Lecture Quiz Questions: Which Statement is False?

e

All brain stem functions are involuntary and unconscious b. The pons sorts and edits efferent signals that come from the cerebral cortex and that go to the cerebellum c. The visual and auditory startle reflex are controlled by the midbrain and are unconscious d. The control of respiratory functions is done by the medulla oblongata e. The presence of visual or auditory startle reflexes is a good indication that a person is conscious and aware of his/her environment

d

All preganglionic autonomic neurons release acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter b. Preganglionic sympathetic neurons release acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter c. Postganglionic parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter d. All postganglionic autonomic neurons release acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter e. Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons release acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter

b

Aquaporins allow the movement of water molecules across the plasma membrane b. If a membrane is permeable to water, water will move from the hypertonic to the hypotonic area c. Tonicity is a relative measure of the overall solute concentration of a fluid d. A cell will swell and may burst if placed in a hypertonic solution as a result of water entering the cell by osmosis e. Lipid-soluble solutes move by simple diffusion from areas of high concentrations to areas of low concentration

e

At rest, cells are more negative on the inside than on the outside of the plasma membrane b. The extracellular concentration of Na+ is normally much greater than its intracellular concentration c. The opening of Na+ channels will cause a depolarization of the plasma membrane d. The intracellular concentration of K- is normally much greater than its extracellular concentration e. The opening of K+ channels will cause a depolarization of the plasma membrane

d

Bipolar neurons are relatively rare and found only in special senses b. Voltage-gated Ca++ channels are found in the secretory region of neurons c. Chemically-gated channels are found in the receptive region of neurons d. The dendrites of multipolar neurons are not involved in signal reception e. The cell body of unipolar neurons is not involved in signal reception

d

Cancer occurs when cells divide, and keep dividing, uncontrollably b. Chromatin is made of DNA and histones c. All somatic cells in the body have 23 pairs of chromosomes, for a total of 46 chromosomes d. Chromosomes are located in the nucleolus e. Some cells, in their mature form, never undergo mitosis and cannot be replaced if they die

c

For ribs 2-9: the superior and inferior costal facets on the centrum of thoracic vertebrae connect with the head of ribs b. For ribs 2-9: the transverse costal facets on the transverse process of thoracic vertebrae connect to the tubercle of ribs c. Floating ribs are not connected to the vertebral column d. Humans, males, and females, have 12 pairs of ribs: 7 pairs of true ribs and 5 pairs of false ribs (including 2 pairs of floating ribs) e. Intervertebral disks are made of an annulus fibrosus and of a nucleus pulposus

A man nearly drowns and his brain is deprived of oxygen for 10 minutes. His head turns in response to lights and sounds, his body temperature is normal, but he has no control of his respiratory functions and he is incapable of any conscious and voluntary action. Based on these observations,

His medulla oblongata is probably damaged because of his impaired respiration functions b. His capacity to follow lights and sounds does not prove that he is conscious and aware of his environment, because these are involuntary and unconscious reflexes c. His cerebellum is probably damaged because his higher brain functions are disabled d. His brain is probably intact because of his normal startle reflexes e. His hypothalamus is probably intact because of his normal control of body temperature (c)

e

Hyaline cartilage is found at the tip of the nose b. Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral disks c. Elastic cartilage is found in the external ear d. The perichondrium is a membrane made of dense irregular connective tissue that wraps the outer surface of cartilage tissues e. When cartilage becomes calcified, it becomes hard and turns into bone tissue

e

Keratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue is found in the epidermis of the skin b. The apical side of epithelial tissues have cells with microvilli c. The apical side of epithelial tissue can have cells with cilia d. Some epithelial tissues are involved in sensory reception e. Epithelial tissues never contain any nerve cells

d

Motor neurons always leave the spinal cord from its ventral side b. The dorsal root ganglia outside the spinal cord contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons c. The filum terminale is an extension of the pia matter that anchors the end of the spinal cord d. Lumbar punctures involve the sampling of cerebrospinal fluid from the central canal of the spinal cord e. The epidural space around the spinal cord normally contains adipose tissue

c

Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue lines the oral cavity b. The mesothelium is a simple squamous epithelial tissue found in serous membranes c. The endothelium in a simple squamous epithelial tissue lining the inside surface of cells d. Simple squamous epithelial tissue forms the alveoli (sacs) of the lungs e. The "basal lamina" is an epithelial tissue secretion

e

Organ systems rely on one another to function properly b. Tissues are made of many cells c. Molecules are made of many atoms d. Organisms have many organ systems e. A given organ always contains only one type of tissue

e

Osteogenic (stem) cells are found in the periosteum and the endosteum, and have a fast rate of mitosis b. The "osteoid" refers to the organic component of the extracellular matrix found in bone tissue, and is produced by the osteoblasts c. Osteons are cylindrical structures; they are the basic structural units of compact bone d. Canaliculi are microscopic channels in the bone matric that allow osteocytes to communicate with each other across lamellae e. The central canals of osteons contain red bone marrow

b

Peptide bonds are covalent bonds that link amino acids to one another b. The secondary structure of proteins results from peptide bonds between the "amino" and "acid" groups of the amino acids forming the protein c. Changes in the primary structure of proteins can be the result of genetic mutations d. The 20 amino acids differ in regards to their functional (R) group e. Beta-plated sheets are part of the secondary structure of proteins

a

Photoreceptors only respond to light; no other form of stimulus can activate them b. Nociceptors are often sub-types of the other types of sensory receptors c. Receptors with small receptive fields are better at identifying the location of the stimulus than receptors with large receptive fields d. Tonic receptors do not adapt quickly, if at all. Phasic receptors adapt quickly. e. Seeing spots after applying pressure to the eyes occurs, in part, because pressure in the fluid of the eyes causes photoreceptors to respond as if they were exposed to light

c

Primary sensory fibers in the muscle spindles detect the degree of stretch and the rate of change in the stretch of the muscle spindle b. Intrafusal fibers can undergo contractions, but only at their ends where sarcomeres are found c. Extrafusal fibers are neurons that detect stretch in the muscle cells d. Intrafusal fibers are modified skeletal muscle cells found in muscle spindles e. Secondary sensory fibers in muscle spindles detect the degree of stretch of the muscle spindle

c

Proprioceptors are used to detect the location and movement of limbs b. Schwann cells form a regeneration tube through which the axon of a damaged neuron of the peripheral nervous system can re-grow c. When the axon of a neuron of the peripheral nervous system is damaged, the distal end starts to re-grow while the proximal end is immediately destroyed d. Neurons of the central nervous system cannot be repaired if they are damaged e. Neurons of the peripheral nervous system can be repaired if the cell body is myelinated

c

Proprioceptors detect the location and movement of body parts b. Interoceptors detect signals coming from within the body; exteroceptors detect signals coming from outside the body c. Interoceptors are always located within the body; exteroceptors are always located outside the body d. The activation of most exteroceptors result in conscious sensations e. The activation of most interoceptors result in unconscious sensations

d

Skeletal muscle cells are called "fibers" b. Axons are long extensions of neurons that send information c. All muscle cells contain the proteins actin and myosin d. Nervous and muscular tissues are types of connective tissues e. Plasma is the extracellular matrix of the connective tissue called "blood", and contains fibrous proteins involved in blood clotting

c

The binding of acetylcholine to nicotinic receptors always has a stimulatory effect b. The binding of acetylcholine to muscarinic receptors can have stimulatory or inhibitory effects c. Postganglionic somatic motor neurons release norepinephrine on skeletal muscle cells d. Most visceral organs have both adrenergic and cholinergic receptors on the plasma membrane of their cells e. Skeletal muscle cells have nicotinic receptors on their plasma membrane

c

The control of body temperature and of blood glucose involve negative feedback systems b. Ovulation and childbirth involve positive feedback systems c. Negative feedback systems always have effectors that decreased the controlled variable; positive feedback systems always have effectors that increase the controlled variable d. Blood clotting and action potentials involve positive feedback systems e. The control of blood CO2 and of blood pressure involve negative feedback systems

c

The endoneurium is made of areolar connective tissue and wraps individual nerve fibers b. Sensory neurons always connect to the dorsal side of the spinal cord; motor neurons always connect to the ventral side of the spinal cord c. The perineurium is a tough membrane of fibrous connective tissue that wraps outside the nerves d. Many nerves are "mixed": they contain both afferent and efferent neurons e. A nerve fiber refers to the axon of a neuron

a

The hypothalamus is where complex and conscious emotions are generated and interpreted b. The premotor area is in charge of memorized motor skills c. The identification of an object by touch occurs in the somatosensory association area of the cerebrum d. The hypothalamus can alter the functions of the sympathetic and parasympathetic systems e. The postcentral gyrus is where the primary somatosensory area is located

a

The length of the extrafusal fibers in the muscle spindle can be modified to adjust its sensitivity to detecting the degree of stretch in the muscle b. A lack of tension in a muscle spindle can make it incapable of detecting the degree of stretch c. An increase in the stretch of a muscle will generally cause an increase in the frequency of action potentials in the sensory fibers innervating the muscle spindle d. During the knee-jerk reflex, the activation of sensory fibers in the quadriceps will cause the inhibition of motor neurons innervating the hamstring e. During the knee-jerk reflex, the activation of sensory fibers in the quadriceps will cause the activation of motor neurons innervating the quadriceps

c

The third ventricle is found in the forebrain b. The lateral ventricles are found in the forebrain c. The central canal is found in the hypothalamus d. The fourth ventricle is found in the brain stem e. The fluid in the lateral ventricles is the same fluid as the one found in the cerebral aqueduct

e

Water intoxication can lead to excessive fluid pressure in the cranial cavity b. Ependymal cells help control the composition of the cerebrospinal fluid c. The subarachnoid space contains the large-blood vessels that supply the brain with blood flow d. Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the subarachnoid space of the brain e. Excess cerebrospinal fluid normally drains into the choroid plexus

a

Water has a high heat capacity, which means that it requires a lot of thermal energy to be converted from a liquid to a gas b. The high surface tension of water is the result of hydrogen bonds between water molecules c. If you decrease the concentration of protons in a solution by a factor of 1000, pH will increase by 3 units d. If you increase the concentration of protons in a solution by a factor of 100, pH will decrease by 2 units e. Bases are molecules that can bind protons and that, therefore, can increase the pH of solutions

b

Water has a high heat of vaporization, which means that it requires a lot of thermal energy to be converted from a liquid to a gas b. In a single water molecule, ionic bonds bind two hydrogen atoms with an oxygen atom c. Acids are molecules that release hydrogen ions when in solution d. If you decrease the concentration of protons in a solution by a factor of 10, pH will increase by 1 unit e. Base molecules that can bind protons and that, therefore, can increase the pH of solution

c

a. In general, positive feedback systems cause rapid changes in physiological variables b. The control center sends signals to effectors using an efferent pathway c. The extra-cellular compartment is part of the external environment d. Even through positive feedback systems cause rapid changes in physiological variables, they are often involved in maintaining homeostasis e. Sensors or receptors send signals to the control center using an afferent pathway

e

"Na" is the symbol for sodium b. Liquids have a variable shape but a fixed volume c. If two atoms have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons they will be considered to be isotopes of the same element d. If two atoms have a different number of protons, they will be considered to be different elements e. "P" is the symbol for potassium

a

"Salts" have atoms linked by covalent bonds b. Molecules in which the atoms are linked by covalent bonds are not dissociated when put in water c. In ionic bonds, cations have a positive charge d. Covalent bonds can lead to the formation of polar molecules e. Covalent bonds can be single, double, or triple

a

"Trans" fatty acids are more "kinked" than "cis" fatty acids because they have more double bonds between their carbon atoms b. Phospholipids are components of cell membranes c. "Oils" are triglycerides that have unsaturated fatty acids and that are liquid at room temperature d. Lipids are not soluble in water but are soluble in organic solvents e. Cholesterol is a lipid, more specifically it is a steroid

c

A displaced bone fracture occurs when the bone fragments are no longer in the correct position b. A linear fracture occurs when the bone breaks along its axis i.e. when the fracture is parallel to the length of the bone c. An open fracture occurs when the bone fragments do not go through the integument d. An open fracture occurs when bone fragments go through the integument e. A simple fracture occurs when the bone fragments do not go through the integument

c

A given muscle can be both an agonist and an antagonist b. Synergists can add force to the movements produced by prime movers c. Agonists skeletal muscles pull on bones; antagonist skeletal muscles push on bones d. The insertion of a muscle refers to the bone that is moved by the action of the muscle e. The "origin" of a skeletal muscle refers to the bone to which the muscle is attached that does not move when this muscle contracts

d

A new action potential cannot be generated during the absolute refractory period b. During saltatory conduction, action potentials are only produced in the nodes of Ranvier c. Increasing stimulation intensity can increase the frequency of action potentials, but not their amplitude d. The stimulation intensity required to stimulate a new action potential is lower at the beginning of the relative refractory period than at the end of the relative refractory period e. During the relative refractory period, voltage-gated Na+ channels progressively become reset from being blocked by the inactivation gate to being closed and ready to open

e

ATP has 3 phosphate groups; ADP has 2 b. The sugar found in DNA is called "deoxyribose" c. The base Guanine is found in DNA and in RNA d. In DNA, Adenine is always paired with Thymine on the complementary strand e. The base Thymine is found in DNA and RNA f. On average, students must spend 1-3 hours studying for each hour spent in class

e

About 5-7% of the bone mass is recycled every week b. Bone tissue deposition is bone by the osteoblasts and can be accelerated in response to mechanical stress or to injury c. An increase in PTH secretion will cause an increase in blood calcium concentration d. Bone resorption is done by the osteoclasts, which are very large macrophages, and can be modified by blood calcium levels and the action of the parathyroid hormone e. Compact bone tissue is replaced approximately every 10 days

e

Action potentials can travel deep inside the muscle fiber by following T-Tubules b. The binding of Ach to receptors on the sarcolemma leads to the production of an action potential on the sarcolemma c. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases Ca++ in response to an action potential that moved down the T-Tubule d. Ach is a neurotransmitter released by somatic motor neurons to trigger skeletal muscle contractions e. Tropomyosin changes shape when it bind to Ca++, which causes the movement of troponin away from the binding sites for myosin head

e

Bone tissue is a type of connective tissue b. Chondroblasts are immature, undifferentiated cells found in cartilage c. Chondrocytes are mature, differentiated cells found in cartilage d. Collagen fibers, found the extracellular matrix of connective tissue, are made of the protein "collagen" e. Fibrocytes are immature, undifferentiated cells found in connective tissue proper

e

Bones forming the shoulder girdle are part of the appendicular skeleton b. The sternum is a flat bone c. Bones forming the hip girdles are part of the appendicular skeleton d. The formation of blood cells occurs in the red bone marrow e. Bones found in the digits are short bones

d

Bursae and tendon sheaths are composed of an external fibrous capsule, of a synovial membrane and of synovial fluid b. Bursae allow ligaments to slide with very little friction during the movements of joints c. Tendon sheaths allow tendons to slide with very little friction during the movement of joints d. Articular cartilage is found at the end of the bones involved in synovial joints, and secretes the synovial fluid e. The synovial fluid contains hyaluronic acid, which is secreted by the synovial membrane

d

Cells are very diverse in form and function; there are 220 different cell types in the human body b. The cytoplasm contains organelles c. Cell division is the only way that more cells can be produced when required for growth or tissue repair d. All cells in the body contain all types of organelles e. The cytosol is the fluid component of the cytoplasm

a

Compounds can be separated by simple methods, such as freezing, evaporation, or filtration b. Blood proteins form a colloid mixture in blood plasma c. Dissolved ions in blood plasma form a solution d. Suspensions are heterogenous and the particles will settle at the bottom of the container e. Colloid mixtures are translucent; solutions are clear

a

Denaturation causes the unfolding of protein by breaking the peptide bonds between amino acids b. Proteins may be denatured by heat or acidity c. Enzymes are proteins with catalytic properties d. Enzymes are very specific in regards to the substances they can bind, and therefore in regards to the chemical reaction they can catalyze e. Enzymes can decrease the activation energy required for a chemical reaction to go forward without modifying the net energy released by the reaction

b

Dense regular connective tissue is found in many tendons and ligaments b. A droplet of glycogen occupies most of the cytoplasm of adipocytes c. Adipose tissue contains many blood vessels d. Dense connective tissues, both regular and irregular, in general have a poor capacity to regenerate e. Adipose tissue is abundant in the hypodermis, where it forms "subcutaneous fat" deposit

c

Duplicated chromosomes are aligned on the metaphasic plate during metaphase b. Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles during anaphase c. Sister chromatids refer to the complementary strands that form a DNA molecule d. Chromosome duplication occurs during the "S-phase" of the interphase e. Mitosis results in daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the original cell

c

During endochondrial ossification of long bones, a primary ossification center is formed in the diaphysis while secondary ossification centers are formed, later, in the epiphyses b. During the endochrondrial ossification of long bones, spongy bone that forms in the diaphysis is eventually broken down by osteoclasts to form the medullary cavity c. The "osteoid" is made mostly of calcium and phosphates d. The endosteum lines the surfaces of perforating (Volkmann's) and central (Haversian) canals e. During endochondrial ossification, most of the cartilage is gradually replaced by bone tissue

d

During skin healing, a function of blood clots is to prevent bacteria from entering the site of injury b. During skin healing, inflammatory signals released by mast cells and macrophages increase the dilation and permeability of capillaries in the dermis c. Visible scars occur when fibrous connective tissue takes the space normally occupied by the dermis d. "Fibroblast apoptosis" occurs during the initial inflammation response and refers to deposition of collagen fibers by fibroblasts during the formation of granulation tissue e. Hair and nail growth occurs by mitosis of keratinocytes in their respective matrix

b

During the cross-bridge cycle, the binding of a new ATP is required for myosin head to detach from actin b. Energy must be released by the hydrolysis of ATP in order to detach the myosin head from actin c. In a resting muscle, myosin heads are in a "cocked", high energy position d. In rigor mortis, muscles are stiff because myosin heads cannot detach from actin because of a lack of ATP e. Energy must be released by the hydrolysis of ATP in order to "cock" the myosin head into the high energy position

b

During the repolarization phase of action potentials, the voltage across the membrane becomes more negative in part because of the opening of voltage-gated K+ channels b. The concentration gradients of ions are revered during an action potential c. During the repolarization phase of action potentials, voltage-gated Na+ channels are inactivated d. Na+-K- pumps keep the intracellular concentration of Na+ lower than its extracellular concentration e. After a depolarization, voltage-gated Na+ channels must be reset to a closed position to be able to open again

c

During the repolarization phase of action potentials, voltage-gated K+ channels are open b. Na+-K- pumps keep the extracellular concentration of Na+ higher than its intracellular concentration c. During the repolarization phase of action potentials, the voltage across the membrane becomes more positive because of the closing of voltage-gated K+ channels d. The concentration gradients of ions change very little during action potentials e. After a depolarization, voltage-gated Na+ channels must be reset to a closed position to be able to open again

a

Each amino acid in a polypeptide is encoded by a sequence of 4 nucleotide bases in a gene b. The nitrogen base Uracil is only found in RNA c. The sugar found in RNA in a ribose d. The amount of energy released by the hydrolysis of ATP into ADP + P is very close to the amount of energy required for most biochemical reactions e. Enzymes are proteins with catalytic properties

d

Fibrocartilage is good at absorbing shocks, and is found in intervertebral disks b. Cartilage is a form of connective tissue that is avascular and not innervated c. Osteons are found in compact bone tissue d. Fibrocartilage is found at the end of long bones e. Hematopoiesis occurs in the marrow found in spongy bone tissue

c

Fingerprints are the result of fold in the papillary layer of the dermis b. Sweat glands are located in the dermis but are derived from the epidermis c. Wrinkles occur as a result of deep folds in the papillary layer of the epidermis d. Sebaceous glands are located in the dermis but are derived from the epidermis e. Bacterial growth on the surface of the skin is reduced by the acidity of secretions from eccrine sweat glands and by the antibacterial properties of sebum

c

Folliculitis is an inflammation of hair follicle and/or sebaceous glands that is usually cause by bacterial (Staphylococcus aureus) infections b. When folliculitis spreads to the hypodermis, a furuncle (or boil) will form c. The "arrector pili" is a bacteria that causes most cases of skin infections d. A carbuncle can form when many furuncles are joined, forming a composite infection e. Close shaving can result in ingrown hairs, where a hair grows sideways or downward into integument

b

For the somatic innervation of skeletal muscle cells, acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme in the synaptic cleft that can break down acetylcholine b. Ligand-gated (or chemically-gated) channels allow only one type of ion to cross when they are open c. Action potentials cause an opening of voltage-gated Ca++ channels when they reach the axon terminal d. Neurotransmitters cause the opening of ligand-gated (or chemically-gated) ion channels on the plasma membrane of the post-synaptic neuron e. The exocytosis of synaptic vesicles is triggered by an increase intracellular Ca++ in the axon terminal

c

Haircuts do not make hair grow faster b. Folliculitis is an inflammation of hair follicle and/or sebaceous glands that usually cause by bacterial (Staphylococcus aureus) infections c. The "glassy membrane" of hairs is the outer covering formed by a single layer of flat, dead keratinocytes d. Grey hairs occur when there is a decrease in melanin production by melanocytes of the hair matrix e. The hair matrix gets oxygen and nutrients from the blood vessels found in the hair papilla

a, b, c, d

Humans and giraffes have the same number of cervical vertebrae b. Over half of your bones are located in your hands and feet c. Human males do not have a bone in the penis (penile bone, also called a baculum). The males of the vast majority of mammalian species, including most primates, have one d. The clavicle is the most common bone broke in humans e. The rest of the semester will be easier

d

Humans have 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, and 5 lumbar vertebrae b. The metacarpals form the palm of the hands; the metatarsals form the soles of the feet c. The carpal bones form the wrists, the tarsal bones form the ankles d. The spinal cord goes through the annulus fibrosus of intervertebral disks e. In humans, the sacrum is made of 5 fused vertebrae. The coccyx (or tail bone) is made up of 4 fused vertebrae

a

If a triplet on DNA is "T-A-C", then the codon transcribed on mRNA should be "U-A-C" b. A mistake in a gene can potentially result in the wrong primary structure of a protein c. If a nucleotide base sequence on a DNA strand is "A-T-C", then the nucleotide base sequence on the complimentary DNA strand should be "T-A-C" d. Some DNA mutations have no effect on protein structure because some amino acids are coded by more than one codon e. If a codon on mRNA is "A-U-C", then the anticodon of the corresponding tRNA should be "U-A-G"

b

If two atoms have a different number of protons, they will be considered to be different elements b. "S" is the symbol for sodium c. Gases variable shapes and volumes d. If two atoms have the same number of protons but different number of neutrons, they will be considered to be isotopes of the same element e. "K" is the symbol for potassium

b

In proteins, amino acids are bound to one another by peptide bonds, a type of covalent bond b. The tertiary structure of proteins results from hydrogen and covalent bonds between the "amine" groups of the amino acids forming the protein c. A single mistake in the primary structure of proteins can cause problems in all structural levels of the protein d. The primary structure of proteins is determined by genes e. Alpha-helices are part of the secondary structure of proteins

b

Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials can cancel excitatory postsynaptic potentials by spatial summation b. Neurotransmitters that activate receptors that open channels that allow both Na+ and K- to cross the membrane will have no effect on the membrane potential c. Neurotransmitters that activate receptors that cause the opening of Cl- channels will cause an inhibitory post-synaptic potential d. Neurotransmitters that activate receptors that cause the opening of K+ channels will cause an inhibitory post-synaptic potential e. Temporal summation occurs when a single presynaptic neuron stimulates a postsynaptic neuron at a frequency that is high enough for the postsynaptic potentials to add

d

Keratinocytes in the epidermis are anchored to one another by desmosomes b. The stratum corneum of the epidermis contains dead keratinocytes filled with the protein keratin c. Keratinocytes become pigmented when they absorb melanin, a protein produced by melanocytes d. Melanocytes in the epidermis are anchored to one another by melanosomes e. From the dermis to the skin surface, the layers of the epidermis are: stratum basale, stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum corneum

a, b, c, d, e

Mice have a brain that, relative to their body mass, is larger than it is in humans b. Men have a brain that is about 10% larger than women c. Listening to classical music during pregnancy does not improve the intellect of children d. Humans only use 10% of their brain e. Smoking marijuana does not result in the death of millions of brain cells

e

Microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments are all part of the cytoskeleton b. Microfilaments and intermediate filaments are resistant to stretch c. Microtubules are resistant to compression d. Cilia contain microtubules and can generate movement e. Intermediate filaments are the main components of the cytoskeleton involved in cellular movement

c

Microglial cells are glial cells found in the central nervous system that function as macrophages b. Schwann cells form a sheath of myelin on the axon of neurons of the peripheral nervous system c. Oligodendrocytes control the composition of the interstitial fluid in the central nervous system d. The high metabolic rate of neurons makes them highly vulnerable to exposure to low oxygen or intracellular glucose levels e. The nervous system uses both chemical and electrical signals to transmit information

c

Muscles are involved in the control of body temperature b. Skeletal muscles have neurogenic contractions c. The "elasticity" of muscles means that their length can be actively increased d. Smooth muscles can have neurogenic or myogenic contractions e. Muscle can actively shorten, but their extension is a passive process

d

Myosin heads are hinged and can grab and pull actin b. During contraction, the length of myofilaments does not change c. During contraction, the Z-disks get closer to one another d. During a contraction, sarcomeres get longer e. One thick filament is composed of hundreds of myosin molecules

b

Nails are part of the integumentary system b. The lymphatic system is a control system that uses chemical messages, called hormones, to modify body functions c. Parts of the reproductive system secrete hormones, and therefore have endocrine functions d. The nervous system is a fast-acting control system e. The urinary system is involved in regulating acid-base balance of body fluids

d

Neurotransmitters released in the synaptic cleft can be destroyed by enzymes in the synaptic cleft b. Neurotransmitters bind to specific chemically-gated ion channels c. Action potentials cause the opening of voltage-gated Ca++ channels when they reach the axon terminal d. Axodendritic synapses generally have a greater impact on post synaptic neurons than axoaxonic synapses e. The exocytosis of synaptic vesicles is triggered by an increase in intracellular Ca++ in the axon terminal

d

Physiological functions depends on the activity of individual cells and on the interactions that occur among cells b. Different types of cells in the body often contain different organelles c. The functions that a given type of cell can perform depends on the structure of this type of cell d. The cytoplasm is the fluid component of the cytosol e. Cells are the basic structural and functional units of all life forms

d

Skeletal muscle fibers contain many myofibrils stacked parallel to one another b. Actin and myosin are myofilament c. Each myofibril contains many sarcomeres in series; each individual sarcomere is bordered on each side by the Z-disks d. When muscles grow as a result of exercise, the number or muscle fibers increases but their size does not e. In sarcomeres, each thick filament is surrounded by 6 thin filaments

e

Somatic motor neurons control skeletal muscles b. Sympathetic motor neurons activate visceral organs useful during stress or exercise c. Parasympathetic motor neurons activate visceral organs useful for general maintenance of body functions d. Afferent neurons are part of the sensory division of the peripheral nervous system e. The autonomic nervous system is part of the central nervous system

e

Syndesmoses are fibrous joints in which 2 bones are linked by a ligament b. Fibrous connective tissue is found in most types of joints, not only in "fibrous" joints c. The three main types of joints are: fibrous, cartilaginous, and synovial d. Sutures are fibrous joints that connect the flat bones of the skull, that become ossified in adults e. Fibrous joints have a joint cavity

e

Synergists involved in stabilizing joints are called "fixators" b. Agonists skeletal muscles pull on bones; antagonist skeletal muscles also pull on bones c. A given muscle can be both an agonist and an antagonist d. Circular muscles are used to close cavities e. Long muscles are always more powerful than short muscles

d

T-Tubules allow action potentials that travel on the sarcolemma to move deep into the muscle fiber b. A "triad" is composed of a T-tubule and 2 terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum on each side c. After a contraction, the Ca++ that was released by the sarcoplasmic reticulum is pumped back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum d. In a resting muscle, the myosin heads cannot bind to actin because of the binding sites are covered by troponin e. The sarcolemma is the name given to the plasma membrane of muscle fibers

b

T-Tubules are invaginations of the sarcolemma of skeletal muscle fibers b. During a contraction, the release of Ca++ by the sarcolemma of skeletal muscle fibers is triggered by the movement of acetylcholine down the T-Tubules c. Acetylcholine (Ach) can trigger the formation of an action potential on the sarcolemma of skeletal muscle fibers d. In a resting muscle, the myosin heads cannot bind to actin because the binding sites are covered by tropomyosin e. In a sarcomere, thick filaments are anchored to one another in their middle section f. Most students think that Test 3 is the most difficult one of the semester

e

The formation of ossification centers involved death of chondrocytes as a result of lack of nutrients b. One endochondrial ossification is completed, bone growth can continue at the level of the epiphyseal plate and of the articular cartilage c. During endochondrial ossification of long bones, the formation of a medullary cavity involves the break down of spongy bone tissue by osteoclasts d. The periosteal bud consists of blood and lymph vessels, and nerve cells, that invade the cavity formed in the cartilage tissue e. During endochondrial ossification of the cartilage tissue is converted into bone tissue

d

The four main types of tissues in the body are epithelial, connective, nerve, and muscle b. Epithelial tissues in general have a very high regenerative capacity c. Epithelial tissues in general have cells that are held together by many tight junctions and/or desmosomes d. Epithelial tissues are highly vascular e. Glandular epithelial tissue secrete substances

c

The glycocalyx is a "sugary coat" on the surface of cells involved in cell adhesion and recognition b. Cholesterol is a normal component of the plasma membrane c. The hydrophilic heads of the phospholipids forming the plasma membrane do not touch the extracellular or the intracellular fluid d. Desmosomes securely anchor neighboring cells to one another e. Tight junctions prevent the leakage of fluids through the space separating neighboring cells

e

The grey matter of the brain is an area that contains a high density of cell bodies of neurons b. The outer layer of grey matter found in the cerebrum and in the cerebellum is called the "cortex" c. The fluid found in the central canal of the spinal cord is the same fluid found in the brain ventricles d. The spinal cord contains grey and white matter e. The left and right cerebral hemispheres are separated by a gyrus

d

The integumentary system is involved in the control of body temperature b. The lymphatic system is involved in defending the body against infections c. The endocrine system is a control system that uses chemical messages, called hormones, to modify the body functions d. Kidneys are part of the digestive system e. The urinary system is involved in regulating blood pressure

c

The knee joint is an example of a synovial joint b. Knee injuries often involve both ligament sprains and cartilage injuries c. Sprains that result in the stretch or partial tear of a ligament always require surgery for proper healing d. In knees, the tibial collateral ligament is attached to the medial meniscus. As a result, tibial collateral ligament sprains also often damage the medial meniscus e. A torn knee meniscus is an example of a joint cartilage injury

d

The lamina propria refers to the loose areolar connective tissue found in mucous membranes b. Mucous membranes are made of multiple tissues and line body cavities open to the exterior c. Proteoglycans are found in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue, have a "jelly structure", and their density determines the viscosity of the extracellular matrix d. The basal lamina and the reticular lamina are types of connective tissue proper that form the basement membrane e. Serous membranes are made of multiple tissues and cover internal organs and line internal body cavities

e

The lamina propria refers to the thin layer of areolar connective found below the epithelial layer in mucous membranes b. Some mucous membranes are lined with a non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue, others are lined with a simple columnar epithelial tissue c. The parietal pericardium is a serious membrane that lines the walls of the cavity where the heart is located d. Dense irregular connective tissue is found in the dermis of the skin e. A "muscle fiber" refers to an actin myofilament

a

The main function of goblet cells is to produce and secrete a protein called keratin b. In exocrine glands that use the merocrine mode of secretion, cells release their secretions by exocytosis c. Hormones are produced and released by endocrine glands d. "Holocrine secretion" refers to the mode of secretion by which the secreting cells rupture, thus damaging them in the process e. Sebaceous glands are the only type of glands in the human body that use holocrine mode of secretion

c

The medullary cavity is found in the diaphysis of long bones b. Trabecular cavities are found in the spongy bone of long bones c. Red marrow is found in the medullary cavity of long bones d. Osteoblasts and osteoclasts are found in the periosteum and in the endosteum e. Bones found in the wrist and ankles are short bones

d

The nitrogen bases Adenine, Cytosine, and Guanine are found in DNA and in RNA b. DNA is in the form of a double helix; RNA is not c. ATP is use as a small packet of energy to provide energy for most biochemical reactions d. A gene is a segment of DNA that encodes the fatty acid sequence for a given polypeptide e. The tertiary structure of proteins refers to large folds that occur as a result of covalent or hydrogen bonds between the functional groups of the amino acids

c

The oral cavity is lined by a mucous membrane b. The urogenital tract is lined by a mucous membrane c. The visceral pericardium lines the surfaces of the internal cavities of the heart d. Serous fluid is found in the space between visceral and parietal serous membranes e. The exposed side of mucous membranes contain non-keratinized stratified squamous or simple columnar epithelia

e

The physiological changes that occur in response to basic emotions are controlled by the hypothalamus b. Melatonin is a hormone involved in the control of circadian cycles c. The hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland d. The thalamus edits and sorts sensory signals before they are sent to the cerebrum e. The pituitary gland secretes melatonin

b

The production of ATP by the anaerobic mechanism leads to the production of lactic acid b. A state of tetanus occurs when there is no calcium in the sarcoplasm c. Direct phosphorylation is a very fast way to produce ATP but can only last for ca. 15 seconds d. Carbohydrates, lipids and proteins can be used to form ATP by the aerobic mechanism e. It is normal for skeletal muscles to be in a state of tetanus when they contract

c

The rough endoplasmic reticulum has ribosomes on its surface b. Mitochondria contain their own DNA and RNA and can reproduce by themselves c. The breakdown of glycogen occurs in the rough endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells d. Lysosomes are vesicles that contain hydrolytic enzymes e. The synthesis of ATP by cellular respiration occurs in mitochondria

b

The skin produces secretions that are slightly acidic and that have antibiotic properties, which limit bacterial growth on the skin b. Blood vessels in the epidermis can be dilated or constricted to help regulate body temperature c. The hypodermis is also known as the "superficial fascia" d. The skin contains neural sensors that can detect touch (pressure), pain, and temperature e. The hypodermis is a major site of fat storage, and the location on the body where more fat will be stored is genetically determined

d

The sodium-potassium pump is a common form of active transport used by cells b. Active transport can result in the movement of solutes against their concentration gradients c. Antiport systems allow the movement of solutes in opposite directions d. Facilitated diffusion requires energy, in the form of ATP e. Secondary active transport occurs when active transport of a given solute generates a concentration gradient which is then used to transport another solute

c

The sodium-potassium pump transports 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in for each cycle b. As a result of the action of sodium-potassium pumps, the extracellular concentration of Na+ is much greater than the intracellular concentration c. As a result of the action of sodium-potassium pumps, the intracellular concentration of K+ is much lower than the extracellular concentration d. Symport systems allow the movement of solutes in the same direction e. Secondary active transport can result in transporting solutes against their concentration gradient

d

The somatic nervous system is a division of the motor division of the peripheral nervous system b. The somatic nervous system controls the contraction of skeletal muscles c. The sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems are part of the autonomic nervous system d. The central nervous system is composed on the brain, spinal cord, and the nerves that connect to them e. The sympathetic nervous system stimulates organs that are useful during periods of activity or stress

c

The structure of carbohydrates can be described as "rings of hydrated carbon" b. Starch is synthesized by plants c. Hydrolysis reactions occur when water is removed from glucose molecules during the synthesis of starch d. Glycogen is a polysaccharide made of multiple glucose molecules bonded together e. Sucrose, lactose, and maltose are disaccharides

c

The superior and inferior articular processes of vertebrae connect adjacent vertebrae b. Intervertebral disks are located between the centrum of adjacent vertebrae c. The posterior longitudinal ligament is found dorsal to the spinous process of vertebrae d. The annulus fibrous of intervertebral disks is made of fibrocartilage e. Lumbar vertebrae are larger, and bulkier than cervical vertebrae, because they support more weight

c

The treatment of bursitis can involve the removal of synovial fluid from the bursa b. "Luxation" refers to joint injuries that occur when bones are forced out of alignment c. A tendonitis is a tear of a tendon d. Dislocations often re-occur because of the weakened joint capsule and ligaments e. Dislocations are often combined with sprains

b

The vagina is lined by a mucous membrane b. Serous membranes line body cavities open to the exterior c. The visceral pleura wraps the outer surface of the lungs d. The parietal pericardium lines the walls of the cavity where the heart is located e. "Skin" is a cutaneous membrane composed of the epidermis and of the dermis

b

The white matter of the brain is an area that contains a high density of myelinated axons b. The frontal lobe is separated from the parietal lobe by a fissure c. The left and right cerebral hemispheres are separated by a fissure d. The contralateral function of the cerebral cortex refers to the fact that the left side of the brain monitors and controls the right side of the body e. The recognition and memory of somatic sensations occurs in the somatosensory association area

d

Tropomyosin is a long fibrous proteins that covers the myosin-binding sites on actin in a resting muscle b. Troponin is a globular protein that can change shape when bound with calcium ions c. A thick filament is made of multiple myosin myofilaments d. Troponin and tropomyosin are found on the thick filaments e. During a contraction, the width of each sarcomere decreases, but the lengths of the thick and thin filaments do not change

a, b, c, d, e (True)

Washing your face often reduces acne b. Suntans reduce acne c. Eating chocolate or greasy food causes acne d. Stress causes acne e. Masturbating causes acne

a

The "proliferation zone" of the epiphyseal plate is where older chondrocytes become enlarged b. As the bone grows, bone tissue is constantly broken down to maintain the proper shape and proper wall thickness of the bone c. As bone growth occurs, there is no net increase in the thickness of the articular cartilage or of the epiphyseal plate d. The resting or quiescent zone is an area of the cartilage where it is relatively inactive e. The "ossification zone" is the area where cartilage tissue is replaced with osseous tissue

b

The amount of energy released by the hydrolysis of ATP into ADP + P is very close to the amount of energy required for most biological reactions b. The sugar found in DNA is a ribose c. Enzymes are proteins with catalytic properties d. Each amino acid in a polypeptide is encoded by a sequence of 3 nucleotide bases in a gene e. The nitrogen base Uracil is found only in RNA

a

The amplitude of action potentials depends on the intensity of the stimulation that caused the action potential b. Early in the repolarization phase of action potentials, voltage-gated Na+ channels are blocked by their inactive particle c. During the absolute refractory period, no additional action potential can be produced d. During the relative refractory period, other action potentials can be produced, but a greater stimulation intensity is required e. During the relative refractory period, more and more voltage-gated Na+ channels are becoming reset into a closed position

b

The diencephalon encloses the 3rd ventricle b. All components of the brain stem are part of the hindbrain c. The somatic nervous system is the subdivision of the efferent division of the peripheral nervous system that sends signals to skeletal muscles d. The afferent division of the peripheral nervous system consists of sensory nerves that transmit information from sensory receptors to the central nervous system e. The brain can be viewed as an anterior enlargement of the spinal cord

d

The epidermis and the upper part of the dermis are damaged by 2nd degree burns; only the epidermis is damaged by 1st degree burns; all layers of the skin are damaged by 3rd degree burns b. Squamous cell carcinoma forms a red scaly papule; basal cell carcinoma forms a domed nodule c. Melanomas can be diagnosed using the "ABCDE" identification system d. Blisters occur as a result of fluid accumulation between the hypodermis and dermis e. "Burns" refer to tissue damage that result in the denaturation of cellular proteins

e

The epidermis is made of keratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue b. Dense irregular connective tissue is found in the reticular layer of the dermis c. Areolar connective tissue is found in the papillary layer of the dermis d. The hypodermis is also known as the "superficial fascia" e. The reticular layer of the dermis is a non-cellular secretion produced by the hypodermis

d

The epidermis is made of keratinized stratified squamous epithelial tissue b. Dense irregular connective tissue is found in the reticular layer of the dermis c. Areolar connective tissue is fund in the papillary layer of the dermis d. Adipose connective tissue is found in the epidermis e. The hypodermis is also known as the "superficial fascia"

e

The force of contraction of skeletal muscles can decrease when there is too little stretch because myosin heads may grab the wrong actin b. Too little stretch can decrease the force of contraction of skeletal muscles when thick filaments start to touch the Z-disks c. The force of contraction of skeletal muscles can decrease with excessive stretch because of a decrease in overlap between thick and thin filaments d. The effect of stretch on the force of contraction of skeletal muscles can contribute to the fact that it can be easier to start a movement than to complete the movement e. Under normal conditions, in a live person, skeletal muscles can easily be stretched to the point where they can't produce any force

d

The formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus during bone repair is similar to the formation of granulation tissue during skin repair b. Because bones contain many blood vessels, a fracture typically results in bleeding, and therefore in the formation of a hematoma c. During the formation of fibrocartilaginous callus, fibroblasts secrete collagen fibers and form fibrous connective tissue that reinforce the damaged area d. The last stage of bone repair is the formation of a bony callus, when compact bone tissue replaces the fibrocartilaginous callus e. During the formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus, some fibroblasts differentiate into chondroblasts that will produce cartilage tissue that reinforces the damaged area