LabCE REVIEW
Using the formula for creatinine clearance, calculate the clearance based on the values given below: Urine creatinine: 100 mg/dl Plasma creatinine: 1.9 mg/dl Urine volume: 1375 mL/24hrs Surface Area: 1.2 m2 A) 1.04x 105 mL/min/m? B) 1.04 x 105 mL/min C) 72 mL/min/m2 D) 72 mL/min
C) 72 mL/min/m2
What are the possible ABO genotypes of offspring from parents whose genotypes are 00 and AB: A) AB and 00 B) A and OB C) AB D) 00
C) AB
What is the purpose of the BNP test? A) Determines the amount of urea in blood. B) Evaluates abnormalities in the extrinsic coaqulation pathway and monitors coumarin therapy. C) Rules out acute heart failure in the emergency setting. D) Evaluates abnormalities in the intrinsic coagulation pathway and monitors heparin therapy.
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Which of the following criteria for donor RBC should be used for an exchange transfusion related to both HDFN due to anti-D and ABO HDFN? A) Reconstituted with group O fresh frozen plasma B) Negative for hemoglobin F C) Reconstituted with cryoprecipitate D) Irradiated
D) Irradiated
The image on the right is a cytospin preparation of cerebrospinal fluid viewed at 1000X magnification. What is the identity of the primary blood cell type observed in this microscopic field? A) Monocytes B) Macrophages C) Mesothelial cells D) Lymphocytes
D) Lymphocytes
What do the majority of centrifuge accidents stem from? A) Centrifuge brand or type B) Voltage or power source used C) Setting of time and speed of centrifuge D) User error
D) User error
Transfusion of which blood product is most likely to cause circulatory overload in patients? A) platelets B) Fresh frozen plasma C) Red blood cells D) Whole blood
D) Whole blood
Persons with hemophilia A or hemophilia B that demonstrate inhibitors should be given which of the following products?
Factor VIIa
How would you classify the organism on this gram stain? A) Gram-positive cocci B) Gram-negative cocci C) Yeast D) Gram-positive rods
A) Gram-positive cocci
Which of the following would be considered a normal value for a glucose level in cerebrospinal fluid? A) 30 mg/dL B) 60 mg/dL C) 120mg/dL D) 150 mg/dL
C) 120mg/dL
The image shown is a cytospin preparation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). What is the blood cell type that is indicated by the arrow?
Eosinophil
Based on the structures observed in this microscopic image, the most probable identity of the fungus recovered from an induced sputum specimen is: A) Fusarium species B) Penicillium species C) Aspergillus species D) Syncephalastrum species
C) Aspergillus species
Which assay is performed to diagnose congestive heart failure (CHF)? A) Homocysteine B) hs-CRP and Ischemia Modified Albumin C) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) D) cTnl and cinT
C) B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)
Which of the following organisms is best visualized by use of a darkfield microscope? A) Poxviridae B) Entamoeba C) Borrelia D) Streptococcus
C) Borrelia
Which of the following coagulation test results would be prolonged in a deficiency of Factor X? A) PT only B) aPTT only C) Both PT and aPTT D) Neither PT nor aPTT
C) Both PT and aPTT
The elements indicated by the arrows are more likely to be seen in patients with which condition? A) Bacterial infection B) Nephrotic syndrome C) Diabetes D) Renal failure
C) Diabetes
Lipase is predominately produced in what organ/tissue? A) Lungs B) Skeletal muscle C) Pancreas D) Liver
C) Pancreas
What should be done FIRST if a donor unit of red blood cells is found to be incompatible at the antiglobulin phase but compatible at immediate spin with several different recipients? A) Repeat the ABO grouping on the incompatible unit using different sera B) Do a panel made up of red cells having all low-frequency antigens C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit D) Obtain a new specimen and repeat the minor crossmatch
C) Perform a direct antiglobulin test (DAT) on the donor unit
All of the following red blood cell phenotypes will react with Anti-Fy3, EXCEPT?
Fy(a-b-)
How long after collection can a patient's sample be used for compatibility testing?
72 hours
Which of the following tests would be useful in the assessment of glomerular filtration: A) 24 hour urine protein B) Creatinine clearance C) PSP test D) Urea clearance
B) Creatinine clearance
What is his MOST likely genotype for a white male who has the following Rh antigens C,c DE,e? A) Rer B) RiR2 C) Ror
B) RiR2
The viscosity of the synovial fluid is due to synoviocyte secretion of mucopolysaccharide, which contains: A) Acid phosphatase B) Phosphatidyl glycerol C) Hyaluronic acid D) Lecithin
C) Hyaluronic acid
An increased serum level of which of the following analytes is MOST commonly associated with decreased glomerular filtration? A) Creatinine B) Uric acid C) Urea D) Ammonia
A) Creatinine
What are the possible ABO genotypes of offspring from parents whose genotypes are OO and AB: A) AB and OO B) OA and OB C) AB D) OO
B) OA and OB
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B: A) Core antigen B) Surface antigen C) e antigen D) Delta antigen
B) Surface antigen
The VDRL and PR are used to provide presumptive identification of which infection? A) Gonorrhea B) Syphilis C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Haemophilus ducrevi
B) Syphilis
A mother's serologic results are shown above. Her newborn types as group A Rh positive with a (1+) positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT). Which of the following investigative tests would be most useful to resolve the cause of the positive DAT and should be done FIRST? A) Test an eluate prepared from newborn's red cells against an antibody identification panel by IAT. B) Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT. C) Test newborn's plasma against mother's red cells by IAT. D) Test newborn's plasma against father's red cells by IAT.
B) Test newborn's plasma against group A1 red cells and group O antibody screen cells by IAT.
What element is indicated by the arrow on this slide? A) Finely granular cast B) Waxy cast C) Cylindroid D) White blood cells (WBCs)
B) Waxy cast
What bacteria is responsible for the bubonic plague? A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Yersinia pestis C) Vibrio cholerae D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Yersinia pestis
What type of chemical is lithium? A) An anionic metal B) A synthetic salt C) A cationic metal D) A naturally-occurring salt
C) A cationic metal
The bacterial species represented by the positive test illustrated in the photograph of a 5% sheep blood agar plate cross streaked with a hemolytic strain of Staphylococcus aureus has been associated with each of the following conditions except: A) Neonatal meningitis B) Neonatal sepsis C) Soft-tissue infections D) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
D) Acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
The plant lectin obtained from the Dolichos biflorus plant will agglutinate which of the following? A) B cells B) O cells C) A2 cells D) A1 cells
D) A1 cells
Which is the best component to treat a patient with fibrinogen deficiency? A) Red Blood Cells B) Platelet Concentrate C) Fresh Whole Blood D) Cryoprecipitated AHF
D) Cryoprecipitated AHF
Which of the following drugs is listed as an anti-convulsants? A) Lithium B) Gentamicin C) Tacrolimus D) Phenobarbital
D) Phenobarbital
Which characteristic best describes gG antibodies produced against red blood cells? A) Are naturally occurring B) Cannot be identified using the AHG test C) React best at room temperature D) React best at 37° Celsius
D) React best at 37° Celsius
When performing an anti-human globulin (AHG) test, it is important to completely wash the red cells because: A) Washing eliminates concentrations of unbound antigens. B)Washing prevents elution of cell-bound antibody. C) Washing promotes false positive effects of rouleaux. D) Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum.
D) Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum.
Group O blood cannot be transfused to a person with "Bombay blood" type because the Bombay individual produces which of the following? Please select the single best answer A) Anti-H B) Anti-A C) Anti-B D) H substance on his cells
A) Anti-H
What is the predominant abnormal RBC shape seen in this illustration? A) Burr cell B) Acanthocyte C) Ovalocyte D) Schistocyte
A) Burr cell
Beta thalassemia major is also known as: A) Cooley's anemia B) Sickle cell anemia C) Milk anemia D) Pernicious anemia
A) Cooley's anemia
The Clinitest® reaction is based on which of the following principles? A) Copper reduction B) Ortho-toluidine oxidation C) Diazotization of sugars D) Enzyme reaction
A) Copper reduction
The addition of Lugol's Iodine to a direct and indirect wet prep is used to detect which of the following protozoan stages? A) Cysts B) Eggs C) Larvae D) Trophozoites
A) Cysts
Which values would be expected with metabolic alkaloid? A) Elevated pH, increased bicarbonate, normal PCO2 B) Elevated pH, decreased bicarbonate, normal PCO» C) Lowered pH, normal bicarbonate, decreased PCO2 D) Increased pH, normal bicarbonate, increased PCO2
A) Elevated pH, increased bicarbonate, normal PCO2
The most highly specific indicator for rheumatoid arthritis is: A) Rheumatoid factor B) Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (CP antibodies) C) Immune complexes D) Complement
B) Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies (CP antibodies)
In an extreme emergency , if the ABO and Rh type are unknown which of the following should be given to the patient? A) Group O, Rh positive blood B) Group AB, Rh negative blood C) Group O, Rh negative blood D) Any blood type is OK
C) Group O, Rh negative blood
Which symptom of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is associated with low levels of glucuronyl transferase? A) AnemiaI B) Icreased reticulocyte count C) Jaundice D) Cardiac failure
C) Jaundice
Which laboratory procedure may be used to assist in differentiating chronic myelocytic leukemia (CML) from a leukemoid reaction? A) Absolute platelet count B) Prussian blue stain C) LAP stain D) Peroxidase stain
C) LAP stain
Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar (BYE) is the nonselective solid culture medium used for the primary recovery of. A) Treponema pallidum B) Mycoplasma pneumoniae C) Legionella pneumophila D) Spirillum minus
C) Legionella pneumophila
Which of the following cells are capable of producing antibodies? A) Thrombocytes B) Macrophages C) Lymphocytes D) Neutrophils
C) Lymphocytes
Isoenzymes of CK include all of the following EXCEPT: A) MB B) MM C) MBM D) BRI
C) MBM
Tumor markers are especially valuable when used to: A) Rule out cancer B) Screen the general population for cancer C) Monitor response to cancer therapy D) Confirm other assays
C) Monitor response to cancer therapy
Identify the nucleated blood cell. A) Lymphocyte B) Band neutrophil C) Monocyte D) Eosinophil
C) Monocyte
Which of the following might cause a false positive indirect antiglobulin test (IAT)? A) Failure to adequately wash cells. B) Delay in the addition of antiglobulin reagent. C) Over-centrifugation D) High concentration of IgG paraprotein in a patient's serum.
C) Over-centrifugation
Which of the following analytes would be increased due to delay in centrifugation? A) Glucose B) Ionized Calcium C) Potassium D) Bicarbonate
C) Potassium
What are Howell-Jolly bodies composed of? A) Hemoglobin B) DNA C) Iron D) RNA
B) DNA
This smear shows: A) No abnormality B) Howell-Jolly bodies C) Basophilic stippling D) Pappenheimer bodies
A) No abnormality
The lectin Dolichus biflorus agglutinates which types of cells? A) B B) A1B C) A2 D) Both AB and A2
B) A1B
Identify the Light intensity control and Stage controls. The correct answer is highlighted below 1) H, B 2) G, L 3) K, F 4) H, F
4) H, F
When evaluating a 2-hour glucose tolerance test report performed on a pregnant woman, which of the following results is considered NORMAL (within range for this test)? A) A 2-hour glucose level is less than 140 mg/dL. B) A 2-hour glucose level is less than 10 mg/dL. C) A 2-hour glucose level greater than 153 mg/dL. D) No change in glucose values during the 2-hour glucose tolerance test.
A) A 2-hour glucose level is less than 140 mg/dL.
The ketone component that is measured by the nitroprusside reaction is: A) Acetoacetic acid B) Beta-hydroxybutyric acid C) Acetone D) Glycine
A) Acetoacetic acid
The arrangement of the erythrocytes shown by the blue arrows in this peripheral smear should be reported out as ____________________ . A) Agglutination B) Rouleaux C) Normal distribution D) Aggregation
A) Agglutination
Which of the following proteins has the FASTEST electrophoretic mobility? A) Albumin B) Alpha globulins C) Beta globulins D) Gamma globulins
A) Albumin
Which protein is represented by the band labeled by the number 4 on the SPE scan? A) Albumin B) Alpha C) Beta D) Gamma
A) Albumin
An 18-year-old woman woke up in the morning to find that her left knee was hot, swollen, and very painful. She could not walk to work and a friend offered her a ride to the clinic. She had never had a swollen joint before. Physical exam revealed a tender knee joint which yielded purulent synovial fluid on aspiration. Gram-negative intracellular diplococci were seen on the Gram stain. She also had a cervical discharge that was cultured. The cause of her infection would grow best on: A) Modified Thayer Martin (MTM) agar at 35° C with CO2 B) LIM (Todd Hewitt Broth w/Colistin and Nalidixic) broth with refrigerated temperature C) Blood agar at 42° C with microaerophilic conditions D) V (human blood) agar at 35° C with CO2
A) Modified Thayer Martin (MTM) agar at 35° C with CO2
Which is the incorrect statement about sample labeling requirements? A) Prelabeled tubes should be used. B) The label should have the patient's first and last name. C) The label should have a unique identification number. D) The date of collection should be included.
A) Prelabeled tubes should be used.
What molecular technique is appropriate for HIV-1 genotyping? A) Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain B) ReactionMultiplex Polymerase Chain C) ReactionReal-Time Polymerase Chain D) ReactionStrand Displacement Amplification
A) Reverse Transcriptase Polymerase Chain
Kernicterus can cause brain damage in newborns suffering from severe HDFN. This is due to a buildup of which of the following substances? A) Unconjugated bilirubin B) Iron C) Haptoglobin D) Conjugated bilirubin
A) Unconjugated bilirubin
All of the following statements are true regarding the reagent strip test procedure, EXCEPT? A) Urine should be centrifuged before dipping the reagent strip. B) Urine should be well mixed before dipping the reagent strip. C) When visually reading the reagent strip, the test results should be read at the prescribed time suggested by the manufacturer after dipping the strip in the urine specimen. D) Prolonged immersion may wash out test reagents.
A) Urine should be centrifuged before dipping the reagent strip.
Which of the following best describes the methodology for FISH? A) Uses directly labeled fluorescent nucleotides or probes with reporter molecules that are indirectly detected by fluorescent antibodies or affinity molecules B)) Signal amplification test that uses signal amplification and alkaline phosphatase C) Target amplification test that uses thermal cycling and DNA polymerase D) Target amplification test using thermal cycling and DNA ligase
A) Uses directly labeled fluorescent nucleotides or probes with reporter molecules that are indirectly detected by fluorescent antibodies or affinity molecules
What is the lower reference limit for sperm concentration according to the World Health Organization, WHO Laboratory Manual for the Examination and Processing of Human Semen, WHO press, Geneva, Switzerland, 2010? A) 5 x 106 spermatozoa/mL B) 10 x 10.6 spermatozoa/mL C) 15 x 106 spermatozoa/mL D) 30 x 106 spermatozoa/mL
B) 10 x 10.6 spermatozoa/mL
A rosette test to screen for fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) is indicated in all of the following situations, EXCEPT: A) A weak D-positive infant B) A D-positive infant C) A D-positive mother D) A D-negative mother
B) A D-positive infant
A cerebrospinal (CSF) cell count is 1000 cells/uL. The cells on differential are predominantly lymphocytes. CSF protein is moderately elevated and the glucose is normal. No microorganisms were observed on a Gram stain smear of the CSF sediment. What is the MOST likely condition? A) Bacterial meningitis B ) Viral meningitis C) Normal spinal fluid D) Tubercular meningitis
B ) Viral meningitiS
What is the acceptable temperature range for maintaining red blood cell components during transport? A) 1 - 6°C B) 1 - 10°C C) 10 - 15°C D) 20 - 24°C
B) 1 - 10°C
What is the infective stage for the intestinal amebae? A) Trophozoite B) Cyst C) Larvae D) Egg
B) Cyst
Which of the following would be the most appropriate temperature for long term storage of specimens for viral culture? A) 4° C B) -20° C C) -70° C D) Room temperature
C) -70° C
What is the minimum acceptable hematocrit value for a female who wants to donate an autologous unit of blood for an upcoming surgery? A) 39% B) 38% C) 33% D) 25%
C) 33%
Donated red blood cells that contain the anticoagulant CPDA-1 (citrate-phosphate-dextrose-adenine) may be stored up to how many days? A) 21 days B) 28 days C) 35 days D) 42 days
C) 35 days (MediaLab)
Illustrated in the top image are 10 day old rough, buff, gray-white colonies growing on Middlebrook 7H11 agar. These colonies are commonly recovered from expectorated or induced sputum specimens obtained from patients with signs and symptoms of pneumonia. The appearance of these colonies provide for a presumptive identification, supported by the positive yellow-pigmented niacin reaction seen in the reagent tube in the lower photograph. From these observations, select from the multiple choices the presumptive identification of this isolate. A) Mycobacterium fortuitum B) Mycobacterium kansasii C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Mycobacterium gordonae
C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Which of the following antibodies causes the MOST severe cases of hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)? A) Anti-I B) Anti-N C) Anti-AR D) Anti-D
D ) Anti-D
You perform a gel ABO/Rh test on a 45-year-old male patient and you obtain the following results. What could be the Type/Rh of this patient? A) AB POS B) A POS C) B POS D ) A2B POS
D ) A2B POS
A nasopharyngeal specimen is processed and fixed onto a microscope slide. Next, the fluorescein-conjugated antibody is added to the slide. The specimen is incubated with the labeled antibody, washed, and then observed for fluorescence. Which of the following techniques best describes this process? A) Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) B) Latex agglutination C) Indirect immunofluorescence D) Direct immunofluorescence
D) Direct immunofluorescence
Hemophilia B or Christmas disease is the result of a hereditary deficiency in which coagulation factor? A) Factor X B) Factor VIll C) Factor XI D)Factor IX
D) Factor IX
Which represents peak 1 (closest to the cathode) in this serum protein electrophoresis (SPE) scan? A) Alpha-1 B) Alpha-2 C) Beta D) Gamma
D) Gamma
What Anti-Nuclear Antibody (ANA) staining pattern is presented in the microscopic image? A) Speckled B) Centromere C) SSA/Ro D) Homogeneous
D) Homogeneous
The Major Histocompatibility Complex (MHC) codes for which antigens? A) ABO B) Kell C) Rhesus D) Human Leukocyte Antigens
D) Human Leukocyte Antigens
This antinuclear antibody (ANA) test is viewed using fluorescent microscopy, which pattern is this?
Nucleolar
To prevent Rh alloimmunization in pregnancy between mother and fetus, it is recommended to initiate RhIG prophylaxis when?
Rh-negative pregnant females, antenatal in the third trimester.
This suspicious form was found in a urine specimen and measures 120 µm by 50 µm. What is the identification?
Schistosoma haematobium egg
Varied red blood cell morphologies due to pitting, culling, filtering, and the persistence of abnormal red blood cells in the peripheral blood is most likely due to what?
Splenectomy
Which of the following conditions/findings is most likely associated with the peripheral blood picture in the photomicrograph? A) Hereditary spherocytosis B) Lead poisoning C) Transfusion dimorphism D) Folic acid deficiency
Transfusion dimorphism
dentify the antinuclear antibody (ANA) staining pattern in the image (a) and interpret what related disorder can be associated with this pattern? A) Homogeneous or Diffused staining pattern; Systemic Lupus Erythematosus B) Homogeneous or Diffused staining pattern; Scleroderma C) Nucleolar staining pattern; Sjogren's syndrome D) Peripheral or rim staining pattern; active Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
A) Homogeneous or Diffused staining pattern; Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
The IN (international normalized ratio) is calculated using the following formula: A) IN=(PT patient / PT normal) raised to the ISI. B) INR=(PT patient / PT normal). C) INR=(PT patient / PT control) raised to the ISI. D) INR=(PT control / PT normal) raised to the ISI.
A) IN=(PT patient / PT normal) raised to the ISI.
Red blood cell units that contain CPD (citrate-phosphate-dextrose) can be stored for up to how many days? Please select the single best answer A) 21 days B) 28 days C) 35 days D) 42 days
A)21 days
Fresh frozen plasma should be used for which of the following? A) Platelet replacement B) Coagulation deficiencies C) Volume replacement D) Albumin replacement
B) Coagulation deficiencies
Prior to receiving antibiotic therapy, a patient had a urinary tract infection with gram-negative, motile rods producing the following reactions: Indole: pos H›S (TSD): pos MR: pos VP: neg Phenylalanine deaminase: pos Urea: pos Citrate: pos Ornithine decarboxylase: neg Gelatin hydrolysis: pos Based on the reactions above, what organism is MOST likely causing the infection? Please select the single best answer A) Proteus vulgaris B) Enterobacter cloacae C) Serratia marcescens D) Klebsiella pneumoniae
B) Enterobacter cloacae
Identify the urine sediment element: The correct answer is highlighted below A) WBC cast B) Fatty cast C) Waxy cast D) Granular cast
B) Fatty cast
A 40-year-old male recently returned from a two-week hiking expedition in Russia. Upon his return to the United States, the man presented to his physician complaining of severe foul-smelling diarrhea and abdominal discomfort. The doctor immediately suspected a parasitic infection and ordered stool for examination. The sample was loaded with this suspicious form that averaged 13 um in length. This patient is most likely suffering from: A) Trichinellosis B) Giardiasis C) Amebiasis D) Amebic dysentery
B) Giardiasis
Based on the image to the right, the issued gram stain report should read, "Many WBC with. A) Gram positive cocci. B) Gram positive cocci in pairs. C) Gram positive rods. D) Gram negative cocci.
B) Gram positive cocci in pairs.
Which of the following best describes reverse typing? A) Known antisera used to detect ABO antigens. B) Known antigen used to detect ABO antibodies. C) Known antigen used to detect AB antigens. D) Known antisera used to detect ABO antibodies.
B) Known antigen used to detect ABO antibodies.
The elements indicated by the arrows are more likely to be seen in patients with which condition? A) Bacterial infection B) Nephrotic syndrome C) Diabetes D) Renal failure
B) Nephrotic syndrome
The large cell shown in the illustration to the right is occasionally seen in the bone marrow and can be mistaken for a plasma cell. What is this cell? A) Myeloblast B) Osteoblast C) Stem cell D) Megakaryoblast
B) Osteoblast
This image is a blood smear taken from a patient with symptoms of malaria. Please identify the species that matches the parasite forms shown by the arrows. A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Pseudoparasite
B) Plasmodium malariae
What is his MOST likely genotype for a white male who has the following Rh antigens C,c DE,e? Please select the single best answer A) R1r B) R1R2 C) Ror D) r1r1
B) R1R2
An alpha-hemolytic slightly concave isolate from a respiratory specimen gave a zone of inhibition of 18 mm around the optochin disk. What should the next step be? A) Report the isolate as optochin sensitive. B) Report this organism as Streptococcus pneumoniae. C) Report this organism as Viridans streptococci. D) Repeat the optochin susceptibility test.
B) Report this organism as Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Cerebrospinal fluid (CF) specimens are usually collected by lumbar puncture and placed in numbered tubes starting with the first tube collected. If four tubes are collected, which tube would be used for a cell count and differential? A) Tube #1 B) Tube #2 C) Tube #3 D) Tube #4
C) Tube #3
The most significant class of microbial targets for Natural Killer (NK) cells is: A) Bacteria B) Parasites C) Viruses D) Fungi
C) Viruses
Patients who develop severe sepsis or septic shock commonly have plasma lactate values. A) Decreased B) Normal C) Increased D)Markedly decreased
C) increased
Lipase is predominately produced in what organ/tissue? A) Lungs B) Skeletal muscle C) pancreas D) Liver
C) pancreas
Lymphocyte pleocytosis refers to a(n) _____________ in a CSF when compared to a normal sample. A) Increased number of lymphocytes B) Decreased number of lymphocytes C) Normal number of lymphocytes D) Absence of lymphocytes
A) Increased number of lymphocytes
Which of the following statements is true regarding hyposegmented neutrophils? A) Hyposegmented neutrophils always indicate the presence of infection. B) Nucleus may be round, peanut-shaped or bilobed. C) Nucleus has 3 - 5 lobes. D) Hyposegmented neutrophils are an early indicator of megaloblastic anemia.
B) Nucleus may be round, peanut-shaped or bilobed.
The major crossmatch is performed using: A) Donor's serum and recipient's red cells B) Donor's serum and recipient's serum or plasma C) Donor's red cells and recipient's serum or plasma D) Donor's red cells and recipient's red cells
C) Donor's red cells and recipient's serum or plasma
Which of the following group B antigens is generally associated with a mixed field reaction? A) B B) B3 C) Bm D) Bx
B) B3
A bone biopsy from a jaw sent to a microbiology laboratory for culture grew out an Actinomyces species. What would be the most probable contributing factor to this infection? A) Poor circulation B) Poor oral hygiene C) Break in skin D) Pelvic infection
B) Poor oral hygiene
The type of hypersensitivity reaction associated with macrophage activation, cytokine-mediated inflammation is: A) Type I Anaphylactic (Immediate hypersensitivity) B) Type II Cytotoxic (Antibody mediated and antibody dependent, complement mediated hypersensitivity) C) Type III Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity D) Type IV Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T-cell dependent)
D) Type IV Cell mediated hypersensitivity (T-cell dependent)
You perform a gel ABO/Rh test on a 45-year-old male patient and you obtain the following results. What could be the Type/Rh of this patient? A) AB POS B) A POS C) B POS D) A2B POS
D) A2B POS
You did not provide an answer to this question. When should blood samples for trough drug levels be collected? A) 30 minutes after peak levels B) 45 minutes before the next dose C) 1-2 hours after the last dose D) Immediately before the next dose is given
D) Immediately before the next dose is given
The red blood cell inclusions noted in the Wright stained peripheral smear to the right are called: A) Heinz bodies B) Basophilic stippling C) Malarial ring forms D) Pappenheimer bodies
D) Pappenheimer bodies
When in the Fisher Projection, which carbon is used to determine if the molecule is in D or L formation? A) Anomeric carbon B) First chiral carbon C) Central Carbon D) Penultimate carbon
D) Penultimate carbon
When performing an anti-human globulin (AHG) test, it is important to completely wash the red cells because: A) Washing eliminates concentrations of unbound antigens. B) Washing prevents elution of cell-bound antibody. C) Washing promotes false positive effects of rouleaux. D) Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum. Feedback
D) Washing prevents neutralization of the anti-human globulin (AHG) serum. Feedback
sopropyl alcohol is considered (a): A) Sensitizer B) Flammable C) Corrosive D) Non-Flammable
B) Flammable
Which of following descriptors would apply to the bone marrow displayed in the image to the right? A) High myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio -- Many WBC precursors, few RBC precursors, Megakaryocyte present B) Inverted or Low M:E ratio -- Few WBC precursors, many RBC precursors, Megakaryocyte present C) Normal myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio -- Many WBC precursors, many RBC precursors, Megakaryocyte present D) High myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio -- Many WBC precursors, Many RBC precursors, Megakaryocyte present
A) High myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio -- Many WBC precursors, few RBC precursors, Megakaryocyte present
A patient admitted to the hospital for ongoing fever produces the following laboratory results: BC count: 3.56 x 1012/L WBC count: 57.5 x 10°/L Platelet count: 375,000/ul Differential count: 3 blasts, 10 myelocytes, 6 metamyelocytes, 12 bands, 64 segs, 4 lymphocytes, and 1 monocyte LAP score = 155. Which of the following conditions correlates closely with this patient's results? A) Leukemoid Reaction B) Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia C) Genetic translocation (9;22) (q34;911) D) Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria
A) Leukemoid Reaction
Which term listed below refers to the process that must be followed when notification is received that a donor of a unit transfused now tests positive for an infectious disease? A) Look-back B) Donor notification C) Minor crossmatch D) Major crossmatch
A) Look-back
All of the following statements describe a method by which platelets aid coagulation EXCEPT: A) Lower blood pressure by releasing heparin B) Catalyze coagulation by releasing Platelet Factor 3 C) Cause blood vessels to constrict by releasing serotonin D) Form a plug to stop the flow of blood
A) Lower blood pressure by releasing heparin
In which of the following conditions are Cabot rings most likely to be observed on a Wright-stained peripheral blood smear? A) Megaloblastic anemia & Lead poisoning B) Moderate iron deficiency anemia C)Side cell trait D) Plasma cell myeloma
A) Megaloblastic anemia & Lead poisoning
All of the following represent an area in clinical microbiology using molecular detection methods a routine diagnostic tool, EXCEPT? A) Mycology testing B) Microbial identity testing after culture C) Negative validation testing Genotyping for antimicrobial drug resistance
A) Mycology testing
A yellow coloration found in fresh cerebrospinal fluid supernatant is termed: The correct answer is highlighted below A) Xanthochromia B) Hemolysis C) Jaundice D) Hyperlipidemia
A) Xanthochromia
The accuracy of an immunoassay is its ability to discriminate between results that are true positive and results that are true negative. Two parameters of test accuracy are specificity and sensitivity. Which of these statements apply to an immunoassay with high specificity? A) Accurately identifies the presence of disease B) Accurately identifies the absence of disease C) Has many false-positives D) Has few false-negatives
B) Accurately identifies the absence of disease
Which of the following describes a beta thalassemia genotype ß+/ß? A) Beta thalassemia silent carrier B) Beta thalassemia minor C) Beta thalassemia intermedia D) Beta thalassemia major
B) Beta thalassemia minor
Which of the following blood smear illustrations would be best suited for performing a differential count: The correct answer is highlighted below A) Top Photo only B) Bottom Photo only C) Both are satisfactory D) Neither is satisfactory
B) Bottom Photo only
Prominent vacuolation involving the cytoplasm of abnormal lymphoblast-like cells seen in the peritoneal body fluid preparation shown is a distinctive feature of which disease? A) Hodgkin Lymphoma B) Burkitt Lymphoma C) Hairy Cell Leukemia D) Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia
B) Burkitt Lymphoma
Which of the following conditions is caused by Trypanosoma cruzi? A) Malaria B) Chagas' Disease C) Tapeworms D) Sleeping Sickness
B) Chagas' Disease
The initial step in the process of phagocytosis is: A) Adherence B) Chemotaxis C) Engulfment, phagosome formation and fusion D) Digestion and destruction
B) Chemotaxis
What is a characteristic of a person who is weak D? A) Types as D negative and produces anti-D when exposed to D antigen B) Demonstrates a reduced number of D antigen sites on the surface of the red cell C) Types as D positive and produces anti-D when exposed to D antigen D) Someone who is defined as being D negative
B) Demonstrates a reduced number of D antigen sites on the surface of the red cell
This non-hemolytic organism was isolated from the blood culture of a patient. The image shows the organism's reactions in 6.5% NaCl broth and on bile esculin agar. With further testing, this isolate will most likely be identified as: A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Enterococeus spp. C) Streptococcus agalactiae D) Streptococcus bovis
B) Enterococeus spp.
The most specific test to detect both presence of Factor V Leiden, also known as activated protein C resistance (APC) and predict risk of thrombosis is: The correct answer is highlighted below A) Activated Protein C Resistance (APC) clot-based assay B) Factor V Mutation Assay C) ELISA assay for Factor V D) Antithrombin antigen assay
B) Factor V Mutation Assay
A urine sample is cloudy pink in appearance. The microscopic examination reveals the presence of intact red blood cells. The term used to describe these findings is: A) Oliguria B) Hematuria C) Myoglobinuria D) Hemoglobinuria
B) Hematuria
A primary immune response typically presents with which class of antibody? A) IgG B) IgM C) IgA D) IgD
B) IgM
A technologist is having trouble differentiating between red blood cells, oil droplets, and yeast cells on a urine microscopy. Acetic acid should be added to the sediment to: A) Lyse the yeast cells B) Lyse the red blood cells C) Dissolve the oil droplets D) Crenate the red blood cells
B) Lyse the red blood cells
Two biologically functional characteristics of immunoglobin G (IgG) are: A) First effective defense against bacteria; activation of the classical complement pathway. B) Opsonization of antigens for phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils; neonatal immunity by transfer of maternal antibodies across the placenta and gut of the fetus. C) Mucosal immunity, defends external body surfaces. D) Provides protection against parasitic helminithic infection; mediates the release of histamines and heparin from mast cells and basophils. Feedback
B) Opsonization of antigens for phagocytosis by macrophages and neutrophils; neonatal immunity by transfer of maternal antibodies across the placenta and gut of the fetus.
All of the following characteristics describe T lymphocytes EXCEPT? A) CD4 & CD 8 positive B) Production of surface immunoglobulins C) Production of cytokines and chemokines D)Recruitment of inflammatory cells to site of inflammation or infection
B) Production of surface immunoglobulins
The arrangement of the erythrocytes shown by the blue arrows in this peripheral smear should be reported out as ____________________ . A) Agglutination B) Rouleaux C) Normal distribution D) Aggregation
B) Rouleaux
A technologist put five (5) tubes in a test tube rack and put 3 mL of diluent in each tube. The tech then put 0.3 mL serum in the first tube and mixed it. Next, the tech then transferred 1 mL of the mixture from the first tube to the second tube. This process was carried on through tube number five (5). What is the dilution factor in tube number five? A) 200 B) 300 C) 2816 D) 4872
C) 2816 Feedback The cumulative dilution factor in any tube in a dilution series is determined by multiplying the dilution factors of all previous tubes in the series, and the calculation also includes the tube in question. Therefore, dilution factor (in a series) = tube #1's dilution factor x tube #2's dilution factor...x tube #n's dilution factor. The dilution in any individual tube can be determined by the simple formula: Dilution = Sample volume ÷ (Sample volume + Diluent Volume). The dilution factor is the reciprocal of the dilution. In the first tube the individual dilution ratio would be 1:11. The individual dilution ratios in each of the remaining four tubes is 1:4 in each one. However, the question asks for the cumulative dilution ratio in tube number five (5). This can be easily determined by multiplying all the dilution factors together as follows: 11 x 4 x 4 x 4 x 4 = 2816 Thus, the correct answer should be 2816.
Heparin interacts with _____________, which subsequently inhibits thrombin. A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Antithrombin III D) Protein C
C) Antithrombin III
From the following molds, which one is considered an obligate pathogen, causing infections in persons who were previously healthy? A) Aspergillus fumigatus B) Rhizopus species C) Blastomyces dermatitidis D) Mucor species
C) Blastomyces dermatitidis
All of the following are considered a hazard when working with compressed gases in the laboratory, EXCEPT? A) Fire B) Explosion C) Radiotoxicity D) Mechanical injuries
C) Radiotoxicity
All of the following statements are TRUE regarding storing and handling of urine reagent strips if you are using a manual method (visually read reagent strip), EXCEPT: A) Compare strip to the color chart to check for correlating color. B) Handle strips at the end away from the test area. C) Remove the cap of the test strip bottle and leave it off until testing is completed. D) Store reagent test strips at room temperature below 30° C, but not refrigerated.
C) Remove the cap of the test strip bottle and leave it off until testing is completed.
All of the following statements are TRUE regarding storing and handling of urine reagent strips if you are using a manual method (visually read reagent strip), EXCEPT: A) Compare strip to the color chart to check for correlating color. B) Handle strips at the end away from the test area. C) Remove the cap of the test strip bottle and leave it off until testing is completed. D) Store reagent test strips at room temperature below 30° C, but not refrigerated.
C) Remove the cap of the test strip bottle and leave it off until testing is completed.
Give the objective, "The student will perform the biuret assay for total protein with control values within +2SD of stated values," +2SD of stated values is an example of a: A) Terminal behavior B) Condition C) Standard D) Learning outcome
C) Standard
Which of the following conditions/findings is most likely associated with the peripheral blood picture in the photomicrograph? A) Hereditary spherocytosis B) Lead poisoning C) Transfusion dimorphism D) Folic acid deficiency
C) Transfusion dimorphism
