IRATs

Lymphedema is

- A chronic condition of lymphatic system that leads to abnormal fluid collection beneath the skin

What is not a symptom associated with chemo induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN)

- Bruising skin

A common complication associated with lymphedema is

- Cellulitis

Which of the following is the use of drugs to kill cancer cells

- Chemotherapy

What is an example of compensatory skills training for cancer related congnitive impairment

- Environment or task modification

Why is it important to check platelet count before starting a session with someone who has cancer?

- Person is at an increased risk of bleeding if platelets are low

Cancer is described by where it originates. Which of the cboices below describes cancer that originates in connective tissue?

- Sarcoma

Which of the following are common client factors experienced by individuals who have cancer that may impact occupational dysfunction across the cancer care continuum - Pain - Fatigue - Nausea - All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following are the most common Post-COVID-19 symptoms reported? - fever -fatigue -respiratory symptoms

All of the above

Which of the following can cause cancer related cognitive impairment (dysfunction) - Chemo - Radiation - Steroids - All of the above

All of the above

Which of the following is a common assessment tool when working with someone who is undergoing cancer treatment - Brief Fatigue - COPM - Katz index of independent living - All of the above

All of the above

How long after experience COVID-19, can Post-COVID-19 symptoms present?

As early as 4 weeks after illness

Fluidotherapy is often referred to as a dry whirlpool. Which form of thermal energy does this modality emit?

Convection

1. According to the American Heart Association (AHA), what stage of heart failure is described as "Refractory heart failure requiring specialized interventions."

D

Which of the following are considered "possible symptoms" of Post-COVID-19?

Difficulty thinking, headaches, sleep problems, loss of smell or taste

Thermal modalities decrease tissue tightness, joint stiffness, provide pain relief and decrease muscle spasms. Which of the following is NOT an example of a thermal modality?

Electrical stimulation

Adaptive devices can help individuals with arthritis perform daily occupations. Which adaptation would help a patient with a loss of proximal ROM and strength?

Extended-handled tools

In the acute phase of burn rehabilitation, which of the following would be an appropriate ADL for someone who is intubated but has no facial burns?

Face washing/hygiene

In the surgical/post-op phase of burn rehabilitation, which of the following must be confirmed before exercises can be resumed after a skin graft procedure?

Graft adherence

Which sleeping position is recommended for patients after knee replacement surgery?

Knee extended and in neutral

What are the hip precautions for a patient who had anterolateral approach surgery for a left total hip replacement?

No external rotation, no hip extension, and no hip adduction of the left hip

Osteoarthritis (OA) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are conditions that attack different parts of the body. The primary difference between these two conditions is:

OA causes joint pain and stiffness due to cartilage breakdown in the joints; while RA is systemic and affects the entire body.

In the outpatient phase of burn rehabilitation, scars mature from 12-18 months after injury. What is the role is custom-made compression garments?

OTs must measure, order, and fit the patient for the garments.

In the inpatient phase of burn rehabilitation, which of the following steps must be completed before massaging a scar band, to prevent shearing and splitting of scar tissue?

Pre-moisturize the skin

In the acute phase of burn rehabilitation, the OT role is primarily _______.

Preventative

In the acute stage of any inflammatory joint disease, such as RA, what activities should be avoided:

Resistive exercises

Which splint is helpful to decrease muscle spasm, protect joints from contractures or deformities, and relieve pain?

Resting hand splint

Which of the following options lists antideformity positions?

Shoulder abduction to 90 degrees, elbow extension, and neutral forearm

Joint laxity is measured by applying stress to individual joints in all directions. Which deformity is characterized by hyperextension of the PIP joint and flexion of the DIP joint?

Swan neck deformity

Ultrasound waves cannot travel through the air; therefore, a medium is needed to transfer the energy to the body tissue. Which statement is correct regarding the operation of the ultrasound machine?

The entire soundhead should be in contact with the skin if using gel or lotion

Which position is most advantageous in the post-operative phase?

The position that maximizes the surface area of the graft site

1. Malnutrition is a concern in older adults. Which of these determine the caloric need of the client?

a. Activity level

1. Which of the following irritants is NOT associated with causing COPD?

a. Aerosols

6. When performing the two-point and moving two-point discrimination tests, what is the first step of the testing protocol (after setup)?

a. Ask the patient to close their eyes for the duration of the test.

1. Which statement correctly describes COPD?

a. COPD is not curable and the damage is irreversible.

1. Which of the following is an appropriate questionnaire style functional ADL assessment tool for a client with AD?

a. Caregiver's Strain Questionnaire

1. Which is the best description of the pathophysiology of early Alzheimer's dementia?

a. Decrease cholinergic markers in areas of the brain where there is also increase in plaques and tangles.

1. Which of the following interventions would be administered by the OT on the pulmonary rehabilitation team?

a. Dyspnea control postures and diaphragmatic breathing techniques during ADL training.

1. Eating and feeding are categorized as part of ADLs in the OTPF. "_____" is the process of setting up, arranging, and bringing food from a plate/cup to the mouth, while "_______" is the process of keeping and manipulating food and fluid in the mouth and swallowing it.

a. Feeding; eating

1. All of these can influence a person's risk to develop aspiration pneumonia, except:

a. Gender

1. What is the primary focus of the OT intervention for individuals with AD who live in the community?

a. Help caregivers develop strategies and environmental adaptations to cope with managing the client

1. What is the different between a direct swallowing intervention and an indirect swallowing intervention:

a. Indirect interventions does not involve digesting food or liquid, while direct intervention does.

1. Which of the following heart conditions is considered a medical emergency and requires immediate medical attention?

a. Myocardial infarction

1. What is the purpose of teaching pursed lip breathing (PLB) technique to patients with COPD?

a. PLB improves air movement and helps to open airways

1. Which of the following interventions are most likely to be used during Phase 1 of Cardiac Rehabilitation?

a. Post-surgical precautions, and low-level physical activity

1. Which of the following impairments is the primary symptom that presents in AD?

a. Recent memory worsens in addition to one other cognitive deficit (apraxia, aphasia, agnosia, or impaired executive functioning).

2. The intervention plan for CTD is divided into three phases: acute, exercise, and maintenance. Which of the following lists a treatment approach used in the exercise phase:

a. Slow stretching following by progressive exercise

1. According to the Basal Metabolic Equivalent Table (MET), which IADL activity requires a high level of strength at level 6-7?

a. Swimming

1. Which of the following description accurately describes the pathology of heart failure?

a. The heart chambers become enlarged, are less efficient with pumping blood to the body, and the blood backs up into the venous system.

1. Which of the following is an indicator that an individual can safely engage in sexual intercourse following cardiac rehabilitation?

a. The patient can climb up and down 2 flights of stairs in 1 minute with no adverse reaction.

What is the best description of how to complete a pendulum exercise to the shoulder?

a. Use your body's momentum to move your arm.

1. Which of the following should the OT continually assess during oral feeding sessions? a. Client positioning b. Muscle tone c. Swallow d. All of the above

all of the above

9. Which finding indicates a positive shoulder impingement (impingement is sign of RTC) in the Hawkins-Kennedy test?

b. GH at full internal rotation and flexed to 90 degrees elicits pain

1. Diagnoses associated with cumulative trauma fall into one of three categories:

b. Tendinitis, nerve compression syndrome, and myofascial pain

8. Which of the following treatments are recommended for conservative treatment of a RTC tear?

c. Strengthen the healthy portion of the RTC and scapular stabilizer muscles

4. Work Hardening programs can be initiated by the physician, OT, attorney, or insurance adjustor. What is the purpose of a work hardening program?

c. To provide simulated work samples to increase endurance and strength to return to work.

3. A Functional Capacity Evaluation (FCE) is ordered when a physician believes it may be time for an injured worker to return to work. What are the basic assessments an OT should perform for all FCEs?

d. Grip/pinch, ROM, and pain

5. What is one possible diagnosis that could be confirmed with the drop arm test?

d. Rotator cuff injury

7. A partial rotator cuff tear can often lead to full-thickness tears. What is one of the reasons this happens?

d. There is a loss of muscle fibers attached to the bone.

1. Sundowning is a phenomenon experienced by individuals with Alzheimer's dementia. One strategy to manage this challenging state is to schedule complex tasks during the ______ part of the day.

earlier