differently when they know they are being observed, but it doesn't involve a perceived outside influence trying to control their actions. Coaction: This describes the situation where the presence of others influences an individual's performance, often leading them to exert less effort (social loafing). Social loafing: This refers to the tendency for people to put in less effort when working in a group compared to working alone. It doesn't involve a reaction against perceived external pressure. Psychological reactance perfectly captures the situation where a group feels its freedom of choice is being threatened by outside influence. This can lead to a rebellious response where they do the opposite of what is being pushed onto them.

Demonstrated that the interpersonal interactions between the manager and the employees played a tremendous role in employee behavior. * 1 point a. Frank and Lilian Gilbreth b. Aldelfer's theory c. Albert Gallatin c. Hawthorne studies

The answer is: d. Hawthorne studies. The Hawthorne studies, conducted in the 1920s and 30s, were a series of experiments that marked a significant shift in management thinking. A key finding was the Hawthorne effect, which demonstrated that employee behavior is significantly influenced by the attention they receive from management. Here's why the other options are not the most relevant: a. Frank and Lilian Gilbreth: The Gilbreths were influential industrial engineers who focused on improving work efficiency through motion studies. While their work indirectly touched on the human element, the Hawthorne studies specifically explored the social and psychological aspects of work. b. Alderfer's theory: Clayton Alderfer's ERG Theory (Existence, Relatedness, Growth) focuses on needs that motivate human behavior. The Hawthorne studies did not directly address a specific needs theory, but they highlighted the importance of social interaction and recognition for employee motivation. c. Albert Gallatin: Albert Gallatin was a US Secretary of the Treasury known for his economic policies. He is not directly associated with research on employee behavior.

When an employee's role as supervisor may require her to work on a Saturday, but her role as a mother requires her to attend her son's basketball game on the same day, _____ is experienced. * 1 point a. Role ambiguity b. Stress c. Role overload d. Role conflict

The answer is: d. Role conflict. Here's why the other options are not the best fit: a. Role ambiguity: This refers to a lack of clarity about an employee's job expectations. In this scenario, the employee understands her supervisor role requires working on Saturdays. b. Stress: Stress can be caused by role conflict, but it's a broader concept encompassing various pressures. c. Role overload: This refers to having too much work, exceeding one's capacity. While the employee has competing demands, it's not necessarily about the total workload. Role conflict specifically refers to the situation where an individual faces incompatible demands or expectations from different roles. In this case, the employee's work role and family role create a conflict, as fulfilling one requirement means neglecting the other. This conflict can lead to stress and difficulty managing both responsibilities.

Used to determine the types of training that are practical and are needed in the organization. * 1 point a. Task Analysis b. Needs analysis c. Organizational Analysis d. Person analysis

The best answer is: b. Needs analysis Here's why the other options are not as fitting: Task Analysis: This process delves into the specific steps and skills required to perform a particular job. While it can be a helpful first step in identifying training needs, it doesn't directly assess the overall training needs of the organization. Organizational Analysis: This analyzes the organization's goals, strategies, and structure. While this information can inform training needs, it's a broader assessment than what's directly captured in a needs analysis. Person analysis: This focuses on the skills and knowledge gaps of individual employees. While valuable, a training needs analysis typically has a broader scope, considering the overall training requirements across the organization. Needs analysis is a systematic process of identifying the discrepancy between the desired skills and knowledge (what employees should be able to do) and the current skills and knowledge (what employees can actually do). This gap analysis helps determine the types of training that are most practical and necessary for the organization to achieve its goals and improve employee performance.

Learning processes that include the acquisition or sharpening of knowledge, skills and attitudes to enhance the performance of the employees. * 1 point a. Needs Analysis b. Performance Management c. Training d. None of the above

The best answer is: c. Training Here's why the other options are not as fitting: Needs Analysis: This is the process of identifying the specific gaps or areas where employees need improvement. It's a crucial first step before implementing training, but it's not the actual learning process itself. Performance Management: This is a broader system that encompasses setting goals, monitoring progress, providing feedback, and development opportunities (which can include training). Training is one tool used within performance management, but it's not the entire system. Training specifically refers to the planned learning experiences designed to improve knowledge, skills, and attitudes of employees. It can involve various methods like lectures, workshops, simulations, or online courses, all aimed at enhancing employee performance and achieving organizational goals.

Which of the following statements is an example of a question asked during a behavioral interview? * 1 point a. What would you do if one of your subordinates suddenly fell sick in the middle of an important task? b. This is an organization which values commitment and loyalty. Can you give me a situation where you have shown integrity and commitment to your subordinates? c. The company respects relationships between employees. However, if a couple fights in the workplace, what should a manager do? d. If in the middle of an important business meeting an earthquake occurred, what are the steps you should take?

The best example of a question asked during a behavioral interview is: b. This is an organization which values commitment and loyalty. Can you give me a situation where you have shown integrity and commitment to your subordinates? Here's why the other options are not the best fit for behavioral interviews: a. What would you do if one of your subordinates suddenly fell sick in the middle of an important task? This could be a behavioral question, but it lacks specifics about a past experience. Ideally, a behavioral question would ask the candidate to describe a situation they've already faced. c. The company respects relationships between employees. However, if a couple fights in the workplace, what should a manager do? This is a hypothetical question, not a behavioral one. Behavioral questions ask about the candidate's past actions, not hypothetical scenarios. d. If in the middle of an important business meeting an earthquake occurred, what are the steps you should take? This is a situational judgment question, which can be part of an interview but differs from a behavioral question. Situational judgment questions ask how the candidate would handle a future situation, while behavioral questions focus on past experiences and how they handled them. Behavioral interview questions typically follow the STAR method: Situation: Describe the situation you faced. Task: What was your role or responsibility in the situation? Action: What specific actions did you take? Result: What was the outcome of your actions? By asking about past experiences related to the job requirements, behavioral interviews allow employers to assess a candidate's skills, problem-solving abilities, and how they might behave in similar situations on the job.

A type of appraisal dimension in performance evaluation that focuses on the effort an employee makes to get along with peers, improve the organization, and even perform tasks that are not a part of his job description. * 1 point a. Tasks-focused performance dimensions b. Contextual Performance c. Trait-focused dimension d. Competency-focused dimensions

The best fit for the appraisal dimension you described is: b. Contextual Performance Here's why the other options are not as suitable: Tasks-focused performance dimensions: This category evaluates how well an employee performs the core responsibilities outlined in their job description. While some contextual behaviors might support task completion, the focus is directly on assigned duties. Trait-focused dimension: This assesses relatively stable personality characteristics like initiative or dependability. Contextual performance focuses on observable behaviors related to citizenship, not personality traits. Competency-focused dimensions: This category evaluates the knowledge, skills, and abilities required to perform the job effectively. While some contextual behaviors might require specific skills, the broader focus is on applying competencies to core job duties. Contextual performance refers to the behaviors an employee exhibits that contribute to the overall effectiveness of the work environment, even if they are not formally part of their job description. These behaviors include: Helping colleagues Promoting a positive work environment Going the extra mile Following organizational rules By including contextual performance in evaluations, organizations can recognize employees who contribute to a positive and productive work environment, even if their core job duties don't explicitly require such behaviors.

The concept of frustration-regression is applied by which of the following theories? * 1 point a. Maslow's theory b. Alderfer's theory c. Hackman's theory d. Herzberg's theory

The concept of frustration-regression is applied by: b. Alderfer's theory Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Maslow's theory: This theory focuses on a hierarchy of needs, but it doesn't specifically address the concept of frustration-regression. While unmet higher needs can lead to a focus on lower needs, it's not the central theme in Maslow's work. Hackman's theory: This theory (Job Characteristic Model) focuses on job design factors that motivate employees. It doesn't address frustration-regression. Herzberg's theory: This theory (Two-Factor Theory) differentiates between hygiene factors (causing dissatisfaction) and motivators (driving satisfaction and motivation). It doesn't directly address frustration-regression. Alderfer's theory (ERG Theory) is an extension of Maslow's hierarchy. It proposes three core needs: Existence, Relatedness, and Growth. The frustration-regression principle in ERG theory suggests that if a higher-level need (like growth) is continually unmet, a person may regress to focusing on fulfilling a lower-level need (like social connection) that seems easier to satisfy at the moment.

Promoting employees until they reach their highest level of incompetence * 1 point a. Jonah complex b. Peter Principle c. John doctrine d. Paul's precept

The concept you're describing is: b. Peter Principle The Peter Principle states that in a hierarchy, employees tend to be promoted based on their success in previous roles. This can lead to a situation where an employee is promoted to a position that requires skills they don't possess, resulting in incompetence at the higher level. Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Jonah complex: This refers to a situation where an employee intentionally avoids success or sabotages their work, often due to fear of failure or additional responsibility. John doctrine: This is not a widely recognized term in management theory. Paul's precept: This is also not a commonly used term in management.

he teachers in a school were told by the administration that if they were able to gain a high performance score in the next quarter, they would be given the opportunity to make their own schedule. This is an example of * 1 point a. Expectancy theory b. Premack principle c. An incentive d. A benefit

The correct answer is c. An incentive. Here's why: Expectancy theory focuses on the belief that effort will lead to performance, which will then lead to a desired outcome. It doesn't directly address the idea of a reward for performance. Premack principle states that a more preferred activity can be used as a reinforcer for a less preferred activity. This doesn't apply here as there's no connection between two activities. An incentive is something that motivates someone to do something. In this case, the opportunity to create their own schedule is an incentive for teachers to perform well. A benefit is something advantageous that someone receives. While creating your own schedule can be a benefit, it's offered in this case to motivate performance, making it an incentive. Therefore, the opportunity to create their own schedule is best described as an incentive for teachers to perform well.

The ERG theory is developed in order to fill the inadequacies in the industrial setting of which of the following theories? * 1 point a. Equity Theory b. Acquired Needs theory c. Path-goal theory d. Needs Hierarchy

The correct answer is d. Needs Hierarchy. The ERG theory, developed by Clayton Alderfer, is a revision of Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs. Here's why the other options are incorrect: Equity Theory focuses on fairness in the workplace and how employees compare their rewards to others. It doesn't deal with the general hierarchy of human needs. Acquired Needs Theory is not a widely recognized theory in motivation. Path-goal Theory explains how leaders can influence and clarify the path to achieving employee goals. It doesn't focus on basic human needs. The ERG theory addresses some of the limitations of Maslow's theory, such as the idea of needing to fulfill lower-level needs before moving on to higher-level needs. So, the ERG theory was developed to refine the understanding of human needs in a work environment.

. Employees who are paid depending on how many dolls they were able to produce is called * 1 point a. Profit sharing b. Pay-for-performance c. Merit pay d. None of the above

The correct answer is: b. Pay-for-performance Here's why the other options are not quite on target: Profit sharing: This bonus structure rewards employees based on the overall profitability of the company, not their individual output. Merit pay: While merit pay can be a form of pay-for-performance, it's often based on performance evaluations rather than directly tied to a specific metric like the number of dolls produced. None of the above: Pay-for-performance is a real concept, so this option can be eliminated. Pay-for-performance is a compensation system where an employee's earnings are directly linked to their performance. In the scenario you described, the number of dolls produced is the metric used to determine the employee's pay. This is a classic example of a piece-rate pay system, a specific type of pay-for-performance.

The following are advantages of external recruiting except * 1 point a. Brings new ideas to the company b. Reduces training costs c. serves as a form of advertising d. avoids politics of internal recruiting

The disadvantage among the listed options for external recruiting is: b. Reduces training costs Here's why the other options are considered advantages of external recruiting: Brings new ideas to the company: External candidates bring fresh perspectives and experiences that can lead to innovation and improvement within the organization. Serves as a form of advertising: The act of external recruitment can show potential customers and investors that the company is growing and looking for new talent, potentially enhancing the company's image. Avoids politics of internal recruiting: Internal recruiting can sometimes be influenced by internal politics or favoritism. External recruiting allows for a wider and more objective talent pool. Training costs are more likely to be higher with external recruits compared to internal candidates. Here's a breakdown of why the other options are advantages: Brings new ideas: External hires can introduce new approaches and challenge existing ways of thinking, potentially leading to better solutions and innovation. Serves as a form of advertising: The recruitment process itself can generate positive publicity, especially if the company is attracting high-caliber candidates. Avoids politics: Focusing on external candidates can help bypass internal biases or favoritism that might influence promotions or internal job postings.

All of the following is false except * 1 point a. Chronic self-esteem is also called self-efficacy. b. Situational self-esteem is the view of a person on himself based on the opinion of others on a particular situation c. Socially influenced self-esteem is an individual's feeling about himself in doing a particular task, like baking cakes or socializing to other people d. None of the above

The false statement is: a. Chronic self-esteem is also called self-efficacy. Here's why: Chronic self-esteem: This refers to a person's overall and relatively stable view of their worth and capabilities. Self-efficacy: This is a concept developed by Albert Bandura. It refers to a person's belief in their ability to succeed in a specific situation and achieve their goals. Self-esteem is a broader concept about overall self-worth, while self-efficacy is more specific to believing in your ability to perform a particular task. Therefore, the other options (b, c) are more accurate descriptions of different aspects of self-esteem: Situational self-esteem: This focuses on how a person views themselves in a particular situation, which can be influenced by others' opinions. Socially influenced self-esteem: This refers to how a person's self-esteem is shaped by the feedback and expectations of others, particularly in specific tasks or situations. So the answer is: a. Chronic self-esteem is also called self-efficacy.

Jon passes the message to Sansa, who passes the message to Arya, and Arya passes the message to Rob. This kind of informal communication grapevine pattern is called * 1 point a. Gossip grapevine b. Single-strand grapevine c. Probability grapevine d. Cluster grapevine

The informal communication grapevine pattern you described is called a: b. Single-strand grapevine Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Gossip grapevine: This type of grapevine spreads rumors or unofficial information, not necessarily a clear message like the one being passed between Jon, Sansa, Arya, and Rob. Probability grapevine: This pattern involves one person telling the message to several others, creating a branching effect where the information can potentially reach a wider audience. In the scenario, the message follows a single path. Cluster grapevine: This pattern involves one person telling the message to a small group who then spread it to others, creating multiple branches from a central point. There's no indication of Jon telling the message to a group in this case. A single-strand grapevine is the most straightforward pattern where information is passed from one person to another in a linear fashion. This is what happens as Jon tells Sansa, Sansa tells Arya, and Arya tells Rob.

The following are legal reasons for terminating an employee except when * 1 point a. The employee is in the probationary period. b. The company needs to reduce employees due to cost. c. The employee was unable to perform tasks. d. When an employee violated a rule not addressed in the policy manual.

The legal reasons for terminating an employee typically include reasons such as poor performance, misconduct, redundancy, or violation of company policies. However, terminating an employee for violating a rule not addressed in the policy manual (option d) may not be legally justified if the rule was not communicated or made known to the employee. Therefore, the correct answer is: d. When an employee violated a rule not addressed in the policy manual.

Which of the following is not a method of increasing employee self-esteem? * 1 point a. Self-esteem workshops b. Supervisor behavior c. Experience with success d. Behavioral modeling

The method that is not directly aimed at increasing employee self-esteem is: b. Supervisor behavior. While a supportive and encouraging supervisor can positively impact employee self-esteem indirectly through feedback, recognition, and encouragement, it is not a method specifically designed to increase self-esteem. Supervisors play a role in creating a supportive work environment, but they do not typically conduct interventions solely focused on improving employee self-esteem. Therefore, the correct answer is: b. Supervisor behavior.

Ygritte's job interview involves three interviewers in the room. This is a * 1 point a. Serial interview b. Face-to-face interview c. Group interview d. Panel interview

The most appropriate term for Ygritte's situation is: d. Panel interview Here's why the other options are not the best fit: a. Serial interview: This refers to a situation where a candidate meets with multiple interviewers one-on-one in separate sessions. b. Face-to-face interview: This is a general term for any interview conducted in person, regardless of the number of interviewers. c. Group interview: This typically involves multiple candidates being interviewed by a single interviewer or a small panel. A panel interview involves a candidate being interviewed by a group of interviewers at the same time. This allows the interviewers to assess the candidate from different perspectives and can be a more efficient way to gather information. In Ygritte's case, with three interviewers in the room, it's a panel interview setting.

For the highest level of learning, the training should be * 1 point a. Always differ from one employee to another b. Distributed over a period of time c. Learned all at once d. Any of the above

The most effective training for the highest level of learning is: b. Distributed over a period of time Here's why the other options are not ideal for maximizing learning: a. Always differ from one employee to another: While personalization can be beneficial, having a structured training program with core content ensures everyone acquires the essential knowledge or skills. Tailoring the training can build upon this foundation to address specific needs. c. Learned all at once: Cramming a large amount of information into a short period can lead to information overload and difficulty retaining knowledge. d. Any of the above: Not all approaches are equally effective for learning. Spaced repetition, which involves distributing learning over time with periods of review and practice, has been shown to be a powerful technique for enhancing knowledge retention and skill development.

. Daenerys enjoys being a leader because she loves being in charge and leading people. Her motivation to become a leader is an aspect referred to as * 1 point a. Non-calculative motivation b. Affective identity motivation c. Social-normative motivation d. None of the above

The most fitting description for Daenerys' motivation to lead is: b. Affective identity motivation Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Non-calculative motivation: This refers to a general desire to complete tasks or expend effort without a specific external reward in mind. While Daenerys might enjoy the act of leading itself, the description specifically mentions her love of being in charge and leading people, suggesting a focus on the leader role itself. Social-normative motivation: This type of motivation arises from a desire to conform to social expectations or pressures. There's no indication Daenerys feels pressured to be a leader; it seems to be her own desire. Affective identity motivation suggests that people are motivated to seek roles and activities that align with their self-concept and how they see themselves. Daenerys enjoys being a leader because it fits with how she sees herself and the identity she wants to project. She finds the leader role personally gratifying and enjoys the power and influence associated with it.

Procedures in which employees participate to become "one of the gang". * 1 point a. Organizational socialization b. Rituals c. Symbols d. Group hazing

The most fitting term for procedures in which employees participate to become "one of the gang" is: b. Rituals Here's why the other options are not the best fit: a. Organizational socialization: This is a broader concept encompassing the entire process by which newcomers learn and adjust to the organization's culture, roles, and expectations. Rituals can be a part of this socialization process, but they are not the only element. c. Symbols: Symbols are objects, colors, or actions that carry a particular meaning within an organization. While participating in rituals might involve using symbols, rituals themselves are the specific actions or practices. d. Group hazing: Hazing refers to activities that humiliate, harass, or endanger someone to gain entry into a group. While some rituals might have elements of challenge, true hazing is negative and often harmful. Rituals are repetitive, symbolic behaviors that help establish group identity, shared values, and a sense of belonging. New employee rituals, sometimes called "rites of passage", can involve activities like training exercises, team outings, or even special ceremonies. By participating in these rituals, newcomers learn the ropes, build relationships with colleagues, and signal their commitment to the group.

Cashiers at groceries are posted adjacent to each other which leads to their performance to be affected. This phenomenon is called _____. * 1 point a. Psychological reactance b. Social loafing c. Audience effect d. Coaction

The phenomenon you're describing is most likely: d. Coaction Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Psychological reactance: This refers to a situation where a group feels pressured to do something and rebels by doing the opposite. It doesn't necessarily apply to cashiers who might not feel a direct attempt to control their actions. Social loafing: This describes the tendency for people to exert less effort when working in a group compared to working alone. While cashiers might experience some social loafing, coaction specifically refers to the influence of others' presence on individual performance. Audience effect: This is similar to coaction but emphasizes the awareness of being observed by others, which might not be the main factor affecting cashiers working side-by-side. Coaction suggests that the presence of other cashiers can influence individual performance, either positively (friendly competition) or negatively (distraction, pressure to keep up with a faster coworker).

Which of the following is a question considered to be as biased and unfair to the applicants? * 1 point a. In case of fire and the fire alarm would not work, what should you do? b. You are assisting a band to their performance schedule when unfortunately, one member got lost on the way to the venue. What would be the best step to do as the manager? c. What is the next action to take when a band member falls down from the stage and loses consciousness? d. While handling the payroll, the computer crashed. Can you give me a similar encounter in your past where you have to be resourceful?

The question with potential bias is: d. While handling the payroll, the computer crashed. Can you give me a similar encounter in your past where you had to be resourceful? Here's why this question might be biased: Age bias: This question might favor younger applicants who have less experience handling payroll or similar situations compared to older applicants who might have dealt with such issues but not recently. Focus on experience over skills: The question emphasizes having a specific past experience rather than assessing the candidate's problem-solving skills and resourcefulness in general. While the question aims to assess resourcefulness, it could be rephrased to be more inclusive and focus on the desired skill: "Describe a situation where you had to solve a problem creatively or think on your feet. What was the situation, what did you do, and what was the outcome?" This revised question allows candidates from various backgrounds to showcase their resourcefulness without potentially being disadvantaged by age or specific past experiences.

If a supervisor thinks that an employee will fail at a task, then it is more likely that the employee will actually perform poorly. This is called * 1 point a. Galatea effect b. Golem effect c. Self-fulfilling prophecy d. Pygmalion effect

The scenario you described is a b. Golem effect. Here's why the other options are not the same phenomenon: Galatea effect: This refers to the situation where a teacher's high expectations lead to improved student performance. It's the opposite of the Golem effect. Self-fulfilling prophecy: This is a broader term encompassing any situation where a belief or expectation leads to behaviors that make the expectation come true. It can be positive (Pygmalion effect) or negative (Golem effect). Pygmalion effect: This is the positive version of the self-fulfilling prophecy, where a leader's high expectations of an employee lead to improved performance. The Golem effect represents a negative self-fulfilling prophecy. When a supervisor believes an employee will fail, this negative expectation can unintentionally be communicated through verbal or nonverbal cues (e.g., lack of encouragement, limited resources). This can discourage the employee, lower their confidence, and ultimately contribute to their poor performance, fulfilling the supervisor's initial negative prediction.

An applicant had an interview with the HR manager at 9:00am, followed by an interview with the department supervisor at 10:00am, and then an interview with the Vice president at 11:00. This is an example of * 1 point a. One-on-one interviews b. Serial interview c. Panel interviews d. Return interviews

The scenario you described is an example of a: b. Serial interview Here's why the other options are not the best fit: One-on-one interviews: This is a general term for any interview conducted with a single interviewer, regardless of the sequence. In the scenario, the applicant has multiple one-on-one interviews, but they happen sequentially. Panel interviews: This involves a candidate being interviewed by a group of interviewers at the same time. There's no indication of a group interview setting in this case. Return interviews: These are interviews conducted with former employees to understand why they left the company. The situation describes an applicant going through the interview process to join the company, not someone who has already left. A serial interview involves a candidate meeting with multiple interviewers one-on-one in separate sessions. This allows different stakeholders within the organization to assess the candidate's qualifications and suitability for the role. The order of interviews (HR first, then supervisor, then VP) might vary depending on the specific company and position.

The source of power for a leader that lies in the positive feelings that others hold for him. * 1 point a. Legitimate power b. Referent power c. Coercive powers d. Expert power

The source of power for a leader that lies in the positive feelings that others hold for him is: b. Referent power Here's why the other options are not a perfect fit: Legitimate power: This stems from a leader's formal authority granted by their position in the hierarchy. Coercive power: This relies on fear or punishment to influence others. Expert power: This is derived from a leader's specialized knowledge or skills. Referent power is based on charisma, respect, admiration, or positive relationships that a leader has with others. People follow such leaders because they want to, not because they have to or because the leader holds a higher position.

Stage of team development when the team begins to acknowledge the team leader and begins working directly with other members. * 1 point a. Forming b. Storming c. Performing d. Norming

The stage of team development when the team begins to acknowledge the team leader and starts working directly with other members is: d. Norming Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Forming: This is the initial stage where team members are getting to know each other, roles are unclear, and there's minimal collaboration. Storming: This stage is characterized by conflict as team members disagree on approaches and compete for roles and leadership. Performing: This is the high-functioning stage where the team works cohesively, trust is established, and goals are achieved efficiently. In the norming stage, the team has moved past the initial awkwardness and conflicts of the forming and storming stages. Team members begin to respect the team leader's authority, establish ground rules and expectations, and start collaborating more effectively with each other. This increased collaboration allows them to focus on achieving common goals.

Korman's Consistency Theory states that * 1 point a. The employee will work better if he will experience success in performing a task b. A person can skip levels between needs c. An employee can monitor his own progress and make necessary adjustments to achieve his goals d. There is a positive correlation between self-esteem and performance

The statement that aligns with Korman's Consistency Theory is: d. There is a positive correlation between self-esteem and performance Here's why the other options are not part of Korman's Consistency Theory: a. The employee will work better if he will experience success in performing a task: This concept aligns more with goal setting theories or positive reinforcement principles. b. A person can skip levels between needs: This is a principle from Alderfer's ERG Theory, which focuses on different needs that motivate human behavior. c. An employee can monitor his own progress and make necessary adjustments to achieve his goals: This concept aligns more with self-regulation theory, which emphasizes self-monitoring and goal adjustment for achieving desired outcomes. Korman's Consistency Theory proposes that individuals strive for cognitive balance between their self-concept and their work experiences. Here's how self-esteem factors in: High self-esteem: Individuals with high self-esteem believe they are competent and capable. According to Korman, this translates to a desire to perform well at work to maintain consistency with their positive self-image. Low self-esteem: Individuals with low self-esteem might doubt their abilities. Korman suggests they might not be as motivated to perform well, as poor performance wouldn't necessarily contradict their negative self-perception. It's important to note that Korman's theory has received mixed reviews, with some research findings not fully supporting the positive correlation between self-esteem and performance. However, it remains a relevant theory in the field of industrial and organizational psychology.

What theory of team development suggests that rather than forming in stages, teams develop direction and strategy in the first meeting, follow this direction for a period of time, and then drastically revise their strategy about half way through the life of the team. * 1 point a. Optimal equilibrium b. ERG c. Punctuated equilibrium d. Team development hierarchy

The theory that best describes the development pattern you mentioned is: c. Punctuated equilibrium Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Optimal equilibrium: This theory focuses on finding the right balance between structure and flexibility within a team for optimal performance. It doesn't address the concept of punctuated change. ERG: This is Alderfer's theory of needs, which focuses on how unmet needs can influence behavior. It doesn't specifically address team development stages. Team development hierarchy: This describes various models that propose teams progress through stages (e.g., forming, storming, norming, performing). Punctuated equilibrium challenges this linear view by suggesting periods of stability punctuated by bursts of change. Punctuated equilibrium, developed by Connie Gersick, proposes that teams alternate between extended periods of stability and relatively brief periods of revolutionary change. In the first meeting, the team establishes a direction and strategy (initial equilibrium). Over time, they encounter challenges or realize their initial plan has limitations (period of instability). This leads to a drastic revision of their strategy (punctuated change). The team then operates with the revised strategy for another extended period (new equilibrium). This theory suggests that significant progress in teams can occur through these bursts of change and adaptation.

Employees who feel good about themselves desire to perform better than those who see themselves of lesser worth. This idea is seen in what theory? * 1 point a. Consistency theory b. Equity theory c. Expectancy theory d. IMPACT theory

The theory that best explains the link between positive self-esteem and high performance is: c. Expectancy theory Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Consistency theory: This theory focuses on maintaining a sense of balance and avoiding dissonance between our beliefs and behaviors. It doesn't directly address self-esteem and performance. Equity theory: This theory suggests that employees compare their inputs (effort, skill) and outputs (rewards, recognition) to others and strive for fairness. It doesn't necessarily link self-esteem to performance. IMPACT theory: This theory is not a widely recognized theory in motivation. Expectancy theory, on the other hand, proposes that motivation is influenced by three factors: Expectancy: The belief that effort will lead to desired performance. Instrumentality: The belief that performance will lead to rewards. Valence: The value an employee places on those rewards. Employees with high self-esteem are more likely to have: Higher expectancy: They believe they can perform well due to their confidence in their abilities. Greater valence: They may value intrinsic rewards like accomplishment and growth more, which are linked to good performance. This combination of factors in expectancy theory explains why employees who feel good about themselves tend to be more motivated to perform well.

States that employees monitor their own progress toward attaining goals and then make the necessary adjustments. * 1 point a. ERG theory b. Consistency theory c. Two-factor theory d. Self-regulation theory

The theory that states employees monitor their own progress toward attaining goals and then make necessary adjustments is: d. Self-regulation theory Here's why the other options are not the best fit: ERG theory (Existence, Relatedness, Growth): This theory focuses on the needs that motivate human behavior, not on self-monitoring and goal adjustment. Consistency theory: This theory proposes that people strive for consistency between their attitudes and behaviors. While it can be indirectly related to goal achievement, it doesn't directly address self-monitoring of progress. Two-factor theory (Hygiene-Motivators theory): This theory by Herzberg differentiates between hygiene factors (extrinsic motivators) that create job satisfaction and motivator factors (intrinsic motivators) that lead to higher performance. It doesn't specifically address self-regulation. Self-regulation theory emphasizes the ongoing process by which individuals set goals, monitor their progress, and take action to bridge the gap between their current state and their desired goals. This self-monitoring allows them to adjust their strategies and behaviors as needed to increase their chances of success.

The three levels in the ERG theory are the following except * 1 point a. Existence b. Relatedness c. Recognition d. Growth

The three levels in ERG theory are: Existence Relatedness Growth Therefore, the option that is not one of the three levels in ERG theory is: c. Recognition While recognition can be a motivator, it's not one of the core needs in Alderfer's ERG theory. Growth refers to the desire for personal development and mastery.

An employee was told by her boss that they have decided to fire her, unless she agrees to sleep with him. This type of harassment is called * 1 point a. Quid pro quo b. Hostile environment` c. Threat d. Blackmailing

The type of harassment the employee is experiencing is called: a. Quid pro quo Here's why the other options are not the same type of harassment: Hostile environment: This refers to a workplace environment where unwelcome conduct creates a hostile, offensive, or intimidating atmosphere. While the boss's behavior might contribute to a hostile environment, the specific act of demanding sexual favors in exchange for keeping a job is quid pro quo. Threat: A threat can be a component of harassment, but in this case, the threat (termination) is being used to coerce the employee into sexual activity, which is the defining characteristic of quid pro quo harassment. Blackmailing: Blackmail typically involves threatening to reveal embarrassing information, while quid pro quo harassment focuses on offering or demanding something in exchange for a job benefit or to avoid a negative consequence. Quid pro quo harassment specifically refers to situations where someone in a position of power offers an advantage (keeping the job) or threatens a disadvantage (termination) in exchange for sexual favors.

"It says on your resume that you are proficient in the MS Word. If the MS Word will not open, what could have gone wrong?" This type of interview question is called * 1 point a. Clarifier b. Skill-level determiner c. Disqualifier d. Future-focused

The type of interview question you described is a: b. Skill-level determiner Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Clarifier: While the question might clarify the candidate's experience with MS Word, it goes a step further by asking about troubleshooting, which probes deeper into the candidate's skill level. Disqualifier: A disqualifier question is designed to eliminate a candidate who lacks a specific skill. Here, the question is more open-ended and allows the candidate to demonstrate their problem-solving skills related to MS Word. Future-focused: While the question asks about a potential future situation, it's still directly related to the candidate's technical skills and ability to handle problems with MS Word. Skill-level determiner questions assess the depth and breadth of a candidate's knowledge and abilities in a specific area. In this case, the question goes beyond simply asking if the candidate can use MS Word and probes their understanding of potential issues and troubleshooting steps.

This type of rating scale uses critical incidents in order to provide meaning to numbers in a rating scale. * 1 point a. Behavioral Observation Scales b. Graphic rating scales c. Behavioral checklist d. Behaviorally Anchored Graphic Rating Scales

The type of rating scale that uses critical incidents to provide meaning to numbers in a rating scale is: d. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) Here's why the other options are not the best fit: Behavioral Observation Scales (BOS): These scales focus on observing and recording specific employee behaviors, but they don't necessarily use critical incidents to define the scale points. Graphic rating scales: These use adjectives or phrases to describe different performance levels, but they often lack concrete behavioral examples to anchor the meaning of these descriptions. Behavioral checklist: This is a list of specific behaviors that can be used to assess performance, but it doesn't use a rating scale with numerical values. Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS) combine graphic rating scales with specific behavioral descriptions (critical incidents) to anchor the meaning of each rating point on the scale. This helps raters provide more objective and consistent evaluations by linking performance levels to observable behaviors. For example, a BARS for "customer service" might define a score of "5" (excellent) by anchoring it to a critical incident where the employee resolves a complex customer complaint calmly and efficiently, exceeding the customer's expectations.

In order to reduce groupthink, the group should apply which of the following? * 1 point a. Make the leader say his opinion first. b. Assign gatekeepers to keep their information away from other members. c. Devil's advocate approach d. Use individual dominance

To reduce groupthink, the most appropriate option is: c. Devil's advocate approach Here's why the other options are not ideal for reducing groupthink: a. Make the leader say his opinion first: This can actually reinforce groupthink by placing undue weight on the leader's opinion and potentially discouraging others from voicing different perspectives. b. Assign gatekeepers to keep their information away from other members: This limits information sharing and can prevent the group from considering all available data and viewpoints. d. Use individual dominance: A dominant individual can stifle discussion and prevent others from contributing, hindering the free flow of ideas and critical thinking. Devil's advocate approach involves assigning someone the role of deliberately questioning the prevailing group opinion and raising counterarguments. This can help to: Surface potential flaws in the group's thinking. Encourage critical thinking and consideration of alternative solutions. Reduce pressure to conform and create a space for open discussion. By challenging assumptions and fostering healthy debate, the devil's advocate approach can help to prevent groupthink and lead to better decision-making.

According to the Vroom-Yetton Model, this is the decision-making strategy employed when the leaders obtain necessary information from their subordinates and then make their own decisions. * 1 point a. Autocratic I b. Autocratic II c. Consultative I d. Consultative II

You're correct! According to the Vroom-Yetton Model, the decision-making strategy employed when leaders obtain necessary information from their subordinates and then make their own decisions is: c. Consultative I Here's a breakdown of the Vroom-Yetton Model decision-making styles: Autocratic I: Leader makes the decision alone based on available information. Autocratic II: Leader gathers some additional information from individuals before making the decision alone. (This is the closest option to what you described, but Consultative I involves obtaining information from the team). Consultative I: Leader shares relevant information with the team, gathers their input, and then makes the decision alone. Consultative II: Leader shares relevant information with the team, facilitates discussion to reach a consensus, but retains the final decision-making authority. Collaborative: Leader shares relevant information with the team and facilitates discussion with the aim of reaching a consensus decision by the team. In Consultative I, the leader values the team's input but reserves the final call. This approach can be useful when the leader needs additional information or different perspectives before making a decision.