MBLEX Practice Exam

The attachment site for the wrist and hand flexors is located on what side of the olecranon process? a. Proximal b. Distal c. Medial d. Lateral

. Medial Rationale: The medial epicondyle is the attachment site for the wrist and hand flexor tendons.

Question 19: _______ is the study of the structure of organisms? a. Anatomy b. Physiology c. Pathophysiology d. None of the abov

a. Anatomy Rationale: Anatomy is the study of the structures of organisms.

Question 85: Which ribs are termed the floating ribs? a. 8-12 b. 11 & 12 c. 10-12 d. 9-12

b. 11 & 12 Rationale: 11&12 are referred to as floating ribs or vertebral ribs with no anterior attachments.

Question 47: Which of the following physiological effects is a mechanical component of cross-fiber friction? a. Increases circulation b. Breaks up and reforms scar tissue c. Relaxes muscles and decreases hypertonicity d. Hyperemia

b. Breaks up and reforms scar tissue Rationale: Linear or circular friction mechanical effects: broadens and stretches muscle tissue, temporary ischemia, decrease in fascial adhesions, increase muscle extensibility, and breaks up & reforms scar tissue (only mech effect not shared with linear or circular friction). Reflexive effects: hyperemia (secondary to ischemia), relaxes muscles, decreases hypertonicity (by the nervous system or if done on a tendon, golgi tendon organ), and increases circulation.

Question 21: With your client prone and the arm at a 90 degree angle hanging off the side of the table, how do you find the muscle belly of the middle fibers of the trapezius? a. By sliding laterally and superior from the lateral border of the scapula b. By sliding medially and superior from the spine of the scapula c. By sliding medially and inferior from the spine of the scapula d. By sliding laterally and inferior from the spine of the scapul

b. By sliding medially and superior from the spine of the scapula Rationale: By sliding medially and superior from the spine of the scapula you can feel the middle muscle fibers of the trapezius superficial to the deeper rhomboids and ESGs (Erector Spinae Group).

Question 8: If a client has a subluxation, you would refer them to a: a. Nutritionist b. Chiropractor c. Acupuncturist d. Podiatrist

b. Chiropractor Rationale: A subluxation is a joint out of alignment and is referred to a Chiropractor. Podiatrist = foot, Nutritionist = Food / health, Acupuncturist = Needle work / Qi (Chi) alignment / Herbologist

Question 75: So that therapists can develop a safe and effective treatment plan, it is necessary to have which of the following? a. Receive payment before massage b. Get a complete assessment of client's past and current health history c. Include a disclaimer posted on your wall d. All of the above

b. Get a complete assessment of client's past and current health history Rationale: To develop a safe and effective treatment plan, it is best to get a complete assessment and review the client's health history, past and present.

Question 61: What three structures form the femoral triangle border? a. Iliolumbar ligament, sartorius and ADductor longus b. Inguinal ligament, sartorius and ADductor longus c. Inguinal ligament, iliolumbar ligament and sartorius d. Pubic symphysis, sartorius and adductor longus

b. Inguinal ligament, sartorius and ADductor longus Rationale: The inguinal or femoral region is also known as the femoral triangle. The three borders are: inguinal ligament, sartorius and ADductor longus. The peripheral structures that are superficial in this area are the femoral artery, vein and nerve (avoid long compressions).

Question 98: What body system maintains posture, produces body heat, and movement? a. Circulatory b. Muscular c. Gastrointestinal d. Nervous

b. Muscular Rationale: The Muscular system produces heat and body movement and maintains posture.

Question 60: _______ is the study of the functions of an organism? a. Pathophysiology b. Physiology c. Anatomy d. None of the above

b. Physiology Rationale: Physiology is the study of the functions of organisms.

Question 33: What two unilateral actions are the scalenes in charge of? a. Rotation to the same side and lateral flexion to the opposite side b. Rotation to the opposite side and lateral flexion to the same side c. Flexion and rotation to the same side d. Elevation of the ribs in inhalation and rotation to the opposite side

b. Rotation to the opposite side and lateral flexion to the same side Rationale: Bilaterally, the scalenes elevate the ribs in inhalation. The anterior fibers bilaterally flex the head and neck. Unilaterally, they all laterally flex the head and neck to the same side and rotate the head and neck to the opposite side.

Question 74: A person in the ______ position is lying face up? a. Prone b. Supine c. Recumbent d. Ventral

b. Supine Rationale: The person would in the supine body position.

Question 40: What are the four categories recorded when gathering information during palpation? a. Concentration, movement, pressure, and reaction b. Temperature, texture, tenderness, and tone c. Fascial restrictions, adhesions, trigger point, and inflammation d. Movement, temperature, texture, and pressure

b. Temperature, texture, tenderness, and tone Rationale: Palpation is defined as the placement of the therapist's hands on the client's tissue to assess their condition. Palpation categories assess the four "T's"= Temperature, texture, tenderness, and tone.

Question 52: Which of the following returns blood to the heart? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Right atrium

b. Veins Rationale: Veins carry unoxygenated blood back to the heart. Arteries carry oxygenated blood to the body. (Arteries= Away)

Question 78: Gout is an inflammatory arthritide that is defined as a(n): a. Joint inflammation caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi b. Complex rheumatic disease that affects many systems of the body c. Group of disorders where the crystals of monosodium urate are deposited in the tissues d. Chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder that involves specific areas of the body, primarily the spine

c. Group of disorders where the crystals of monosodium urate are deposited in the tissues Rationale: Gout is a group of disorders where the crystals of monosodium urate are deposited in the tissues, accompanied by an attack of acute arthritis. Inflammatory arthritides are a group of inflammatory diseases affecting connective tissue including joints. Ankylosing (immobility and fixation of joints) spondylitis (inflammation of vertebrae) (AS) is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder involving specific areas of the body, primarily the spine. Infectious arthritis is a joint inflammation caused by an infection from bacteria, viruses, or fungi. Lyme disease is a complex rheumatic disease that affects many systems of the body.

Question 100: What system of the body would help absorb nutrients? a. Gastrointestinal b. Circulatory c. Lymphatic d. Endocrine

Question 100: What system of the body would help absorb nutrients? a. Gastrointestinal Rationale: The gastrointestinal system helps the body absorb nutrients into the bloodstream.

Question 72: Scoliosis is a postural dysfunction and is defined as: a. A lateral rotatory deviation of the spine b. An increase in the normal thoracic curve accompanied by protracted scapulae and head-forward posture c. An increase in normal lumbar curve and an increase in anterior pelvic tilt/ shortened hip flexors d. A chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder involving specific areas of the body, primarily the spine

a. A lateral rotatory deviation of the spine Rationale: Scoliosis is a lateral rotatory deviation of the spine. Hyperlordosis is an increase in normal lumbar or lordotic curve and an increase in anterior pelvic tilt/ shortened hip flexors. Hyperkyphosis is an increase in the normal thoracic curve accompanied by protracted scapulae and head-forward posture. Ankylosing (immobility and fixation of joints) spondylitis (inflammation of vertebrae) is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder involving specific areas of the body, primarily the spine.

Question 32: What action is used to assess scapulohumeral rhythm at the shoulder or glenohumeral joint? a. ABduction b. Downward rotation c. Upward rotation d. ADduction

a. ABduction Rationale: Scapulothoracic rhythm is the ratio of motion between the scapulothoracic articulation and the glenohumeral joint, as the arm ABducts through full range. It tests for all joints of the shoulder.

Question 35: What two actions are most frequently restricted significantly and are painful in Frozen shoulder conditions? a. ABduction and external rotation b. ADduction and internal rotation c. ABduction and internal rotation d. ADduction and external rotation

a. ABduction and external rotation Rationale: Frozen shoulder is a painful overuse injury with significant restriction of the active and passive ROM at the shoulder affecting ABduction and external rotation.

Question 22: Linda is an IT manager who has been noticing that her team complaints about body pain have been increasing. They have upgraded all the workstations ergonomically, hoping that would take care of the issues. She wants to know if there is a type of massage that could help. Linda would also like her team to be educated on proper posture and alignment in repetitive movements. What modality can you refer her to? a. Aston-Patterning b. Aromatherapy c. Equine Massage d. Attunement Therapy

a. Aston-Patterning

Question 41: Which of the following causes of wounds is a thermal force? a. Chemical b. Trauma c. Pressure d. Friction

a. Chemical Rationale: Causes of wounds: Thermal sources (extreme temperatures, chemical and electrical resulting in a burn). Mechanical forces (trauma, pressure, friction, or sheer forces from an impact between the body and object, or inside body). Types of wounds: Abrasion, laceration, incision, puncture, animal bite, and burns.

Question 9: Asthma is a respiratory pathology that is defined as a(n): a. Chronic inflammatory disorder with bronchospasms b. Condition that results in the production of purulent sputum c. Enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles and the destruction of the alveolar walls d. Acute or chronic inflammation of the paranasal sinuses

a. Chronic inflammatory disorder with bronchospasms Rationale: Asthma is a chronic inflammatory disorder with bronchospasms (narrowing of the airways in the lungs), a condition that is reversible over time or following treatment. Sinusitis is a respiratory pathology that is an acute or chronic inflammation of the paranasal sinuses. Chronic bronchitis is a respiratory pathology resulting in the production of purulent sputum for at least three months in a row over a consecutive two years. Emphysema is an enlargement of the air spaces distal to the terminal bronchioles and the destruction of the alveolar walls.

Question 90: Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) is an inflammatory arthritide concern and is defined as a(n): a. Chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder that involves specific areas of the body, primarily the spine b. Group of disorders where the crystals of monosodium urate are deposited in the tissues c. Complex rheumatic disease that affects many systems of the body d. Joint inflammation caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi

a. Chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder that involves specific areas of the body, primarily the spine Rationale: Ankylosing (immobility and fixation of joints) spondylitis (inflammation of vertebrae) (AS) is a chronic, systemic inflammatory disorder involving specific areas of the body, primarily the spine. Inflammatory arthritides are agroup of inflammatory diseases affecting connective tissue including joints. Infectious arthritis is a joint inflammation caused by an infection from bacteria, viruses, or fungi. Lyme disease is a complex rheumatic disease that affects many systems of the body. Gout is a group of disorders where the crystals of monosodium urate are deposited in the tissues, accompanied by an attack of acute arthritis.

Question 44: ___________ is a declaration of the general principles of acceptable, ethical, and professional behavior by which massage therapists agree to conduct their practice? a. Code of ethics b. Scope of practice c. Client confidentiality law d. Review of client's health history

a. Code of ethics Rationale: Code of ethics= general principles for professional behavior.

Question 70: What is the name of the two brothers who introduced Swedish Massage to the United States in 1856? a. Dr. Charles Fayette Taylor and Dr. George Henry Taylor b. Jacobi and Victoria A. White c. Ambrose Pare and Per Henrik Ling d. Dr. Johann Mezger and John Harvey Kellogg

a. Dr. Charles Fayette Taylor and Dr. George Henry Taylor Rationale: Dr. Charles Fayette Taylor and Dr. George Henry Taylor are the two brothers who introduced the Swedish Movement to the United States in 1856.

Question 25: What bilateral action does the scalenes group perform? a. Elevate ribs during inhalation b. Depress ribs during expiration c. Rotate head to the opposite side d. Laterally flex the head and neck same side

a. Elevate ribs during inhalation Rationale: Bilaterally, the scalenes elevate the ribs on inhalation. The anterior fibers bilaterally flex the head and neck. Unilaterally, they all laterally flex the head and neck to the same side and rotate the head and neck to the opposite side.

Question 73: The Triceps Brachii has one action on the elbow or humeroulnar joint and two actions on the glenohumeral or shoulder joint. What is the one action all three heads perform at the elbow? a. Extension b. Flexion c. Lateral rotation d. Medial rotation

a. Extension Rationale: The Triceps Brachii use all three heads to Extend the elbow (humeroulnar joint). The long head is in charge of extending and ADducting the shoulder (glenohumeral joint). The humeroulnar joint's only actions are flexion and extension.

Question 94: The muscle's reaction to dysfunction can be categorized into two groups; primarily postural and primarily phasic, which of the following is primarily a postural muscle? a. Gastrocnemius b. Peroneals c. Tibialis anterior d. Vastus lateralis

a. Gastrocnemius Rationale: Primarily postural muscles= shorten in response to dysfunction. Primarily phasic muscles= weaken in response to dysfunction.

Question 87: To palpate the posterior fibers of the scalenes, what muscles must you go between? a. Levator scapula and middle scalenes b. Longus capitis and middle scalenes c. Splenius capitis and middle scalenes d. SCM and middle scalenes

a. Levator scapula and middle scalenes Rationale: The posterior scalenes are located between the levator scapula and middle scalenes, deep to the other scalenes. Because the belly of this muscle is so small it can be hard to distinguish.

Question 39: When a therapist honestly represents all professional qualifications and affiliations they: a. Provide appropriate information by openly displaying certifications b. Create a trust so the client has no doubt c. Assure clients by displaying your knowledge and using medical terms they may not understand d. Should avoid the question asked by diverting attention to another matter

a. Provide appropriate information by openly displaying certifications Rationale: There might not always be room to display certifications in the treatment rooms. A file with copies of credentials and certification on hand should suffice when asked for. This professional Standard falls under the Business Practices section.

Question 65: What term is indicated when a client becomes emotional after meeting with their MT because their MT resembles a relative that has just passed away? a. Reflexive b. Transference c. Professional d. Dual relationship

a. Reflexive Rationale: A reflexive response happens when fragile feelings are present because of situations or memories. Ask if alone time is needed before the massage begins or if they need to reschedule. They may also need the option, if available, to request another therapist.

Question 95: You have a client who stands at his workstation on his feet 8-10 hours a day. A PA shows mild increase in thoracic kyphosis, what muscle needs to be strengthened? a. Rhomboid major b. Rectus abdominus c. Pectoralis minor d. Pectoralis major

a. Rhomboid major Rationale: Kyphosis shortens the anterior muscles and stretch weakens the posterior (thoracic) muscles. The pectoralis minor should be lengthened first opening up the shoulder girdle, relaxing the hypotonic short and releasing the stretch on the lengthened muscles.

Question 93: How many lobes does the left lung have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

b. 2 Rationale: The left has 2 lobes; the upper and lower, leaving more room for the heart. The right lung has three; Upper, middle, and lower. The left lobe has only 2 due to the heart.

When the client is filling out the health history intake forms it is essential to get: a. Date of birth b. A list of all medications c. Work history d. Insurance

b. A list of all medications Rationale: You want to pay attention to the medications and conditions of each client to ensure there will not be harmful side effects. Friction with anti-inflammatories being contraindicated as an example.

Question 46: Varicose veins is a circulatory condition that is defined as a(n): a. Elevation of blood pressure above the normal range for a prolonged time b. Abnormally large and bulging vein caused by the impaired function of the venous valves c. Inflammation of a superficial or deep vein d. Inability to pump sufficient blood to supply the needs of the body

b. Abnormally large and bulging vein caused by the impaired function of the venous valves Rationale: Varicose (distended or dilated) veins are abnormally large and bulging veins caused by the impaired function of the venous valves. Hypertension is an elevation of blood pressure above the normal range for a prolonged time that increases the risk of stroke or heart attack. Congestive heart failure (heart failure) is the heart's inability to pump sufficient blood to supply the needs of the body. Thrombophlebitis is an inflammation of a superficial or deep vein that leads to the formation of a thrombus (fibrin-based clot).

Question 30: Which one of the cervical ligament's name is Latin for "winged"? a. Apical ligament b. Alar ligament c. Transverse ligament d. Ligamentum nuchae

b. Alar ligament Rationale: Alar (winged in Latin) arises from the C1 apex of the dens on both sides of the apical ligament and extends to

Question 68: What is Projection? a. A diagnosis given only by massage therapists b. Applying your own current feelings, emotions, or motivations onto another person c. A biological time machine into childhood emotions d. A nerve impulse reaction stimulated by a spinal column manipulation

b. Applying your own current feelings, emotions, or motivations onto another person Rationale: Projection of your current feelings, emotions, or motivations onto another person without realizing your reaction is really more about you than it is about the other person. Some people also refer to projection as a transference. However transference deals with childhood emotions clouding rational reactions, not the current reaction, to a fight just prior to a therapy session. Massage Therapists can not diagnose.

Question 24: The A in the acronym SOAP stands for? a. Application b. Assessment c. Agreement d. Access

b. Assessment Rationale: The therapist's definition of a suspected condition based off the findings of the subjective and objective sections of SOAP.

Question 20: To keep your back safe from discomfort or injury while in a massage, you must? a. Bend at the spine b. Bend at the hip joints c. Increase the Kyphotic curve d. Increase Lordotic curve

b. Bend at the hip joints Rationale: Your ball and socket hip joints along with the strong pelvis and leg muscles can easily support your weight, decreasing and relieving the muscles in the back or spinal stress. Keep back, head and neck aligned

Question 91: While acting in the massage or bodywork capacity I will not tolerate any sexual advances from my client, this is in accordance to what code of ethic? a. Scope of practice b. Client relationships c. Appropriate techniques d. Advertising claims

b. Client relationships Rationale: Tolerating any sexual advances while acting as a massage or bodyworker is in violation of appropriate client relationships. Always keep clear boundaries and maintain professionalism.

Question 16: A summary or outline of standards to which a Massage Therapist agrees to conduct their massage practices with a declaration of acceptable, ethical, and general principles of professional behavior is the _______________. a. Standards of Practice b. Code of Ethics c. Code of Policies d. Standard of Regulations

b. Code of Ethics Rationale: A summary or outline of standards to which a Massage Therapist agrees to conduct their massage practices with a declaration of acceptable, ethical, and general principles of professional behavior is the Code of Ethics. Your school, state, liability insurance, and licensing or certification exams all have a Code of Ethics that are very similar to that which you will need to adhere to. Standards of Practice includes the code of ethics and is specifically defined in regards to Professionalism, legal and ethical requirements, Confidentiality, Business Practices, Roles and boundaries, and Prevention of sexual misconduct. Code of policies and standard of regulations are not terms utilized in massage.

Question 88: In postural dysfunctions, the slow twitch postural muscle group: a. Fatigues fast b. Fatigues slow c. Never fatigues d. None of the above

b. Fatigues slow Rationale: The postural muscle group has a high amount of slow twitch fibers and muscles fatigue slowly. The phasic muscle group has a high amount of fast twitch fibers and muscles fatigue faster.

Question 10: The superficial SCM or sternocleidomastoid is on the lateral anterior aspect of the neck. At its origin it has two heads a sternal and clavicular, and the insertion is the mastoid process and lateral portion of the superior nuchal line on the occiput. Unilaterally it has two actions, bilaterally one. What is the bilateral action of the SCM? a. Extend the head b. Flex the head c. Lateral flexion of head and neck to the same side d. Rotation of head and neck to the opposite side

b. Flex the head Rationale: Bilaterally the SCM or sternocleidomastoid brings the head into flexion. Unilaterally the SCM laterally flexes the head and neck to the same side and Rotates the head and neck to the opposite side. Look at the position of the muscle on each side of the neck. The SCM would work to flex the neck bilaterally, one side could laterally flex the head and neck, but to rotate you would need to active the other side unilaterally. Also bilaterally the SCM assists in inhalation.

Question 80: Which of the four Active Inhibition techniques, uses maximal and isometric contractions? a. Agonist Contraction b. Hold-relax c. Post-isometric Relaxation (PIR) d. Contract-relax

b. Hold-relax Rationale: The active Inhibition technique, Hold-relax uses pain-free lengthening of the tight muscle to the barrier. Then the client isometrically (without joint movement) and maximally (utilizing full strength) contracts the muscle against your resistance for 5-10 sec. Have the client fully relax the muscle when it begins to fatigue. A PASSIVE stretch moves through the range that is gained, and the process is repeated until the desired length is achieved. This technique is used when pain and restricted ranges are present. Contract-relax is utilized when there is no pain present.

Question 86: As the tissue heals from a wound or burn, modifications of hydrotherapy treatments are required when applying to the affected area because of: a. Pressure b. Hypersensitivity to temperature extremes c. Scar tissue d. Disruption of continuity of the skin

b. Hypersensitivity to temperature extremes Rationale: Hypersensitivity with newly formed tissue may damage the affected area. With burns, there is also a possibility of the inability to dissipate heat.

Question 92: If your client has a moderate posterior pelvic tilt what three muscles would be lengthened? a. Iliacus, psoas major and biceps femoris b. Iliacus, psoas major and rectus femoris c. Biceps femoris, gluteus maximus and semitendinosus d. Gluteus maximus (all fibers), gluteus medius and ADductor magnus

b. Iliacus, psoas major and rectus femoris Rationale: Posterior pelvic tilt (upward rotation)= short extensors an long flexors. ASIS (Anterior Superior Iliac Spine) pulled superior.

Question 49: The three categories of stretches are: Active inhibition technique, passive stretching, and self-stretching. All stretches, either performed by a therapist or client, must be done: a. In a rapid, pressure progressive manner b. In a slow, gentle, and sustained manner c. With rapid bouncing d. With slow bouncing

b. In a slow, gentle, and sustained manner Rationale: Stretching is used to lengthen soft tissue. For an effective stretch, the tissue must be warmed by heat or movement. Bouncing into a stretch only activates the stretch reflex defeating the purpose. If the stretch is rapid or forced through pain, it can prolong the healing process or injure it further. The stretch is also released gradually and the stretch cycle can be repeated with rests in between.

Question 42: Out of the four rotators of the vertebral column, what is the only one that rotates to the same side? a. External oblique b. Internal oblique c. Rotators d. Multifidi

b. Internal oblique Rationale: The four muscles that work together unilaterally for the rotation in the vertebral column: Multifidi (to the opposite side), rotators (to the opposite side), external (to the opposite side) and internal (to the same side) obliques.

Question 54: What muscle is not connected to the sternum? a. Diaphragm b. Internal obliques c. SCM d. Rectus abdominis

b. Internal obliques Rationale: The Internal obliques is the only muscle that does not connect to the sternum. O- lateral inguinal ligament, iliac crest and thoracolumbar fascia. I- internal surface of lower 3 ribs and abdominal aponeurosis to the linea alba.

Question 99: Situated between the posterior scalenes and the splenius capitus is what muscle? a. Middle scalenes b. Levator scapula c. ESGs d. Trapezius

b. Levator scapula Rationale: Just posterior to the SCM (Sternocleidomastoid) and anterior to the Trapezius on the lateral aspect of the neck, in between the posterior scalenes and the splenius capitus is the levator scapula. It is the only muscle in the lateral cervical vertebrae that moves the scapula. ESGs (Erector Spinae Group).

Question 82: If your client is suffering from chronic valgus stress, what ligament might be damaged? a. Lateral collateral ligament b. Medial collateral ligament c. Anterior cruciate ligament d. Posterior cruciate ligament

b. Medial collateral ligament Rationale: The MCL= medial (tibial) collateral ligament is a vertical band on the medial aspect of the knee, it attaches to and reinforces the joint capsule (palpable and treatable). It limits lateral rotation and stabilizes against valgus stress. When this ligament tears, it usually tears the joint capsule and medial meniscus as well leaking fluid into the surrounding tissue.

Cerebral palsy (CP) is a central nervous system condition defined as a(n): a. Progressively diminishing basal ganglia function b. Motor function disorder resulting from damage to the immature brain c. An injury to the vertebral column, spinal cord, or both due to a direct or indirect trauma d. A condition where demyelination of the nerves occurs

b. Motor function disorder resulting from damage to the immature brain Rationale: Cerebral palsy (CP) is a motor function disorder resulting from damage to the immature brain. Multiple sclerosis (MS) is a condition where demyelination of the nerves occurs. Parkinson's is a Progressively diminishing basal ganglia function resulting in slow, increasingly difficult movement, accompanied by resting tremors and muscular rigidity. All conditions are CNS

Which of the following cell types are needed for normal blood clotting? a. Neutrophils b. Platelets c. Eosinophils d. Basophils

b. Platelets Rationale: Platelets are needed for normal blood clotting, they initiate clotting cascade by clinging to broken areas and help to control blood loss from broken blood vessels. They occur 250,000-500,000 per mm3 in blood. Anatomy; Irregularly shaped cell fragments, stain deep purple. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are granulocyte leukocyte WBCs.

Question 18: Which of the following definitions best describes the term antalgic posture? a. Rocking from the ankle in the sagittal plane b. Posture assumed by the client in order to relieve pain c. Both feet flat on the ground with knees and hips flexed with the gluts near the heels d. A position where the support is above the center of gravity

b. Posture assumed by the client in order to relieve pain Rationale: Antalgic posture is assumed by the client in order to relieve pain from an existing condition. This posture gives clues to compensating structures. The therapist observes this posture throughout treatments of temporary (ankle sprain) and chronic (osteoarthritis) conditions. Standing position= rocking, squatting= feet flat, hanging= support above center of gravity.

Question 13: Which of the following pathologies is not a condition of the Central Nervous System? a. Seizures b. Radial nerve lesions c. Parkinsons d. Cerebral palsy

b. Radial nerve lesions Rationale: Conditions of the Central Nervous Systems (CNS): Communication skills, ambulation aids, decubitus ulcers, seizures, hemiplegia, multiple sclerosis, Parkinsons, cerebral palsy, spinal cord injury, and poliomyelitis. Radial nerve lesions is a peripheral nervous system condition.

Question 58: How can you tell you are having a transference reaction from a client? a. They tell you the pressure of your treatment is too deep b. Receiving a powerful reaction that is not justifiable to a reasonable person c. The client communicates to you the table is too hot d. Their facial expressions twitch when stripping tight neck muscles

b. Receiving a powerful reaction that is not justifiable to a reasonable person Rationale: A pre-mature termination of the treatment with no logical explanation, uncontrollable sobbing, or unwarranted anger are all signs of transference.

Question 77: If a client comes to you with a headache that has referred pain, it is most likely a: a. Cluster headache b. Tension headache c. Migraine d. Chronic paroxysmal hemicrania

b. Tension headache Rationale: Tension headaches have bilateral pain, migraine, cluster and chronic paroxysmal hemicrania have unilateral pain. Tension headaches are caused by trigger points with referral pain.

Question 89: If you were talking about the integumentary system, you would be discussing? a. The kidneys, lungs, pancreas, and spleen b. The skin, nails, hair and sweat glands c. The path that oxygen takes to bond with hemoglobin d. The organs responsible for metabolism

b. The skin, nails, hair and sweat glands Rationale: The skin, nails, hair, sweat and oil glands are all part of the integumentary system.

Question 28: What muscle upwardly rotates the scapula? a. Rhomboid minor b. Trapezius (upper and lower) c. Pectoralis minor d. Rhomboid major

b. Trapezius (upper and lower) Rationale: The only muscle that upwardly rotates the scapula is the trapezius (upper and lower fibers).

Question 67: The Adson's test assesses the anterior scalene muscle, what is the variation of this test that assesses the middle scalene muscle? a. Wright's HyperABduction b. Travell's c. Costoclavicular syndrome d. Eden's

b. Travell's Rationale: The placement and first instructions of the Adson's test is performed: the client is in the seated position, passively extend the affected arm then add a slight external rotation. While standing behind the client, monitor the radial pulse of this arm. Now instead of rotating toward the affected side to assess the anterior scalene, have the client rotate the head away from the affected side to assess the middle scalene having them take and hold a deep breath for 15-20 seconds. The elevating of the first rib with the breath, compresses the neurovascular bundle up against the hypertonic

Question 29: What is a definition of a dual or multidimensional relationship? a. A professional relationship with a client who uses their insurance coverage to pay for the massage b. A professional relationship between a massage therapist and another healthcare provider c. A relationship that includes a complex and interwoven connection between a massage therapist and another person d. A professional relationship between a business associate that provides services to a massage therapist

c. A relationship that includes a complex and interwoven connection between a massage therapist and another person

Question 7: Frozen shoulder and calcific tendonitis of the rotator cuff are shoulder joint disorders caused by the tightening of the joint capsule. It is also known as: a. Shoulder-hand syndrome b. Torticalis c. Adhesive capsulitis d. Thoracic Outlet syndrome

c. Adhesive capsulitis Rationale: Adhesive capsulitis is also known as: frozen shoulder, calcific tendonitis of the rotator cuff, scapulocostal Page 92 Copyright 2013 Massage-Exam.com syndrome, subacromial fibrosis, pericapsulitis, or acromioclavicular arthritis. These musculoskeletal conditions are defined as a disorder of the shoulder joint that is caused by the tightening of the joint capsule.

Question 14: Palpation is always performed _________, starting with the unaffected side. a. Unilaterally b. Ipsilaterally c. Bilaterally d. Medially

c. Bilaterally Rationale: Unaffected tissue is compared to the affected tissue being aware of anatomy and fiber direction.

Question 96: A functional postural dysfunctions: a. Is due to altered bone shapes b. Can be caused by malformations c. Can be altered by working with the soft tissue and fascia d. Cannot be corrected with massage

c. Can be altered by working with the soft tissue and fascia Rationale: Structural postural dysfunctions pertains to altered bone shape due to malformation or pathological process. A Functional postural dysfunction pertains to soft tissue such as the muscles, ligaments, tendons and fascia that may be shortened or lengthened. Massage can help with functional but not the structural.

Question 34: Varicose veins are abnormally large and bulging veins caused by impaired function of the venous valves and is termed a(n): a. Joint dysfunction b. Condition of the PNS c. Circulatory pathology or dysfunction d. Condition of the CNS

c. Circulatory pathology or dysfunction Rationale: Circulatory pathologies and dysfunctions include: hypertension, congestive heart failure, Raynaud's phenomenon, thrombophlebitis, and varicose veins.

Question 27: __________ is the study and development of a particular skill or professional knowledge base associated and applied within a scope of practice. a. Dual or Multidimensional relationship b. Boundary c. Competency d. Transference

c. Competency Rationale: Competency is the study and development of a particular skill or professional knowledge base associated and applied within a scope of practice.

Question 64: Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthritide defined as a(n): a. Triad of arthritis, a non-gonococcal urethritis conjunctivitis that follows up with inflammation in the intestine or urinary tract b. Autoimmune disorder affecting the whole body by slowly spreading fibrosis and collagen deposits systemically c. Destructive, chronic autoimmune disease of multiple joints and connective tissue d. Condition of chronic synovial inflammation in children

c. Destructive, chronic autoimmune disease of multiple joints and connective tissue Rationale: Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory, destructive, chronic autoimmune disease of multiple joints and connective tissue throughout the body. Inflammatory arthritides are a group of inflammatory diseases affecting connective tissue including joints

Question 23: While giving an assessment there are three types of questions you ask to obtain relevant information for the treatment plan; General, Specific, and Pain questions. Which of the following is a Pain question? a. For trauma-induced injuries, what was done at the time for treatment? (First-aid or Ice pack) b. How is your health in general? c. How long does it last? d. Are there any dietary contributions to the condition?

c. How long does it last? Rationale: Pain can be defined and understood differently from one client to the next. Asking specific pain questions can help you determine how you will proceed with treatments. Where, when, and descriptions of how long/ how often, what aggravates the pain, and other symptoms along with the pain are all useful insights.

Question 59: When a muscle fiber length is constant in a muscle contraction it is called: a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Isotonic

c. Isometric Rationale: Isometric = Same tension no movement, Isotonic = Same tension with movement (drinking tonic = movement)

Question 5: The spinal brachial plexus branch serving all the arm flexor muscles is what nerve? a. Median nerve b. Ulnar nerve c. Musculocutaneous nerve d. Radial nerve

c. Musculocutaneous nerve Rationale: Brachial plexus (C5-T1)- Musculocutaneous nerve serves all the flexors of the arm. Damage to the musculocutaneous nerve will result in a decreased ability to flex the arm muscles.

Question 55: What is the three-dimensional application of sustained pressure and movement into the fascial system with the purpose of eliminating restrictions called? a. Polarity Therapy b. Orthopedic Massage c. Myofascial Release (MFR) d. Neuromuscular Therapy

c. Myofascial Release (MFR) Rationale: Myofascial Release (MFR) is a method that uses a three-dimensional application of sustained pressure and movement into the fascial system with the purpose of eliminating restrictions. After a postural assessment and palpation is performed to find fascial tension, gentle pressure is applied in the direction of the restriction to release it.

Question 84: Who is given credit for the invention of Swedish Massage? a. Galen of Rome b. Yellow Emperor c. Per Henrik Ling d. Buddha

c. Per Henrik Ling Rationale: Per Henrik Ling (1776-1839) founded The Royal Institute of Gymnastics in Stockholm (1813) after developing the Ling Treatment or Swedish Treatment Cure.

Question 38: What three muscles work together to pronate the proximal and distal radioulnar joints? a. Pronator teres, biceps brachii and brachioradialis b. Triceps brachii, biceps brachii and pronator teres c. Pronator teres, pronator quadratus and brachioradialis d. Biceps brachii, supinator and pronator teres

c. Pronator teres, pronator quadratus and brachioradialis Rationale: The three muscles in charge of pronating the forearm or proximal and distal radioulnar joints: Pronator teres, pronator quadratus and brachioradialis.

Question 36: What structures would be shortened with a chronic varus stress of the tibiofemoral joint? a. Biceps femoris and IT band b. Vastus lateralis and tensor fasciae latae c. Semimembranosus, semitendinosus and gracilis d. Tensor fasciae latae and IT band

c. Semimembranosus, semitendinosus and gracilis Rationale: The semi-sisters (semimembranosus & semitendinosus) and gracilis are shortened in a varus stress. The knees form an "O" or bow-legged leaving the medial aspects shortened and lateral lengthened.

Question 53: What six muscles work bilaterally to extend the vertebral column? a. Rectus abdominis, external oblique and internal oblique, multifidi, rotators and intertransversarii b. Sternocleidomastoid, external oblique and internal oblique, multifidi, rotators and intertransversarii c. Spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis, multifidi, rotators and intertransversarii d. Anterior scalene, external oblique and trapezius, multifidi, rotators and intertransversarii

c. Spinalis, longissimus, iliocostalis, multifidi, rotators and intertransversarii Rationale: The muscles that extend the vertebral column: spinalis (BL=bilateral), longissimus (BL), iliocostalis (BL), multifidi (BL), rotators (BL), semispinalis capitis, quadratus lumborum (assist), intertransversarii (BL), interspinalis, latissimus dorsi (fixed arm).

Question 50: List the muscles from posterior to anterior that are situated in between the posterior trapezius flap and the anterior SCM on the lateral cervical vertebrae? a. Levator scapula, splenius capitis, posterior, and middle scalenes b. Splenius capitis, posterior /middle scalene, and levator scapula c. Splenius capitis, levator scapula, posterior, and middle scalene d. Levator scapula, posterior / middle scalenes, and splenius capitis

c. Splenius capitis, levator scapula, posterior, and middle scalene Rationale: The superior splenius capitis, levator scapula, posterior, and middle scalene (inferior) are situated in between the posterior trapezius flap and the anterior SCM (Sternocleidomastoid) on the lateral cervical vertebrae.

Question 83: The serratus anterior is only palpable under the axilla between what two muscles? a. The fibers of the pectoralis minor and trapezius b. The fibers of the pectoralis major and trapezius c. The fibers of the pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi d. The fibers of the pectoralis minor and latissimus dorsi

c. The fibers of the pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi Rationale: The serratus anterior is only superficial under the axilla or armpit between the pectoralis major and latissimus dorsi. It is a well defined muscle in fighters because of the actions it is in charge of: ABduction and depression of the scapula, it also holds the medial border of the scapula tight against the rib cage. With the Flexed shoulder and fist towards the ceiling, you can place one hand on the serratus and the other on the fist. Ask your client to alternate between pushing up towards the ceiling against your 30% resistance and then relaxing.

The tibialis anterior and fibularis (peroneus) longus support the: a. Frontal arch b. Longitudinal arch c. Transverse arch d. Sagittal arch

c. Transverse arch Rationale: The transverse arch is a side-to side concavity on the underside of the foot. The support of the anatomical stirrup (fibularis (peroneus) longus and tibialis anterior) helps prevent the collapse of the transverse arch.

Question 48: Of the following choices, what would be a mechanical force causing a wound? a. Extreme temperature b. Chemical source c. Trauma d. Electrical source

c. Trauma Rationale: Causes of wounds: Thermal sources (extreme temperatures, chemical and electrical resulting in a burn). Mechanical forces (trauma, pressure, friction, or sheer forces from an impact between the body and object, or inside body).

Question 15: The pathology pes planus is also known as pronated foot and flat foot, what is the definition? a. A contracture or thickening of the IT band b. Inflammation and pain at the lateral femoral condyle and IT band juncture c. A painful degenerative change to the articular cartilage on the underside of the patella d. A decrease in the medial longitudinal arch and a pronated hindfoot

d. A decrease in the medial longitudinal arch and a pronated hindfoot Rationale: Pes planus (pronated foot or flat foot) is a decrease in the medial longitudinal arch and a pronated hindfoot. Iliotibial Band contracture is a contracture or thickening of the IT band. Iliotibial band friction syndrome is the inflammation and pain at the lateral femoral condyle and IT band juncture. Patellofemoral syndrome is a painful degenerative change to the articular cartilage on the underside of the patella.

Question 31: You work in the city and just instructed a co-worker to call 911 while beginning CPR on your unconscious boss, how long do you continue CPR? a. After two 30/2 cycles b. When you get tired c. After five 15/2 cycles d. A doctor or paramedic tells you to stop or takes over

d. A doctor or paramedic tells you to stop or takes over Rationale: It takes about 5-10 minutes for the responders to arrive from the time the call is made. If the scene is determined unsafe and you have started CPR, move them to a safe location and continue CPR. After the call to 911 is made and you commence CPR, you must continue until told to stop by or are replaced by a paramedic or doctor. If you get tired and there is another person available who can do CPR, you can switch. If you are the only person, you must keep going, even if you think it's not helping the victim.

Question 26: The treatment plan is something developed by the therapist with input from the: a. Client b. PA c. ROM testing d. All of the above

d. All of the above Rationale: Using information from the client, postural analysis (PA), and range of motion (ROM) testing will help determine the best treatment for the desired result.

Question 62: Hematopoiesis is defined as? a. Bacterial infection b. Lack of iron in diet c. Sudden hemorrhage d. Blood cell formation

d. Blood cell formation Rationale: Hemato=blood, poiesis= to make. Hematopoiesis is blood cell formation, occurs in the red bone marrow found mainly in flat bones; ribs, skull, pelvis, sternum and the epiphyses on the proximal ends of the humerus and femur.

Question 43: Thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS) is a peripheral nervous system condition defined as a(n): a. Progressively diminishing basal ganglia function b. Condition where demyelination of the nerves occurs c. Motor function disorder resulting from damage to the immature brain d. Condition that involves compression of the brachial plexus

d. Condition that involves compression of the brachial plexus

Question 79: There are five muscles that medially rotate the humerus, what are they? a. Deltoid (posterior), latissimus dorsi, teres minor, subscapularis and pectoralis minor (all fibers) b. Deltoid (anterior), latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis and pectoralis minor (all fibers) c. Deltoid (posterior), latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis and pectoralis major (all fibers) d. Deltoid (anterior), latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis and pectoralis major (all fibers)

d. Deltoid (anterior), latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis and pectoralis major (all fibers) Rationale: The five medial or internal rotators: Deltoid (anterior), latissimus dorsi, teres major, subscapularis and pectoralis major (all fibers).

Question 57: Lymphatic drainage technique reduces: a. Lymph flow b. Capillary flow c. Node refill d. Edema and pain

d. Edema and pain Rationale: Edema and pain are reduced when the Lymphatic drainage technique is used. Lymphatic massage also reduces the build-up of excess fibrin that can lead to scar tissue.

Question 51: The superficial pectoralis major is divided into three sections; clavicular, sternal, and costal fibers. This muscle also is an antagonist to itself with its upper and lower fibers. What are the actions of the upper fibers? a. Extension and ADduction of the glenohumeral joint b. Extension of the glenohumeral joint c. Flexion and horizontal ABduction of the glenohumeral joint d. Flexion and horizontal ADduction of the glenohumeral joint

d. Flexion and horizontal ADduction of the glenohumeral joint Rationale: The pectoralis major has clavicular, sternal, and costal fibers. These three sections work together to ADduct, medially rotate (the glenohumeral joint), and assist in elevation of the thorax with forced inhalation. The upper fibers flex and horizontally ADduct the glenohumeral joint. The lower fibers extend the glenohumeral joint, making this muscle an antagonist to itself.

Question 56: Out of the five ADductor muscles, choose the only one that crosses the knee? a. ADductor longus b. ADductor brevis c. ADductor magnus d. Gracilis

d. Gracilis Rationale: The gracilis is the only muscle that crosses the knee in the ADductor group.

Question 37: What joint has uniaxial movement? a. Plane b. Saddle c. Condyloid d. Hinge

d. Hinge Rationale: The elbow and interphalangeal joints are hinge on a uniaxial plane of flexion and extension no rotation. Condyloid and saddle are biaxial (metacarpophalangeal and carpometacarpal) and plane, translational or gliding (intercarpal/tarsal). Ball and socket are joints that articulate on a multiaxial or universal movement on all planes including rotation, like the shoulder.

Question 63: Choose from the following groups, the muscles that are in charge of horizontal ABduction and horizontal ADduction: a. Horizontal ABduction: infraspinatus and teres minor, horizontal ADduction: deltoid (posterior) and pectoralis minor (upper) b. Horizontal ABduction: latissimus dorsi and teres major, horizontal ADduction: deltoid (anterior) and pectoralis major (upper) c. Horizontal ABduction: infraspinatus and teres major, horizontal ADduction: deltoid (anterior) and pectoralis major (upper) d. Horizontal ABduction: infraspinatus and teres minor, horizontal ADduction: deltoid (anterior) and pectoralis major (upper)

d. Horizontal ABduction: infraspinatus and teres minor, horizontal ADduction: deltoid (anterior) and pectoralis major (upper) Rationale: The three horizontal ABductors: Deltoid (posterior), infraspinatus and teres minor. The two horizontal ADductors: Deltoid (anterior) and pectoralis major (upper).

Question 69: What muscles have the ability to impinge the iliopectineal bursa? a. ADductor group b. Semitendinosus and semimembranosus c. Biceps femoris d. Iliopsoas

d. Iliopsoas Rationale: The Iliopectineal bursa is located on the anterior aspect of the coxal joint and has the ability to be impinged by the iliopsoas muscles.

Question 11: The examination, diagnosis, and treatment of abnormal nails and superficial excrescences is under which occupation's scope of practice? a. Psychology b. Physical Therapy c. Osteopathic Medicine d. Podiatric Medicine

d. Podiatric Medicine Rationale: Podiatric Medicine is the examination, diagnosis, and treatment of abnormal nails and superficial excrescences (abnormal outgrowths or enlargements) on human feet. This includes callosities, bunions, warts, corns, and arch troubles. Treatment also includes medical, surgical, or mechanical and physiotherapy of ailments that affect the condition of the feet. (amputation or the use of general anesthetics is not included).

Question 71: The endocrine system __________________. a. Involves the fingernails and skin b. Is responsible for hemoglobin transport c. Is a rarely used system in the autonomic structure d. Produces hormones and secretes them into the blood

d. Produces hormones and secretes them into the blood Rationale: The endocrine system produces hormones and passes them into the blood stream.

Question 76: Which system of the body would regulate the blood pH and exchange gases? a. Circulatory b. Gastrointestinal c. Integumentary d. Respiratory

d. Respiratory Rationale: The Respiratory System regulates blood pH levels and exchanges gases, Oxygen, and Carbon Dioxide.

Question 81: What muscle is deep to the trapezius and originates on the spinous processes of C7-T5? a. Teres major b. Teres minor c. Levator scapula d. Rhomboids

d. Rhomboids Rationale: The rhomboids major and minor originate on the spinous processes of C7-T5 and inserts on the medial border of the scapula. The best way to access them is to place your clients hand in the small of his back and palpate the fibers that run oblique or at an angle like a christmas tree off the spine deep to the trapezius. Have your client press their elbow up towards the ceiling resisting 30% of their strength, this will tighten the traps as well but you will feel the oblique fibers.

Question 17: For better exposure of the scalenes, how can you position the head? a. Lateral flexion to the same side b. Lateral flexion to the opposite side c. Rotate head to the same side d. Rotate head slightly to the opposite side

d. Rotate head slightly to the opposite side Rationale: Slightly rotate the head to the opposite side to have better access to the scalenes.

Question 66: What muscle extends the arm? a. Coracobrachialis b. Subclavius c. Subscapularis d. Teres major

d. Teres major Rationale: The teres major muscle extends the arm. The teres major and latissimus dorsi are complete synergists. The actions: MAE Medial rotation, ADduction, and Extension of the glenohumeral joint.

Question 45: Which of the following is not part of the upper respiratory system? a. Larynx b. Vocal cords c. Mouth d. Trachea

d. Trachea Rationale: Upper= Nostril, nasal cavity, oral cavity, pharynx, and larynx (vocal cords). Lower= Trachea, primary bronchi, lungs, and diaphragm.

Question 97: Where are the superior facets located on the vertebrae? a. Lamina groove b. Body c. Spinous process d. Transverse processes

d. Transverse processes Rationale: The superior facets are located on the base of the transverse process.

Question 12: Which bone in the body is known as the "Razor's Edge"? a. Fibula b. Tibia c. Radius d. Ulna

d. Ulna Rationale: The ulna shaft runs along the posterior medial aspect of the forearm. Many muscles are located next to the shaft of the ulna but the edge of the ulna is superficial and palpable, the "Razor's Edge". Page 93 Copyright 2013 Massage-Exam.com