Juvenile Justice

Day reporting centers in the United States now number over: a. 500. b. 700. c. 1000. d. 1500.

a. 500.

The notion that criminal behavior is linked to unusual or abnormal physical characteristics is attributed to: a. Cesar Lombroso. b. Cesar Beccaria. c. Jeremy Bentham. d. Charles Darwin.

a. Cesar Lombroso.

The subculture theory of delinquency is attributed to: a. Cohen. b. Park. c. Shaw. d. McKay.

a. Cohen.

The first American day reporting centers were established in: a. Connecticut and Massachusetts. b. Rhode Island and Connecticut. c. Rhode Island and New York. d. New York and Connecticut.

a. Connecticut and Massachusetts.

Day reporting centers were first established in: a. England. b. Germany. c. New York. d. Chicago.

a. England.

The U.S. Supreme Court case that established a juvenile's right to an attorney in: a. In re Gault. b. In re Winship. c. Kent v. United States. d. Breed v. Jones.

a. In re Gault.

The first probation law was enacted in: a. Massachusetts. b. Chicago. c. Boston. d. New York.

a. Massachusetts.

Which juvenile disposition is the least punitive? a. Nominal b. Conditional c. Custodial d. Secondary

a. Nominal

Robbery, rape, auto theft, and murder are examples of: a. Part I offenses. b. misdemeanors. c. Part II offenses. d. mala prohibita offenses.

a. Part I offenses.

Laws enacted in England in the Middle Ages that punished debtors who owed money to creditors and couldn't pay were known as: a. Poor Laws. b. Debtor Laws. c. Creditor Laws. d. Workhouse Laws.

a. Poor Laws.

A police-school model that includes enforcement, teaching, and counseling is referred to as the: a. TRIAD model. b. Operation SHIELD. c. SARA model. d. Boston Gun Project.

a. TRIAD model.

A projection of future behavior based on a class of similar offenders is called: a. actuarial prediction. b. anamnestic prediction. c. clinical prediction. d. aggregated prediction.

a. actuarial prediction.

The U.S. Supreme Court case of Barker v. Wingo held that: a. adult offenders are entitled to a speedy trial. b. juvenile offenders are entitled to a speedy trial. c. both adult and juvenile offenders are entitled to a speedy trial. d. juvenile offenders are entitled to a jury trial.

a. adult offenders are entitled to a speedy trial.

The release of juvenile court records to interested parties is permissible in: a. all states. b. no states. c. thirty states. d. most states.

a. all states.

Long-term detention usually last for: a. an average 180 days. b. approximately one year or longer. c. about two months. d. six months.

a. an average 180 days.

Shock probation is: a. an intermediate punishment. b. designed to punish youth. c. non-secure placement. d. similar to a group home.

a. an intermediate punishment.

The case of In re Winship resulted in the standard of: a. beyond a reasonable doubt. b. clear and convincing evidence. c. a preponderance of evidence. d. the weight of the evidence.

a. beyond a reasonable doubt.

The notion that delinquency is appealing to juveniles who seek excitement and peer approval is behind: a. bonding theory. b. strain theory. c. drift theory. d. containment theory.

a. bonding theory.

Police officer professional defensiveness arises largely as the result of the belief that youths will: a. challenge their authority. b. run away when approached. c. become psychotic and commit violent crimes. d. become suicidal when questioned.

a. challenge their authority.

When judges sentence offenders to a term of incarceration coupled with a term of probation, this is known as a(n): a. combination sentence. b. mixed sentence. c. intermittent sentence. d. jail as a condition of probation.

a. combination sentence.

Chronic delays in juvenile offender processing are: a. common. b. uncommon. c. unconstitutional. d. a violation of a juvenile's right to a speedy trial.

a. common.

Much of the situationally-based discretion of police officers is: a. covert. b. unconstitutional. c. illegal. d. widely publicized.

a. covert.

Curfew ordinances are enacted as: a. delinquency prevention strategies. b. status offense strategies. c. deinstitutionalization strategies. d. criminal court strategies.

a. delinquency prevention strategies.

The idea that certain persons are destined to be delinquent is consistent with: a. determinism. b. classical theory. c. sociobiology. d. XYY theory.

a. determinism.

The term "with prejudice" means that juvenile court prosecutors can: a. dismiss charges and cannot refile charges at a later date. b. continue to prosecute, but with no animosity toward the defendant. c. dismiss charges, but option to refile charges at a later date. d. continue to prosecute and move that the record be open to the public.

a. dismiss charges and cannot refile charges at a later date.

The term "without prejudice" means that juvenile court prosecutors can: a. dismiss charges, but have the option to refile charges at a later date. b. continue to prosecute, but recommend reduced punishment. c. dismiss charges with the understanding that charges cannot be brought again. d. continue to prosecute, but seal the record upon adjudication of delinquency.

a. dismiss charges, but have the option to refile charges at a later date.

The intake process in most jurisdictions in the United States is: a. diverse. b. identical. c. irrelevant. d. conducted by juvenile court judges.

a. diverse.

Exonerating evidence is designated as: a. exculpatory. b. extralegal. c. nonlegal. d. inculpatory.

a. exculpatory.

Those juveniles who are predicted to be safe risks for rehabilitation and actually turn out to be quite dangerous are called: a. false negatives. b. negatives. c. positives. d. false positives.

a. false negatives.

Crimes punishable by imprisonment for one year or more are called: a. felonies. b. misdemeanors. c. capital crimes. d. Part II offenses.

a. felonies.

Intake officers: a. have broad discretionary powers. b. can sentence juveniles to long term detention. c. can order the release of youths from industrial schools. d. are normally appointed by the mayor.

a. have broad discretionary powers.

Regarding due process rights, juveniles: a. have such rights. b. do not have such rights. c. only have these rights if judges grant them. d. only have these rights if intake officers agree.

a. have such rights.

Juvenile courts waived jurisdiction to adult criminal courts in: a. less than one percent of all formally handled cases. b. more than ten percent of all formally handled cases. c. more than 56 percent of all formally handled cases. d. more than five percent of all formally handled cases.

a. less than one percent of all formally handled cases.

According to Sheldon, the body type described as strong, muscular, and aggressive is known as a: a. mesomorph. b. ectomorph. c. endomorph. d. anamorph.

a. mesomorph.

One unintended consequence of diversion is: a. net widening. b. corporal punishment. c. arbitration. d. alternative dispute resolution.

a. net widening.

The IJA/ABA standards relating to processing juveniles recommends: a. no more than two hours between police referral and decision to detain. b. no more than 4 hours between police referral and decision to detain. c. no more than 24 hours between police referral and decision to detain. d. no more than 48 hours between police referral and decision to detain.

a. no more than two hours between police referral and decision to detain.

A suspected juvenile offender released with a warning by a police officer at the station house is an example of a: a. nominal disposition. b. diversion. c. preliminary diversion. d. restoration.

a. nominal disposition.

In the United States, the minimum age for transferring juveniles to adult criminal court is: a. none. b. ten. c. 12. d. 13.

a. none.

Regarding the decisiveness of parole revocations for juveniles, the U.S. Supreme Court has: a. not ruled decisively. b. ruled decisively. c. refused to hear these cases. d. None of the above.

a. not ruled decisively.

A legal factor in an intake hearing is: a. one's prior record of delinquency. b. one's social status. c. one's appearance. d. one's ethnicity.

a. one's prior record of delinquency.

Most juveniles enter the juvenile justice system by way of: a. police action. b. referrals from social service agencies. c. complaints from neighbors. d. parental action.

a. police action.

The largest number of delinquency cases to the juvenile court are referred by: a. police officers. b. intake officers. c. magistrates. d. court officers.

a. police officers.

One major reason why perpetual juvenile offenders are diverted from formal juvenile court processing is: a. poor record keeping among juvenile jurisdictions. b. too many intake officers. c. weak prosecutorial policies of juvenile courts. d. significant gaps in evidence accumulated in the average juvenile case.

a. poor record keeping among juvenile jurisdictions.

A conditional disposition would be: a. probation. b. a warning. c. secure confinement. d. placement in foster home.

a. probation

With direct filing, the court officer who has sole authority to refer a case from juvenile to adult court is the: a. prosecutor. b. defense attorney. c. juvenile court judge. d. criminal court judge.

a. prosecutor.

Those who support the "get-tough" approach believe juvenile offenders should be: a. punished. b. rehabilitated. c. treated. d. educated.

a. punished.

Of all the probation programs conducted, no program has a: a. recidivism rate of zero. b. recidivism rate of less than 100 percent. c. recidivism rate of over 50 percent. d. recidivism rate of less than 30 percent.

a. recidivism rate of zero.

The action of police officers of redefining juvenile acts as delinquent when they are not is known as: a. relabeling. b. net widening. c. criminality. d. deinstitutionalization.

a. relabeling.

Regarding the obligation of police officers to respond to citizen complaints about alleged juvenile wrongdoing, police officers are obligated to: a. respond. b. make arrests. c. take youths into custody. d. None of the above.

a. respond.

Police-based meetings of police with juvenile offenders, their families, and their victims to discuss the harm caused and repair the harm is known as: a. restorative policing. b. restitution hearings. c. proactive conferences. d. reactive policing.

a. restorative policing.

Conditional probation: a. tailors conditions to the individual juvenile offender. b. is standardized. c. imposes the same conditions for all. d. requires little supervision.

a. tailors conditions to the individual juvenile offender.

People are rational beings and choose between good and evil, according to: a. the classical school of criminality. b. the positivist school of criminality. c. hedonism. d. determinism.

a. the classical school of criminality.

Predicting juvenile violence is: a. uncertain. b. perfected. c. accurate. d. justified by selective incapacitation research.

a. uncertain.

CHINS refers to: a. youths whom courts determine need care and supervision. b. youths who commit status offenses. c. youths whom the courts declare are delinquent. d. youths who require placement in secure detention facilities.

a. youths whom courts determine need care and supervision.

According to 2008 statistics, of all the violent crime arrests, juveniles accounted for: a. 8 percent. b. 16 percent. c. 20 percent. d. 47 percent.

b. 16 percent.

Historically, the cutoff point between a successful probation program and an unsuccessful one is a recidivism rate of: a. 25 percent. b. 30 percent. c. 40 percent. d. 50 percent.

b. 30 percent.

Which type of offender is likely to be punished most severely? a. A gang member who gets in a fight. b. A juvenile who sells marijuana while on probation. c. A juvenile who tells police where to find stolen property. d. A juvenile who gets drunk and shoplifts.

b. A juvenile who sells marijuana while on probation.

In re Gault took place in the state of: a. Alabama. b. Arizona. c. Arkansas. d. Alaska.

b. Arizona.

Classical theory is attributed to: a. Cesare Lombroso. b. Cesare Beccaria. c. Jeremy Bentham. d. Charles Darwin.

b. Cesare Beccaria.

The U.S. Supreme Court case that set the standard for when accused juvenile offenders have lawfully waived their Miranda rights is: a. In re Gault. b. Fare v. Michael C. c. Roper v. Simmons. d. Graham v. Florida

b. Fare v. Michael C.

Psychoanalytic theory is attributed to: a. Lombroso. b. Freud. c. Durkheim. d. Merton.

b. Freud.

Juvenile offenders can have their case transferred to adult criminal court based on criteria set forth in the U.S. Supreme Court case of: a. In re Winship. b. Kent v. United States. c. In re Gault. d. Barker v. Wingo.

b. Kent v. United States.

The U.S. Supreme Court case which established a juvenile's right to a hearing before transferring the case to criminal court is: a. Brown v. Board of Education. b. Kent v. United States. c. In re Gault. d. In re Winship. .

b. Kent v. United States.

Which of the following is NOT considered a goal of juvenile corrections? a. Deterrence. b. Leniency and forgiveness. c. Rehabilitation and reintegration. d. Punishment and retribution.

b. Leniency and forgiveness.

When police officers take certain youths into custody and then release those youths to their parents later without incident, it is called: a. an arrest and booking. b. a stationhouse adjustment. c. an adjudication. d. a plea bargain.

b. a stationhouse adjustment.

The judgment handed down by a juvenile court on a petition is known as a(n): a. verdict. b. adjudication. c. finding. d. disposition.

b. adjudication.

An informal resolution of a case by an intake officer is called a(n): a. plea bargain. b. adjustment. c. adjudication. d. judgment.

b. adjustment.

The teen court model where adults are judges and teens fill the role of prosecutor, defense attorney, and jury is called the: a. tribunal model. b. adult judge model. c. youth judge model. d. peer jury model.

b. adult judge model.

The U.S. Supreme Court case of Eddings v. Oklahoma holds that: a. gender is a mitigating factor in juvenile death penalty cases. b. age is a mitigating factor in juvenile death penalty cases. c. the death penalty is cruel and unusual punishment. d. age is an aggravating factor in juvenile death penalty cases.

b. age is a mitigating factor in juvenile death penalty cases.

Past sets of circumstances that are used to predict future behaviors are: a. actuarial. b. anamnestic. c. clinical. d. dialectic.

b. anamnestic.

The Uniform Crime Reports report: a. actual crimes committed. b. arrests. c. officer effectiveness in convicting murderers. d. None of the above.

b. arrests.

An example of "specialized" conditions of probation would be: a. obey all laws. b. attend driver safety course. c. permit the probation officer to visit. d. answer your probation officer truthfully.

b. attend driver safety course.

Blended sentencing is when: a. both juvenile court and criminal court judges collaborate on sentencing. b. both juvenile and adult penalties are imposed. c. both incarceration and probation penalties are given out. d. juvenile judge adjudicates while the criminal court judge sentences.

b. both juvenile and adult penalties are imposed.

Juvenile courts are increasingly: a. less formal. b. bureaucratic. c. one-sided. d. more punishment-centered.

b. bureaucratic.

States with mandatory sentences for certain offenses subscribe to the: a. positivist theory of criminology. b. classical theory of criminology. c. biological theory of criminology. d. sociobiology theory of criminology.

b. classical theory of criminology.

According to the Uniform Crime Reports, when a person has been arrested for a reported crime, the case is said to have been: a. solved by arrest. b. cleared by arrest. c. resolved by arrest. d. concluded by arrest.

b. cleared by arrest.

Confinement in a secure juvenile facility usually for a year or longer is called an: a. secure placement. b. commitment placement. c. short-term confinement. d. shock probation.

b. commitment placement.

For juveniles, there are potentially threatening consequences from: a. court unification. b. concurrent jurisdiction. c. appellate jurisdiction. d. appellate procedure.

b. concurrent jurisdiction.

The most popular case supervision planning model is the: a. static model. b. conventional model. c. numbers game model. d. random model.

b. conventional model

The federally-mandated goal of removing status offenders from secure juvenile institutions is known as: a. decarceration. b. deinstitutionalization. c. disproportionate minority contact. d. the jail removal initiative.

b. deinstitutionalization.

The Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 was designed to: a. punish chronic juvenile offenders. b. deinstitutionalize status offenders. c. create long term secure confinement institutions. d. None of the above.

b. deinstitutionalize status offenders.

The choice between two or more possible means of handling a situation by police officers is called: a. discrimination. b. discretion. c. improvisation. d. profiling.

b. discretion.

The range of choices police officers can make within the limits of their power are known as: a. legal options. b. discretionary powers. c. enforcement possibilities. d. procedural selection.

b. discretionary powers.

Waivers left to the sole decision-making authority of juvenile court judges are called: a. mandatory waivers. b. discretionary waivers. c. presumptive waivers. d. direct waivers.

b. discretionary waivers.

Temporarily directing certain youths away from the juvenile justice system is accomplished through: a. expungement. b. diversion. c. interruption. d. probation.

b. diversion.

New juvenile codes that have contributed to greater bureaucratization of the juvenile courts have emerged largely through an emphasis upon a juvenile's right to: a. rehabilitation. b. due process. c. preventive detention. d. a jury trial

b. due process.

The confidentiality privilege for juvenile offenders has: a. increased in recent years. b. eroded in recent years. c. gone unchanged in the past thirty years. d. prohibited juvenile identification.

b. eroded in recent years.

Hard time in confinement is also known as: a. curved time. b. flat time. c. strict time. d. determined time.

b. flat time.

An example of nonsecure confinement is: a. boot camp. b. group home. c. shock probation. d. industrial school.

b. group home.

The role of juvenile court prosecutors today compared with their role fifty years ago: a. is pretty much the same. b. has been significantly transformed. c. has resulted in less discretionary power. d. None of the above.

b. has been significantly transformed.

Juvenile institutions established in 1825 as a means of separating juveniles from the adult correctional process were known as: a. houses of correction. b. houses of refuge. c. houses of detention. d. houses of the child savers.

b. houses of refuge.

Using 2007 statistics, probation was the disposition imposed: a. in 90% of all cases. b. in over half of all cases. c. in 25% of all cases. d. in few cases.

b. in over half of all cases.

For many juveniles their understanding of their rights under the law is safeguarded and explained by: a. statute. b. intake officers. c. close neighbors. d. juvenile court lobbyists.

b. intake officers.

The decision whether to release juveniles to their parents' custody or detain them in formal detention facilities for a later court appearance is generally left to: a. police officers. b. intake officers. c. magistrates. d. court officers.

b. intake officers.

Different aspects of supervising youthful offenders would collectively be termed: a. probation. b. juvenile corrections. c. juvenile diversion. d. None of the above.

b. juvenile corrections.

Juveniles who have participated in Violent Juvenile Offender Programs (VJOPs) are: a. more inclined to recidivate. b. less inclined to recidivate. c. revert to previous behavior, but of less violent offenses. d. never repeat offend.

b. less inclined to recidivate.

Crimes punishable by jail confinement for up to one year are called: a. felonies. b. misdemeanors. c. infractions. d. Part I offenses.

b. misdemeanors.

Changes in the standard of proof in juvenile courts have made cases against juveniles: a. easier to prove. b. more difficult to prove. c. easier to process. d. more dependent on the parens patriae doctrine.

b. more difficult to prove.

Today, juvenile records are: a. less likely to be made available for public view. b. more likely to be made available for public view. c. sealed from public view in most jurisdictions. d. sealed from public view in all jurisdictions.

b. more likely to be made available for public view.

According to 2009 data, the number of youth in the foster care system totaled: a. 250,000. b. more than 500,000. c. over one million. d. about 100,000.

b. more than 500,000.

When making decisions about juvenile offenders, intake officers have: a. no discretion. b. much discretion. c. only two choices, dismissal or juvenile court. d. the same power as juvenile court judges.

b. much discretion.

Bringing juveniles into the juvenile justice system who would not otherwise be involved in delinquent activity is known as: a. relabeling. b. net widening. c. criminality. d. deinstitutionalization.

b. net widening.

The IJA/ABA standards relating to processing juveniles recommends: a. no more than 12 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention. b. no more than 24 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention. c. no more than 48 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention. d. no more than three days between detention and petition justifying further detention.

b. no more than 24 hours between detention and petition justifying further detention.

Another word for the term "anomie" is: a. conformity. b. normlessness. c. adaptation. d. normality.

b. normlessness.

The adult judge model of teen courts is used in about: a. one-fourth of all teen courts in the country. b. one-half of all teen courts in the country. c. two-thirds of all teen courts in the country. d. three-fourths of all teen courts in the country.

b. one-half of all teen courts in the country.

The youth judge model of teen courts is used in about: a. one-fourth of all teen courts in the country. b. one-third of all teen courts in the country. c. one-half of all teen courts in the country. d. two-thirds of all teen courts in the country.

b. one-third of all teen courts in the country.

When juvenile offenders are removed to the custody of a foster home or group home, they are considered: a. status offenders. b. placed. c. confined. d. processed.

b. placed.

Prior to the U.S. Supreme Court case of In re Winship, the standard of proof used in establishing a juvenile's delinquency was: a. proof beyond all doubt. b. preponderance of the evidence. c. clear and convincing evidence. d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

b. preponderance of the evidence.

The most frequently-used sanction by juvenile court judges is: a. parole. b. probation. c. diversion. d. incarceration.

b. probation.

The U.S. Supreme Court ruling in In re Winship held that the standard of proof to find juveniles delinquent in juvenile court is: a. proof beyond all doubt. b. proof beyond a reasonable doubt. c. preponderance of the evidence. d. clear and convincing evidence.

b. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

Detention decisions by intake officers are: a. unconstitutional. b. rare. c. permitted. d. only done with the approval of arresting police officers.

b. rare.

The mainstay of juvenile corrections is: a. punishment. b. rehabilitation. c. isolation. d. deterrence.

b. rehabilitation.

Terminating one's parole program because of new delinquency adjudications, new crimes, or technical programs violations is: a. expungement. b. revocation. c. retaliation. d. retribution.

b. revocation.

An integral feature of classification systems is: a. psychoanalysis. b. risk assessment. c. race. d. socioeconomic status.

b. risk assessment.

The National Youth Survey is an example of the use of: a. police officer coercion. b. self-reports. c. excessive force. d. strong-arm tactics.

b. self-reports.

The disposition of a juvenile's case is the same as an adult being: a. tried. b. sentenced. c. convicted. d. imprisoned.

b. sentenced.

The role of genetics in explaining criminal and delinquent behavior falls under: a. the classical school of criminology. b. sociobiology. c. atavism. d. social learning theory.

b. sociobiology.

Diversion is a program that usually requires offenders to do: a. nothing. b. something. c. time in home confinement. d. 30 days in jail.

b. something.

The age jurisdiction of juvenile courts is determined by: a. state governors. b. state legislatures. c. federal government. d. courts.

b. state legislatures.

When juveniles are apprehended by police for suspicious behavior, but not necessarily for any specific crime, they are: a. arrested. b. taken into custody. c. wards of the court. d. None of the above.

b. taken into custody

A decision made by a police officer that a youth should be held temporarily is known as: a. arrest b. taken into custody. c. detention. d. adjudication.

b. taken into custody.

Informal juries of one's peers are often referred to as: a. kangaroo courts. b. teen courts. c. adolescent courts. d. juvenile courts.

b. teen courts.

The notion that social, biological, psychological, or economic forces determine criminal and delinquent behavior is linked to: a. the classical school of criminology. b. the positive school of criminology. c. the subculture school of delinquency. d. labeling theory.

b. the positive school of criminology.

Someone who is predicted to be dangerous and actually turns out to be dangerous is called a: a. false positive. b. true positive. c. true negative. d. false negative.

b. true positive.

A common criticism of the Uniform Crimes Reports (UCR) and the National Crime Victimization Survey is that they: a. overestimate the amount of crime committed in the U.S. b. underestimate the amount of crime committed in the U.S. c. can't be believed because police supply the information. d. can't be relied on to be accurate.

b. underestimate the amount of crime committed in the U.S.

At a juvenile's intake hearing, the attendance of his victim(s) is: a. required. b. voluntary. c. compulsory. d. statutory.

b. voluntary.

Early penal facilities whose inmates provided cheap labor for profit by private interests were known as: a. debtors prisons. b. workhouses. c. poor houses. d. indentured servant system.

b. workhouses.

In Roper v. Simmons, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the minimum age at which a juvenile could be executed was: a. 16. b. 17. c. 18. d. 19.

c. 18.

Significant developments in the legal rights of juveniles commenced in the: a. 1930s. b. 1940s. c. 1960s. d. 1970s.

c. 1960s.

The U.S. Supreme Court ruled that a life sentence without parole for juveniles is not permitted under the: a. Fifth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. b. Sixth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. c. Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. d. Fourteenth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

c. Eighth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution.

The nation's first juvenile court was established in 1899 in: a. Indiana. b. Iowa. c. Illinois. d. Colorado.

c. Illinois.

The key legal case where the standard of proof for juvenile court proceedings was established was: a. In re Gault. b. In re Myron. c. In re Winship. d. In re Stanford.

c. In re Winship.

Keeping juvenile offenders from contact with adult offenders is one purpose of the: a. Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act. b. Juvenile Delinquency Control Statute. c. Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act. d. Juvenile Prevention of Delinquency Act.

c. Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act.

A proactive police-school approach which is devoted to identifying problems, developing responses, and evaluating results is known as the: a. TRIAD model. b. Operation SHIELD. c. SARA model. d. Boston Gun Project.

c. SARA model.

Which of the following would NOT be considered a status offense? a. Running away from home b. Curfew violation c. Shoplifting d. Truancy

c. Shoplifting

Juvenile and criminal court proceedings are: a. informal. b. formal c. adversarial. d. sympathetic.

c. adversarial.

Parole for juveniles is also referred to as: a. conditional release. b. reentry. c. aftercare. d. rehabilitation.

c. aftercare.

An extralegal factor in an intake hearing is: a. seriousness of the crime. b. prior record. c. age. d. type of crime committed.

c. age.

Any circumstance that increases the seriousness of one's delinquent acts is called: a. mitigating. b. intervening. c. aggravating. d. complicating

c. aggravating.

Recidivism rates for those juveniles placed on standard probation: a. are highly accurate. b. are very low. c. are not uniformly maintained. d. are easy to forecast.

c. are not uniformly maintained.

The terms "waiver" and "transfer": a. have distinctly different meanings. b. vary depending on federal and state courts. c. are used interchangeably. d. differ according to the stage of juvenile proceedings.

c. are used interchangeably.

Patrol areas assigned to police officers in neighborhoods are referred to as: a. districts. b. precincts. c. beats. d. assignments.

c. beats.

Juveniles who increasingly commit more serious offenses are an example of: a. profiling. b. pathways. c. career escalation. d. at-risk youth.

c. career escalation.

People have free will and choose to commit crime, according to the: a. positivist theory of criminality and delinquency. b. sociobiology school of criminality and delinquency. c. classical theory of criminality and delinquency. d. XYY theory of criminality and delinquency.

c. classical theory of criminality and delinquency.

Diagnostic examinations and assessments of test results are most closely associated with: a. anamnestic prediction. b. actuarial prediction. c. clinical prediction. d. intensive prediction.

c. clinical prediction.

Female delinquents are more likely than male delinquents to: a. engage in property-related offenses. b. offend at some point in their adolescence. c. come from broken homes. d. be more rational and adventurous.

c. come from broken homes.

All probation is: a. without conditions. b. punitive. c. conditional. d. statutory.

c. conditional.

According to Freud, the superego refers to one's: a. need for immediate gratification. b. recognition and respect for others. c. conscience. d. willingness to defer gratification.

c. conscience.

The balanced approach to juvenile probation is a: a. punitive approach. b. rehabilitative approach. c. constructive approach. d. conventional approach.

c. constructive approach.

A judge's citation to a status offender who fails to follow court orders is known as: a. placement. b. divestiture. c. contempt of court. d. adjudication.

c. contempt of court.

A general proposal that seeks to centralize and integrate the diverse functions of both juvenile and adult criminal courts is known as: a. court disintegration. b. court integration. c. court unification. d. court diversification.

c. court unification.

Nonsecure custody is an example of a(n): a. nominal disposition. b. conditional disposition. c. custodial disposition. d. secondary disposition.

c. custodial disposition.

Programs that use restitution as a condition of probation: a. increase recidivism rates because juveniles cannot repay. b. increase recidivism rates because juveniles don't take responsibility. c. decrease recidivism because juveniles are required to repay their victims. d. decrease recidivism because juveniles know it's a condition of probation.

c. decrease recidivism because juveniles are required to repay their victims.

The juvenile equivalent of an adult sentence is called a(n): a. adjudication. b. finding. c. disposition. d. petition.

c. disposition.

Fat, soft, plump, and jolly body types are referred to as: a. mesomorphs. b. ectomorphs. c. endomorphs. d. anamorphs.

c. endomorphs.

The sealing of a juvenile's delinquency records is accomplished with a(n): a. order of destruction. b. removal mandate. c. expungement order. d. purging directive.

c. expungement order.

Race and ethnicity are: a. legal factors. b. inadequate predictors of future behaviors. c. extralegal factors. d. None of the above.

c. extralegal factors.

Facilities which help incarcerated delinquents make the transition back into the community are known as: a. group homes. b. foster homes. c. halfway houses. c. transitional homes.

c. halfway houses.

For years the U.S. Supreme Court was reluctant to intervene in juvenile court decisions. This reluctance was referred to as the: a. litigation implosion. b. deference doctrine. c. hands-off doctrine. d. leave alone doctrine.

c. hands-off doctrine.

With the deinstitutionalization of status offenders (DSO), the number of status offenders formally processed by juvenile courts: a. is virtually nonexistent. b. has reduced significantly. c. has increased significantly. d. are never formally processed.

c. has increased significantly.

Unconditional probation: a. has special restrictions attached. b. minimizes the juvenile's movement. c. has no formal controls to monitor the juvenile's behavior. d. requires specialized individual attention.

c. has no formal controls to monitor the juvenile's behavior.

The pursuit of pleasure and avoidance of pain by human beings is known as: a. determinism. b. atavism. c. hedonism. d. anomie.

c. hedonism.

Waivers are: a. initiated by judges only. b. initiated by prosecutors only. c. initiated by either prosecutors and judges. d. initiated by prosecutors with a judge's approval.

c. initiated by either prosecutors and judges.

The screening procedure usually conducted by a juvenile probation officer to determine whether to release a juvenile offender to parental custody or recommend detention for further court action is known as: a. review. b. referral. c. intake. d. booking.

c. intake.

The second major step in the juvenile justice process is: a. police-juvenile contact. b. arrest. c. intake. d. referral.

c. intake.

One of the benefits of diversion is: a. it widens the net over juveniles brought into the juvenile justice system. b. it's suitable for all offenders. c. it decreases the caseload of juvenile court prosecutors. d. it increases the focus on delinquent offenders.

c. it decreases the caseload of juvenile court prosecutors.

The power of a court to hear a particular case is called: a. discretion. b. court power. c. jurisdiction. d. parens patriae.

c. jurisdiction.

Stressing the definitions people have of delinquent acts rather than delinquency itself is the notion behind: a. social learning theory. b. anomie. c. labeling theory. d. concentric zone hypothesis.

c. labeling theory.

During intake proceedings, defense attorneys: a. are barred from attending. b. are compelled to attend. c. may attend. d. can only attend with the permission of juvenile court judges.

c. may attend.

With standard probation, probationer contact with probation officers is: a. stringent. b. excessive. c. minimal. d. burdensome.

c. minimal.

Verbal or written warnings to low-risk first offenders are known as: a. diversion. b. first offender warnings. c. nominal dispositions. d. preliminary dispositions.

c. nominal dispositions

Short-term detention usually lasts for: a. about two months. b. one year or less. c. one to 30 days. d. 12 hours.

c. one to 30 days.

Juveniles frequently conceal their identity and age from police officers for fear of: a. confinement in jail. b. police officers. c. parental reaction. d. criminal record.

c. parental reaction.

A close parallel has been drawn between the intake proceeding and: a. an interrogation. b. booking. c. plea bargaining. d. an inquisition.

c. plea bargaining.

Juvenile court judges sometimes refer to documents prepared by juvenile probation officers about a youth's background and family circumstances. These documents are called: a. anamnestic prediction reports. b. intensive prediction reports. c. predispositional reports. d. clinical prediction reports.

c. predispositional reports.

Notifications made to juvenile courts that a juvenile requires the court's attention best defines: a. warnings. b. advisements. c. referrals. d. arrests.

c. referrals.

Public opinion polls indicate that Americans believe the purpose of the juvenile justice system should be: a. punishment. b. incarceration. c. rehabilitation. d. deterrence.

c. rehabilitation.

An intended consequence of diversion is to: a. net more juveniles into the juvenile justice system. b. formally process more juveniles. c. remove more juveniles from juvenile court processing. d. increase the number of stationhouse adjustments.

c. remove more juveniles from juvenile court processing.

An action by the criminal court to transfer a direct file or statutory exclusion care back to juvenile court is referred to as a: a. demand waiver. b. legislative waiver. c. reverse waiver. d. mandatory waiver.

c. reverse waiver.

Incarcerating individuals who show a high likelihood of repeating their criminal conduct based on the potential for recidivism is known as: a. corporal punishment. b. capital punishment. c. selective incapacitation. d. categorical capacitation.

c. selective incapacitation.

Information about runaways is almost exclusively determined from: a. the Uniform Crime Reports. b. the National Crime Victimization Survey. c. self-reports. d. police reports.

c. self-reports.

Group homes differ from shelter care facilities in that: a. shelter care facilities are usually in residential areas and group homes are not. b. shelter care facilities house more youths than group homes. c. shelter care facilities are short-term, while group homes are longer-term. d. shelter care facilities are non-secure, while group homes are secure.

c. shelter care facilities are short-term, while group homes are longer-term.

Shelter care facilities and foster homes differ in that: a. foster homes house more children. b. foster homes accommodate youth from different age groups. c. shelter care facilities house more children. d. shelter care facilities are used for violent offenders.

c. shelter care facilities house more children.

The premise behind "shock" probation is that the youth sentenced will be: a. shocked by the probation. b. shocked by the length of the probation. c. shocked by the incarceration. d. shocked by the threat of incarceration.

c. shocked by the incarceration.

The theory that criminal behavior is something copied and learned from others is known as: a. sociobiological theory. b. sociological theory. c. social learning theory. d. concentric zone theory.

c. social learning theory.

The Boston Gun Project was established to: a. remove all guns from the street. b. target all juveniles with guns. c. target juveniles on probation to reduce gun violence. d. target juvenile access to weapons.

c. target juveniles on probation to reduce gun violence.

Criticism that juvenile courts rely on extralegal factors in making dispositions is based on: a. the numbers of all juveniles formally processed. b. a comparison of punishments handed down by these courts. c. the high numbers of minorities arrested, adjudicated, and confined. d. the increase in females formally processed.

c. the high numbers of minorities arrested, adjudicated, and confined.

The Colorado Compulsory School Act targeted the status offense of: a. delinquency. b. runaways. c. truancy. d. curfew violations.

c. truancy.

Whenever police officers respond to citizen complaints involving youths, their actions will usually lead to: a. arrests. b. taking youths into custody. c. verbal warnings or reprimands. d. a worsening of police community relations.

c. verbal warnings or reprimands.

Crime rate statistics present the total number of crimes per: a.1,000 population. b.10,000 population. c.100,000 population. d.1,000,000 population.

c.100,000 population.

The average length of stay for a juvenile in a foster home is: a. 9 months. b. 1 year. c. 2 years. d. 26 months.

d. 26 months.

Jury trials for juveniles are denied in: a. 50 percent of all cases. b. 100 percent of all cases. c. 70 percent of all cases. d. 80 percent of all cases.

d. 80 percent of all cases.

Functions of diversion include: a. decreasing the caseload of juvenile court prosecutors. b. reducing recidivism. c. reducing the degree of institutionalization. d. All of the above.

d. All of the above.

A juvenile justice model that emphasizes accountability, public safety, and competency development is known as: a. Operation SHIELD b. Reparative Probation Program c. Community Peace Conferencing d. Balanced and Restorative Justice

d. Balanced and Restorative Justice

Juvenile offenders cannot be sentenced to life without parole according to the U.S. Supreme Court holding in: a. Stanford v. Kentucky. b. Roper v. Simmons. c. Wilkins v. Missouri. d. Graham v. Florida.

d. Graham v. Florida.

The constitutionality of the death penalty was decided in 1976 in the case of: a. Roper v. Simmons. b. Mapp v. Ohio. c. Terry v. Ohio. d. Gregg v. Georgia.

d. Gregg v. Georgia.

The first cities to implement teen courts were: a. New York and Boston. b. Chicago and Kansas City. c. Dallas and Houston. d. Seattle and Denver.

d. Seattle and Denver.

Which of the following is a potential outcome of DSO? a. More status offenders will commit crimes. b. An increased number of status offenders will be placed in secure facilities. c. Fewer juveniles will be brought into the juvenile justice system d. The number of status offenders in secure facilities will be reduced.

d. The number of status offenders in secure facilities will be reduced.

Annual crime statistics published yearly by the FBI are known as the: a. Uniform Crime Statistics. b. National Crime Victimization Survey. c. Sourcebook of Criminal Justice Statistics. d. Uniform Crime Reports.

d. Uniform Crime Reports.

A judgment rendered on the petition filed with the juvenile court by others is called a(n): a. verdict. b. sentence. c. disposition. d. adjudication.

d. adjudication

A gang leader is arrested for assaulting members of a rival gang. The juvenile judge is likely to view gang leadership as a(n): a. positive indication of one's communicative skills. b. indicator of one's rehabilitative potential. c. mitigating circumstance. d. aggravating circumstance.

d. aggravating circumstance.

Depending on the jurisdiction, the Barker balancing test establishes time standards between: a. arrest and initial appearance. b. initial appearance and arraignment. c. arraignment and trial. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

Evidence indicates that female juveniles are entering the juvenile justice system: a. at younger ages. b. in increased numbers. c. for more violent offenses. d. all of the above.

d. all of the above.

Boot camps are also known as the: a. treatment model. b. rehabilitation model. c. reintegration model. d. army model.

d. army model.

The informal nature of intake proceedings highlights the fact that these proceedings have as their primary issue the: a. constitutional rights of youths. b. incarceration of youthful offenders. c. matter of career escalation. d. best interest of the juvenile.

d. best interest of the juvenile.

Those juveniles who have the greatest chance of becoming career adult offenders are those labeled as: a. first offenders. b. second degree offenders. c. primary offenders. d. chronic offenders.

d. chronic offenders.

Police activities designed to enhance public relations with the community is known as: a. proactive policing. b. reactive policing. c. discretionary policing. d. community policing.

d. community policing.

Extending the prosecutor's role beyond prosecuting criminal and delinquency cases is referred to as: a. community policing. b. community intervention. c. community deferral. d. community prosecution.

d. community prosecution.

With the deinstitutionalization of status offenders (DSO), status offenders: a. have been completely removed from the juvenile justice system. b. automatically fall within the adult criminal court system. c. are outside the jurisdiction of the juvenile court system. d. continue to filter into the juvenile justice system.

d. continue to filter into the juvenile justice system.

Youths in need of social service intervention, supervision, or placement due to circumstances in their home or families beyond their control are known as: a. delinquents. b. status offenders. c. abused children. d. dependent and neglected children.

d. dependent and neglected children.

The idea that a single event or factor is responsible for a large amount of delinquent behavior is characteristic of: a. classical theory. b. sociobiology. c. XYY theory. d. determinism.

d. determinism.

The landmark U.S. Supreme Court case of Breed v. Jones dealt with the issue of: a. trial by jury. b. right to counsel. c. right to confront accuser. d. double jeopardy.

d. double jeopardy.

The goal of actuarial justice is: a. rehabilitation of juvenile offenders. b. individualized treatment of juvenile offenders. c. effective punishment of offenders. d. efficient processing of juvenile offenders.

d. efficient processing of juvenile offenders.

Generally, when youths turn 18 years of age, they are deemed to be: a. free. b. self-supporting. c. self-sufficient. d. emancipated.

d. emancipated.

Juveniles who might be over penalized by being locked up on the basis of predictions made about their likelihood of committing new crimes and who never commit new crimes are: a. false negatives. b. negatives. c. positives. d. false positives.

d. false positives.

Diversion works best for: a. chronic recidivists. b. psychologically disturbed youths. c. sex offenders. d. first offenders.

d. first offenders.

Outcome-focused probation measures: a. the number of juveniles placed on probation. b. focus on probation officer workloads. c. emphasizes the need for more probation. d. focus on achievement of probation goals.

d. focus on achievement of probation goals.

The increasing amount of juvenile violence, including homicide, is linked to: a. family violence. b. sexual abuse. c. hostility toward authority. d. gang membership.

d. gang membership.

Delinquency which occurs but is neither detected by nor reported to police is known as a. uncovered delinquency. b. unreported delinquency. c. concealed delinquency. d. hidden delinquency.

d. hidden delinquency.

Incriminating evidence is designated as: a. exculpatory. b. extralegal. c. nonlegal. d. inculpatory.

d. inculpatory.

According to the Concentric Zone hypothesis, the area closest to the city center is known as the: a. zone of concentration. b. concentric zone. c. zone of interaction. d. interstitial area.

d. interstitial area.

Action taken by states and encouraged by the federal government designed to avoid holding juveniles in adult jails is known as the: a. status offender project. b. juvenile jail alternative. c. alternative offender program. d. jail removal initiative.

d. jail removal initiative.

Jury trials for juveniles are permitted in: a. all states. b. the majority of states. c. more than one-fourth of all states. d. less than one-fourth of all states.

d. less than one-fourth of all states.

Regarding actions taken by intake officers during intake hearings, intake officers often: a. hear legal arguments. b. evaluate the sufficiency of evidence against the accused. c. adjudicate juveniles. d. make adjustments.

d. make adjustments.

A factor which lessens the severity of one's offense is called a(n): a. random factor. b. objective factor. c. complicating factor. d. mitigating factor.

d. mitigating factor.

Kent v. United States is regarded as the first significant: a. recognition of juvenile court powers. b. approval of criminal court processing of juvenile offenders. c. use of probation for juvenile offenders. d. modern-day juvenile rights case.

d. modern-day juvenile rights case.

Increased rights and emphasis on due process for juveniles has resulted in: a. reduced police officer discretion. b. lessened prosecutorial discretion in referrals to adult criminal court. c. reduction of juvenile court jury trials. d. more care by prosecutors when charging juveniles with certain offenses.

d. more care by prosecutors when charging juveniles with certain offenses.

Juvenile probation camps show lower recidivism rates for: a. all juveniles. b. female juveniles. c. younger juveniles. d. older juveniles.

d. older juveniles.

Police discretion is most often exercised during: a. criminal investigations. b. nighttime hours. c. criminal complaints. d. patrol.

d. patrol.

An official document filed in juvenile court on behalf of a juvenile that brings charges against the juvenile and asks the court to hear the case is known as a(n): a. complaint. b. warrant. c. booking. d. petition.

d. petition.

The authority to hold juveniles suspects without bail before trial if they are deemed likely to flee from the jurisdiction or pose a serious risk to others is known as: a. incarceration. b. imprisonment. c. juvenile court discretion. d. preventive detention.

d. preventive detention.

The standard of proof in juvenile court proceedings where a juvenile's loss of freedom is a possibility is: a. clear and convincing evidence. b. weighty evidence. c. preponderance of the evidence. d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

d. proof beyond a reasonable doubt.

Based on the case of New Jersey v. T.L.O., school officials can search students and their property on school grounds so long as they have: a. probable cause. b. proof beyond a reasonable doubt. c. suspicion. d. reasonable suspicion.

d. reasonable suspicion.

A commonly-used measurement of program effectiveness in juvenile offender treatment and sanctioning strategies is: a. probation. b. parole. c. incarceration. d. recidivism.

d. recidivism.

Offenders who commit new crimes or delinquent acts after having been convicted or adjudicated are known as: a. repeat offenders. b. felons. c. delinquents. d. recidivists.

d. recidivists.

Curfew laws have been enacted in many U.S. cities in an effort to: a. keep youths home and families together. b. protect juveniles from street criminals. c. allow police to focus on serious crime. d. reduce the incidence of juvenile crime.

d. reduce the incidence of juvenile crime.

The largest proportion of violent crimes for which juveniles were arrested in 2008 was for: a. sexual assault. b. property crimes. c. arson. d. robbery.

d. robbery.

Youths who loiter on street corners are potential candidates for being stopped and questioned by police officers. In these instances, police action is based upon: a. probable cause, since loitering usually precedes criminal activity. b. reasonable suspicion, since police officers know when crimes involving juveniles are about to happen. c. clear and convincing evidence, since loitering is a status offense. d. situationally-based discretion.

d. situationally-based discretion.

Of all dispositions available for juvenile court judges to impose, the most commonly used is: a. incarceration. b. parole. c. restitution. d. standard probation.

d. standard probation.

The social process where juveniles are deemed undesirable or deviant because of multiple court appearances or incarcerations is known as: a. delinquency. b. criminality. c. deviance. d. stigmatization.

d. stigmatization.

A finding that the facts alleged in a petition are true is referred to as a: a. proof of guilt. b. sustained waiver. c. proven disposition. d. sustained petition.

d. sustained petition.

The use of electronic monitoring devices to track an offender's whereabouts is known as: a. bugging. b. wiretapping. c. trailing. d. tagging.

d. tagging.

In 2007, female delinquents transferred to criminal court accounted for about: a. one percent of all cases. b. two percent of all cases. c. five percent of all cases. d. ten percent of all cases.

d. ten percent of all cases.

Most recent statistics show that juvenile offenders most likely to be transferred to adult criminal court are: a. those who commit public order offenses. b. those who commit property crimes. c. those who commit drug crimes. d. those who commit violent crimes.

d. those who commit violent crimes.

Waivers from juvenile court jurisdiction to criminal court jurisdiction are also known as: a. adjudications. b. dispositions. c. sentences. d. transfers.

d. transfers.

Statements prepared by crime victims that address the impact of the offender's conduct on the victim are referred to as: a. predisposition reports. b. presentence investigations. c. victim consequence statements. d. victim-impact statements.

d. victim-impact statements.

In an effort to reduce recidivism for those juveniles placed on probation: a. policy should drive research. b. restitution and community service should be eliminated. c. character building is relative so should be deemphasized. d. violence prevention should be a priority.

d. violence prevention should be a priority.

In the peer jury model: a. a youth judge presides. b. an adult jury hears the case. c. a jury decision must be approved by the judge. d. youths serve as prosecutors.

d. youths serve as prosecutors.