ISTQB Foundation Level CTFL_001 emily
198. The five parts of the fundamental test process have a broad chronological order. Which of the options gives three different parts in the correct order? A. Implementation and execution, planning and control, analysis and design. B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities. C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, implementation and execution, analysis and design. D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities, analysis and design.
B. Analysis and design, evaluating exit criteria and reporting, test closure activities.
162. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach? A. Top down B. Big-bang C. Bottom up D. Functional incrementation.
B. Big-bang
158. Maintenance testing is: A. updating tests when the software has changed B. testing a released system that has been changed C. testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need D. testing to maintain business advantage
B. testing a released system that has been changed
144. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion? A. to know when a specific test has finished its execution B. to ensure that the test case specification is complete C. to set the criteria used in generating test inputs D. to determine when to stop testing
B. to ensure that the test case specification is complete
183. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively? A. Execution B. Design C. Planning D. Check Exit criteria completion
C. Planning
202. What is retesting? A. Running the same test again in the same circumstances to reproduce the problem. B. A cursory run through a test pack to see if any new errors have been introduced. C. Checking that the predetermined exit criteria for the test phase have been met. D. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.
D. Running a previously failed test against new software/data/documents to see if the problem is solved.
216. Which of the following phases in the fundamental test process is considered to deliver a document which can be used as a major input for test process improvement? A. Test planning and control B. Test implementation & execution C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting D. Test project closure
D. Test project closure
146. Testing should be stopped when: A. All the planned tests have been run B. Time has run out C. All faults have been fixed correctly D. Both A and C E. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
E. It depends on the risks for the system being tested
187. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan: A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs D. To know when test planning is complete E. To plan when to stop testing
E. To plan when to stop testing
148. Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy? A. to ensure that all of the small components are tested B. to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks C. to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team D. to specify how the software should be divided into components E. to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once
E. to specify which components to combine when, and how many at once
222. Model characteristics: Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? A. 5 maturity levels B. Focussed on higher level testing C. 20 key areas D. Highly related to CMMI E. Continuous model F. Staged model G. Focussed on component and integration testing H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes
A. 5 maturity levels, D. Highly related to CMMI & F. Staged model
239. You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? A. A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy. B. A test strategy identifies the specific product for a project risk and defines the approach for the test project. C. A test strategy is derived from the test policy and describes the way risk assessments are performed in projects. D. A test strategy is the result of a project risk analysis and defines the approach and resources for testing.
A. A test strategy should address identified generic product risks and present a process for mitigating those risks in line with the testing policy.
205. Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. A. All supported credit cards B. Language localization C. Valid and invalid advances D. Usability E. Response time
A. All supported credit cards & C. Valid and invalid advances
206. Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? A. An approach to regression testing B. A list of boundary values for "advance amount" C. A description of dependencies between test cases D. A logical collection of test cases
A. An approach to regression testing
219. Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans: A. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document B. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements C. A detailed schedule of testing activities D. The development deliverables to be tested E. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when F. Level of requirements coverage achieved Which THREE of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the master test plan? G. a H. b I. c J. d K. e L. f
A. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test strategy document, B. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource requirements & D. The development deliverables to be tested
210. Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? A. Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis B. Create an estimate based on the complexity of the code C. Create an estimate based on the credentials of the successful bidder D. Create an estimate based on a percentage of the development effort
A. Create an estimate based on the function point analysis technique and test point analysis
165. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks? A. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria. B. i, ii, iii are true and iv is false C. i, iv are true and ii is false D. i, ii are true and iii, iv are false E. ii, iii, iv are true and i is false
A. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts. ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution. iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly. iv. Determining the exit criteria.
199. Which statement is most true? A. Different testing is needed depending upon the application. B. All software is tested in the same way. C. A technique that finds defects will always find defects. D. A technique that has found no defects is not useful.
A. Different testing is needed depending upon the application.
215. 0 During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible. Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. A. ISO 9126-1 'Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:Quality model' is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions. B. ISA 4126-1 'Software engineering- Product quality Part 1:Quality model' is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions. C. BS-7925-2 'Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level. D. SY-395-01 'Standard for East Coast Hospital software' is a regional standard adapted from a national one. Besides hospital software, this standard ought to be used also by other types of software system in the region. E. IEEE 829 'standard for software test documentation' is an international standard to be following mandatory by all testing origination regardless of lifecycle models.
A. ISO 9126-1 'Software engineering- Product quality Part 1: Quality model' is an international standard, that provides a basis on which to define quality assurance solutions & C. BS-7925-2 'Software testing. Software component testing is a national standard used internationally. It covers a number of testing techniques that may be useful both on component testing level and on system testing level.
182. Failure is _________ A. Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program B. Bug found before product Release C. Bug found after product Release D. Bug found during Design phase
A. Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program
230. You have investigated different possibilities and selected four of them to present to IT management. Which of the proposals will you most likely give your highest recommendations? A. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki. B. Outsourcing of test automation based on an offer from an Asian company, AsiaAutoTest, which has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools. They also offer training and besides they offer to run and maintain the regression tests in the future. C. Internal offer from the development department of XYZ to create the regression package using CppUnit as test automation tool. One of the development groups have very good experiences in automating unit tests, and they are willing to do training as well. D. Solution from a tool vendor offering to educate two test team members in the use of their easy- to-use test automation capture replay tool over the first 3 month and based on that build the regression test suite. In addition to Vicki, Steve is the only one that has time available to be educated.
A. Insourcing of test automation based on an offer from a local company ABC that has people who are specialists in system level capture-replay automation tools and they also do regular training courses in test automation methods and tools. They can then work closely with Vicki.
204. Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? A. No priority or severity assigned B. Incident numbering is manual rather than automated C. No mentioning of reproduce ability D. No classification on type of incident
A. No priority or severity assigned
203. The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? A. Percentage of business requirements exercised B. Percentage of planned hours worked this week C. Percentage of countries that have test scenarios D. Percentage of test iterations completed
A. Percentage of business requirements exercised
174. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is: A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
185. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
A. Test Analysis and Design
225. Identify THREE items that would be part of the work-breakdown structure showing the key testing activities for the acceptance test project. A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system C. Activities to deploy the system in the user environment D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations E. Development activities for unit and integration testing F. Reviews on requirements documentation G. Defining test environment requirements for system testing
A. Test planning, test case preparation and test execution for each of the four iterations, B. Work should be explicitly allocated to test completion, test management, installation and to training on using the system & D. Regression testing in the second, third and fourth iterations
232. In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase B. Test training needs for the project resources C. The test design techniques to be used D. Test performance indicators E. The test schedule
A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase & C. The test design techniques to be used
154. Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing? A. The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements. B. The process of testing to determine the compliance of a system to coding standards. C. Testing without reference to the internal structure of a system. D. Testing system attributes, such as usability, reliability or maintainability.
A. The process of testing an integrated system to verify that it meets specified requirements.
227. In general, why is it NOT a good idea to estimate the testing effort based only on a percentage of development effort? Identify THREE valid reasons. A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor. B. In general bottom-up estimation is always better than top-down estimation. C. The percentage based technique only applies to the V life cycle model. D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested. E. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing. F. It builds on large set of historical data G. The result is almost always a too low estimate for the required test effort
A. The quality of the development estimate may be poor, D. Using the same percentage every time does not address the level of risk of the application to be tested & E. The maturity of the organization, e.g. the quality of the test basis, quality of development testing, configuration management, availability of test tools, also influence the effort needed for testing.
153. What is important to do when working with software development models? A. To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics. B. To choose the waterfall model because it is the first and best proven model. C. To start with the V-model and then move to either iterative or incremental models. D. To only change the organization to fit the model and not vice versa.
A. To adapt the models to the context of project and product characteristics.
149. What should be the MAIN objective during development testing? A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be B. To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met C. To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects D. To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time
A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
170. Which of the following best describes the purpose of non-functional testing? A. To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions B. To ensure that a system complies with the quality standards set by ISO 9126 C. To ensure that the system deals appropriately with software malfunctions D. To measure the extent to which a system has been tested by functional testing
A. To measure characteristics of a system which give an indication of how the system performs its functions
192. Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)? A. Unit testing, system testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing. B. System testing, unit testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing. C. Acceptance testing, system testing, maintenance testing, unit testing. D. Unit testing, maintenance testing, system testing, acceptance testing.
A. Unit testing, system testing, acceptance testing, maintenance testing.
161. Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team? A. Determine whether enough component testing was executed. B. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected. C. Prove that all faults are identified. D. Prove that any remaining faults will not cause any failures.
B. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected.
207. Which option is part of the 'implementation and execution' area of the fundamental test process? A. Developing the tests. B. Comparing actual and expected results. C. Writing a test summary. D. Analyzing lessons learnt for future releases.
B. Comparing actual and expected results.
234. What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? A. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing C. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning
B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
229. Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? A. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = OK, criteria C = OK B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK C. Criteria A = OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK D. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = NOT OK
B. Criteria A = NOT OK, criteria B = NOT OK, criteria C = OK
231. Instead of having an independent test team within the company, the company is considering to outsource testing. What are THREE key challenges that are typical for outsourcing? A. Test environment more complex B. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables C. Clear channels of communications D. Possibly different cultures E. Testing of non-functional requirements F. Audit trail from requirements to test cases G. Applying test automation
B. Define expectation for tasks and deliverables, C. Clear channels of communications & D. Possibly different cultures
181. Which of the following statements BEST describes the difference between testing and debugging? A. Testing pinpoints (identifies the source of) the defects. Debugging analyzes the faults and proposes prevention activities. B. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software. C. Testing removes faults. Debugging identifies the causes of failures. D. Dynamic testing prevents causes of failures. Debugging removes the failures.
B. Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects. Debugging finds, analyzes, and removes the causes of failures in the software.
188. Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing? A. Automated tests allow better statements of confidence about the quality of software products. B. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations. C. Exhaustive software testing is, with enough effort and tool support, feasible for all software D. The purpose of software testing is demonstrating the absence of defects in software products.
B. For a software system, it is normally impossible to test all the input and output combinations.
201. The effect of testing is to: A. Increase software quality; B. Give an indication of the software quality; C. Enable those responsible for software failures to be identified; D. Show there are no problems remaining?
B. Give an indication of the software quality;
190. The cost of fixing a fault: A. Is not important B. Increases as we move the product towards live use C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design E. Can never be determined
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
143. What is the benefit of independent testing? A. More work gets done because testers do not disturb the developers all the time. B. Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers C. Independent testers do not need extra education and training. D. Independent testers reduce the bottleneck in the incident management process.
B. Independent testers tend to be unbiased and find different defects than the developers
237. Which of the following is least likely to be used as a technique to identify project and product risks? A. Brainstorming B. Inspections C. Expert interviews D. Independent assessments
B. Inspections
211. Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? A. It will extend the development team's abilities and enhance future delivery capabilities. B. It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes. C. Time-box constraints will guarantee code releases are delivered on schedule. D. More time can be spent on test execution as less formal documentation is required.
B. It will allow the marketing, clerical and testing staff to validate and verify the early screen prototypes.
173. Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution? A. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts. B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and test ware. C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. D. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and test ware.
172. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria? A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. B. Logging the outcome of test execution. C. Assessing if more tests are needed. D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
155. For which of the following would maintenance testing be used? A. Correction of defects during the development phase. B. Planned enhancements to an existing operational system. C. Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing. D. Integrating functions during the development of a new system.
B. Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.
212. Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach? A. Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing B. Project management and control C. No complete requirements specification D. Time-boxing
B. Project management and control
235. Which test management control option is most appropriate to adopt under these circumstances? A. Introduce mandatory evening and weekend working to retrieve the 3 week slippage. B. Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation. C. Advise the user community regarding the reduced scope of requirements and the additional incremental delivery. D. Arrange a meeting with the user community representatives to discuss the user interface.
B. Reconsider the exit criteria and review the test plan in the context of the current situation.
151. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase: A. Test Implementation and execution B. Test Analysis and Design C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting D. Test Closure Activities
B. Test Analysis and Design
156. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase: A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Implementation and execution C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
B. Test Implementation and execution
180. Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE? A. Component testing verifies the functioning of software modules, program objects, and classes that are separately testable, whereas system testing verifies interfaces between components and interactions with different parts of the system. B. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases. C. Component testing focuses on functional characteristics, whereas system testing focuses on functional and non-functional characteristics. D. Component testing is the responsibility of the technical testers, whereas system testing typically is the responsibility of the users of the system.
B. Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications, design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually derived from requirement specifications, functional specifications or use cases.
226. In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? A. Test planning B. Test execution C. Test management D. Test design
B. Test execution
175. Non-functional system testing includes: A. Testing to see where the system does not function properly B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability C. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that action D. Testing a system feature using only the software required for that function E. Testing for functions that should not exist
B. Testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
236. Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? A. The concerns over the user interface may lead to changes to the interface which cannot be implemented by development in time for the second test iteration. B. The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool. C. The delivery of the application without the interface changes may upset the user community. D. The method used for test estimation is not accurate enough and hence the money spent on testing exceeded its budget.
B. The concerns over the user interface raises the likelihood of a risk in that area and increases the amount of test effort needed for the user interface, thereby limiting the test effort available for other parts of the test management tool.
196. When is testing complete? A. When time and budget are exhausted. B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release. C. When there are no remaining high priority defects outstanding. D. When every data combination has been exercised successfully.
B. When there is enough information for sponsors to make an informed decision about release.
184. Tests are prioritized so that: A. You shorten the time required for testing B. You do the best testing in the time available C. You do more effective testing D. You find more faults
B. You do the best testing in the time available
171. Which of the following is the task of a Tester? A. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project. ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests. iv. Create the Test Specifications B. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false C. ii, iii, iv is true and i is false D. i is true and ii, iii, iv are false E. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
B. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
145. Which activities form part of test planning? i) Developing test cases. ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. iii) Assigning resources. iv) Building the test environment. v) Writing test conditions. A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false. B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false. C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
238. Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? A. Testing for performance problems B. Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company C. Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing D. Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment
C. Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing
163. Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach? A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques. B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques. C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques. D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
191. Which of the following statements are TRUE? A. Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same. B. Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved. . Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation. D. Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects. E. Regression tests should be performed in integration testing. A. A, C and D and E are true; B is false. B. A, C and E are true; B and D are false. C. C and D are true; A, B and E are false. D. B and E are true; A, C and D are false.
C. C and D are true; A, B and E are false.
167. When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called: A. Regression testing B. Maintenance testing C. Confirmation testing D. None of the above
C. Confirmation testing
218. As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? A. The expectation is that development testing is not adequate. B. Exit criteria are used to decide on when to stop testing. C. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources. D. Using entry and exit criteria will prevent software that is not or poorly tested from going to the next test level.
C. Entry and exit criteria are a principal way for getting adequate resources.
195. Which of the following is correct? Debugging is: A. Testing/checking whether the software performs correctly. B. Checking that a previously reported defect has been corrected. C. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct. D. Checking that no unintended consequences have occurred as a result of a fix.
C. Identifying the cause of a defect, repairing the code and checking the fix is correct.
228. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing? A. Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete. B. Testing is isolated from development. C. Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased. D. Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
C. Independent testers find different defects and are unbiased.
193. Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options. A. Informal review. B. Management review. C. Inspection. D. Walkthrough E. Technical Review
C. Inspection & E. Technical Review
186. Which of the following is a benefit of test independence? A. It does not require familiarity with the code. B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code. C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests. D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
142. Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing? A. Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing. B. Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software. C. It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system. D. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.
C. It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.
176. Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing? A. Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing. B. Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software. C. It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system. D. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.
C. It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.
160. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is: A. Lack of technical documentation B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers C. Lack of training D. Lack of Objectivity
C. Lack of training
214. A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? A. Synchronized with the overall long-term organizational strategy B. Defined according to the maturity model used C. Most visible to stakeholders D. Low costs actions first
C. Most visible to stakeholders
159. Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase: A. Test Analysis and Design B. Test Planning and control C. Test Closure Activities D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
C. Test Closure Activities
177. Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams? A. Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects. B. Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults. C. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product. D. Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developers.
C. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.
197. Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first? A. Tests designed by the author; tests designed by another member of the development team; tests designed by someone from a different company. B. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by the author; tests designed by someone from a different company. C. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team. D. Tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by the author.
C. Tests designed by someone from a different company; tests designed by someone from a different department within the company; tests designed by another member of the development team.
220. Within the projects, a master test plan and phase test plan will be used. Following is a list of characteristics applicable for test plans: A. Any deviation from the procedures described in the test B. strategy document C. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource D. requirements E. A detailed schedule of testing activities F. The development deliverables to be tested G. Which test staff members (names) will be involved and when H. Level of requirements coverage achieved Which TWO of the above mentioned characteristics relate to the phase test plan? I. a J. b K. c L. d M. e N. f
C. The overall estimated costs, timescales and resource & E. A detailed schedule of testing activities
200. A bug or defect is: A. A mistake made by a person; B. A run-time problem experienced by a user; C. The result of an error or mistake; D. The result of a failure, which may lead to an error?
C. The result of an error or mistake
208. Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? A. In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented. B. The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover. C. The test cases do not cover the key requirements. D. The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on time.
C. The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
157. According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose? A. To verify the success of corrective actions. B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed. C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification. D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmers.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
217. Which THREE activities would be valid steps during the development of the test strategy? A. Identify test staff members that will be involved in the system test B. Define test career paths C. Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house D. Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks E. Issue the test strategy document for review F. Define a master test plan template G. Perform a project risk analysis
C. Understand the software development life cycle used by the software house, D. Assess the testing that needs to be done to minimize the risks & E. Issue the test strategy document for review
141. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start? A. When the code is complete. B. When the design is complete. C. When the software requirements have been approved. D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
164. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called: A. an error B. a fault C. a failure D. a defect
C. a failure
168. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called: A. an error B. a fault C. a failure D. a defect
C. a failure
233. What is the Risk Priority Number for risk item number 2? A. 16 B. 2 C. 1 D. 63
D. 63
147. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are: A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free. B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very little testing. C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks. D. All of the above
D. All of the above
152. The purpose of exit criteria is: A. Define when to stop testing B. End of test level C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition D. All of the above
D. All of the above
178. The purpose of requirement phase is: A. To freeze requirements B. To understand user needs C. To define the scope of testing D. All of the above
D. All of the above
166. Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team? A. Prove that the remaining defects will not cause any additional failures. B. Run all of the tests that are defined for the test object as quickly as possible. C. Prove that all faults have been identified through thorough testing. D. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected
D. Cause as many failures as possible so that faults can be identified and corrected
223. The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? A. ISO 9126 B. IEEE 829 C. BS 7925/2 D. DO-178B
D. DO-178B
150. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase? A. Creating test suites from the test cases B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools C. Comparing actual results D. Designing the Tests
D. Designing the Tests
179. Which of the following could be a disadvantage of independent testing? A. Developer and independent testing will overlap and waste resources. B. Communication is limited between independent testers and developers. C. Independent testers are too slow and delay the project schedule. D. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.
D. Developers can lose a sense of responsibility for quality.
213. As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? A. Decision Table Testing B. Boundary Value Analysis C. Error Guessing D. Exploratory Testing
D. Exploratory Testing
169. Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model? A. Acceptance testing is always the final test level to be applied. B. All test levels are planned and completed for each developed feature. C. Testers are involved as soon as the first piece of code can be executed. D. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.
D. For every development activity there is a corresponding testing activity.
194. Incidents would not be raised against A. Requirements B. Documentation C. Test cases D. Improvements suggested by users
D. Improvements suggested by users
189. Which is not the fundamental test process? A. Planning and control B. Test closure activities C. Analysis and design D. None
D. None
224. Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? A. If the scope of test performance improvement covers all test levels, TMMi is preferred since TPI focusses mainly on black-box testing. B. If the organization is already applying CMMI, TMMi may be preferred since it has the same structure and uses the same terminology. TMMi addresses management commitment very strongly and is therefore more suitable to support a top-down improvement process. C. TPI is much more a bottom-up model that is suitable for addressing test topics for a specific (test) project. D. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
D. TMMi can only be used with the traditional V model,whereas TPI can be used with all types of software life cycles.
209. The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? A. The bidder's test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044. B. The bidder's project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards. C. The bidder's test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time. D. The bidder's project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.
D. The bidder's project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.
221. Which aspect in the test estimate is the main risk in this project? A. Quality of the specification B. Availability of end-users C. The costs of hardware and tools D. Unknown input quality due to third party development
D. Unknown input quality due to third party development
140. Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools? A. Variables that are never used. B. Security vulnerabilities. C. Poor performance. D. Unreachable code. E. Business processes not followed. F. b, c and d are true; a and e are false G. a is true; b, c, d and e are false H. c, d and e are true; a and b are false I. a, b and d are true; c and e are false
D. Unreachable code.