KA Missed Questions

An adult must have symptoms of persistent depressive disorder for what length of time in order to meet DSM 5555 criteria and receive a diagnosis? Please choose from one of the following options. • Two years • Six months • One year •

A

In terms of their electrical activity, how do motor neurons produce more forceful muscle contractions, relative to weaker muscle contractions? Please choose from one of the following options. • Increasing action potential firing rate • Increasing the duration of nerve cell potassium channel activity • Increasing the duration of voltage gated sodium channel activity • Increasing action potential amplitude

A

In which direction(s) is the mRNA strand read during translation? Please choose from one of the following options. • 5′→3′ • Either 5′→3′ or 3′→5′ • Both 5′→3′ and 3′→5′ • 3′→5′

A

The basilar membrane has thousands of hair cells that are each sensitive to sound waves of a particular frequency, how does this contribute to the ability to discriminate between different sounds? A tonotypical map on the primary auditory cortex preserves the frequency discrimination at the level of the basilar membrane. • A topographical map on the primary auditory cortex preserves the frequency discrimination at the level of the basilar membrane. • A tonotypical map on the secondary auditory cortex preserves the frequency discrimination at the level of the basilar membrane. • A topographical map on the secondary auditory cortex preserves the frequency discrimination at the level of the basilar membrane.

A tonotypical map on the primary auditory cortex preserves the frequency discrimination at the level of the basilar membrane

The hippocampus of a rat experiencing severe PTSD would be expected to display which finding? Please choose from one of the following options. • Decreased glucocorticoid receptors • Increased mass • Decreased rate of apoptosis • Increased volume

A; According to the passage, PTSD is associated with hippocampal atrophy. Hint #22 / 3 Atrophy is associated with a decrease in size and function. Hint #33 / 3 The hippocampus normally has a lot of glucocorticoid receptors. Atrophy of the hippocampus would be associated with decreased glucocorticoid receptors.

Peripheral neuropathy is the most common type of diabetic neuropathy, but some patients also experience autonomic neuropathy. Which of the following symptoms is associated with autonomic neuropathy? Please choose from one of the following options. • Sharp decreases in blood pressure when standing • Flat affect • Loss of feeling in arms • Inability to focus the eye

A; Autonomic neuropathy does not impact a person's affective state. Hint #22 / 4 Loss of feeling in arms is associated with peripheral nerve damage, or peripheral neuropathy. Hint #33 / 4 Inability to focus the eye is associated with focal neuropathy, or damage to one specific nerve. Hint #44 / 4 Autonomic neuropathy affects the autonomic nervous system; it affects heart and blood vessels, the urinary tract, sex organs, sweat glands, the eyes, and lungs.

When the sodium-potassium pump is inhibited in the cultured neurons, they fire a train of action potentials, which stops spontaneously, and then the neurons cannot be stimulated into firing any more action potentials. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this? Please choose from one of the following options. • Depolarization • Increased intracellular potassium • Decreased intracellular sodium • Hyperpolarization

A; Failure of the sodium-potassium pump would increase the intracellular concentration of sodium ions. Hint #22 / 3 Failure of the sodium-potassium pump would decrease the intracellular concentration of potassium ions. Hint #33 / 3 Failure of the sodium-potassium pump would depolarize the neuron from loss of the potassium and sodium concentration gradients.

Which nonvolatile compound if dissolved in 1 liter of water would have the lowest freezing point? Please choose from one of the following options. • 95grams ofMgCl2 • 58 grams of NaCl, • They all will have the same freezing point • 180 grams of glucose (C6H12O6

A; The solution which contains the most dissolved particles will have the lowest freezing point. Glucose doesn't dissolve into ions

A pinhole occluder is an opaque disk with a very small aperture; patients can look through it and temporarily negate their myopia. Why would peering through a very small hole have this effect? Please choose from one of the following options. • The pinhole would help to focus more light as it enters the eye from the outer parts of the lens • The pinhole only allows light to pass through the center of the eye's lens, and no refraction is needed • The pinhole helps to disperse light as it passes through to properly focus it on the retina • The pinhole causes diffraction as light passes through it, which spread the light over the retina for a better image

B

Which of the following terms best describes the design of this study? Please choose from one of the following options. • Randomized experiment • Within-subjects experiment • Between-subjects experiment • Natural experiment

B; A natural experiment would have experimental conditions that are found in nature, or that aren't created by the experimenter. Hint #22 / 3 Between subjects experiments assign participants to one (and only one) experimental condition. Hint #33 / 3 Within subjects experiments expose participants to every experimental condition, as was done in this experiment.

Which hormone or protein will likely be present in similar levels in both groups of mice shown in Figure 1? Please choose from one of the following options. • Angiotensin 1 • Angiotensin converting enzyme • Angiotensin 2 • Angiotensinogen

B; Consider the mechanism of action of renin. Hint #22 / 3 Renin directly acts to cleave angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin I. Hint #33 / 3 A steady level of angiotensin converting enzyme is always available and it is unrelated to the levels of renin.

From the table provided in the passage, which radioisotope is best used to target and destroy large homogeneous tumors? Please choose from one of the following options. • Bismuth-213 • Yttrium-90 • Actinium-225 • Copper-67

B; In order to eradicate a large homogenous tumor, a radioisotope needs to emit a particle is able to penetrate through the tumor. Hint #22 / 4 Beta particles are far more penetrating than alpha particles, so a radioisotope that is a beta emitter would be preferred. Hint #33 / 4 A radioisotope with a large emission energy will emit a particle that has a long range of action. Hint #44 / 4 Yttirum-90 has the highest emission energy from the choices provided in the question, therefore it will be the most useful in targeting and destroying large homogeneous tumors.

Many researchers have viewed socioeconomic status (SES) as a "confounder" of the relationship between race and mental health disorders. Which statement is NOT a part of this idea? Please choose from one of the following options. • SES is correlated with mental health disorders. • There may not be a true association between race and mental health disorders if we observe SES. • SES is part of the causal pathway by which race affects health. • SES is correlated with race.

C; A confounding variable (confounder) is an extraneous variable that correlates with both the dependent variable and the independent variable. Hint #22 / 3 A perceived relationship between an independent variable (race) and a dependent variable (health) that has been misestimated due to the failure to account for a confounding factor. Hint #33 / 3 Not observing the confounder SES may create a "misleading" (spurious) association between race and health. environment, and that acquisition is a mix of social and biological factors.

Which cell type most likely removes damaged myelin in multiple sclerosis? Please choose from one of the following options. • Astrocytes • Oligodendrocytes • Microglia • Ependyma

C; The ependyma is a leaky barrier composed of ependymal cells between the cerebrospinal fluid and the interstitial fluid of the central nervous system. Hint #22 / 3 Oligodendrocytes form the myelin sheath around axons of neurons in the central nervous system. Hint #33 / 3 Microglia phagocytose debris in the central nervous system, therefore they most likely remove damaged myelin in multiple sclerosis.

What is the most superficial layer of skin that tattoo pigment is most likely to remain embedded in the long-term? Please choose from one of the following options. • Stratum lucidum • Hypodermis • Papillary dermis • Stratum spinosum

C; The papillary dermis of the skin undergo constant replacement of cells from deeper layers. Hint #22 / 3 Getting a tattoo is painful... the papillary dermis contains nerve fibers that perceive pain. Hint #33 / 3 Tattoo pigment is commonly concentrated in the papillary dermis just below the dermal-epidermal junction.

What is the function of adenylyl cyclase? Please choose from one of the following options. • Convert ATP to ADP • Convert ADP to AMP • Convert ATP to cAMP • Convert ADP to cAMP

Convert ATP to cAMP

Which of the following causes likely describes the origin of the force that pushes objects towards the center of the trap? Please choose from one of the following options. • Heating of the bead resulting in a thermal gradient force • Magnetic forces arising from currents induced in the bead by the light • Light impinging on the bead inducing a net charge, on which the electric field in the light then acts • Recoil due to the momentum of photons exiting the transparent material

D

What is the most characteristic effect of the hormone Vasopressin? Please choose from one of the following options. • Low blood pressure • Polyuria • Polydipsia • Increased circulating fluid volume

D; Another name for Vasopressin is ADH (Anti-diuretic hormone) Hint #22 / 3 By preventing diuresis, vasopressin enables the retention of water in the body. Hint #33 / 3 Vasopressin is also known as ADH or Anti-Diuretic Hormone; it acts to increase water retention by the kidneys and to increase peripheral vasoconstriction.

The coefficient of kinetic friction, μk, for dry bone on bone is 0.3. According to the passage, by what factor does the synovial fluid reduce the coefficient of friction? Please choose from one of the following options. • 30 • 1000 • 300 • 100

D; The coefficient of kinetic friction, μk, for dry bone on bone is 0.3. Hint #22 / 3 The coefficient of kinetic friction, μk, for a synovial joint is 0.003. This value was provided in the passage. Hint #33 / 3 Divide these two numbers to calculate the answer: 0.3 / 0.003 =100

Based on the indices of refractive provided in Table 1, where does most of the refraction of light occur in the eye? Please choose from one of the following options. • Lens - Vitreous Humor interface • Cornea - Aqueous Humor interface • Aqueous Humor - Lens interface • Air - Cornea interface

D; it had the greatest DIFFERENCE in the the n values of refraction (the indices of refraction)

Cochlear implants do not contain which of the following? Microphone • Electro-tympanic array • Electrode array • Receiving coil

Electro-tympanic array

Which of the following is least likely to be associated with Amelie's phantom limb pain? Substance P • Epinephrine • GABA • Glutamate

Epinephrine

What would happen to the reaction free energy value shown in the passage if the L-Lactate forming reaction were to occur without an enzyme? Please choose from one of the following options. • It would not change. • It would increase. • It would decrease. • There is not enough information available to answer the question.

It would not change. Enzymes increase the rate of a reaction. Hint #22 / 3 Enzymes do not change the thermodynamic properties of a reaction. Hint #33 / 3 Enzymes will not change the free energy of a reaction.

What is the most likely function of phosphorylated Protein Y? Please choose from one of the following options. • Membrane channel • Antibody • Phosphatase • Hormone receptor

Membrane Channel Hormone A binds to Protein X to induce a response. Hint #22 / 3 The response is that Protein X phosphorylates Protein Y. Hint #33 / 3 Phosphorylated Protein Y results in the efflux of Cl- from the cell, thus it is likely a membrane channel protein.

Multiple sclerosis most likely involves antigen presentation to immune cells. Which cell type is the primary antigen-presenting cell of the central nervous system? Please choose from one of the following options. • Microglia • Neurons • Oligodendrocytes • Astrocytes

Microglia

What type of test is typically the first used to diagnose a patient with cystic fibrosis? Muscle coordination test • MRI scan for clogged lungs • Salty sweat test • Abnormal urine test

Salty Sweat Test

Somatosensation is the ability to perceive sensations through the body surface. Which of the following statements is LEAST accurate regarding somatosensation? Mechanoception works in conjunction with proprioception to produce the sensation of our body's position in space. • Somatosensation relies on the sensory and motor cortex to produce sensation. • Mechanoception, thermoception, nociception and proprioception are categories within somatosensation. • Nociception and thermoception utilize similar receptors in response to environmental stimuli.

Somatosensation relies on the sensory and motor cortex to produce sensation.

Which of the following brain areas registers which part of Amelie's body is in pain and how intense her pain is? Somatosensory cortex • Thalamus • Anterior cingulate cortex • Periaqueductal gray

Somatosensory cortex

What is the role of acetylcholine in calcium release? Please choose from one of the following options. • Stimulates cellular contraction by opening voltage-gated ion channels • Stimulates postsynaptic acetylcholine receptors to release intracellular calcium • Binds to sarcoplasmic reticulum, causing calcium release • Binds to the sarcolemma, causing calcium release

Stimulates cellular contraction by opening voltage-gated ion channels (doesn't itself release calcium why 2nd one is wrong)

If histone X were to be methylated, the expression of gene Y would be increased. If gene Y codes for protein Z, what would happen to the levels of protein Z if the concentration of SAM were to decrease? Please choose from one of the following options. • The concentration of protein Z would increase, as the expression of gene Y is decreasing. • The concentration of protein Z would decrease, as the expression of gene Y is decreasing. • The concentration of protein Z would increase, as the expression of gene Y is increasing. • The concentration of protein Z would decrease, as the expression of gene Y is increasing.

The concentration of protein Z would decrease, as the expression of gene Y is decreasing. Decreasing the concentration of SAM will decrease the amount that histone X will be methylated. Hint #22 / 3 The methylation of histone X will lead to increase expression of gene Y and synthesis of protein Z Hint #33 / 3 With a lower concentration of SAM, histone X will be less methylated, leading to a decrease in expression of gene Y and synthesis of protein Z.

John is a 25-year old male physician who is trying to improve his fitness levels and increase his muscular strength. He hires Ariel (a personal trainer whom he is very attracted to) to coach him for two mornings each week, and completes two workouts on his own in the evenings. When he looks through his notes on his progress, he notices that when he works out with Ariel he lifts heavier weights than when he works out on his own. He thinks that his performance with Ariel could be related to increased testosterone. How could bias related to short-term maturation effects explain John's changes in strength? Please choose from one of the following options. • The natural variations in John's testosterone levels correspond with the times that he works out with Ariel, which could temporarily increase strength. • Ariel's expectations of John's ability and masculinity affect how she observes his muscular strength and writes about his progress. • John is attracted to Ariel, wants to impress her, and believes that she wants him to lift heavier weights, which temporarily increases testosterone and observed strength. • Repeated testing of John's strength leads to extreme measurements when he works out with Ariel, but these measurements become more normal over time.

The natural variations in John's testosterone levels correspond with the times that he works out with Ariel, which could temporarily increase strength. Short-term maturation effects are physiological changes that can affect outcome measurements. Hint #22 / 4 Repeated testing that leads to extreme measurements becoming more normal is called regression toward the mean. Hint #33 / 4 Ariel and John's beliefs about John's strength could both be classified as expectancy effects. Hint #44 / 4 John works out with Ariel in the morning, which is when his testosterone naturally peaks. This could be a short-term maturation effect that could explain John's increases in strength.

What is one potential problem with the design of this follow-up experiment? Please choose from one of the following options. • Since the experiment has more than two groups, the experimenter cannot make accurate comparisons. • The first two groups did not replicate the findings of the previous study. • The new group has two components that vary from the other groups. • There are ceiling effects, which may invalidate the experiment.

The new group has two components that vary from the other groups

Individual stereocilia are connected to one another by which structure? Tip link Islet Cells Kinocilium Coiled Coil

Tip link

Patient J was originally diagnosed with global aphasia. After he has been in the clinic a few weeks, however, the staff notices that his speech is becoming more fluent, even though the words he puts together don't make sense. What is Patient J's disorder most likely to be reclassified as? Please choose from one of the following options. • Anomia • Wernicke's aphasia • Conduction aphasia • Broca's aphasia

Wernicke's Area There was no information about the patient's ability to name objects, so it is unlikely to be anomia. Hint #22 / 3 Broca's aphasia involves damage to the language production center of the brain. Hint #33 / 3 People with Wernicke's aphasia produce fluent, but nonsensical, speech.

Many of the patients report feeling significant pain when a light blanket is draped over their legs. Which of the following describes the type of neuron that carries information about sensitivity to pain to the central nervous system? Please choose from one of the following options. • Proximal neuron • Lower motor neuron • Efferent neuron • Afferent neuron

afferent neuron

Above is a schematic of a fiber optic cable, which maintains total internal reflection throughout the length of the cable. The index of refraction of the cladding of a cable is generally 1.52, while the core has an index of refraction of 1.62. Choosing from the list below, what is the smallest angle of incidence light could have to enter from the acceptance cone that would be able to 'escape' the fiber optic cable? Please choose from one of the following options. • 60° • 30° • 45° • 80°

30; Note that the angle of incidence is found by subtracting the angle made with the surface from the normal, and note how this is different from what the question is asking for. Hint #22 / 3 Use Snell's law to find the angle of incidence, since it is in a vacuum, n1_11start subscript, 1, end subscript = 1. sinθ1_11start subscript, 1, end subscript / sinθ2_22start subscript, 2, end subscript = n2_22start subscript, 2, end subscript/n1_11start subscript, 1, end subscript We are trying to find θ1_11start subscript, 1, end subscript Therefore: 1 sinθ1_11start subscript, 1, end subscript = (√3/√2) sin 45 sin θ = (√3) / 2 θ= 60 Hint #33 / 3 Don't let that answer fool you! That is simply our angle of incidence! Since our angle of incidence is measured from the normal of the surface, this means that the angle between the ray and the surface of the prism must be 30° (90-60=30)

ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure: how? Please choose from one of the following options. • Inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme, which disrupts the production angiotensin 2 from angiotensin 1 • Inhibit angiotensin converting enzyme, which disrupts the production of angiotensin 1 from angiotensin 2 • Inhibit renin, which disrupts the production of angiotensin 1 from angiotensinogen • Inhibit renin, which disrupts the production angiotensin 2 from angiotensinogen

A

According to the Hierarchy of Needs theory, what need is Annie probably trying to fulfill by having a baby? Please choose from one of the following options. • Belonging needs • Self-actualization needs • Physiological needs • Esteem needs

A

If the level of LH were low, what would be prompted to occur? Please choose from one of the following options. • Estrogen would stimulate the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus • Positive feedback of LH on progesterone • LH release into the bloodstream • Negative feedback of progesterone on estrogen secretion

A

Where in the mature erythrocyte are hemoglobin molecules located? Please choose from one of the following options. • The cytoplasm • Closely associated with mitochondria • The nucleus • All of the above

A

Which of the following correctly pairs the site of secretion to the site of action for antidiuretic hormone (ADH)? Please choose from one of the following options. • Posterior pituitary → collecting duct • Anterior pituitary → distal convoluted tubule • Posterior pituitary → loop of Henle • Anterior pituitary → proximal convoluted tubule

A

When a growth factor binds to a receptor, all of the following might occur EXCEPT: Please choose from one of the following options. • The initiation of a complex signal transduction pathway. • Activation or repression of transcription factors. • Activation or inhibition of enzymes in certain pathways. • A covalent bond is formed between the receptor and the growth factor.

A covalent bond is formed between the receptor and the growth factor. this isn't reversible; the process described is

Imagine that antisocial personality disorder has a significant negative correlation with depression. A person with severe depression examines Inkblot A. Based on the information from the passage and in Table 1111, which of the following is most likely to be this person's response? Please choose from one of the following options. • Butterfly • Mask • Angry face • Bird

A negative correlation means that as one characteristic increases, the other decreases. Hint #22 / 5 In this case, higher levels of antisocial personality disorder would be associated with lower levels of depression. Hint #33 / 5 Conversely, severe depression would be associated with low levels of antisocial personality disorder. Hint #44 / 5 Therefore, the response of the individual with severe depression would probably be similar to the individuals without personality disorders from this study. Hint #55 / 5 For inkblot A, the most common response was "butterfly" - therefore, the person with severe depression is most likely to say "butterfly."

Over the entire time interval from when the explosion ends to when the gold particles strike the tissue, which of the following quantities is the smallest? Please choose from one of the following options. • Average speed of the plate • Average speed of the gold nanoparticles • Maximum instantaneous speed of the plate • Maximum instantaneous speed of the gold nanoparticles

A; After the explosion ends, the nanoparticles maintain the same speed until they strike the sample. Hint #22 / 5 Their average speed is thus equal to their maximum instantaneous speed. Hint #33 / 5 The plate has the same initial, maximum instantaneous speed as the nanoparticles. Hint #44 / 5 But the average speed of the plate, including the time after it has stopped at the screen, must be much lower than that of the nanoparticles. Hint #55 / 5 The average speed of the plate is lower than the other three quantities, which are all equal.

How might these findings support linguistic relativity? Please choose from one of the following options. • Profanity, at least in part, evokes negative emotional states. • The linguistic structures and aversions to usage are universal throughout language. • The individual defines taboos in language. • Language expression is a socially learned behavior.

A; Behaviorism requires that language can be acquired through learning. Hint #22 / 3 Noam Chomsky was a nativist who believed that language structures and traits are universal across all human language. Hint #33 / 3 Profanity, at least in part, evokes negative emotional states. This statement supports the theory of linguistic relativity.

Which conclusion about the type and direction of ion flow through the channel is most likely based on the results of the study described in the passage? Please choose from one of the following options. • Inward sodium ion flow • Outward calcium ion flow • Outward sodium ion flow • Inward chloride ion flow

A; Changing the concentration gradient of chloride ions across the membrane did not affect the membrane potential change when the channel opened. In both cases, the membrane potential went from -60mV to -50 mV, so that it is unlikely to be a chloride channel. Hint #22 / 4 Changing the concentration gradient of calcium ions across the membrane did not affect the membrane potential change when the channel opened. In both cases, the membrane potential went from -60 mV to -50 mV, so that it is unlikely to be a calcium channel. Hint #33 / 4 Changing the concentration gradient of sodium ions across the membrane did affect the membrane potential change when the channel opened, so that it is likely to be a sodium channel.

The beta-lactam ring reacts with an active site serine side chain (CH2OH) on PBPs. What kind of chemical reaction would best describe this interaction with the strained ring? Please choose from one of the following options. • Nucleophilic substitution • Anhydride formation • Transesterification • Decarboxylation

A; Decarboxylation would result in the removal of a carboxyl group. Hint #22 / 3 Anhydride formation would require the formation of an ester between two carbonyl groups. Hint #33 / 3 Nucleophilic substitution properly describes the nucleophilic attack of an -OH group onto a carbonyl to create an ester.

Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) indicated that certain brain locations are active when humans perform a specific action as well as when they see other individuals display a similar behavior. What are these brain parts? Inferior frontal cortex and superior parietal lobe Superior frontal cortex and superior occipital lobe Inferior parietal cortex and superior temporal lobe Superior occipital cortex and superior parietal lobe

A; Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) revealed that the human inferior frontal cortex and the superior parietal lobe are stimulated when individuals perform a certain action as well as when they see others exhibit the behavior. The image shows the four lobes of the brain. The locations that are activated are the inferior frontal cortex which is the lower part of the blue area and the superior parietal lobe which is the upper part of the yellow area. These brain regions have been suggested to contain mirror neurons as compared to the other lobes (Lacoboni, et al., 1999). Moreover, neuropsychological studies have verified the causal link between the quality of the inferior frontal gyrus and behaviors related to causing action knowledge, pantomime interpretation, and motion perception insufficiencies.

In what context might an anemic patient's hematocrit and hemoglobin concentration both appear to be normal or elevated? Please choose from one of the following options. • Dehydration • None of the above • Iron deficiency • Increased blood plasma

A; Hematocrit and hemoglobin concentration are expressed in units of X/volume. Hint #22 / 6 By their very nature, hematocrit and hemoglobin concentration are dependent on volume. Hint #33 / 6 An increased blood plasma (blood volume), while Hct and total Hgb remain constant, would yield lower values for these measures. That is, increasing the denominator of the measures, and with a constant numerator, the overall value decreases. Hint #44 / 6 In the context of dehydration, plasma volume would be decreased, thus the Hct and Hgb concentration would appear artificially high. That is, they appear high because the volume is decreased, not because there are more red cells or hemoglobin. Hint #55 / 6 If a patient is anemic, they have a decreased red cell mass, due to a decreased hemoglobin and/or decreased red blood cells. Their hematocrit and/or hemoglobin should be low. Hint #66 / 6 An anemic patient's hematocrit and hemoglobin concentration might both appear to be normal or elevated in the context of dehydration.

Which of the following facts does NOT help ensure that antigens are brought to lymph nodes from tissues? Please choose from one of the following options. • There are osmotic interactions between blood and lymph in lymph nodes • In most body tissues, there is a constant flow of lymph into lymphatic vessels • Most lymph in the body passes through a lymph node before draining into blood circulation • Most antigens are too large to go into blood circulation

A; If antigens such as bacteria could easily enter capillaries, then they would spread throughout the body very quickly. Hint #22 / 3 Most capillaries in the body have small holes that enable fluid to come out. Since there is always blood pressure in these capillaries, fluid is certain to escape, which ensures a steady flow of lymph. Hint #33 / 3 The lymphatic system serves as a kind of filter for the tissues of the body. There is a constant flow of fluid out of the blood vessels, into the extracellular spaces. From there, fluid has nowhere to go but lymphatic vessels. These lymphatic vessels all lead to lymph nodes, which serve as filters. Macrophages and other cells remove bacteria and debris before allowing the lymph to continue onwards, and eventually drain back into blood circulation. Blood vessels present in the lymph nodes are not an important part of this filtering system.

Which statement would support the hypothesis that reciprocal help is determined independent of kin discrimination? Please choose from one of the following options. • Food previously received was much more predictive than relatedness. • Each fasted bat was fed by three donors. • Allogrooming received from food recipients was statistically significant. • Familiarity between dyads produced indiscriminate altruism.

A; It is not apparent in the passage that any of the donors were related. Hint #22 / 4 While familiarity may have influenced the amount of food donated/received both donors and recipients were observed rejecting food sharing. Food sharing was not indiscriminate. Hint #33 / 4 It is not apparent from the passage whether allogrooming between food recipients was also between family members. Hint #44 / 4 Food previously received was much more predictive than relatedness.

The destruction of which level of motor neuron produces the exaggerated deep tendon reflex observed in ALS? Why? Please choose from one of the following options. • UMN, because of a loss of feedback to modulate the spinal reflex arc • LMN, because there would be no efferent signal to the neuromuscular junction • UMN, because gamma motor neurons would not be able to restore muscle spindles to 'on-line' • LMN, because afferent fibers from muscle spindles would have nothing to synapse upon in the ventral horn

A; Loss of lower motor neurons would result in an inability to generate potentials at the NMJ, and therefore an inability to induce muscle contraction. Hint #22 / 4 Spinal reflex arcs consist primarily of a primary afferent Ia nerve (sensory) from muscle spindles, which synapse on alpha motor neurons in the ventral horn (LMN). This single synaptic system is responsible for the "stretch reflex". Hint #33 / 4 This reflex is normally modulated and limited by neural input from the brain. Hint #44 / 4 The destruction of upper motor neurons produces the exaggerated deep tendon reflex observed in ALS, because of a loss of feedback to modulate the spinal reflex arc.

What is a probable explanation for why NRTIs do not have a severe impact on normal, human host DNA synthesis? Please choose from one of the following options. • Human cells have several mechanisms for recognizing and correcting mistakes in DNA synthesis • Human cells do not have reverse transcriptase, therefore there is nothing for the NRTI to bind to • NRTIs are analogs of compounds that are normally found in human cells, and may be used interchangeably with no consequence • NRTIs only bind to human reverse transcriptase in an allosteric manner and only have a minimal effect on DNA synthesis

A; NRTIs do not bind to reverse transcriptase. They inhibit its function indirectly (see the passage). Hint #22 / 4 NRTIs are not identical to normal human nucleotides. The lack of a 3' hydroxyl group prevents bond formation in the same way in human DNA synthesis as viral DNA synthesis. Hint #33 / 4 Reverse transcriptase has no means of recognizing or correcting mistakes in transcription. When an NRTI is incorporated into the growing DNA strand, it cannot fix the error, and the chain is terminated. Hint #44 / 4 Human cells have several mechanisms for recognizing and correcting mistakes in DNA synthesis.

One smoker from the twelve step treatment stated that while he was in the program he was influenced by the sobriety of those around him and felt he had to comply with the no smoking standards, but once the group was over he started smoking again, because he really didn't believe smoking was hurting him or that quitting completely was the right decision. What likely influenced his decision to start smoking again? Please choose from one of the following options. • Subjective norms • Perceived behavioral control • Classical conditioning • Normative beliefs

A; Normative beliefs, or a smoker's perception of social normative pressures not to smoke, probably led to his cessation while in the program. Hint #22 / 3 Perceived behavioral control, or how easy or difficult a person believes quitting smoking will be, was not mentioned as a factor in the smoker's decision to quit or to start smoking again. Hint #33 / 3 In this case, subjective norms are a smoker's perception about smoking - because he didn't believe quitting completely was important, he began smoking again.

Based on Annie's stress test results, her gynecologist suggests making significant changes to her day to day life. She tells Annie to start practicing meditation and to take frequent light walks throughout the day. Her gynecologist believes in the Yerkes-Dodson law and feels that if Annie is more calm, her ability to conceive will improve. What is Annie's gynecologist trying to promote? Please choose from one of the following options. • An optimum level of arousal • An optimum level of eustress • An optimum level of psychological balance • An optimum level of estrogen

A; Psychological homeostasis is a balance between cognitions and beliefs. Hint #22 / 3 Annie's gynecologist is trying to improve Annie's body's readiness for pregnancy. Hint #33 / 3 Arousal is the extent to which your body is prepared for an activity. If arousal is too high, then a person cannot perform. Annie's doctor is trying to help Annie to become more calm, and find an optimum level of arousal so that she can conceive.

Renin is related to the presence of several hormones that are responsible for increasing blood pressure. Which of the following hormones directly increases blood pressure independent of renin levels? Please choose from one of the following options. • Cortisol • Angiotensin 2 • Antidiuretic hormone • Aldosterone

A; Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to produce angiotensin 1 that will be converted by angiotensin converting enzyme into angiotensin 2. Hint #22 / 3 Angiotensin 2 is directly responsible for the release of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone. Hint #33 / 3 Cortisol is released from the adrenal cortex independent of serum renin levels.

Based on the information in the passage and the associated figures, high utilization of rumination as a coping strategy would correlate with an estimated how many laparoscopic errors? Please choose from one of the following options. • 226-300 • 151-225 • 76-150 • 1-75

A; Rumination is a negative coping strategy. Hint #22 / 3 The question asks you to evaluate the effect of a highly utilized negative coping mechanism on laparoscopic procedure errors. Hint #33 / 3 The figure offers evidence that strong implementation of negative coping mechanisms correlates with high number of errors.

If the researcher in the passage is correct about increased albumin concentration in the interstitial fluid of the brain following focal ischemia, which of the following interactions would most likely be affected? Please choose from one of the following options. • Astrocytes and blood vessels • Schwann cells and axons • Microglia and lymphocytes • Ependyma and cerebrospinal fluid

A; Schwann cells form the myelin sheath around axons of neurons in the peripheral nervous system. Hint #22 / 3 Microglia present antigens to lymphocytes. Hint #33 / 3 Astrocyte end feet surround blood vessels of the central nervous system to contribute to the blood brain barrier.

A biochemical analysis of the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1 in the presence of renin (treatment), as compared to a reaction carried out with renin not present (control), is most likely to produce which of the following experimental observations? Please choose from one of the following options. • A statistically significant (p<0.05) increase in reaction rate, with a statistically insignificant (p=0.08) decrease in delta G • A statistically significant (p<0.05) increase in both reaction rate and delta G • A statistically significant (p<0.05) increase in delta G • A statistically significant (p<0.05) decrease in both reaction rate and delta G

A; Statistical significance (p-value) is the probability that an observed difference in means between the treatment group and the control group is due to random chance Hint #22 / 4 Renin is an enzyme. It catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1. Hint #33 / 4 Enzymes increase reaction rate but do not alter the thermodynamics of a reaction (delta G is a thermodynamic quantity). Hint #44 / 4 The most likely observation is a statistically significant (p<0.05) increase in reaction rate, with a statistically insignificant (p=0.08) decrease in delta G

Which of the following quantities determines the final velocity with which gold nanoparticles will strike the target? I.I.I.I, point The mass of the plate II.II.II.I, I, point The total mass of the nanoparticles III.III.III.I, I, I, point The mass of a single nanoparticle** Please choose from one of the following options. • I and II • II and III • I and III • III only

A; The explosion used to propel the plate and particles imparts a fixed amount of kinetic energy. Hint #22 / 5 The velocity of the plate and particles is determined by their kinetic energy. Hint #33 / 5 After colliding with the screen, the plate stops but the gold nanoparticles retain their impact velocity. Hint #44 / 5 Before the screen strike, the nanoparticles and plate together act as a single mass in the equation. Hint #55 / 5 The final velocity of the gold nanoparticles is determined by their total mass and the mass of the plate.

Concerning the hearing mechanism, which is the primary organ of mechanical to neural transduction? Organ of Corti Cochlea Hair cells Basilar membrane

A; The organ of Corti or the spiral organ is the main organ responsible for mechanical to neural transduction as it is where the conversion occurs. This is also the auditory receptor organ which is situated in the cochlea. Alfonso Giacomo Gaspare Corti, an Italian anatomist, discovered the organ in 1851. The cochlea which literally means "snail shell" is filled with perilymph, which is a liquid that moves in response to sound waves. It receives information through the form of vibrations which cause the stereocilia or hair cells to move. The basilar membrane separates two tubes, the scala media and the scala tympani that run along the cochlea's coil. It is described as a pseudo-resonant structure as it differs in stiffness and width. Its motion is usually interpreted as a traveling wave. Auditory hair cells are situated within the organ of Corti and their damage can influence hearing sensitivity. Unfortunately, human hair cells are incapable of regeneration. This makes the damage irreversible. Studies have shown that outer hair cells do not function as senders of neural signals. Instead, they mechanically amplify minute sound waves.

What additional information is needed to determine the time it takes for an emitted ultrasonic wave to return back to the ultrasonic flow meter? Please choose from one of the following options. • The distance between the transducer and the blood vessel • The velocity of the blood flow • The angle between the transmitted ultrasonic wave and the motion of the red blood cells • The frequency of the ultrasonic wave

A; Time = Distance divided by Velocity Hint #22 / 3 Velocity of the ultrasonic wave is provided in the passage. Hint #33 / 3 Distance between the transducer and the blood vessel is the only missing variable needed to determine the time it takes for an emitted ultrasonic wave to return back to the ultrasonic flow meter. Ultrasonic flowmeter are useful for measuring blood flow velocity, but not blood flow volume.

What is the major difference between classical and operant conditioning? Please choose from one of the following options. • Only operant conditioning directly affects behavior • Operant conditioning works better to deter a response, while classical is better at eliciting one • Only classical conditioning can undergo extinction • Classical conditioning can be generalized to a wide range of responses, while operant conditioning is very specific

A; While it is true that generalization of stimulus is generally thought of as an attribute of classical conditioning, the same phenomenon can occur with operant conditioning. For example, the dog may begin fetching any round object hoping to get a treat, instead of just the ball. Hint #22 / 3 Any learned behavior can be lost if the stimulus / response are unpaired for long enough. A driver who was very careful after getting a speeding ticket may start to speed again as the years go by and he isn't pulled over, so both operant and classical conditioning can undergo extinction. Hint #33 / 3 Classical conditioning ties one stimulus to another, while operant conditioning ties a behavior to a consequence - thus, only operant conditioning directly affects behavior.

According to the information in the passage and figure 1, removal of the pancreas probably occurred between which days? Please choose from one of the following options. • Between day 0 and day 1 • Between day 1 and day 2 • Between day 2 and day 3 • Between day 3 and day 4

A; Without the pancreas' supply of insulin, blood glucose is elevated. Hint #22 / 3 According to the passage, insulin lack is demonstrated by an increase in both serum free fatty acid and acetoacetic acid. Hint #33 / 3 Right before day 1 (between day 0 and day 1), a vertical break appears in all three lines of the graph. This demonstrates the effect of pancreas removal (and subsequent insulin lack) on blood glucose, serum free fatty acids, and circulating acetoacetic acid.

Patient K is unable to name items presented to her, even though she is able to pick them up and use them correctly. What disorder does Patient K most likely have? Please choose from one of the following options. • Broca's aphasia • Agraphia • Anomia • Wernicke's aphasia

Anomia Broca's aphasia involves damage to the language production center of the brain. Hint #22 / 3 Agraphia is the inability to write. Hint #33 / 3 Anomia is the inability to name objects

Spongy bone at the ends of long bones is most important for which function? Please choose from one of the following options. • White blood cell storage • Red blood cell synthesis • Fat storage • Lymph fluid synthesis

B

What distinguishes transcription factors from other gene regulatory proteins? Please choose from one of the following options. • Transcription factors function only in activating transcription of a gene; Other gene regulatory proteins function only in repressing transcription of a gene. • Transcription factors are able to bind directly to DNA; Other gene regulatory proteins cannot bind directly to DNA. • Transcription factors reside permanently in the cell nucleus; Other gene regulatory proteins translocate to the nucleus from the cytoplasm. • Transcription factors cannot bind directly to DNA; Other gene regulatory proteins are able to bind directly to DNA.

B

What is the likely meaning of taboo when used to describe profanity? Please choose from one of the following options. • Profanity is not a morally significant transgression against behavioral standards. • Profanity includes words, that when spoken cause individuals to respond with extreme disgust. • The use of profanity depends on harmony or conformity to a group that results in an irrational decision, to use profanity. • The acceptance of profanity is based on definitions of moral and ethical behavior.

B

When the women were presented with the winning lottery ticket, which part of the nervous system was activated during their expression of excitement? Please choose from one of the following options. • Cerebellum • Sympathetic nervous system • Enteric nervous system • Parasympathetic nervous system

B

Which of the following elements does not help to push lymph forward through lymph vessels? Please choose from one of the following options. • Skeletal muscle contraction • Pressure from the heart • Valves • Smooth muscle contraction

B

Why might the researchers have preferred NOT to do this experiment in a living animal, for instance by measuring blood pressure and lymph protein concentration using in vivo methods? Please choose from one of the following options. • It is unlikely that a large enough sample size could be reached • It would not be possible to change the blood pressure as an independent variable • Most animals have very small fluctuations in blood pressure over the course of a day • It would not be possible to measure the dependent variable

B

Which of these does NOT describe a sensation being attenuated in a forward model? Please choose from one of the following options. • One cannot tickle oneself; the predicted sensation and actual sensory feedback cancel each other. • Passivity experienced when a patient internally generates speech and interprets it as externally caused. • Voluntary arm movements can lower detection thresholds for arm muscle movements caused by electric shocks. • When one moves one's eyes, a copy is used predict object location and is compared to the object's location on the retina to determine the true location.

B; A forward model is likely the reason why one cannot tickle oneself. Hint #22 / 4 A forward model is likely important in the determination of object location when the eyes move. Hint #33 / 4 A forward model is likely attenuating some of the signal from the muscles when electric shocks stimulate the muscles externally. Hint #44 / 4 Passivity experienced when a patient internally generates speech and interprets it as externally caused.

Which of the follow is a true statement regarding the atomic mass of Xenon-131? Please choose from one of the following options. • Xenon-131 weighs more than iodine-131 because it has one less proton • Xenon-131 weighs less than iodine-131 because it has an extra proton • Xenon-131 weighs less than iodine-131 because it has one less proton • Xenon-131 weighs more than iodine-131 become it has an extra proton

B; A proton weighs slightly less than a neutron. Hint #33 / 3 Although xenon-131 and iodine-131 have the same mass number, xenon-131 weighs less than iodine-131 because it has an extra proton.

Retention of water in SIADH can cause hyponatremia by which of the following mechanisms? Please choose from one of the following options. • The intracellular fluid has a larger volume and a reduced absolute amount of sodium. • The extracellular fluid has a larger volume and a reduced concentration of sodium. • The intracellular fluid has a normal volume and a reduced concentration of sodium. • The extracellular fluid has a normal volume and a reduced absolute amount of sodium.

B; ADH directly affects the conditions in the extracellular fluid - specifically the intravascular fluid compartment. Hint #22 / 3 ADH will lead to water retention or a large fluid volume. Hint #33 / 3 A relatively stable amount of sodium in a large volume of fluid will reduce the sodium concentration.

What characteristic of post-mortem lactate levels presents the greatest difficulty in using lactate as an indicator of post-mortem interval? Please choose from one of the following options. • They do not statistically correlate with pH levels. • They do not change in a regular, predictable fashion. • They differ significantly between pig and rat corpses. • They increase more than 5-fold in the first 96 hours post-mortem.

B; All of the answer choices are true statements. You are looking for the reason that prevents lactate from determining post-mortem interval. Hint #22 / 3 Imagine taking a lactate level from a rat corpse and finding that it is ~9mmol/L. This lactate level is consistent with multiple post-mortem intervals (9, 24, 48, 72, and 96 hours), making it impossible to determine how much time has passed since death. Hint #33 / 3 In other words, lactate levels do not change in a regular, predictable fashion. This is the greatest difficulty in using lactate as an indicator of post-mortem interval.

Researchers want to determine whether psychological responses to stress also contributes to risks of mental illness. To test this, a random sample of people with psychiatric disorders are drawn from the ECA and later given a stress evaluation. What is the problem with this research design? Please choose from one of the following options. • The sample should not be random. Those most at risk for psychiatric disorders should be selected. • The dependent variable is temporally prior to the measurement of the independent variable. • Since everyone sampled has a psychiatric disorder, the updated research design contains too little variation to draw reliable conclusions. • The independent variable is temporally prior to the measurement of the dependent variable.

B; Any hypothesized factor must be temporally prior to their assumed effects. Hint #22 / 3 The hypothesized factor here is the "mediating factor of psychological response to stress". Hint #33 / 3 Psychological response to stress (hypothesized factor) was assessed after the outcome of interest (psychiatric disorders), so the dependent variable is temporally prior to the measurement of the independent variable.

In terms of the weight, W, what is the vertical component of the reactive force of the acetabulum acting on the femoral head? Please choose from one of the following options. • 1.65 W • 2.31 W • 0.815 W • 2.43 W

B; Fr sin 77.3° represents the vertical component of the reactive force of the acetabulum acting on the femoral head. Hint #22 / 4 Analyzed the three equations provided in the passage very carefully to determine which one will allow you solve for Fr sin 77.3° in terms of the weight, W. Hint #33 / 4 Use the torque equation and solve for Fr sin 77.3° Hint #44 / 4 ∑ τ = 7 x [Fr sin 77.3° - 2.31W] = 0 ; Fr sin 77.3° - 2.31W = 0; Fr sin 77.3° = 2.31W

What form of transport most appropriately describes the mechanism the fluorescent dye undergoes in the nephron? Please choose from one of the following options. • Passive transport • Active transport • Diffusion • Facilitated diffusion

B; From the passage, what transport process does the fluorescent dye undergo in the nephron? Hint #22 / 3 Is secretion a process that requires energy or can occur passively? Hint #33 / 3 Secretion of the fluorescent dye requires energy in the form of ATP to under active transport into the tubule.

Based on the results in Figure 1, what is the most plausible explanation for the changes in adhesion and friction forces that occur as a result of changes in relative humidity? Please choose from one of the following options. • Capillary bridges are more likely to form at higher relative humidities, creating stronger capillary adhesion forces. • Setal arrays are more deformable at higher relative humidities, creating more contact between setae and surfaces. • The coefficient of friction increases at higher relative humidities, creating stronger friction forces. • Hydrophilic surfaces develop greater ionic character at higher relative humidities, creating stronger adhesion forces.

B; If the coefficient of friction increased, we would only see increases in friction forces. However, Figure 1 shows that both friction forces and adhesive forces increase. Hint #22 / 4 If capillary bridges were more likely to form, we would see a difference in behavior on hydrophilic and hydrophobic surfaces. However, Figure 1 shows a similar increase in forces on both hydrophilic and hydrophobic surfaces. Hint #33 / 4 If only hydrophilic surfaces developed greater ionic character, we would see a difference in behavior on hydrophilic and hydrophobic surfaces. However, Figure 1 shows a similar increase in forces on both hydrophilic and hydrophobic surfaces. Hint #44 / 4 If setal arrays have more contact with surfaces at higher relative humidities, we would expect stronger adhesive forces on all surfaces at higher relative humidities. This is exactly what Figure 1 shows, making this the most plausible explanation.

Gabe regarded her mother's example as an inspiration in her studies and career. This situation best exemplifies Attachment Imitation Looking glass self Reference groups

B; Imitation refers to the replication of another individual's behavior. This is a form of social learning which involves a role model. It is also an important process in child development. Significant actions such as those needed for survival may be learned through imitation. In the passage, Gabe positively regarded her mother and imitated her hardworking behavior. Particularly, children often identify with the same-sex parent, though role models can be anyone whom the child admires. The role model can significantly impact interests, personality, and goals even until adulthood. In Gabe's case, her mother's diligence has been a huge impact from childhood to adulthood.

Melanoma is considered the most fascinating of all skin cancers as it may cause a variety of initial symptoms, many related to metastatic spread rather than its initial growth in the skin. What characteristic is most specific to the primary cell from which melanoma is known to arise? Please choose from one of the following options. • Contains keratinized protein • Most commonly found in the stratum basale • Most commonly found in the stratum granulosum • Most commonly found in the stratum lucidum

B; Melanocytes are cells that are associated with melanoma. Hint #22 / 3 Melanocytes are found in a particular layer of skin. Hint #33 / 3 Melanocytes are most commonly found in the stratum basale.

If a researcher wanted to quantify the genetic influence on temperament looking at genetic variability within a controlled environment, which type of study would be most appropriate? Please choose from one of the following options. • Separated monozygotic twin study • Adoption study • Non-twin sibling study • Monozygotic twin study

B; Monozygotic twins are genetically identical. Hint #22 / 3 Monozygotic twins are genetically identical, and do not allow for genetic variability within a study. The question asks for a study in which behavioral traits of an offspring can be compared with biological and non-biological parents. Hint #33 / 3 Adoption studies allow for comparison of an offspring's behavioral traits with biological and non-biological parents.

Which of the following will NOT contribute to myopia? Please choose from one of the following options. • An increase in the eye's axial length • An increase in the diameter of the pupil • An increase in the curvature of the cornea • An increase in the refractive index of the lens

B; Myopia occurs when the focal length of the eye is less than its axial length. Anything that shortens the eye's focal length or lengthens the eye's axial length will cause myopia. Hint #33 / 4 Increasing the curvature of the cornea and increasing the refractive index of the lens will shorten the eye's focal length. Hint #44 / 4 Increasing the pupil's diameter will increase the the amount of light rays entering the eye. It does not affect the eye's focal length or axial length.

When growth factors are produced in the body, all of the following will occur EXCEPT: Please choose from one of the following options. • The growth factor binds to a specific, complimentary receptor. • The growth factor will enter the target cell. • The growth factor will travel to the target cell. • The growth factor will induce a response.

B; RTKs are the cell membrane receptors that bind growth factors. Hint #22 / 3 RTKs are a type of enzyme-linked receptor that has it's ligand binding site on the extracellular portion of the cell. Hint #33 / 3 Chemical messengers, such as growth factor and other hormones, bind on the extracellular side of a cell to cause a signal transduction process that will induce a response.

Which of the following is an exchange-rational choice perspective of marriage and divorce? Please choose from one of the following options. • As social change erodes the traditional functions of the family, family ties weaken, and the divorce rate increases. • Marriage has declined because, due to the increases in employment opportunities for women, shifts in familial division of labor have occurred, leading to declining returns and efficiency to marriage for both genders, and a reduced interest in investing. • How a culture uses family to organize its society has a huge impact on how that society will react to major economic changes. • Industrialization and urbanization changed marital roles and led to a redefinition of love, marriage, children, and divorce.

B; Rational choice perspectives argue that decisions are made in a marginal-cost and marginal-benefit framework. Hint #22 / 4 In terms of families and marriages, each family member will specialize accordingly to maximize the efficiency of the household. Females are specialized in child-rearing and household labor while men are specialized in market activities. Hint #33 / 4 When employment opportunities increase for women, they can choose to specialize in market activities. Hint #44 / 4 The argument that marriage has declined because, due to the increases in employment opportunities for women, shifts in familial division of labor have occurred, leading to declining returns and efficiency to marriage for both genders, and a reduced interest in investing is a demonstration of the rational-choice perspective.

How does in vivo [H+] in rat blood change during the first 96 hours post-mortem? Please choose from one of the following options. • Increases by approximately 2-fold • Increases by approximately 100-fold • Decreases by approximately 2-fold • Decreases by approximately 100-fold

B; Remember that pH = -log[H+^++start superscript, plus, end superscript]. The lower the pH, the higher the [H+^++start superscript, plus, end superscript], and vice versa. Hint #22 / 3 In the first 96 hours post-mortem, the pH of rat blood falls from ~7.3 to ~5.3. This means pH decreases by about 2 units. Hint #33 / 3

Suppose that, in a mass spectrometer, charged isotopes enter the device with velocities along a direction that is neither perpendicular nor parallel to the magnetic field lines. Which of the following behaviors would result? Please choose from one of the following options. • The isotopes would not be deflected • The isotopes would travel in a corkscrew pattern • The isotopes would travel in elliptical orbits • The isotopes would commence uniform circular motion

B; The Lorentz force law states that the magnitude of the force acting on the isotopes goes as qvBsinθq v B \sin\thetaqvBsinθq, v, B, sine, theta, where θ\thetaθtheta is the angle between the field lines and the velocity. Hint #22 / 4 The velocity of the particle can be written in terms of a component perpendicular to the field, v⊥v_\perpv⊥ and a component along the field line, v∥v_\parallelv∥. Hint #33 / 4 The Lorentz force in the perpendicular direction is thus qv⊥Bq v_\perp Bqv⊥B, but it is zero in the parallel direction. The particle thus only undergoes circular motion in the plane perpendicular to the field line, and it travels inertially along the direction of the field lines. Hint #44 / 4 The charged particle thus traces out a corkscrew trajectory as it moves in the device

In patients with GBS, there is particular concern for the autonomic nervous system. Which nerves are a part of this system? Please choose from one of the following options. • Visceral efferent only • Visceral efferent and afferent • Somatic efferent only • Somatic efferent and afferent

B; The autonomic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" instinct. Hint #22 / 3 The autonomic nervous system regulates heart rate, digestion, and salivation. Hint #33 / 3 Both visceral efferent and visceral afferent nerves must be part of the autonomic nervous system such that it can both affect change and monitor the effects of those changes.

From the titration curve provided in the passage, at which pH does sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3_33start subscript, 3, end subscript) predominate? Please choose from one of the following options. • 6.3 • 8.3 • 10.3 • 12.3

B; The half-equivalence point is the point where exactly one half of the acid has been converted to its conjugate base. This represents the center point of the plateau in the titration curve. Hint #22 / 4 The equivalence point is the point in the titration curve when all of the acid has been neutralized by the strong base. The conjugate base of the weak acid will predominate at this point. Hint #33 / 4 At the first equivalence point, the center of the vertical segment of the titration curve, the concentration of the conjugate base of H2_22start subscript, 2, end subscriptCO3_33start subscript, 3, end subscript is present in the most amount.

An osmolar gap is the difference between the serum osmolality as measured by the freezing point osmometer and the serum osmolality as calculated from the formula in the passage. Normally, the osmolar gap should be less than 10 mOsm/kgmg o fH2O. Which of the following can cause an elevated osmolar gap? Please choose from one of the following options. • Hyperglycemia • Hypertriglyceridemia • Azotemia (high serum urea levels) • Hypernatremia

B; The measured osmolality is obtained from the freezing point depression osmometer, which is determined by the concentration of all of the dissolved solutes in the serum sample. Hint #22 / 4 The calculated osmolality is determined from the concentration of only sodium, glucose, and urea ( the first equation in the passage). Hint #33 / 4 An increase in sodium, glucose, or urea will increase both the measured and the calculated osmolality, and therefore will not cause a net increase in the osmolar gap. Hint #44 / 4 Hypertriglyceridemia, an increase in serum triglycerides, will only increase the measured osmolality, and therefore will cause a net increase in the osmolar gap.

Which of the following has a rate of urinary excretion (units of solute per unit time) that is almost always identical to its rate of glomerular filtration in a healthy adult? Please choose from one of the following options. • Sodium • Creatinine • Glucose • Chloride

B; The rate of urinary excretion should equal the rate of glomerular filtration for molecules that the body does not want to reabsorb under any circumstance (waste products). Hint #22 / 3 Creatinine is a waste product, eliminated by the kidney. Sodium, chloride, and glucose are all molecules that the body may want to eliminate or reabsorb, depending on the situation. Hint #33 / 3 Creatinine has a rate of urinary excretion that is almost always identical to its rate of glomerular filtration in a healthy adult.

Which statement would describe the Universalist view of language development? Please choose from one of the following options. • The Pirahã language's linguistic structure influences the way that the tribe thinks about quantification in their everyday encounters. • The Pirahã language is shaped by human universals but those differences do not affect cognition. • The Pirahã language and the development of their counting system cannot be separated from social context. • The Pirahã language is determined by universal structures, which determine the visualization capacity.

B; Weak linguistic determinism describes language development as influencing the way that knowledge is conceptualized. Hint #22 / 4 Vygotsky believed that knowledge development could not be separated from social contexts. Hint #33 / 4 Universalists believe a small number of universal constructions of language shape human language. Hint #44 / 4 The Pirahã language is shaped by human universals, but those differences do not affect cognition.

Individuals with higher levels of linguistic intelligence are able to learn new languages quickly. Which of the following areas of the brain is least likely to be associated with new language acquisition? Please choose from one of the following options. • Wernicke's area • Arcuate fasciculus • Broca's area • Basal ganglia

Basal Ganglia Wernicke's area and Broca's area are both key for language comprehension and processing. Hint #22 / 3 The arcuate fasciculus connects Wernicke's area and Broca's area. Hint #33 / 3 The basal ganglia is least likely to be involved in second language acquisition.

Why might the individuals from the IP group be able to sense changes in temperature at all? Because changes in temperature causes thermoceptors in the skin to activate, which leads to sensation. • Because changes in temperature cause nociceptors to deactivate, which leads to sensation. • Because changes in temperature cause corresponding changes in pressure, which leads to sensation. • Because changes in temperature cause proprioceptors to activate, which leads to sensation.

Because changes in temperature cause corresponding changes in pressure, which leads to sensation.

A different professor from the psychology department believes that all students have the capacity to be equally intelligent, because students can be trained to learn anything as long as the topic is presented in a certain way. What school of psychology best fits this professor's ideas? Please choose from one of the following options. • Psychoanalysis • Biological psychology • Behaviorism • Humanism

Behaviorism Psychoanalysis emphasizes the importance of internal desires and impulses. Hint #22 / 3 Biological psychology emphasizes the importance of innate skills. Hint #33 / 3 Behaviorism emphasizes the idea that characteristics (like intelligence) are learned and can be shaped specific ways.

As a follow-up study, the researchers interviewed each member of the sorority and asked her opinions regarding her relationships with her sisters and their dynamic when together. When analyzing the data, they found that nearly all of the members expressed a loss of self-awareness when with their sisters and a large degree of impulsivity when in a group together. What best describes this phenomenon? Please choose from one of the following options. • Conformity • Normative influence • Deindividuation • Group polarization

C

If 2-naphthylamine must be metabolized by the liver in order to pass through the dense architecture of cells lining the glomerulus. Which of the following accurately describes the order of cells that are passed as nutrients pass from the bloodstream into Bowman's capsule? Please choose from one of the following options. • epithelial cell → basement membrane → endothelial cell • basement membrane → epithelial cell → endothelial cell • endothelial cell → basement membrane → epithelial cell • endothelial cell → epithelial cell → basement membrane

C

In the study investigating the motivations and meanings behind cohabitation in the passage above, researchers found that there were significant gender differences in what cohabitation represents. Which of the following sociological theory best explains these differences in meaning? Please choose from one of the following options. • Functionalism • Gendered constructivism • Symbolic interactionism • Conflict theory

C

Methylation and histone modifications can occur along segments of deoxyribonucleic acid capable of synthesizing a protein. What is the term for this unit of genetic information? Please choose from one of the following options. • Chromosomes • Gametes • Genes • Genomes

C

What is a masking stimulus? Please choose from one of the following options. • A masking stimulus is shown immediately before a first visual stimulus, which causes an enhancement in the perception the first stimulus. • A masking stimulus is shown simultaneous to another stimulus, which causes a failure to perceive the first stimulus. • A masking stimulus is shown immediately after a first visual stimulus, which causes a failure to perceive the first stimulus. • A masking stimulus is shown seconds after another stimulus, which causes an enhancement in the perception of the first stimulus.

C

What is each concentric layer of bone formed in an osteon is called? Please choose from one of the following options. • Lacunae • Canaliculi • Lamella • Diaphysis

C

Which of the following signaling components are shared by the nervous and endocrine systems? Please choose from one of the following options. • Mechanism of signal propagation • Cell type responsible for signal initiation • Use of the hypothalamus • Latent period immediately following signal release

C

If a serum marker could be injected into an animal model to calculate the GFR, an appropriate control would be a type of molecule that is: Please choose from one of the following options. • Reabsorbed from the ascending limb of the Loop of Henle • Similar to water • Neither reabsorbed or secreted in the Loop of Henle • Secreted into the descending limb of the Loop of Henle

C; A control is a baseline measurement to compare an experiment with. Hint #22 / 3 Water is reabsorbed in several places in the nephron Hint #33 / 3 A molecule that passes through the nephron without being appreciably reabsorbed or secreted would be the best control to compare to the serum marker.

Severe myopia is defined as -6 diopters or worse. What would the minimum focal length of a lens have to be in order to correct for severe myopia? Please choose from one of the following options. • 0.1667 m • 0.1667 cm • -0.1667 m • -0.1667 cm

C; A diopter is defined as the power of a lens when focal length is expressed in meters. Hint #22 / 3 The power of lens is related to focal length via the equation: P = 1/f where P is the power of the lens, and f is the focal length. Hint #33 / 3 Because treatment of myopia requires a diverging lens, power must be negative, and therefore the focal length would also be negative. This means we need a lens with focal length of at least -0.1667m.

One theory of OCD states that individuals are genetically predisposed to develop the disorder, but will not experience symptoms until they have been triggered by some environmental factor like trauma. Which of the following best describes this theory of OCD? Please choose from one of the following options. • Sociocultural model • Diathesis-stress model • Environmental model • Biological model

C; A sociocultural model would focus on the importance of society and culture in causing OCD and defining how it would be deviant behavior. Hint #22 / 3 The model described combines environmental factors (like trauma) and biological factors (like genetics). Hint #33 / 3 A diathesis stress model focuses on how biological predispositions (like genes or other biological traits) interact with environmental factors to result in disease.

Based on the data from Table 1111, if a therapist was interested in harm reduction instead of abstinence, what treatment model would he choose? Please choose from one of the following options. • Twelve step program model • Dissonance program model • Individual stages of change model • Group counseling model

C; Abstinence means a complete cessation of the behavior of interest. Hint #22 / 4 Harm reduction strategies intend to decrease the negative effects of a health behavior. Hint #33 / 4 A harm reduction strategy, in terms of cigarette smoking, might seek to reduce the overall number of cigarettes smoked over time. Hint #44 / 4 The program that reduced overall number of cigarettes over time (but did not require abstinence) used the individual stages of change model.

If an injury causes the gluteal muscle to become severed from the leg, what will happen to the reactive force of the acetabulum on the head of the femur. Please choose from one of the following options. • It will increase to twice it strength • It will decrease to half of its strength • It will be reduced to zero • It will remain unchanged

C; An injury that severs the gluteal muscle implies that the person will no longer be able to apply a force Fm to the greater trochanter of the hip. Hint #22 / 3 Analyzed the three equations provided in the passage very carefully to determine which one will allow you to predict how Fr will respond when Fm is suddenly decreased to zero. Hint #33 / 3 ∑ Fx = Fm cos 71° - Fr cos 77.3° =0; if Fm equals zero then in order to satisfy this equation Fr must also equal zero.

Stupor, confabulation, and confusion are mostly associated with which of the following? Euphoriants Psychedelics Deliriants Dissociatives

C; Deliriants is a term introduced by David Duncan and Robert Gold to differentiate specific hallucinogens from psychedelics and dissociatives. Deliriants which refer to anticholinergic drugs generally produce stupor, confabulation, and confusion effects. Users also exhibit disrobing, plucking, and other regression and phantom behaviors. Some were observed to engage in conversations with imagined people and others were not able to recognize their own reflection. As compared to other drugs, deliriants are not as popular due to its unpleasant effects such as unpleasant hallucinations. Dissociatives are known for their detachment properties. Users feel alienated from their surroundings and from themselves. The usual effects include sensory deprivation, trances, and hallucinations. Psychedelics are primarily associated with cognitive and perceptual changes. The effects are reported to be similar with near-death experiences, dreaming, intense meditation, and religious ecstasy. Stimulants or psychostimulants result to brief improvements or increase in one's mental and/or physical performance. Their boosting effects decrease appetite, improve focus, and elevate moods.

The pure, isolated EBOV genome is transcribed immediately after entering the host cell. Considering the products of this transcription, the pure, isolated EBOV genome is analogous to what molecule? Please choose from one of the following options. • mRNA • Plasmid DNA • Antisense DNA strand • tRNA strand

C; EBOV is a negative sense RNA virus, which means it must first transcribe it's genome before protein synthesis can begin. Hint #22 / 6 Negative sense RNA viruses have a genome in a 3'→5' orientation, thus a 5'→3' strand is produced from its transcription. Hint #33 / 6 The antisense DNA strand is read and transcribed by RNA polymerase to produce mRNA. Hint #44 / 6 mRNA is produced in a 3'→5' fashion, but the template strand is read in a 5'→3' fashion. Hint #55 / 6 mRNA is analogous to a positive-sense viral genome, and can be read for translation in a 5'→3' fashion.

Which of the following correctly depicts the direction the charge (Q) flows through the circuit i) when the capacitor is charging; ii) when the capacitor is discharging? Please choose from one of the following options. • i) counterclockwise; ii) counterclockwise • i) clockwise; ii) counterclockwise • i) clockwise; ii) clockwise • i) counterclockwise; ii) clockwise

C; Electrons move from the negative terminal of the battery to the positive terminal. Hint #22 / 5 Current is the flow of positive charges, which is opposite to the flow of electrons Hint #33 / 5 The capacitor plates separate and store positive and negative charges. Hint #44 / 5 As shown in the diagram above, the current flows clockwise while the capacitor is charging, and the current also flows clockwise when the capacitor is discharging. The correct answer is i) clockwise; ii) clockwise

Which of the following undergoes similar transport processes as the fluorescent dye in the nephron? Please choose from one of the following options. • Amino acid • Sodium • Urea • Glucose

C; From the passage, what transport process does the fluorescent dye undergo in the nephron? Hint #22 / 3 Glucose and amino acids are essential nutrients that kidneys works hard to reabsorb from the tubules. Which of remaining choices can the body do without? Hint #33 / 3 While urea has some role in mitigating osmotic force in the kidney, it is mainly a waste product that the kidney actively works to secrete into the tubules to remove from the body.

Glabrous skin is least likely to develop basal or squamous cell carcinoma. Why is this likely? Please choose from one of the following options. • Glabrous skin contains few keratinocytes that may undergo oncologic transformation • Glabrous skin contains few melanocytes that may undergo oncologic transformation • Glabrous skin receives UV radiation less commonly than non-glabrous skin • The appendage-rich nature of glabrous skin protect it from UV radiation

C; Glabrous skin is found in particular areas of the body. Hint #22 / 3 Glabrous skin is found mostly on the palms of hands and soles of feet. Hint #33 / 3 Glabrous skin on the palms of hands and soles of feet are less likely to receive UV radiation as they are not commonly exposed to the sunlight.

On the basis of the passage and table, what would you estimate to be the heritability of intelligence? Please choose from one of the following options. • 0.21 - 0.40 • 0.41 - 0.60 • 0.61 - 0.80 • 0.81 - 1.00

C; Heritability is conveyed as a percentage. Hint #22 / 3 Heritability refers to the percentage of trait difference that is attributable to genetic difference. Hint #33 / 3 The passage concludes, "an approximate 70% association of IQ variance with genetic variance". Thus, the answer choice .61-.80 is the correct answer.

Which quantity best represents the pull of fluid from the glomerular capillary into Bowman's capsule? Please choose from one of the following options. • (PB\text{P}_BPBP, start subscript, B, end subscript + πG) • (PB\text{P}_BPBP, start subscript, B, end subscript + πB) • (PG\text{P}_GPGP, start subscript, G, end subscript + πB) • (PG\text{P}_GPGP, start subscript, G, end subscript + πG)

C; Hydrostatic pressure (P) will push fluid out of the space it is in. Hint #22 / 3 Oncotic pressure (π) will pull fluid into the space it is in. Hint #33 / 3 The only formula above that maximizes the push of fluid out of the glomerular capillary (PG\text{P}_GPGP, start subscript, G, end subscript) and the pull of fluid into Bowman's capsule (πB) is (PG\text{P}_GPGP, start subscript, G, end subscript + πB)

When a gecko is clinging motionless to a perfectly vertical surface, which of the following must be true? Please choose from one of the following options. • The normal force on the gecko exceeds the adhesive force. • The force of friction on the gecko is the same magnitude as the adhesive force. • The normal force is the same magnitude as the adhesive force. • The force of friction on the gecko exceeds the adhesive force.

C; If you draw a free-body diagram of the gecko, there will be four forces on the gecko. The four forces are: (1) the force of gravity (downward), (2) the force of friction (upward), (3) the adhesive force (toward the wall), and (4) the normal force (away from the wall). You can't determine the relationship between perpendicular forces based on the information you are given. The force of friction is perpendicular to the adhesive force, so we can't relate these two forces. You can eliminate "The force of friction on the gecko exceeds the adhesive force," and "The force of friction on the gecko is the same magnitude as the adhesive force." If the normal force were greater than the adhesive force, the gecko would accelerate away from the wall; it would no longer be motionless. You can eliminate "The normal force on the gecko exceeds the adhesive force." Since the gecko is motionless, each force is canceled out by an equal and opposite force; the gecko is in equilibrium. Therefore, any forces in opposite directions must have the same magnitude. This means that the normal force must be the same magnitude as the adhesive force.

What Gestalt principle describes the integration of perception and mental imagery manifested in the individual who described the book they were imagining? Please choose from one of the following options. • Law of continuity • Law of proximity • Law of pragnanz • Law of similarity

C; Law of similarity claims that elements that are similar tend to be grouped together. Hint #22 / 4 Law of continuity describes the ability to group units into lines following the smoothest path. Hint #33 / 4 Law of proximity claims that elements viewed as groups if those elements are close together. Hint #44 / 4 Law of pragnanz describes the principle that elements are grouped together if they seem to be a part of a pattern, which is coherent or unified. An imagined title appearing on a book follows such a pattern.

The antidepressant prescribed by John's psychiatrist is classified as a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI). Which of the following accurately describes how an SSRI functions? Please choose from one of the following options. • Inhibits chemicals that remove neurotransmitters in the body • Increases the available amount of neurotransmitters in the brain • Blocks the reabsorption of the neurotransmitter at the cellular level in the brain • Induces brief seizures through the use of electric currents passed through the brain

C; MAO Inhibitors inhibit chemicals that remove neurotransmitters in the body. Hint #22 / 4 Tricyclic antidepressants increase the available amount of neurotransmitters in the brain. Hint #33 / 4 Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) induces brief seizures through the use of electric currents passed through the brain. Hint #44 / 4 Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs) block the reabsorption of serotonin in the brain.

How many times do opioid receptors cross the plasma membrane? Please choose from one of the following options. • Once • Three times • Seven times • Nine times

C; Opioid receptors are a type of g-protein coupled receptors. Hint #22 / 3 G-protein coupled receptors are also known as "seven transmembrane receptors." Hint #33 / 3 The distinguishing structural feature of g-protein coupled receptors is that it is made up of 7 alpha helices that cross our plasma membrane seven times.

If a follow-up study wanted to investigate the effects of social groupings on food insecurity, and how this food insecurity is associated with the likelihood of anxiety disorder, which of the following regarding this combined research design is correct? Please choose from one of the following options. • Anxiety disorder is the independent variable. • Ethnic/social grouping is the dependent variable. • Food insecurity is the mediating variable. • Food insecurity is the dependent variable.

C; Originally, if only examining the effect of social groupings on food insecurity, social groupings would be the independent variable and food insecurity levels would be the dependent variable. Hint #22 / 3 However, the new model in the follow-up study is: social groupings-->food insecurity-->anxiety disorder. Hint #33 / 3 A mediating variable is a variable that attempts to assess the mechanisms underlying in the relationship between an independent and dependent variable. Therefore, food insecurity as a mediating variable would help clarify the relationship between social groupings and anxiety disorder.

Would a person's sense of proprioception be impacted by ALS? Why or why not? Please choose from one of the following options. • Yes, because both central and peripheral motor neurons are affected • No, because both central and peripheral motor neurons are affected • No, because sensory neurons are unaffected • Yes, because the spinal reflex arc would be interrupted

C; Proprioception is the sense of the body's position in space. Hint #22 / 4 ALS does not affect sensory (afferent) nerve cells. Hint #33 / 4 Proprioceptive information is carried by sensory (afferent) nerve cells, independent of spinal reflex arcs and motor neurons. Hint #44 / 4 No, a person's sense of proprioception would not be impacted by ALS, because sensory neurons are unaffected.

Which of the following would most likely be impaired in a patient with damage in a cranial nerve arising from the mesencephalon? Please choose from one of the following options. • Sensory innervation for hearing and balance • Sensory innervation from the eye • Motor innervation of the eye • Motor innervation to the muscles of facial expression

C; Sensory information from the eye travels to the thalamus, then to the cerebral cortex. Hint #22 / 3 The vestibular system sends signals to the cerebellum, thalamus, and spinal cord. Hint #33 / 3 The cranial nerve of the midbrain is the oculomotor nerve, responsible for motor innervation of the eye.

The energy transmitted from a Q-switched laser to the skin causes fracturing of the tattoo pigment which still remains embedded in the skin. Over time, however, the pigment is cleared. Which process best describes how the color eventually disappears from visibility? Please choose from one of the following options. • Cell division and migration of underlying keratinocytes eventually expel the pigment • Fractured pigments are small enough to be removed by phagocytes and eliminated into cutaneous capillaries • Macrophages in the skin will initiate an immunologic response to phagocytose and remove the fractured pigment • Collagen proliferation engulfs the small fragments over time to cause the color to eventually fade from visibility

C; Tattoo pigment sits at a particular area in the skin. Hint #22 / 3 The layer in which tattoo ink sits contains a commonly expressed skin cell. Hint #33 / 3 Macrophages in the dermis engulf smaller tattoo pigments and eliminate them into lymphatic channels.

Which cell type normally maintains homeostasis of the interstitial fluid in the brain, including the concentration of potassium ions? Please choose from one of the following options. • Ependyma • Microglia • Astrocytes • Neurons

C; The ependyma is a leaky barrier composed of ependymal cells between the cerebrospinal fluid and the interstitial fluid of the central nervous system. Hint #22 / 3 Neurons process and transmit information in the nervous system. Hint #33 / 3 Astrocytes maintain homeostasis of the interstitial fluid of the central nervous system.

Which choice best describes a challenge to Chomsky's beliefs? Please choose from one of the following options. • The differences between English and the language of the Pirahã tribe are biologically determined. • Both the English language and the language of the Pirahã tribes are able to conceptualize mentally all natural numbers. • The Gumulgal South Sea Islanders' counting system does not fit the model of universal grammar which determines the fundamental capacity of their language. • The Gumulgal South Sea Islanders' utilization of a universal grammar determines the fundamental capacity of their language.

C; There is no reason to believe that there are any significant biological differences between the English-speaking college students and the Pirahã tribe members. Hint #22 / 4 The Gumulgal South Sea Islanders' language does not fit the model of universal grammar. Hint #33 / 4 Universal grammar is an important component of the nativist viewpoint. Hint #44 / 4 The Gumulgal South Sea Islanders' counting system does not fit the model of universal grammar, which determines the fundamental capacity of their language and is an important component of the nativist viewpoint.

Assuming each statement is true, which of the following is NOT a factor that could help to explain the data found on red blood cell and protein content in the lymph? Please choose from one of the following options. • Cirrhosis of the liver may compromise blood vessel walls leading to more leaking than usual • Healthy blood vessels do not allow red blood cells to get out because the spaces between endothelial cells are too small. • Red blood cells are larger in diameter than the largest proteins and therefore less likely to leak out of compromised blood vessels. • Lymph coming from the liver typically has a higher protein content than average because protein is produced in the liver in high quantities

C; Why would red blood cell content rise while protein content would stay the same or decrease? Hint #22 / 3 In most parts of the body, increased blood vessel leakiness would allow more protein to leave the blood and therefore increase protein concentration in lymph. Hint #33 / 3 One reason why protein content would not rise in the lymph as a result of damaged blood vessel walls is if the extracellular fluid already has protein content as high as blood.

A few days into training, the boy notices that the dog loves being sprayed with the water bottle, and will shake all the water off onto the boy. The boy decides to stop paying attention to the dog whenever it doesn't fetch, instead. What conditioning has the boy undergone? Please choose from one of the following options. • Classical conditioning • Negative punishment • Negative reinforcement • Positive punishment

D

It can be inferred from the passage that carbonic acid is an example of which type of acid? I. Arrhenius II. Bronsted-Lowry III. Lewis Please choose from one of the following options. • I only • I and II only • II and III only • I, II, and III

D

Mice subjected to a very high sodium diet were found to have a significant increase (p<0.05) in plasma renin concentration; in order to test the hypothesis that this increase is due to the sensing of increased sodium by macula densa cells, an assay designed to detect which of the following signalling molecules should be performed? Please choose from one of the following options. • Polypeptide hormones • Neurotransmitters • Biogenic amine hormones • Prostaglandins

D

Presence of which of the following in the urine, even in small amounts, is indicative of a possible problem in the renal system of a patient? Please choose from one of the following options. • Creatinine • Urea • Sodium • Glucose

D

What symptom would most likely be associated with a myeloproliferative disorder characterized by a predominance of functional megakaryocytes? Please choose from one of the following options. • Bruising • Immunodeficiency • Hemorrhage • Blood clots

D

Which of the following anatomical portion of a nephron connects the Bowman's capsule to the loop of Henle? Please choose from one of the following options. • Collecting duct • Distal convoluted tubule • Connecting tubule • Proximal convoluted tubule

D

Which of the following would be the most effective exercise to induce dissonance in the dissonance program? Please choose from one of the following options. • The smokers are told to watch a video at home about living with lung cancer. • The smokers are asked to try deep breathing exercises instead of smoking. • The smokers admit they are addicts and surrender themselves to a higher power. • The smokers give a speech to the group about the negative effects of smoking.

D

Which of the following protocols would improve the consistency with which the DNA plasmid is taken up into the host cells? Please choose from one of the following options. • Use thicker tissue samples and more explosion energy • Increase the number of gold nanoparticles used • Decrease the number of gold nanoparticles used • Use thinner tissue samples and less explosion energy

D;

Individuals with PTSD sometimes use deep breathing techniques to decrease their anxiety. Which type of operant conditioning does this describe? Please choose from one of the following options. • Negative reinforcement • Negative punishment • Positive reinforcement • Positive punishment

D; "Positive" refers to adding a stimulus. Hint #22 / 5 "Negative" refers to removing a stimulus. Hint #33 / 5 "Reinforcement" refers to increased frequency of a behavior. Hint #44 / 5 "Punishment" refers to decreased frequency of a behavior. Hint #55 / 5 The individuals are adding a treatment (the deep breathing technique) to decrease frequency of anxious thoughts (the behavior). This is positive punishment.

A scientist wants to study the cerebral cortex's involvement in language, so they develop a test which requires reciting a poem from a book. Which imaging method would the scientist find most useful? Please choose from one of the following options. • fMRI • EEG • CT scan • PET

D; A CT, or CAT, scan uses the same imaging principle as an X-ray, but the source rotates quickly to get pictures from far more angles.This gives it a far higher resolution and makes it better for observing potential structural abnormalities. Hint #22 / 3 An EEG measure brain wave activity, but is not sensitive enough to distinguish various forms of activity. Hint #33 / 3 While both fMRIs and PET scans measure blood flow to the brain and can be used to track which parts of the brain are active, the fMRI requires the subject lie still. A person reciting a poem would not be able to get a good fMRI reading, so the scientist should use a PET scan.

According to the figure above, which day (post SPS) would most likely be associated with ER induction of the apoptotic pathway? Please choose from one of the following options. • 1 • 2 • 4 • 5

D; According to the passage, induction of the apoptotic pathway correlates with diminishing GRP78 production. Hint #22 / 3 According to the figure, GRP78 production appears to peak 4 days post stressor. Hint #33 / 3 The only answered which falls into the category of post-peak-production is day 5. For that reason, it is the most correct answer.

What impact could an in-group acceptance of profanity cause when the speaker is surprised or in pain? Please choose from one of the following options. • The speaker would not use profanity in all instances. • The speaker would replace profane words with neutral words when around the social group. • The speaker would be less likely to utilize profanity with the in-group. • The speaker would still find profanity unacceptable in most instances

D; An in-group is a social group that the speaker would find identification as a member meaningful. Hint #22 / 3 Neutral words are words without emotional connotations. Hint #33 / 3 The speaker would still find profanity unacceptable in most instances

Which of the following could not be an effective means by which bacteria resist beta-lactams? Please choose from one of the following options. • Mutations in PBP protein structure to prevent beta-lactam binding • Up-regulating genes to express beta-lactamases • An outer cell membrane to prevent drug access to the cell wall • Making proteins to compete with the beta-lactams already bound to PBPs

D; An outer cell membrane overlaying the cell wall describes a gram negative bacteria, which are naturally more resistant to beta-lactam drugs. Hint #22 / 3 Up-regulating genes expressing beta-lactamases would result in the hydrolyzation of the beta-lactam, rendering it inert. Hint #33 / 3 Due to the permanent binding of beta-lactams to PBPs, competitive inhibition of a different protein would not affect already bound beta-lactams.

Which of the following regulators of blood pressure is actually secreted by the kidney? Please choose from one of the following options. • Angiotensin 2 • Aldosterone • Antidiuretic hormone • Renin

D; Antidiuretic hormone is secreted by the brain. Hint #22 / 4 Angiotensin 2 is made in the blood vessels when angiotensin converting enzyme cleaves angiotensin 1. Hint #33 / 4 Aldosterone is formed in the cortex of the adrenal glands which sit above the kidneys. Hint #44 / 4 Renin is released from the juxtoglomerular apparatus in the kidney but travels to the liver where it converts angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1.

Dysfunction of which of the following cells could explain the reaction of the first brother to the vaccine? Please choose from one of the following options. • B cells • T cells • Neither B cells nor T cells • B cells or T cells

D; B cells make antibodies. Hint #22 / 3 What is the role of T helper cells? Hint #33 / 3 The patient cannot make antibodies properly. Therefore his B cells are not responding properly. However, T cells are required to activate B cells, so if there were a problem with T cells that would reduce the patient's ability to make antibodies as well.

From the titration curve provided in the passage, at which pH range will a carbonic acid solution serve as a good buffer? Please choose from one of the following options. • 7.3 to 9.3 and 9.3 to 11.23 • 7.3 to 9.3 and 11.3 to 13.3 • 5.3 to 7.3 and 7.3 to 9.3 • 5.3 to 7.3 and 9.3 to 11.3

D; Buffer regions are the flat segments of the curve because these are the regions where the pH changes very little when the titrant is added to the solution. Hint #22 / 4 There are two buffer regions in this titration curve: point A and point C. Hint #33 / 4 The range of a buffer region is pKa -1 to pKa + 1 of the flat segment's pKa Hint #44 / 4 The pKa of A is 6.3, so the range of this buffer region is 5.3 to 7.3. The pKa of C is 10.3, so the range of this buffer region is 9.3 to 11.3.

Which among the following refers to what the United Nations Population Fund defines as "...mainly when the working age population is larger than the non-working age population"? Demographic segmentation Demographic shift Demographic-economic paradox Demographic dividend

D; Demographic dividend pertains to a period characterized by the decline of fertility rates because of the decrease in infant and child mortality rates. The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) specifically defines this as "the economic growth potential that can result from shifts in a population's age structure, mainly when the share of the working-age population (15 to 64) is larger than the non-working-age share of the population (14 and younger, and 65 and older)." This means that economic productivity is caused by the increasing number of population within the workforce.

Urine is formed in a three-step process: which of the following gives the correct order in which these steps take place in the nephron? Please choose from one of the following options. • Tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion, glomerular filtration • Tubular secretion, tubular reabsorption, glomerular filtration • Glomerular filtration, tubular secretion, tubular reabsorption • Glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, tubular secretion

D; Glomerular filtration represents the initial filtration of the blood by the nephron. Hint #22 / 4 Tubular reabsorption represents the reabsorption of small molecules from the tubular fluid back into the blood. Hint #33 / 4 Tubular secretion is the method by which many toxins are transferred from the blood into the tubular fluid; it occurs via active transport downstream of glomerular filtration. Hint #44 / 4 Urine is formed successively by glomerular filtration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion

Which of the following contains cells that are most similar to cells that secrete renin in the kidney? Please choose from one of the following options. • Left ventricle • Nephron • Bicep • Radial artery

D; Hint #11 / 5 The bicep is composed of striated skeletal muscle, not found in the kidney. Hint #22 / 5 The left ventricle is composed of cardiac muscle, not found in the kidney. Hint #33 / 5 Renin is secreted from juxtaglomerular cells that are specialized smooth muscle cells. Hint #44 / 5 While the nephron is in the kidney, the cells of the nephron are not smooth muscle cells. Hint #55 / 5 The radial artery is surrounded by smooth muscle cells that allow the walls of the artery to vasoconstrict and vasodilate. These smooth muscle cells are similar to more specialized smooth muscle cells like juxtaglomerular cells.

When a nucleus undergoes ordinary fission into two daughter nuclei, what happens to the binding energy of the parent nucleus? Please choose from one of the following options. • It is fully transferred to the binding energy of the daughter nuclei. • It is released as a high-energy photon • It is transferred into the excited energy levels of the daughter nuclei • It partly becomes the kinetic energy of the daughter nuclei

D; In ordinary fission, gamma ray photons are not emitted by a decaying nucleus. Hint #22 / 4 The reason that fission is energetically favorable is because the sum of the binding energies of the daughter nuclei is less than that of the parent nuclei. Hint #33 / 4 During ordinary fission, the electronic energy levels do not strongly play a role in the decay process. Hint #44 / 4 In ordinary fission, the binding energy of the parent nucleus is transformed into the kinetic energy of the daughter nuclei.

Exposure therapy is technique used to treat anxiety. Patients are encouraged to confront the source of their fear in a context without any danger, in the hopes that this will help them overcome it. What principle does this technique most closely related to? Please choose from one of the following options. • Generalization • Negative punishment • Positive punishment • Extinction

D; In this context, positive refers to the gain of something, while negative refers to the removal of a stimulus. Hint #22 / 3 Punishments are designed to de-incentivize a certain behavior. While the patient may feel punished by being forced to interact with the source of their fear, the goal is to stop the fear response and not to create a new behavior. Hint #33 / 3 Extinction is the negation of a conditioned response as the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus. Exposure therapy works along similar lines to present the object of fear (conditioned stimulus) without any untoward effects (unconditioned stimulus) to erase the fear response.

Which compulsion is experienced by the largest percentage of the sample? Please choose from one of the following options. • Intrusive thoughts • Irrational fear • Contamination rituals • Checking rituals

D; Intrusive thoughts and irrational fears both represent obsessions. Hint #22 / 3 15 percent of the sample engages in contamination rituals. Hint #33 / 3 70 percent of the sample engages in checking rituals; thus, checking rituals are the most commonly experienced compulsion.

Given the information in the passage, what is the likely outcome of a large lesion to the right hemisphere of a right-handed person who communicates exclusively with ASL? Please choose from one of the following options. • Problems with understanding written language • Problems with the production of spoken language • Problems with understanding spoken language • Problems with prosody in spoken language

D; Language understanding is located in the left hemisphere for 90% of right-handed individuals. Hint #22 / 3 Language production is also located in the left hemisphere for 90% of right-handed individuals. Hint #33 / 3 Prosody is most often located in the right hemisphere for 90% of right-handed individuals.

Which of the following is not a critique of the learning theory? Please choose from one of the following options. • If children learned only through repetition, there would be no new sentences • Language is far more complicated than tying a shoe • Phrases like "daddy shoe" could not be learned passively • Real dialogue is often unorganized and interrupted - not good for teaching

D; Learning theory holds that language is a skill we learn like any other - repetition and reinforcement. Hint #22 / 3 This implies that we are only able to say the things that we hear as small children, so phrases like "daddy shoe" or unique sentences should not arise. Hint #33 / 3 Though real dialogue is often unorganized, this is not a critique of learning theory - we would still grow up speaking like those around us.

Which of the following is NOT a function of macrophages Please choose from one of the following options. • Present antigens to T cells using MHC II • Phagocytose debris within the tissues • Alert the body to the presence of bacteria • Present antigens to B cells using MHC II

D; Macrophages are able to recognize certain patterns on bacterial surfaces. Hint #22 / 3 Macrophages are antigen-presenting cells. Hint #33 / 3 B cells are antigen-presenting cells themselves, and are not presented with antigens by other antigen-presenting cells.

Which statement is true regarding some physical properties of methanol and isopropyl alcohol? Please choose from one of the following options. • Methanol has a higher boiling point and a lower solubility in water than isopropyl alcohol. • Methanol has a higher boiling point and a higher solubility in water than isopropyl alcohol. • Methanol has a lower boiling point and a lower solubility in water than isopropyl alcohol. • Methanol has a lower boiling point and a higher solubility in water than isopropyl alcohol.

D; Methanol is a primary alcohol, and isopropyl is a secondary alcohol. Primary alcohols have one bond to an organic group from the CH2 group attached to the -OH group. A good example is ethanol (CH3-CH2-OH) or propanol (CH3-CH2-CH2-OH). Methanol technically doesn't fit the "one linkage" rule, but it is considered a primary alcohol since it is simpler than ethanol containing zero linkages to an organic group from the CH2 group attached to the -OH. Secondary alcohols have two linkages to organic groups from the CH group attached to the -OH. This is evident when the chemical structure of isopropyl alcohol ((CH3)2CHOH) is drawn out. Primary and secondary alcohols have differences in boiling point and solubility. Hint #22 / 4 Solubility for alcohols in water is primarily determined by the hydrogen bonds that form between the alcohol molecules and the water molecules. Smaller alcohols form bonds more easily with the surrounding water, while bulkier alcohols form H-bonds less readily due to the long, nonpolar hydrocarbon tails (hydrophobic effect). This decreases the solubility for large alcohols in water. Hint #33 / 4 The boiling points of alcohols increase with additional carbons present in the compound. When more carbons are present, additional energy is required to overcome the increased intermolecular forces (Van der Waals forces) in the conversion from liquid to vapor phase. Hint #44 / 4 Methanol has a lower boiling point and a higher solubility in water than isopropyl alcohol.

Based on the response noted in mice with denervation in Figure 1, what can be concluded about renin secretion? Please choose from one of the following options. • It is entirely controlled by neuronal signals delivered across the renal artery. • It is dependent on the presence of prostaglandins. • It is responsible for the cleavage of angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1. • It is mediated by barometric and chemical signals.

D; Mice with denervation of the renal artery still have some increases in renin secreted over time (as seen in Figure 1). Hint #22 / 3 The figure doesn't show the the precise mechanism of renin activity (ie. cleavage of angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1 or reliance on prostaglandins). Hint #33 / 3 Since there still are some increases in renin secretion over time without neuronal input, there must be other signals involved in its secretion as well. The data suggests that renin secretion is mediated by barometric and chemical signals.

In order to test language acquisition theory, a scientist has children listen to the following phrases. According to Nativists, which sentence should bother them the least? Please choose from one of the following options. • Ball the he threw • He go to the store for milk • Put toy basket • The worples brimbled in the lorten

D; Nativists believe there is a biological basis for language. Hint #22 / 3 Though children may start off saying more basic sentences, they should still sense which are correct and which are not, according to Nativists. Hint #33 / 3 Chomsky argued that even nonsense sentences can be identified as "correct" based on our innate grammar, so even a sentence full of non-words such as "the worples brimbled in the lorten" is correct to our ears based on grammar rules.

How would Vygotsky's concept of the zone of proximal development relate to Nim's language development? Please choose from one of the following options. • Nim's MLU was concurrent with that of a normal 4-year-old. • The language acquisition device operated only during the first few years of Nim's life. • Nim's language learning was reinforced through rewards. • The natural abilities of apes are supported by the more knowledgeable other to move them to a higher developmental zone.

D; Reinforcement through rewards is associated with learning theory and B.F. Skinner. Hint #22 / 3 Chomsky believed that only humans have a LAD or language acquisition device. Hint #33 / 3 The natural abilities of apes are supported by the more knowledgeable other to move them to a higher developmental zone.

Jenna felt unsure of her ability to answer questions from the audience. This is most related with: Perceptual stimuli Associative processing Primary appraisal Secondary appraisal

D; Secondary appraisal is concerned with the individual's ability to cope with the stressor. This involves pertinent emotions and attitudes such as confidence and self-esteem. As for Jenna, this is evident in her insecurity in her ability to talk in front of a scrutinizing audience. In the passage it was reflected that she felt unsure of her skills; hence a low level of coping. Primary appraisal is concerned with the attitude towards the event or situation. This involves ascertaining whether the upcoming or current experience is actually a threat. In Jenna's case, she felt that it was quite threatening as presenting a paper in front of experts meant being subjected to criticisms. The primary appraisal and secondary appraisal are the two major components of Lazarus' transactional model of stress and coping.

The slope of the curve is essentially the spring constant of the DNA. A clinician testing for hearing loss notices that the patient cannot hear a tone at 440Hz, but they could hear a tone of identical intensity at multiple other frequencies above and below 440Hz easily. Which of the following would also be true of a hearing loss of only a certain frequency? Please choose from one of the following options. • A puncture of the tympanic membrane could cause hearing loss of specific frequencies • Otosclerosis, or abnormal growth of bone within the middle ear, can lead to decreased movement of the ossicles, could cause hearing loss of specific frequencies • Otitis media, or a middle ear infection, results in increased pressure within the middle ear, which can cause hearing loss of a specific frequency • Damage to hair cells in the cochlea from intense levels of a pure tone can result in hearing loss of a specific frequency

D; Sensorineural hearing loss would be due to a neural deficit, not a physical one. Hint #22 / 3 Neural components of hearing are solely located within the inner ear. Hint #33 / 3 Blasts of single frequency at high decibel levels can damage specific portions of the cochlea, which would produce sensorineural hearing loss of a specific frequency.

A previous hypothesis attempted to explain gecko toe adhesion by postulating that gecko toes created an area of low pressure between the toes and the substrate surface, similar to a suction cup. Which of the following experimental findings would most challenge this hypothesis? Please choose from one of the following options. • Gecko toes lose their ability to adhere in a vacuum. • Gecko toes are able to adhere in a high-humidity environment. • Gecko toes lose their ability to adhere in a high-humidity environment. • Gecko toes are able to adhere in a vacuum.

D; Suction cups work because of a difference in pressure. The normal, external pressure is much higher than the low-pressure area created inside the suction cup. The normal, external pressure pushes the suction cup against the surface much more than the low-pressure area pushes back out--so the suction cup is forced against the surface. Hint #22 / 5 The suction-cup mechanism does NOT have any obvious connection to humidity based on the information provided in the passage. Eliminate both choices that mention high-humidity. Hint #33 / 5 The suction-cup mechanism would no longer function without external pressure. In other words, they would no longer function in a vacuum. If the suction-cup mechanism was really how gecko toes adhered to a surface, we would expect them to lose their adhesion abilities in a vacuum--so this confirms the hypothesis rather than disproving it. Hint #44 / 5 If the gecko toes were able to adhere in a vacuum, without any external pressure forcing them against the surface, then something else besides the suction-cup mechanism must explain how geckos stick to surfaces. This would disprove the suction-cup mechanism. Hint #55 / 5 Therefore, the correct answer is, "Gecko toes are able to adhere in a vacuum."

Which of the following statements can be concluded from the experimental results shown in Figure 1? Please choose from one of the following options. • Capillary adhesion between gecko toepads and hydrophilic and hydrophobic surfaces is stronger at higher relative humidities. • When all other factors are equal, gecko toepads generally exhibit more attraction toward gallium arsenide than silicon dioxide. • Adhesive forces are generally stronger than frictional forces in the tested conditions. • Increasing relative humidity increases the magnitude of both friction forces and adhesive forces.

D; The frictional forces (solid lines in the figure) are higher on the vertical axis than the adhesive forces (dotted lines in the figure). Therefore, you can eliminate "Adhesive forces are generally stronger than frictional forces in the tested conditions." Hint #22 / 4 There are stronger adhesive forces with silicon dioxide (squares in the figure) than with gallium arsenide (circles in the figure). Therefore, you can eliminate "When all other factors are equal, gecko toepads generally exhibit more attraction toward gallium arsenide than silicon dioxide." Hint #33 / 4 "Capillary adhesion between gecko toepads and hydrophilic and hydrophobic surfaces is stronger at higher relative humidities," is tricky. It incorrectly assumes that the adhesive forces are caused by capillary adhesion, even though "researchers disagree about whether or not capillary adhesion plays a significant role in gecko toe adhesion." Hint #44 / 4 The graph shows that both friction forces and adhesive forces increase at higher humidities. Therefore the correct answer is "Increasing relative humidity increases the magnitude of both friction forces and adhesive forces."

mutant three in tables one and two? Please choose from one of the following options. • lacI only • The operator of the lac operon only • lacZ only • Either a mutation in lacI or a mutation in the operator of the lac operon

D; The lacZ gene codes for β-galactosidase, an enzyme that processes lactose. Hint #22 / 5 The lacI gene codes for a protein that represses the transcription of the lac operon. Hint #33 / 5 The protein product of the lacI gene functions by binding the operator of the lac operon. Hint #44 / 5 Any mutation that disrupts the negative control lacI exerts on the lac operon will cause the genes of the lac operon to be expressed even when lactose is not present. Hint #55 / 5 A mutation in lacI or a mutation in the operator of the lac operon are consistent with the observations of mutant three in tables one and two.

On average, 6−106-106−106, minus, 10 sessions are required to obtain notable fading of tattoo pigment from the skin. After a single session though, marked hypopigmentation can be appreciated in the skin around the tattoo. Which of the following best explains this phenomenon? Please choose from one of the following options. • Melanocytes in the tissue surrounding the tattoo lyse causing the skin to appear faded • Red blood cells in the tissue surrounding the tattoo lyse causing the skin to appear faded • The hypopigmentation is a result of poor technique by the operator as better aiming can reduce the degree of fading noted around the tattoo • The tattoo pigment only absorbs a fraction of the energy emitted from the laser

D; The lysing of red blood cells do not cause the skin to appear faded. Hint #22 / 3 Melancoytes are responsible for skin color. Hint #33 / 3 Denaturation of melanin from preferential absorption of energy results in hypopigmentation while the actual tattoo pigment only receives a fraction of the laser beam

Which of the following parts collects and amplifies sound? Ossicles Ear drum Ear canal Pinna

D; The pinna or auricle is responsible for collecting and transforming sound. It also acts as a funnel which amplifies sounds and projects them to the auditory canal. Interestingly, the human ear filters frequencies and exhibits preference for human speech. The pinna's function varies in response to high and low frequencies. It directs low frequencies to the ear canal, functioning like a reflector dish. The process in response to high frequencies is more complicated. Some of the sounds get directly funneled to the ear canal while others are first reflected off the pinna. This delay leads to phase cancellation which eliminates the frequency component. The ear drum is where sound waves vibrate which leads to the wave form of a sound. The ear canal is the passage way of the sounds from the pinna to the ear drum. The ossicles are the smallest bones in the body which help in the transmission of sound to the inner ear.

In which lobe of the brain is hearing mainly processed? Frontal Occipital Parietal Temporal

D; The primary auditory cortex is found in the temporal lobe. The adjacent areas in the lateral, posterior, and superior parts of the temporal lobes are concerned with high-level auditory processing. Specifically, the left temporal lobe is involved in the processing of spoken and visual semantics. The temporal lobe is also responsible for visual memories, language comprehension, and emotion association. It is also concerned with processing the sense of smelling, hearing, and tasting. The frontal lobe is primarily responsible for voluntary movement. It also plays a major role in decision-making activities. Specifically, it is involved in the movement of the tongue and lips. The occipital lobe is concerned with vision. The optic nerves travel from the eyes to the back of the head where visual information is processed. The parietal lobe processes skin sensations and body temperature.

If a patient is critically hypotensive (has dangerously low blood pressure) and you are trying to increase their pressure as fast as possible via an IV infusion of fluid, what would the best choice to administer the most fluid? Please choose from one of the following options. • A needle of 5cm length and 1 mm lumen radius • A needle of 7cm length and 2 mm lumen radius • A needle of 7cm length and 1 mm lumen radius • A needle of 5cm length and 2 mm lumen radius

D; To administer fluid as fast as possible, you would want to maximize the flow of the fluid. Hint #22 / 3 Resistance to flow is directly proportional to the length of a tube, so the longer the tube, the more resistance, therefore you'd have less flow. Hint #33 / 3 Since the radius is exponentially and directly proportional, a lumen of 2mm with a shorter length (5mm) would provide the fastest choice of infusion.

Which following statement best explains why this is so? Please choose from one of the following options. • Cell to cell interactions of RBCs cause the viscosity of blood to vary with blood flow velocity. • Flows in most vessels are of the plug type which leads to intense spectral broadening. • The Doppler frequency is difficult to calculate because the speed of sound is much greater than the speed of moving RBCs. • Cross-sectional area of blood vessels changes with the pulsatile nature of blood flow.

D; Ultrasonic flow meter measure blood flow velocity using the Doppler Effect. Hint #22 / 3 According to the continuity equation, Q = Av , cross sectional area is needed to determine blood flow volume. Hint #33 / 3 The pulsatile nature of blood flow causes the cross sectional area of the blood vessels to vary with the cardiac cycle making it difficult to calculate Q from the continuity equation.

Waldenström's macroglobulinemia is a condition which causes increased blood viscosity due to high protein content in the blood. How would Waldenström's macroglobulinemia influence blood flow and pressure? Please choose from one of the following options. • Blood flow would be increased, blood pressure would decrease • Blood flow would decrease, blood pressure would increase • Blood flow would be increased, blood pressure would increase • Blood flow would decrease, blood pressure would decrease

D; Viscosity is directly proportional to resistance. Hint #22 / 4 Blood flow is inversely proportional to resistance. Hint #33 / 4 Blood pressure is directly proportional to flow. Hint #44 / 4 If you have increased viscosity, you'd have increased resistance, resulting in less flow, and consequently lower pressure.

w would Noam Chomsky interpret the data shown in Table 1? Please choose from one of the following options. • Nim has developed language that fits his biological and social needs. • Nim has learned language through the teaching of Terrace and the other researchers. • Nim has produced meaning, but not language. Other apes have demonstrated language capabilities, however. • Nim is not creating new meaning with longer phrases and the word constructions used lack syntax.

D; Vygotsky believed that language was determined by the interaction of both biological and social influences. Hint #22 / 4 Behaviorists such as B.F. Skinner believe that language is learned through reinforcement and approximation. Hint #33 / 4 Noam Chomsky did not believe that apes had the capacity to create language. Hint #44 / 4 Nim is not creating new meaning with longer phrases and the word constructions used lack syntax.

What control experiment would be necessary to run in conjunction to the experimental condition? • Determine the mean response time to flashes of light in the right and left visual field as a measure of sensory ability. • Determine mean subjective pain responses of IP and control group individuals to changes in temperature. • Determine the mean sensory thresholds of Ip and control group individuals for small changes in temperature. • Determine mean reaction times of IP and control group individuals to changes in pressure that are not temperature related.

Determine mean reaction times of IP and control group individuals to changes in pressure that are not temperature related.

Which term describes the membrane potential at which there is no net movement of an ion with an electrochemical gradient across a membrane to which it is permeable? Please choose from one of the following options. • Graded potential • Resting potential • Equilibrium potential • Threshold potential

Equilibrium Potential

Which of the following hormones is not released by the anterior pituitary? Please choose from one of the following options. • Estradiol • Luteinizing hormone (LH) • Prolactin • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Estradiol FSH is released by the anterior pituitary. FSH promotes growth of a follicle in the ovary. Hint #22 / 4 LH is released by the anterior pituitary. An increase in the production of LH triggers ovulation. Hint #33 / 4 Prolactin is released by the anterior pituitary and signals milk production in female mammals. Hint #44 / 4 The follicle in the ovary produces and releases estradiol.

A 23-year old female reports experiencing severe bloating and water retention at certain points during her menstrual cycle. Which hormone associated with the regulation of salt and water retention could be causing her problem? Please choose from one of the following options. • Estrogen • Prolactin • Cortisol • Progesterone

Estrogen Prolactin is associated with milk production during pregnancy. Hint #22 / 3 Progesterone does not play a major role in fluid balance. Hint #33 / 3 Estrogen has a major role in fluid balance and could be linked to bloating and water retention during the menstrual cycle.

Which of the following correctly identifies muscle components in order from largest to smallest? Please choose from one of the following options. • Fasciculus, muscle bundle, myofibril • Fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibril • Muscle fiber, fasciculus, myofibril • Sarcolemma, sarcoplasm, fasciculus

Fasciculus, muscle fiber, myofibril

What type of odorant receptor is present in the olfactory epithelium? Please choose from one of the following options. • GPCR • Receptor tyrosine kinase • Hormone receptor • Gated ion channel

GPCR The odorant receptor is a G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR) that opens cAMP gated ion channels, as well as activates adenylate cyclase to elicit various cAMP dependent protein kinases to affect a wide range of intracellular pathways.

Which of the following will shorten the time required for the capacitor to become fully charged? Please choose from one of the following options. • Increasing the inductance of the inductor • Increasing the distance between the parallel plates of the capacitor • Using a transformer to increase the voltage of the power supply • Using a capacitor with plates that have a greater surface area

Hint #11 / 3 B; The time constant, which is the product of the circuit resistance and the capacitor's capacitance (RC) determines how long it takes for the current to stop flowing. Hint #22 / 3 Anything that decreases R or C will decrease the time it takes for the capacitor to become fully charged. Hint #33 / 3 Capacitance (C) equals Q/EdQ Increasing the distance between the parallel plates of the capacitor will decrease C and hence the time constant.

A deficiency in what other enzyme would most closely mimic the clinical manifestations of a CPTII enzyme deficiency? Glucose 6 phosphatase Hormone-sensitive Lipase Pyruvate carboxylase Fatty Acid Synthase

Hormone-sensitive lipase (It transports long-chain fatty acids into the mitochondria from the cytoplasm for oxidation. Therefore, anything that affects the oxidation of fatty acids is likely to have similar manifestations to a CPTII deficiency.)

Which of the following is true of reflected light rays from a surface? I.The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection for diffuse reflections. II. The angle measured between the surface and the ray is the same magnitude as the angle of reflection III. The angle of incidence is found by subtracting the angle made with the surface from the normal Please choose from one of the following options. • I + II • II only • I + III • I only

I and III; The angle of incidence is in fact found by taking the difference between the normal and the angle of reflection made at the surface Hint #22 / 3 The angle between the surface and the ray will not be equal to the angle of reflection Hint #33 / 3 The angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection, even for diffuse reflections. Therefore I + III are both correct.

Which hormone would you administer to a patient with ketoacidosis as a form of treatment? Glucagon, Insulin, Leptin, Cortisol

Insulin

The NAD+:NADH ratio is a component of the "redox state" of a cell. How would an increase in pyruvate concentration change this value? It would decrease the NAD+:NADH ratio since an increase in pyruvate would lead to a decrease in [NAD+]. • It would increase the NAD+:NADH ratio since an increase in pyruvate would lead to an increase in [NAD+]. • It would increase the NAD+:NADH ratio since an increase in pyruvate would lead to a decrease in [NAD+]. • It would decrease the NAD+:NADH ratio since an increase in pyruvate would lead to an increase in [NAD+].

It would increase the NAD+:NADH ratio since an increase in pyruvate would lead to an increase in [NAD+].

There are more than 1,000 different g-protein coupled receptors in the body. Does morphine bind to all types of GPCRs? Please choose from one of the following options. • No. Morphine only binds to GPCRs in our nervous system and digestive tract. • Yes. Morphine can bind to all GPCRs, but only affects opioid receptors. • No. Morphine can only bind to opioid receptors. • Yes. Morphine can bind to all GPCRs.

No. Morphine can only bind to opioid receptors.

Which of the following is true concerning total internal reflection? I.Light travelling from a lower index of refraction to a higher one can experience total internal refraction. II. If the angle of incidence equals the critical angle then light will not be refracted III. If an angle of incidence is larger than the critical angle, it will not experience total internal reflection. Please choose from one of the following options. • I, II, III • II only • II & III • None of the above are tru

None; Total internal reflection can only occur if the angle of incidence is larger than the critical angle. Hint #22 / 3 Total internal reflection occurs only when light travels from a higher index of refraction to a lower one. Hint #33 / 3 If the angle of incidence exactly equals the critical angle, the angle of refraction will be 90°, meaning it will skirt along the boundary between the two media.

What would occur if the eardrum was ruptured? Oval window vibrations would be severely dampened. • The round window would also eventually rupture. • The malleus, incus, and stapes would function as normal. • The tympanic membrane would still function as normal.

Oval window vibrations would be severely dampened.

What are the various structures of the ear that a sound wave has to pass through to reach the cochlea? Pinna, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, round window • Pinna, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window • Pinna, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, incus, malleus, stapes, round window • Pinna, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, incus, malleus, stapes, oval window

Pinna, auditory canal, tympanic membrane, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window

Which reactant/product is receiving electrons in the forward reaction shown above? Please choose from one of the following options. • L-Lactate • NAD+ • Pyruvate • NADH

Pyruvate A hydride ion is being added to pyruvate in this reaction. Hint #22 / 3 Pyruvate is being reduced in this reaction. Hint #33 / 3 Pyruvate is receiving electrons in the forward reaction shown above.

The hydrolysis of the ATP that is bound to myosin causes: Please choose from one of the following options. • Release of myosin head from the actin filament • Phosphorylation of the actin filament • Reversible binding of myosin to the actin filament • Irreversible binding of myosin to the actin filament

Release of myosin head from the actin filament The actin filament is never phosphorylated. Hint #22 / 3 Myosin and actin binding is reversible, not irreversible. Otherwise muscles would experience paralysis! Hint #33 / 3 Hydrolysis of ATP bound to myosin aids in releasing myosin from the actin filament.

Based on the above results, how valid is the conclusion that multi-channel cochlear implants are better than single-channel implants? Since single-channel implants are more sensitive to the sounds of varying frequencies, they are better than multi-channel implants. • Since the tested frequencies fell outside the normal range of human hearing, reliable conclusions cannot be drawn. • Since the sample size is so small, reliable conclusions cannot be drawn. • The conclusion is valid since it is reflected by the data.

Since the sample size is so small, reliable conclusions can't be drawn

Patient K is unable to name items presented to her, even though she is able to pick them up and use them correctly. Someone at the clinic notices that Patient K is actually able to name objects, but only when they are presented in her right field of vision. Patient K will most likely be re-classified as what type of patient? Please choose from one of the following options. • Hemispheric • Anomic • Split-brain • Neurally plastic

Split-brain Objects in the right field of vision get sent to the left hemisphere. Hint #22 / 3 Language skills, such as naming objects, tends to be centered in the brain's left hemisphere. Hint #33 / 3 Split-brain patients no longer have the ability to communicate between hemispheres, so objects processed in the right hemisphere may not be able to connect with the object label, which is in the left hemisphere.

Which of the following is correct with regards to the transduction of a sound wave into an electrical impulse? • The organ of corti is responsible for transducing fluid movement within the cochlea into an electrical impulse. • The kinocillia attached to hair cells within the tympanic membrane respond to fluid movement caused by pressure waves. • The sound wave causes air within the cochlea to stimulate sensory hair cells. • The ear is not sensitive to sounds with a frequency higher than 5,000 Hz.

The organ of corti is responsible for transducing fluid movement within the cochlea into an electrical impulse.

How would the rate of a reaction catalyzed by histone methyltransferase change if you were to increase the concentration of SAM? Please choose from one of the following options. • The rate of the reaction would decrease, bringing the reaction velocity further from Vmax. • The rate of the reaction would increase, bringing the reaction velocity further from Vmax. • The rate of the reaction would decrease, bringing the reaction velocity closer to Vmax. • The rate of the reaction would increase, bringing the reaction velocity closer to Vmax

The rate of the reaction would increase, bringing the reaction velocity closer to Vmax. SAM is a reactant (not a product) in the reaction. Hint #22 / 3 Increasing the concentration of a reactant increases the rate of the reaction. Hint #33 / 3 The higher the rate of a reaction, the closer it is to Vmax.

Based on the passage, what does the mutation in the gene for affected males from Family 2 most likely result in? Please choose from one of the following options. • The introduction of a premature stop codon in Hormone A. • The replacement of a single amino acid in Protein Y. • The replacement of a single amino acid in Protein X. • The introduction of a premature stop codon in Protein X.

The replacement of a single amino acid in Protein Y. Hormone A was bound to protein X in all of the isolates, so neither of those biomolecules is affected. Hint #22 / 3 Protein X was normal in Family 2, so there was no premature stop codon in Protein X for that family. Hint #33 / 3 Protein X could not phosphorylate Protein Y in the males in Family 2, thus there was likely a mutation resulting in the replacement of a single amino acid in Protein Y.

Normally, ketone body levels of acetoacetate and 3-hydroxybutyrate are produced in equimolar amounts during ketone synthesis in the body. However, in prolonged starvation or pathological states such as ketoacidosis, there is an excess of 3-hydroxybutyrate in particular. All of the following are plausible reasons based on Figure 1 EXCEPT: There is a decrease in fatty acid oxidation in pathological states. • Flow through the electron transport chain is slowed in pathological states. • ATP levels are elevated in pathological states. • There is a decrease in gluconeogenesis in pathological states.

There is a decrease in fatty acid oxidation in pathological states

In people with cystic fibrosis, the most common mutation in CFTR is a deletion of three nucleotides at position 508 in the protein, which results in a loss of phenylalanine. What is the most likely reason that CFTR can no longer function normally? This deletion results in a protein that is unable to fold correctly and is therefore not able to function • This deletion affects the proper conductance of chloride ions through the channel • This deletion results in a frame shift mutation so the rest of the protein is not translated properly • This deletion results in a truncated protein that is not able to function normally

This deletion results in a protein that is unable to fold correctly and is therefore not able to function

Another psychologist believes that the Navajo language developed special shape-related verb endings because shape was initially very important to that tribe; thus, their thought patterns about shape determined how their verb endings developed. This psychologist probably belongs to what school of thought? Please choose from one of the following options. • Social interactionism • Linguistic relativity • Universalism • Whorfian

Universalism The Whorfian hypothesis is that language determines thought. Hint #22 / 3 This psychologist supports the idea that thought determines language. Hint #33 / 3 Universalists believe that thought determines language.

Which of the following best describes lower motor neurons Please choose from one of the following options. • Lower motor neurons are afferent neurons that originate from sensory nerve fibers. • Lower motor neurons are efferent neurons that originate from sensory nerve fibers. • Lower motor neurons are afferent neurons that originate from the spinal cord. • Lower motor neurons are efferent neurons that originate from the spinal cord.

the last one; Afferent neurons bring information to the CNS. Hint #22 / 5 Efferent neurons bring information from the CNS. Hint #33 / 5 Afferent neurons bring information from sensory nerve fibers. Hint #44 / 5 Efferent neurons bring information from the spinal cord to skeletal muscle. Hint #55 / 5 Lower motor neurons are efferent neurons that originate from the spinal cord