MBA 702 - Exam 2
Allison just received the semiannual payment of $35 on a bond she owns. Which term refers to this payment? a. Coupon b. Face Value c. Discount d. Call premium e. Yield
Coupon
When the present value of the cash inflows exceeds the initial cost of a project, then the project should be: a. Accepted payback is < required time period b. accepted - profitability index > 1 c. accepted - profitability index is (-) neg d. rejected IRR is neg (-) e. rejected - NPV is pos (+)
accepted because the profitability index is great than 1
A projects average NI/Average Book Value is referred to as the projects' average: a. NPV b. IRR c. Accounting Return d. Profitability Index e. Payback Period
accounting return
Municipal bonds a. totally risk free b. generally have higher coupon rate than corp bonds c. pay interest that is federally tax free d. rarely callable e. free of default risk
pay interest that is federally tax free
The length of time a firm must wait to recoup the money it has invested in a project is called the: a. IRR b. payback period c. profitability period d. discounted cash period e. valuation period
payback period
A deferred call provision: a. requires bond issuer to pay current market price, minus any accrued interest, should the bond be called b. prohibits issuer from ever redeeming bonds prior to maturity c. prohibits issuer from redeeming callable bonds prior to specified date d. allows issuer to delay repaying bond until after maturity e. requires issuer to pay a call premium that is = to or > than one yr's coupon should bond be called
prohibits the bond issuer from redeeming callable bonds prior to a specified date.
Which one of the following indicates a portfolio is being effectively diversified? a. increase beta b. decrease beta c. increase RoR d. increase Sd. e. decrease Sd
A decrease in the portfolio standard deviation
Isasc has analyzed two mutually exclusive projects that have 3-year lives. Project A has an NPV of $81,406, a payback period of 2.48 years, and an AAR of 9.31%. Project B has an NPV of $82,909, a payback period of 2.57 years, and an ARR of 9.22%. The required rate of return for project A is 11.5% while it is 12% for project B. Both projects have a required AAR of 9.25%. Isaac must make a recommendation and justify it in 15 words or less. What should his recommendation be? a. Accept bot because both NPV's are pos (+) b. Accept proj A - has shortest payback period c. Accept proj B and Reject proj A based on NPVs d. Accept proj A and reject prj B based on AARs e. Accept Proj a - lower rate of return
Accept Project B and reject Project A based on the NPV's
The systematic risk of the market is measured by a: a. beta of 1 b. beta of 0 c. Sd of 1 d. Sd of 0 e. variance of 1
Beta of 1
Which one of the following is the formula that explains that relationship between the expected return on a security and the level of that security systematic risk? a. Capital asset pricing model b. Time value of money equation c. Unsystematic risk equation d. Market performance equation e. Expected risk formula
Capital asset pricing model
Which one of the following is the rate at which a stock's price is expected to appreciate? a. Current yield b. dividend yield c. total return d. capital gain's yield e. coupon rate
Capital gains yield
Which one of the following types of stock is defined by the fact that it receives no preferential treatment in respect to either dividends or bankruptcy proceedings? a. Dual class b. Cumulative c. Non-cumulative d. Preferred e. Common
Common
What is the model called that determines the market value of a stock based on its next annual dividend, the dividend growth rate, and the applicable discount rate? a. Maximal growth model b. Constant growth model c. capital pricing model d. Realized earnings model e. Realized growth model
Constant-growth model
Which one of the following statements related to corporate dividends is correct? a. Div are nontaxable income to shareholders b. Div reduce taxable income to corp c. CEO of corp responsible for declaring div d. CFO determines amount of div paid e. Corp shareholders may receive tax break on portion of div income
Corporate shareholders may receive a tax break on a portion of their dividend income.
Which one of the following relationships is stated correctly? a. Decreasing the time to maturity increases the price of a discount bond, all else held constant b. The CR exceeds the current yield when a bond less at discount c. The call price must = par value d. Increasing coupon rate decreases the current yield all else constant e. An increase in market rates increases the market price of bond
Decreasing the time to maturity increases the price of a discount bond, all else held constant
Which one of the following rights is never directly granted to all shareholders of a public held corporation? a. Electing a board of directors b. Receiving distribution profits c. Voting either for or against merger or acquisition d. Determine amount of div per paid per share e. 1st chance to purchase any new equity shares offered
Determining the amount of the dividend to be paid per share
A DECREASE in which of the following will INCREASE the current value of a stock according to the dividend growth model? a. div amount b. # of future div, provided total # of div are less than infinite c. Div growth rate d. Discount rate e. Both discount and div growth rates
Discount rate
A sinking fund is managed by a trustee for which one of the following purposes? a. Paying bond interest payments b. Early bond redemption c. Converting bonds into equity securities d. Paying preferred dividends e. Reducing bond rates
Early bond redemption
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning unsystematic risk? a. investor rewarded for assuming unsystematic risk b. eliminating unsystematic risk is the responsibility of the individual investor c. unsystematic risk is rewarded when > market level of unsystematic risk d. beta measures the level of unsystematic risk e. Sd measure unsystematic risk
Eliminating unsystematic risk is the responsibility of the individual investor
A floor broker on the NYSE does which of the following? a. Supervises commission brokers of specified financial firm b. Traders own personal inventory c. Executes order on behalf of customers d. Maintains an inventory and assume role of market dealer e. charged with maintain a liquid orderly market
Executes orders on behalf of customers
You own a stock that you think will produce a return of 11 percent in a good economy and 3 percent in a poor economy. Given the probabilities of each state of the economy occurring, you anticipate that your stock will earn 6.5 percent next year. Which one of the following terms applies to this 6.5 percent? a. arithmetic return b. historical return c. expected return d. geometric return e.required return
Expected return
Bert owns a bond that will pay $45 each year in interest plus $1000 as a principal payment in maturity. What is the $1000 called? a. Coupon b. Face Value c. Discount d. Yield e. Dirty Price
Face Value
Which one of the following statements concerning risk are correct? I. Non-diversified risk is measured by beta II. The risk premium increases as diversifiable risk increases III. Systematic risk is another name for non-diversifiable risk IV. Diversifiable risk are market risks you cannot avoid
I and III only
The expected return on a portfolio considers which of the following? I. Percentage of the portfolio invested in each individual security II. Projected states of the economy III. The performance of each security given various economic states IV. Probability of occurrence for each state of the economy
I, II, III, and IV
At a minimum, which of the following would you need to know to estimate the amount of additional reward you will receive for purchasing a risky asset instead of a risk-free asset? I. asset's standard deviation II. asset's beta III. risk-free rate of return IV. market risk premium
II and IV only
Which one of the following will DECREASE the NPV of a project? a. increasing value of each project's discounted cash inflows b. moving each cash inflow forward one time period such as from yr 3 to 2 c. decrease the required discount rate d. Increasing the projects' initial cost at time zero e. increase the amount of the initial cost at time zero
Increasing the projects' initial cost at time zero
Which one of the following risks would a floating-rate bond tend to have less of as compared to a fixed-rate coupon bond? a. real rate risk b. interest rate risk c. default risk d. liquidity risk e. taxability risk
Interest rate risk
Which one of the following is represented by the slope of the market security line? a. Rewards to Risk ratio b. Market Risk premium c. Beta coefficient d. Risk free interest rate e. Market Sd
Market risk premium
A bond's principal is repaid on the ____________ date. a. coupon b. yield c. maturity d. dirty e. clean
Maturity
Which of the following is a project acceptance indicator given a independent project with investing type cash flows? a. Profitability Index < 0 b. IRR < required return c. Discounted payback period > d. Avg acct'g return < IRR e. modified IRR > required return
Modified internal rate of return that exceeds the required return
The final decision on which of two mutually exclusive projects to accept ultimately depends upon which one of the following? a. Initial costs of project b Timing of cash flows c. Total cash inflows of each project d. NPV e. Length of project's life
NPV
A securities market primarily composed of dealers who buy and sell for their own inventories is referred to as which type of market? a. auction b. private c. over the counter d. regional e. insider
Over-the-counter
Suzie owns five different bonds and twelve different stocks. Which one of the following terms most applies to her investments? a. portfolio b. index c. collection d. grouping e. risk free
Portfolio
Steve has invested in twelve different stocks that have a combined value today of $121,300. Fifteen percent of that total is invested in Wise Man Foods. The 15 percent is a measure of which one of the following? a. portfolio return b. portfolio weight c. degree of risk d. price earning ratio e. Index value
Portfolio weight
Which one of the following is a positively sloped linear function that is created when expected returns are graphed against security betas? a. Rewards to Risk matrix b. Portfolio weight graph c. Normal Distro d. Security market line e. Market Real returns
Security market line
Total risk is measured by _____ and systematic risk is measured by _____. a. beta;alpha b. beta;Sd c. alpha;beta d. Sd;beta e. Sd;variance
Standard deviation; beta
Which one of the following is a risk that applies to most securities a. Unsystematic b. Diversifiable c. Systematic d. Asset-specific e. Industry
Systematic
Which one of the following statements related to the internal rate of return (IRR) is correct? a. IRR yields same accept and reject decision based on NPV method given mutually exclusive projects b. IRR equal to required return would reduce the value of firm if accepted c. IRR is equal to the required return when the NPV is equal to zero d. Financing type project should be accepted if the IRR exceeds required return e. Avg acct'ing return is a better method of analysis that hte IRR from a financial point of view
The IRR is equal to the required return when the NPV is equal to zero
Why is payback often used as the sole method of analyzing a proposed small project? a. Payback considers time value of money b. all relevant cashflows are included in payback analysis c. benefits of payback analysis usually outweigh the cost of the analysis d. most desirable of various financial methods of analysis e. focused on long-term impact of project
The benefits of payback analysis usually outweigh the cost of the analysis
A project has a NPV of zero. Which one of the following best describes this project? a. project has 0% RoR b. project requires no initial cash investment c. project has no cash flows d. summation of all projects cash flows are zero e. projects cash inflows equal its cash outflows in current dollar terms
The projects' cash inflows equal its cash outflows in current dollar terms
Which one of the following statements in correct? a. Risk free represents change in pricing power b. Return greater than the inflation rate represents risk premium c. Historical real rates of return must be positive d. Nominal rates exceed real rates by the amount of risk free rate e. The real rate must be less than the nominal rate given a positie rate of inflation
The real rate must be less than the nominal rate given a positive rate of inflation
Which one of the following events would be included in the expected return on Sussex stock? a. CFO unexpectedly resigned b. labor union called a strike c. This morning, Sussex confirmed that its CEO is retiring at the end of the year as was anticipated d. Stock unexpectedly declined because a toxic product e. board unprecedented decision to give sizeable bonus to auditors for efforts uncovering wasteful spending
This morning, Sussex confirmed that its CEO is retiring at the end of the year as was anticipated
Which one of the following statements related to unexpected returns is correct? a. All announcements affect unexpected returns b. unexpected returns over time have neg (-) impact on total return c. unexpected returns relatively predictable in short-term d. Unexpected returns can be either positive or negative in the short term but tend to be zero over the long term e. Unexpected returns generally cause actual return to vary from expected return in long run
Unexpected returns can be either positive or negative in the short term but tend to be zero over the long term
A news flash just appeared that caused about a dozen stocks to suddenly increase in value by 12%. What type of risk does this news flash best represent? a. Unsystematic b. Non-Diversifiable c. Maket d. Asset-specific e. Expected
Unsystematic
Which one of the following risks is irrelevant to a well-diversified investor? a. systematic risk b. unsystematic risk c. Market risk d. Non-diversifiable risk e. systematic portion of surprise
Unsystematic risk
Which one of the following is most directly affected by the level systematic risk in a security? a. Variance of returns b. Sd of returns c. Expected RoR d. Risk Free rate e. Market Risk Premium
Variance of the returns
Which one of these equations applies to a bond that currently has a market price that exceeds par value? a. Market Value < FV b. YTM=Current Yield c. Current Yield > Coupon Rate d. Market Value = FV e. YTM < Coupon Rate
Yield to maturity (YTM) < Coupon rate
Answer this question based on the dividend growth model. If you expect the market rate of return to INCREASE across the board on all equity securities, then you should also expect: a. an increase in all stock values b. all stock values remain constant c. decrease in all stock values d. div paying stocks maintain constant price while non-div paying stocks decrease in value e. div paying stocks increase in price while non-div paying stocks maintain constant in value
a DECREASE in all stock values
An agent who arranges a transaction between a buyer and a seller of equity securities is called a: a. broker b. floor trader c. capitalist d. principal e. dealer
broker
A $1,000 face value bond can be redeemed early at the issuer's discretion for $1,030, plus any accrued interest. The additional $30 is called the: a. dirty price b. redemption value c. call premium d. original - issue discount e. redemption discount
call premium
unsystematic risk a. can be effectively eliminated by portfolio diversification. b. compensated by risk premium c. measured by beta d. measured by Sd e. related to overall economy
can be effectively eliminated by portfolio diversification.
The standard deviation of a portfolio a. weighted avg of Sd of indiv securities b. never < Sd of most risky security c. equal to or grater than lowest Sd in any single security d. arithmetic avg of Sd of idiv securities e. Sd < Sd of least risky security
can be less than the standard deviation of the least risky security in the portfolio.
The price sensitivity of a bond increases in response to a change in the market rate of interest as the: a. coupon rate increases b. time to maturity decreases c. coupon rate decreases and the time to maturity increases d. tie to maturity and coupon rate both decrease e. coupon rate and time to maturity both increase
coupon rate decreases and the time to maturity increases
An agent who maintains an inventory from which he or she buys and sells securities is called a: a. broker b. trader c. capitalist d. principal e. dealer
dealer
The primary purpose of portfolio diversification is to: a. increase returns on risks b. eliminates all risk c. eliminates asset specific risk d. eliminates systematic risk e. lower both returns and risks
eliminate asset-specific risk
Which one of the following represents the capital gains yield as used in the dividend growth model? a. D1 b. D1/Po c. Po d. g e. g/Po
g
A zero coupon bond a. sold at large premium b. pay interest that is tax deductible c. only issued by US Treasury d. has more interest rate risk compared to coupon bond e. no taxable income until maturity
has more interest rate risk than a comparable coupon bond
Road Hazards has 12-year bonds outstanding. The interest payment on these bonds are sent directly to each of the individual bondholders. These direct payments are a clear indication that the bonds can accurately be defined as being issued: a. at par b. in registered form c. in street form d. as debentures e. as callable bonds
in registered form
NPV a. best method of analyzing mutually exclusive projects b. less useful that the IRR when comparing different size projects c. easiest method for non-financial managers d. cannot be applied when comparing mutually exclusive projects e. similar to average accounting of return
is the best method of analyzing mutually exclusive projects
Supernormal growth is a growth rate that: a. is both + and follows a yr or more of negative growth b. all stock values remain constant c. exceeds previous tear's growth d. is unsustainable over the long term e. applies to a single abnormal year
is unsustainable over the long term
According to CAPM, the amount of reward an investor receives for bearing the risk of an individual security depends upon the: a. amount of total risk and the market risk premium b .market risk premium and the amount of systematic risk inherent in the security c. risk free rate, MRoR, Sd of security d. beta and MRoR e. Sd and risk free RoR
market risk premium and the amount of systematic risk inherent in the security
If a stock portfolio is well diversified, then the portfolio variance: a. equal variance of most volatile stock in portfolio b. be < variance of least risky stock in portfolio c. be less equal to or greater than variance of least risky stock d. weighted avg of variances of indiv securities e. arithmetic avg of variances in indiv securities
may be less than the variance of the least risky stock in the portfolio
If a firm accepts Project A it will not be feasible to also accept Project B because both projects would require the simultaneous and exclusive use of the same piece of machinery. These projects are considered to be: a. independent b. interdependent c. mutually exclusive d. economically scaled e. operationally distinct
mutually exclusive
Which one of the following is least apt to reduce the unsystematic risk of a portfolio? a. reduce # of stocks b. add bonds c. add international securities d. add US treasury Bills e. add tech stocks
reducing the number of stocks held in a portfolio
The dividend growth model: a. assumes div increase at a decreasing rate b. only values stocks at TIME 0 c. cannot be used to value constant div stocks d. can be used to value both div-paying and non-div-paying stocks e. requires both growth rate less than the required return
requires the growth rate to be less than the required return
Which one of the following will be constant for all securities if the market is efficient and securities are priced fairly? a. variance b. Sd c. reward-to-risk ratio d beta e. risk premium
reward-to-risk ratio
The expected risk premium on a stock is equal to the expected return on the stock minus the: a. expected market RoR (mRoR) b. risk free rate c. inflation rate d. Sd (standard deviation) e. variance
risk-free rate
The difference between the price that dealer is willing to pay and the price at which he or she will sell call the: a. equilibrium b. premium c. discount d. call price e. spread
spread
The principle of diversification tells us that: a. concentrating 2 or 3 lge stocks eliminates unsystematic risk b. concentrating 3 companies within same industry will greatly reduce systematic risk c. spreading an investment across 5 diverse companies will eliminate systematic risk d. spreading an investment across many diverse assets will some of the total risk
spreading an investment across many diverse assets will eliminate some of the total risk
A highly illiquid bond that pays no interest but might entitle its holder to rental income from an asset is most apt to be a: a. NoNo bond b. put bond c. callable bond d. sukuk
sukuk
The yields on a corporate bond differ from those on a comparable Treasury security primarily because: a. interest rate risk and taxes b. taxes and default risk c. default and interest rate risk d. liquidity and inflation risks
taxes and default risk
The intercept point of the security market line is the rate of return which corresponds to: a. risk free rate b. market rate c. return of zero d. return of 1% e. market risk premium
the risk free rate
The expected return on a stock given various stages of the economy is equal to the: a. highest expected return to give any economic state b. arithmetic avg of the returns for each economic state c. summation of the indiv. expected RoR d. weighted avg of the returns for each economic state e. return of the economic state with highest probability
weighted average of the returns for each economic state