MCAT

Substrates of the citric acid cycle

"Please Can I Keep Selling Seashells For Money, Officer?" -Pyruvate -Citrate -IsoCitrate -alpha-Ketoglutarate -Succinyl-CoA -Succinate -Fumarate -Malate -Oxaloacetate

SN1 reaction

*unimolecular nucleophilic substitution reactions: 2 steps 1. Leaving group leaves forming a positively charged carbocation (rate limiting step) *The rate of rxn depends only on the concentration of the substrate rate = k [R-L] R-L is the alkyl group containing the leaving group *Anything that accelerates the formation of the carbocation increase the rate of rxn 2. Nucleophile attacks the carbocation (unstable) *results in substitution product

Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase

- produces NADH which can feed into electron transport chain

SN2 reaction

-bimolecular nucleophilic substitution reactions - only 1 step (concerted reaction) -nucleophile attacks the compound at the same time as the leaving group leaves -Nucleophile actively displaces the leaving group in a backside attack for this to occur, nucleophile must be strong & substrate can't be sterically hindered -concentrations of substrate & nucleophile have role in determining the rate --> rate = k[Nu][R-L] -Position of the substituents around the substrate carbon is inverted

Amino acid catabolism

-certain amino acids can be used to form acetyl CoA -amino acids much lose their amino group via transamination -carbon skeletons can then form ketone bodies (which is why these amino acids are termed ketogenic) -Conversion of ketone bodies to acetyl CoA then occurs.

base excision repair

-fixes non-deforming lesions of the DNA helix by removing the base leaving an apurinic/apyrimidinic site (AP) -AP endonuclease removes the damaged sequence which is can be filled in w/ the correct bases by DNA polymerase (strand is sealed by DNA ligase) -Used to correct cytosine deamination -G1, G2 * loss of amino group from cytosine resulting in conversion of cytosine to uracil

Fatty acid oxidation (beta oxidation)

-in the intermembrane space of mitochondria -activation causes a thioester bond toform between carboxyl groups of fatty acids and CoA-SH. -Activated fatty acyl-CoA is then transported to the intermembrane space of the mitochondrion. -Because fatty acyl-CoA cannot cross the inner mitochondrial membrane, the fatty acyl group is transferred to canitine viaa transesterification reaction. -Carnitine is a molecule that can cross the inner membrane with a fatty acyl group in tow. -Once acyl carnitine crosses the inner membrane, it transfers the fatty acyl group to the mitochondrial CoA-SH. -once acyl CoA is formed in the matrix, beta oxidation can occur which removes 2 carbon fragments from the carboxyl end.

The bystander effect occurs when ________.

.someone needs help and there are many people around, but no one helps the person in need

energy stored in a capacitor

0.5*C*(V^2)

Each round of beta-oxidation produces what?

1 acetyl-CoA, 1 NADH, 1 FADH2, decreasing the fatty acid chain length by two carbons.

in the kinsey scale, what is the range and what do the first and last values mean?

1-6, 1 meaning completely heterosexual and 6 meaning completely homosexual

Citric acid cycle

1. Citrate Formation-acetyl CoA and oxaloacetate undergo a condensation reaction to form citryl-CoA (intermediate). Hydrolysis of citryl CoA yields citrate and CoA-SH (reaction is catalyzed by citrate synthase (synthases=enzymes that form new covalent bonds without needing significant energy) and this step helps the cycle to revolve in teh forward direction 2. Citrate Isomerized to Isocitrate-achiral citrate is isomerized to one of foru possible isomers of isocitrate. Citrate binds at three points to acionitase enzyme. Water is lost from citrate, Yiels cis-aconitate. Water is added back to form isocitrate. Enzyme is a metalloprotein that require Fe2+. This step results in a a switch of a hydrogen and a hydroxyl group. This step is necessary to facilitate the subsequent oxidative decarboxylation. 3. ALpha Ketoglutarate and CO2 formation-isocitrate is first oxidized to oxalosuccinate and isocitrate dehydrogenase. Oxalosuccinate is decarboxylated to produce alpha ketoglutarate and CO2. Isocitrate dehydrogenase is a rate limiting enzyme for the citric acid cycle. The first of the two carbons from thecycle are lost here, The first NADH is produced from tehintermediates in the cycle. 4. Succinyl-CoA and CO2 formation-these reactions are carried out by the alpha ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex (similar to PDH Complex). In the formation of succinyl CoA, alpha ketoglutarate and CoA come together and produce a molecule of CO2. The CO2 represents the second and last carbon lost from the cycle. Reduces NAD+ to form another NADH. 5. Succinate Formation-hydrolysis of the thioester bond on succinyl CoA yields succinate and CoA-SH and is coupled to the phosphorylation of GDP to GTP (catalyzed by succinyl CoA synthetase (synthetases create new covalent bonds with energy input, unlike synthases). Phosphorylation of GDP to GTP is driven by the energy released by thioester hydrolysis. Once GTP is formed, nucleosidediphosphate kinase enzyme catalyzes the phosphate transfer from GTP to ADP, produces ATP (only time in the entire citric acid cycle that ATP is produced directly, ATP production occurs predominantly in the electron transport cycle) 6. Fumarate Formation-Only step that doesn't occur in the mitochondrial matrix (occurs on the inner membrane). Succinate undergoes oxidation to yield fumarate. Reaction is catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase (which is considered a flavo protein becuase it is noncovalently bonded to FAD, the electron acceptor in this reaction) which is an integral protein on the inner mitochondrial membrane. As succinate is oxidized to fumarate, FAD is reduced to FADH2. Each molecule of FADH2 then passes the electrons iit carries to the electron transport chain, which eventually leads to the production of 1.5 ATP (unlike NADH which gives rise to 2.5 ATP). FAD is the electron acceptor in this reaciton because the rducing power of sucicnate is not great enough to reduce NAD+. 7. Malate Formation-Fumarase enzyme catalyzed the hydrolysis of the alkene bond in fumarate, gives rise to malate, two enantiomeric forms possible but only L-malate forms in this reaction. 8. Oxaloacetate Formed Anew-malate dehydrogenase enzyme catalyzes the oxidation of malate to oxaloacetate. Third and final molecule of NAD+ is reduced to NADH. Newly formed oxaloacetate is ready to take part in another turn of the citric acid cycle and we've gained all of the high energy electron carriers from one turn of the cycle.

saponification (ester hydrolysis)

1. OH attacks ester 2. ester piece is eliminated, nabs an H before leaving 3. form carboxylate anion

1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex reaction 2. Citric Acid Cycle Reaction 3. ATP Production in total

1. Pyruvate + CoA-SH + NAD+ --> acetyl CoA + NADH + CO2 H+ 2.Acetyl CoA + 3 NAD+ + FAD + GDP + Pi + 2 H2O --> 2 CO2 + CoA-SH + 3 NADH + 3H+ + FADH2 + GTP 3. 4 NADH --> 10 ATP (2.5 ATP per NADH) 1 FADH2 --> 1.5 ATP (1.5 ATP per FADH2) 1 GTP --> 1 ATP Total: 12.5 ATP per pyruvate, 2 pyruvate per glucose, so 25 ATP per glucose glycolysis yields 2 ATP and 2 NADH providing another 7 ATP so net yielf per glucose is around 30-32 ATP, depending on glycolysis efficiency in different cells.

the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex enzymes needed to catalyze acetyl CoA formation

1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH)- pyruvate is oxidized, yields CO2, which the remaining 2 carbon molecule binds covalenty to thiamine pyrophosphate (vitamin B1, TPP). TPP is a coenzyme held by noncovalent interactions to PDH, Mg2+ is also required. 2. Dihydrolipoyl transacetylase- 2 carbon molecule that is bound to TPP is oxidized and transferred to lipoic acid, a coenzyme that is covalently boned to the enzyme. Lipoic acid's disulfide group acts as an oxidizing agent, creating the acetyl group. The acetyl group is bonded to lipoic acid via thioester linkage. After this, dihydrolipoyl transacetylase catalyzes the CoA-SH interaction with the newly formed thioester link, causing a transfer of an acetyl group to formacetyl CoA. Lipoic acid is left in its reduced form. 3. Dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase-flavin adenine dinucleotide (FAD) is used as a coenzyme in order to reoxidize lipoic acid, allowing lipoic acid to facilitate acetyl CoA formation in future reactions. As lipoic acid is reoxidized, FAD is reduced to FADH2. In subsequent reactions, this FADH2 is reoxidized to FAD which NAD+ is reduced to NADH.

cofactors of pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

1. TPP- thiamine derived 2. lipoic acid 3. FAD+ 4. NAD+ (converted to NADH, so technically not cofactor) 5. CoASH (attached to pyruvate to form acetyl-CoA)

Behavorist Perspective

1. We learn how to behave from the environmental factors and people around conditioning with reinforcement and punishments. 2. *Example: People turn violent because they are brought up in a bad neighborhood where it is believed that it's "every man for themselves."

parts of the nephron

1. afferent arteriole 2. glomerulus 3. efferent arteriole- includes cells and proteins Bowman's capsule 1. proximal convoluted tubule- water and solute reabsorption 2. loop of Henle- countercurrent multiplier, descending limb reabsorbs water, ascending limb reabsorbs ions to medulla, allows for better water reabsorption in collecting duct 3. distal convoluted tubule- more regulated reabsorption, secretion of toxins into urine 4. collecting duct- secretion of toxins into urine 5. calyces peritubular capillaries- reabsorption via active transport, drain back to renal vein vasa recta- countercurrent to loop of Henle, brings reabsorbed water back to blood

energetics of glucose catabolism (ATP count)

1. glycolysis- 2 ATP, 2 NADH (5 - 2 to bring NADH into mitochondria = ~3 ATP) 2. PDC- 2 NADH (~5 ATP) 3. 2 GTP (2 ATP), 6 NADH (~15 ATP), 2 FADH2 (~3 ATP) ideal total: 38 ATP per glucose (actual: 30 ATP) prokaryotes ideal total: 38 ATP anaerobic glycolysis: 2 ATP

steps in glycolysis that create/require energy require ATP (2 ATP investment for 1 glucose):

1. hexokinase- glucose to glucose-6-P 2. PFK- fructose-6-P to fructose-1,6-P2 create ATP (4 ATP total, 2 ATP net for 1 glucose): 1. phosphoglycerate kinase- 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to 3-phosphoglycerate 2. pyruvate kinase- PEP to pyruvate create NADH (2 total for 1 glucose): 1. GAP DH- glyceraldehyde-3-P to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate

Piaget's stages of cognitive development

1. sensorimotor 0-2 2. preoperational 2-7 3. concrete operational 7-11 4. formal operational 11+

a Mhz is

1000000 hz

Which fatty acid can be synthesized by humans?

16:0 (palmitic acid, fully saturated so no double bonds 0 and 16 carbons in it)

net of glycolysis

2 ATP, 2 NADH, 2 pyruvate

The reduction of a disulfide bond requires

2 electrons and each molecule of NADH can provide 2 electrons when reducing another compound

The reduction of a disulfide bond requires .....?

2 electrons and each molecule of NADH can provide 2 electrons when reducing another compound

1 mole of gas occupies how many liters at STP

22.4 (dont be an idiot you know this)

when antibodies bind to antigens what can happen?

3 outcomes. 1. neutralizing the antigen making the pathogen or toxin unable to exert its effect on the body 2. marking the pathogen for destruction by other white blood cells immediately (opsonization). 3. Agglutinating (clumping) the antigen and the antibody into large insoluble protein complexes that can be phagocytized and digested by macrophages

enzyme linked receptors

3 primary protein domains: 1. membrane spanning domain which anchors the receptor in the cell membrane. 2. ligand binding domain which is stimulated by the appropriate ligand and induces a conformational change that activates the number 3. catalytic domain. This often results in the initiation of a second messenger cascase (RTK (receptor tyrosine kinase) for example)

Products of Citric Acid Cycle are

4 CO2, 6 NADH, 2 FADH2, 2 GTP, 4 H+

total number of fused rings in a steroid

4 rings

What is the base sequence of the mRNA transcribed from the following piece of DNA 5'TCTTTGAGACATCC3'

5'GGAUGUCUCAAAGA3'

anticodon for 5'GUA3'

5'UAC3'

pyranose vs furanose

6 member vs 5 member ring

In oxidative phosphorylation, cytochrome c acts as: A.a 1-electron carrier. B.a 2-electron carrier. C.a 3-electron carrier. D.a 4-electron carrier.

A

Proteins that are encapsulated in Arf1-COP derived vesicles are bound for the: A.endoplasmic reticulum. B.cellular membrane. C.nucleus. D.cytosol.

A

The cutting of introns and the splicing associated with the expression of the Factor VIII gene occur during which of the following steps in the protein-synthesis process? A.DNA → mRNA B.DNA → tRNA C.mRNA → tRNA D.tRNA → protein

A

The initial filtration step in the glomerulus of the mammalian kidney occurs primarily by: A.passive flow due to a pressure difference. B.passive flow resulting from a countercurrent exchange system. C.active transport of water, followed by movement of electrolytes along a resulting concentration gradient. D.active transport of electrolytes, followed by passive flow of water along the resulting osmolarity gradient.

A

Which feature of the kinetics of L-alanine transport would provide evidence that DOM is an important source of nutrients under low-food conditions? A.High-affinity transport (Kt) of L-alanine B.Low-affinity transport (Kt) of L-alanine C.High transport capacity (Jmax) of L-alanine D.Low transport capacity (Jmax) of L-alanine

A

Which is a cofactor oxidant? A.FAD B.NADH C.H2O D.Acetyl-CoA

A

Southern Blot

A DNA sample is electrophoresed on a gel and then transferred to a filter. The filter is then soaked in a denaturant and subsequently exposed to a labeled DNA probe that recognizes and anneals to its complementary strand. The resulting ds labeled piece of DNA is visualized when the filter is exposed to film.

relative to slow-twitch fibers, fast-twitch fibers are likely to exhibit which property? A.Greater Ca2+-pumping capacity B.Increased capillary density C.More mitochondria D.Higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins

A because according to the passage, slow-twitch fibers are adapted for aerobic exercise which suggests they are likely, relative to fast-twitch fibers, to have increased capillary density, larger numbers of mitochondria, and higher levels of oxygen-binding proteins. The names of the fibers themselves give insight into their relative rates of contraction. Thus, it is unlikely that slow-twitch fibers will have greater Ca2+-pumping capacity, than fast-twitch fibers.

Melanosomes most likely move along microtubules that originate in and radiate from the: A.centrosome. B.kinetochores. C.Golgi apparatus. D.microfilaments under the plasma membrane.

A because microtubules are cellular structures that originate from centrosomes. (kinetochores are in actively dividing cells)

What is the best experimental method to analyze the effect of tdh2 gene deletion on the rate of histone acetylation? Comparing histone acetylation in wild-type and Δtdh2 cells by: A.Western blot B.Southern blot C.Northern blot D.RT-PCR

A because posttranslational modification of proteins such as histone acetylation is analyzed by Western blotting.

In humans, the characteristic tissue of which of the following organs is NOT derived from mesoderm? A.Brain B.Heart C.Kidney D.Skeletal muscle

A because the brain is part of the central nervous system, which is derived from ectoderm. Heart, kidney, and skeletal muscle are derived from mesoderm.

Which observation is LEAST likely to be made in an examination of the brains of the genetically modified mice? (genetically modified with AD) A.Increased synaptic connections between neurons B.Malfunction of transporting nutrients along axons C.Extracellular aggregation of neurofibrillary tangles D.Increased expression of apoptotic markers

A because the presence of Aβ plaques and neurofibrillary tangles will not allow for increased connection between neurons in the brains of the genetically modified mice. The other responses represent declines in cellular function and survival that are more likely to be associated with AD.

Vasopressin regulates the insertion of aquaporins into the apical membranes of the epithelial cells of which renal structure? A.Collecting duct B.Proximal tubule C.Bowman's capsule D.Ascending loop of Henle

A because vasopressin regulates the fusion of aquaporins with the apical membranes of the collecting duct epithelial cells.

The frequency with which students completed problems decreased after their teacher stopped rewarding completed problems with candy. This observation is an example of which phenomenon? A.Extinction B.Shaping C.Stimulus discrimination D.Stimulus generalization

A because without continued reinforcement of an established operant behavior, the frequency of the behavior decreases.

pons

A brain structure that relays information from the cerebellum to the rest of the brain

ketose

A carbohydrate whose carbonyl group is a ketone

aldose

A carbohydrate whose carbonyl group is an aldehyde, can be oxidized to aldonic acids and reduced to alditols

episodic memory

A category of long-term memory that involves the recollection of specific events, situations and experiences.

Hawthorne effect

A change in a subject's behavior caused simply by the awareness of being studied

leptin

A hormone produced by adipose (fat) cells that acts as a satiety factor in regulating appetite, inhibits orexin

ghrelin

A hunger-arousing hormone secreted by an empty stomach

Visible light travels more slowly through an optically dense medium than through a vacuum. A possible explanation for this could be that the light: a. is absorbed and re-emitted by the atomic structure of the optically dense medium. b. is absorbed and re-emitted by the nucleus of the material in the optically dense medium. c. bounces around randomly inside of the optically dense medium before emerging. d. loses amplitude as it passes through the optically dense medium.

A is known to occur and is the reason for the slowing down of light. B is incorrect because the nucleus is involved. C is incorrect because the motion of the photons is certainly not random. D is true but does not answer the question. Thus, A is the best answer.

method of loci

A mnemonic technique that involves associating items on a list with a sequence of familiar physical locations

Hippocampus

A neural center located in the limbic system that helps process explicit memories for storage.

Hypothalamus

A neural structure lying below the thalamus; it directs several maintenance activities (eating, drinking, body temperature), helps govern the endocrine system via the pituitary gland, and is linked to emotion and reward.

Conscientiousness

A personality dimension that describes someone who is responsible, dependable, persistent, and organized

viroid

A plant pathogen consisting of a molecule of naked, circular RNA a few hundred nucleotides long.

chemiosmosis

A process for synthesizing ATP using the energy of an electrochemical gradient and the ATP synthase enzyme.

conversion disorder

A rare somatoform disorder in which a person experiences very specific genuine physical symptoms for which no physiological basis can be found.

isoelectric focusing

A specialized method of separating proteins by their isoelectric point using electrophoresis; the gel is modified to possess a pH gradient and the protein stops moving when the pH=pI

epimers

A subtype of diastereomers that differ in absolute configuration at exactly one chiral carbon

Golgi apparatus

A system of membranes that modifies and packages proteins for export by the cell

Ethanol may be metabolized to acetic acid, then condensed with a coenzyme to form acetyl coenzyme A. Acetyl coenzyme A may then participate in: A.the Krebs (citric acid) cycle. B.glycolysis. C.electron transport. D.oxidative phosphorylation.

A, because acetyl coenzyme A is the main input of the citric acid cycle

Based on the passage, which of the following is LEAST likely to be a symptom of diabetes mellitus? A.Loss of appetite B.Sweet-tasting urine C.Unexplained weight loss D.Feelings of fatigue

A, because based on the passage, the symptoms of diabetes mellitus are frequent urination and catabolism of fatty acid as well as proteins as alternative energy sources. In diabetic patients, high blood glucose results in excretion of excess sugar into the urine, hence sweet-tasting urine. Similarly, the catabolism of fatty acids and proteins results in weight loss and feelings of fatigue respectively. This leaves loss of appetite as the only correct answer.

Which imaging technique is best suited for localizing brain areas, as described in the studies of neural activity (paragraph 3)? A.PET B.EEG C.MRI D.CT

A, because for studies focusing on activation (and thus brain function), a PET scan is the best imaging tool among those listed.

On average, adults are found to be more risk averse than adolescents. Based on group polarization, how would testing condition affect adults' scores on the DMQ? Adults would have: A.lower scores on the DMQ in a group than alone. B.higher scores on the DMQ in a group than alone. C.lower scores on the DMQ in small groups but higher scores on the DMQ in large groups. D.higher scores on the DMQ in small groups but lower scores on the DMQ in large groups.

A, because group polarization refers to the fact that people's attitudes toward some attitude object become more extreme after interacting with like-minded individuals. Therefore, a group of risk averse individuals would become more risk averse after interacting with each other, which suggests that their risky behavior scores would be lower.

Which statement provides the LEAST likely explanation for why the researchers dropped the highly anxious participants from their sample? A.Ethical committees do not allow research with participants who may have psychological disorders. B.If all the anxious participants get assigned to the stress condition, this may pose a confounding variable. C.Highly anxious participants are not representative of the population and may reduce the generalizibility of the findings. D.If all the anxious participants get assigned to the control condition, this may lead to a false rejection of the experimental hypothesis.

A, because it is ethically practicable to conduct research on people who score high on anxiety. However, having outliers accumulate in the experimental or control condition can lead to confounding or to errors in statistical inference. It may also limit the generalizability of the results.

In humans, the lining of which structure is NOT primarily derived from the endoderm? A.Mouth B.Bronchi C.Bladder D.Stomach

A, because most of the lining of the mouth is derived from an invagination of ectoderm. Most of the epithelial tissues inside the body (B, C, D) are derived from endoderm

Which of the following properties of a 2.3 MHz ultrasound wave remains unchanged as it passes into human tissues? A.Frequency B.Wave speed C.Amplitude D.Wavelength

A, because the frequency of a wave is not affected by the medium through which it goes (you did this correctly the first time!!!)

Suppose that at the end of Reaction 1 the level of the aqueous solution were 26 cm higher inside the buret than outside. Compared to ambient pressure, the pressure of the gas inside the buret would be: A.lower. B.the same. C.2 times greater. D.26 times greater.

A, because the level of the liquid inside is higher than outside which results from the fact that the air pressure outside is higher than the pressure inside. Pressure builds on the inside by raising the liquid level. When the sum of the inside air pressure plus liquid pressure equals the outside air pressure, the liquid level stops rising (attains equilibrium).

The principal quantum number is a measure of which of the following? A.Approximate radial size of an electron cloud B.Approximate shape of an electron cloud C.Number of valence electrons that orbit a nucleus D.Number of protons and neutrons found in the nucleus of an atom

A, because the principal quantum number n is most closely associated with the potential energy of the electron. Since potential energy is proportional to the square of the distance of two oppositely charged particles by Coulomb's Law, it is also true that n is associated with the radial "size" of the electron cloud.

The density of a human body can be calculated from its weight in air, Wair, and its weight while submersed in water, Ww. The density of a human body is proportional to: A.Wair/(Wair - Ww). B.(Wair - Ww)/Wair. C.(Wair - Ww)/Ww. D.Ww/(Wair - Ww).

A, because, according to Archimedes' Principle, the ratio of the density of an object to the density of the fluid it is submersed in is equal to the ratio of the weight of the object in air to the difference of submersed weight and weight in air.

Which measurement unit CANNOT be used to express power? A.kg•m2 •s2 B.J•s-1 C.ft•lb •s-1 D.W

A, it would have to be kg*m^2*s^3

The standard version of a dichotic listening task involves: A.presenting two different auditory messages, one to each ear. B.presenting two different auditory stimuli to the same ear. C.requiring participants to identify two subthreshold sounds. D.requiring participants to dichotomize sounds into distinct categories.

A, you did it right the first time!!

Which of the following molecules has an octahedral geometry? A.SF6 B.CBr4 C.XeF4 D.BrF3

A, you did this right (AX6 with no lone pairs formula means octahedral geometry)

Which single bond present in nitroglycerin is most likely the shortest? A.C-H B.C-O C.C-C D.O-N

A. All of the bonds listed are single bonds. Since hydrogen has a much smaller atomic radius than second period elements, the covalent bond between C and H is shorter than any of the other bonds listed.

After infection of a cell, a viral particle must transport itself to the nucleus in order to produce viral proteins. What is the likely genomic content of the virus? A. Double-stranded DNA B. Double-stranded RNA C. Positive-sense RNA D. Negative-sense RNA

A. Double-stranded DNA because a virus that requires transport to the nucleus to produce viral proteins likely requires use of nucleus RNA polymerase in order to create mRNA that can be translated to protein. Only DNA viruses require this transport before any protein can be synthesized.

A.this arousal is followed by aggressive emotions. B.they simultaneously experience aggressive emotions. C.they interpret their arousal, which results in aggressive emotions. what theories of emotion do these describe

A. James-Lange theory of emotion suggests that physiological arousal precedes the experiencing of emotions. B describes the Canon-Bard theory, which holds that physiological arousal and emotions are experienced simultaneously. C describes the two-factor theory that brings in cognitive appraisal.

In high doses, aspirin functions as a mitochondrial uncoupler. How would this affect glycogen stores? a. It causes depletion of glycogen stores. b. It has no effect on glycogen stores. c. It promotes additional storage of glucose as glycogen. d. Its effect on glycogen stores varies from cell to cell.

A. because uncouplers inhibit ATP synthesis without affecting the ETC. Bc the body must burn more fuel to maintain the proton motive force, glycogen stores will be mobilized to feed into glycolysis, then the TCA, and finally oxidative phosphorylation.

continuity equation

A1V1=A2V2

start codon

AUG Methionine

humanist perspective

Abraham Maslow says that self-actualization is an innate drive, we have free will Carl Rogers says that humans are driven to realize their highest potential, personality conflicts arise when this is blocked unconditional positive regard from parents is key to self-actualization goal of development is to establish self-concept incongruence- contradiction between ideal self and real self

Ketolysis

Acetoacetate picked up from blood is activated inteh mitochondria by succinyl CoA acetoacetyl CoA transferase (thiophorase) (enzyme that is present only in tissues outside the liver). 3 hydroxybutyrate is oxidized to acetoacetate but bc liver lacks the enzyme, it cannot catabolize the ketone bodies it produces. in brain- 2.3 energy from ketone bodies when fasting state. Ketones are metabolized to acetyl CoA, pyruvate dehydrogenase is inhibited. Glycolysis and glucose uptake decreases, this switch spares the essential protein in the body which would otherwise be catabolized to form glucose by gluconeogenesis in the liver.

glycosidation

Addition of a sugar to another compound

DNA polymerase alpha

Adds nucleotides to growing daughter strand, S phase

panic disorder

An anxiety disorder marked by unpredictable minutes-long episodes of intense dread in which a person experiences terror and accompanying chest pain, choking, or other frightening sensations.

In which phase of meiosis does nondisjunction occur?

Anaphase I (metaphase is just lining up and anaphase is pulling apart)

Double stranded RNA cannot be translated by the ribosome and is marked for degradation in the cell. Which of the following strands of RNA would prevent mature mRNA in the cytoplasm from being transcribed? Identical mRNA to the one produced Antisense mRNA to the one produced mRNA with thymine substituted for uracil Sense mRNA to the one produced

Antisense mRNA to the one produced because it will stick to the produced RNA and become double stranded which will then cause it to degrade

Centromeres

Area where the chromatids of a chromosome are attached, high GC content to maintains a strong bond between chromatids

A certain bacterium was cultured for several generations in medium containing 15N, transferred to medium containing 14N, and allowed to complete two rounds of cell division. Given that the bacterium's genome mass is 5.4 fg when grown in 14N media and 5.5 fg when grown in 15N medium, individual bacteria with which of the following genome masses would most likely be isolated from this culture? A.5.4 fg only B.5.4 fg and 5.45 fg C.5.4 fg and 5.5 fg D.5.45 fg only

B

A fatty acid is comprised of a long hydrocarbon tail and a head consisting of: A.a hydroxyl group. B.a carboxyl group. C.a phosphate group. D.an amino group.

B

Which expression can be used to calculate the solubility of CaCO3? A.Ksp = [Ca2+][CO32-]/[CaCO3] B.Ksp = [Ca2+][CO32-] C.Ksp = [CaCO3]/[Ca2+][CO32-] D.Ksp = [Ca2+]2[CO32-]2

B (you did it right the first time!!!)

If a solution containing the compounds shown in Figure 4, is injected into a gas-liquid chromatograph, the first peak observed in the gc trace is attributable to which compound? A.2-Methyl-2-butanol B.2-Methyl-2-butene C.2-Chloro-2-methylbutane D.2-Bromo-2-methylbutane

B because A has H bond capabilities, and C and D have dipole and B only has van der waals which are the weakest so it will boil first. van der Waals<Dipole<Hydrogen bond<ionic bond

A transient shortage of oxygen (global ischemia) releases excess glutamate into the extracellular fluid of the brain. This causes neuronal death by hyperexcitation to a greater extent in the hippocampus than in the cortex. Which reason best explains why the hippocampus is selectively vulnerable during global ischemia? A.The magnitude of action potentials is greater in hippocampal than cortical neurons. B.The expression of NMDA receptors is more abundant in hippocampal than cortical neurons. C.Hippocampal neurons generate a more negative postsynaptic potential than cortical neurons. D.Hippocampal synapses have faster neurotransmitter diffusion rates compared to cortical synapses.

B because NMDA receptors are a subtype of glutamate receptor. Higher expression of NDMA receptors in the hippocampus than the cortex would render the hippocampus more vulnerable to the excess release of extracellular glutamate.

Based on the passage, which statement describes Wnt proteins?(Wnt proteins are a family of secretory proteins with isoelectric points around ) A.They are composed of multiple subunits. B.They have a positive charge. C.They are synthesized in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. D.They fold into their tertiary structure in the cytoplasm.

B because based on the passage, Wnt proteins are a family of secretory proteins with isoelectric points around 9, implying that they are positively charged at physiological pH. A is incorrect because there is no information in the passage to support this response. C is incorrect because secretory proteins are synthesized in the rough endoplasmic reticulum. D is incorrect because folding of secretory proteins occurs in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Knowing that the speed of light in the vitreous humor is 2.1 × 108 m/s, what is the index of refraction of the vitreous humor? (Note: The speed of light in a vacuum is 3.0 × 108 m/s.) A.0.7 B.1.4 C.2.1 D.3.0

B because the index of refraction of a medium is equal to the ratio of the speed of light in vacuum to the speed of light in the medium, thus it is equal to (3.0 ´ 108 m/s)/(2.1 ´ 108 m/s) = 1.4

What are the structural features possessed by storage lipids? A.Two fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol plus a charged head group B.Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol C.Two fatty acids ester-linked to a single sphingosine plus a charged head group D.Three fatty acids ester-linked to a single sphingosine

B because triacylglycerols are neutral storage lipids. They consist of three fatty acids ester-linked to a single glycerol.

B cells

B cell development: 1. lymphocytes in humoral immunity derived from bone marrow stem cells 2. antibody proteins assembled by recombination to create different B cells, allows for clonal selection 3. antigen binding triggers differentiation to plasma cell or memory cell 4. plasma cells- actively secrete antibody protein into plasma 5. memory cells- become dormant, waiting for same antigen to reappear then becomes activated primary immune response- just plasma cells on first exposure to antigen secondary immune response- memory cells respond quickly, vaccination

If the titration of H2PO4− in a urine sample was continued until all of the acid in the solution was neutralized, how many equivalents of NaOH would be needed to fully neutralize the solution? A.1 B.2 C.3 D.4

B, H2PO4− contains two H+ ions. Two equivalents of NaOH will neutralize both of the H+ ions.

Normally, a hypothalamic factor stimulates the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) from the pituitary gland. In a patient with Addison's disease (primary adrenal gland insufficiency), the secretion of the hypothalamic factor will: A.be lower than normal. B.be higher than normal. C.be unchanged. D.increase before disease onset and decrease thereafter.

B, because ACTH stimulates the adrenal cortex to secrete glucocorticoids. According to the passage, Addison's disease occurs when cells of the adrenal cortex are destroyed, rendering them unable to secrete glucocorticoids. As part of a hormone cascade pathway, ACTH secretion is expected to be higher than normal in a patient with Addison's disease to attempt to stimulate the adrenal cortex.

Specifically, patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). Maintenance Factor 1 is most closely related to which approach to psychological disorders? A.Psychodynamic B.Behaviorist C.Trait D.Humanistic

B, because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on the role of classical conditioning, which is most closely related to the behaviorist approach.

Pellagra also results from a deficiency of nicotinamide, which is synthesized from tryptophan. Nicotinamide nucleotides are neither oxidized nor reduced during which step of cellular respiration? A.Glycolysis B.Chemiosmosis C.Citric acid cycle D.Electron transport chain

B, because NAD+ is the oxidized form, and NADH is the reduced form of nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide. NAD+ is neither reduced to form NADH, nor is NADH oxidized to form NAD+ specifically during chemiosmosis.

Introduction of which amino acid substitution would result in the largest decrease in the entropic penalty associated with a protein folding into its native conformation? A.Ile to Asp substitution at a buried site B.Leu to Thr substitution at a surface-exposed site C.Gly to Pro substitution in a flexible loop D.Arg to Tyr substitution at a surface-exposed site

B, because changing a surface-exposed hydrophobic residue for a more hydrophilic residue eliminates the entropic penalty associated with ordered water molecules around hydrophobic groups. Thr is smaller than Leu, so even though it is still hydrophobic, it is less so than the Leu

Which approach does NOT measure the activity of the Na+K+ ATPase? A.Measuring the rate of ATP hydrolysis B.Measuring the free energy of the ion transport C.Measuring the rate of ADP production D.Measuring the change in ion concentration within the liposome

B, because free energy is a thermodynamic quantity and is NOT a kinetic property. Activity is a kinetic property.

Which type of memory would most likely be activated first during the computer task, before working memory is activated? A.Implicit memory B.Sensory memory C.Short-term memory D.Episodic memory

B, because seeing squares light up on the computer screen would register with visual sensors, forming a sensory memory before working memory is activated.

The adrenal medulla is part of which branch(es) of the peripheral nervous system? A.The somatic nervous system only B.The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only C.The parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system only D.Both the sympathetic and the parasympathetic branches of the autonomic nervous system

B, because the adrenal medulla secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in response to short-term stress. Reactions to short-term stress are mediated by the sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system.

Butyrate, a product of bacterial anaerobic fermentation, is a known regulator of gene expression. For example, exogenous butyrate is used in clinical studies to stimulate fetal hemoglobin expression in individuals with sickle-cell anemia. Butyrate exerts its function by inhibiting histone deacetylases (HDACs), which counter the effects of histone acetyltransferases (HATs) in controlling chromatin structure in histone and non-histone proteins. HDACs and HATs modify basic residues on target proteins. HDACs change chromatin by: A.decreasing its coiling and promoting DNA replication. B.increasing its condensation and inhibiting transcription. C.decreasing charge repulsion between acetyl groups, which increases transcription. D.loosening the attachment of DNA to nucleosome core particles.

B, because the passage states that HDACs counter the effects of histone acetyltransferases (HATs). As histone acetylation typically promotes transcription by modifying chromatin structure, HDACs would inhibit transcription by condensing chromatin structure. HISTONE ACETYLACTION PROMOTES TRANSCRIPTION

Glucose transporter proteins in the liver do not require the presence of insulin to facilitate the uptake of glucose. However, insulin does stimulate the first step in the glycolytic pathway within the liver. Therefore, in liver cells, insulin most likely: A.hinders glucose uptake by increasing the cellular concentration of glucose. B.aids glucose uptake by decreasing the cellular concentration of glucose. C.hinders glucose uptake by using the ATP needed by the glucose transporter proteins. D.aids glucose uptake by providing the ATP needed by the glucose transporter proteins.

B, because the stem states that insulin stimulates the first step in the glycolytic pathway in the liver, thus decreasing the cellular concentration of glucose. This results in increased uptake of glucose to maintain the cellular concentration of glucose.

Absorption of ultraviolet light by organic molecules always results in what process? A.Bond breaking B.Excitation of bound electrons C.Vibration of atoms in polar bonds D.Ejection of bound electrons

B, the absorption of ultraviolet light by organic molecules always results in electronic excitation. Bond breaking can subsequently result, as can ionization or bond vibration, but none of these processes are guaranteed to result from the absorption of ultraviolet light.

A 45-year-old man presents himself at a hospital emergency room. Symptoms include a pounding heart, chest pain, shortness of breath, sweating, and feeling dizzy. Medical tests reveal that the man did not have a heart attack. Which psychiatric diagnosis provides the most likely explanation for the man's symptoms? A.Generalized anxiety disorder B.Panic disorder C.Illness anxiety disorder D.Somatic symptom disorder

B.

Although the study examines a specific bias in group decision-making, similar biases can influence individual decision-making. Which of the following individual-level effect is most similar to groupthink? A.Self-serving bias B.Confirmation bias C.Hindsight bias D.Response bias

B. As with a group affected by groupthink, an individual's confirmation bias causes the person to seek, and attend to, only information that confirms his or her existing point of view and to ignore disconfirming evidence.

In [Cu(NH3)4]2+, the subscript 4 indicates which of the following? A.The oxidation number of Cu only B.The coordination number of Cu2+ only C.Both the oxidation number of Cu and the coordination number of Cu2+ D.Neither the oxidation number of Cu nor the coordination number of Cu2+

B. Because ammonia is neutral, the number 4 reflects only the number of ammonia molecules that bind to the central Cu2+ cation and does not indicate anything about its oxidation number.

Which term refers to closed status positions that hinder social mobility? A.Class systems B.Caste systems C.Economic systems D.Financial systems

B. Caste systems describe closed stratification systems that do not allow for social mobility.

Which research methodology involves the extended, systematic observation of a complete social environment? A.Comparative methods B.Ethnographic methods C.Experimental methods D.Survey methods

B. Ethnographic methods are accurately described in the question as involving systematic observation of a complete social environment.

Each of the following equations shows the dissociation of an acid in water. Which of the reactions occurs to the LEAST extent? A.HCl + H2O → H3O+ + Cl− B.HPO42− + H2O → H3O+ + PO43− C.H2SO4 + H2O → H3O+ + HSO4− D.H3PO4 + H2O → H3O+ + H2PO4−

B. HPO42− has a high negative charge and so dissociation of it will occur to the least extent.

The production of a variety of opsins functions to: A.increase sensitivity to low light. B.enable the detection of different colors. C.ensure fast recovery of 11-cis-retinal after exposure. D.increase refractive index of the eye lens.

B. The wavelength of light absorbed by a molecule depends on its structure, and so the production of a variety of structurally related opsins functions to enable the detection of different colors.

behaviorist perspective

B.F. Skinner says that humans learn behaviors based on environment, conditioning determinism- people are blank slates, personality determined by reinforcement and punishment babbling is reinforced by adults, babies learn behavioral therapy- use conditioning to shape patient's behavior, desensitization and relaxation techniques cognitive behavioral therapy- thoughts are behaviors, Beck's cognitive triad describe how depression comes from negative views of self, world, and future

peroxisomes

Break down fatty acids and carbs, detoxify, and produce hydrogen peroxide

The most rapid rate of gluconeogenesis will most likely occur in the body when: A.blood glucose levels are high. B.cortisol release is inhibited. C.the body's stores of carbohydrates are low. D.the body's stores of proteins are low.

C

The pH of a 1 L phosphate buffer solution was measured as 7.6, but the experimental procedure calls for a pH 7.2 buffer. Which method will adjust the solution to the proper pH? (Note: The pKa values for phosphoric acid are 2.2, 7.2, and 12.3.) A.Add enough 1 M Na2HPO3 to increase the phosphate anion concentration ten-fold. B.Add 1 M NaOH to neutralize a portion of the hydronium ions found in the solution. C.Alter the ratio of monosodium/disodium phosphate added to favor the monosodium species. D.Add 100 mL distilled, deionized water to dilute the basicity of the buffer.

C

Which amino acid will contribute to the CD signal in the far UV region, but NOT the near UV region, when part of a fully folded protein? A.Trp B.Phe C.Ala D.Tyr

C because all chiral nonaromatic amino acids will contribute solely to the CD signal in the far UV region.

What are the relative potentials for force and power generation by a slow-twitch muscle fiber and a fast-twitch muscle fiber of the same diameter? A.The slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers possess the same potentials for force and power generation. B.The slow-twitch fiber is capable of generating more force than the fast-twitch fiber, while the potential for power generation is the same. C.The fast-twitch fiber is capable of generating more power than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for force generation is the same. D.The fast-twitch fiber is capable of generating more force than the slow-twitch fiber, while the potential for power generation is the same.

C because similarly sized fibers would generate similar force, regardless of fiber type. However, since the fast-twitch fiber would generate the same force with greater velocity, the fast-twitch fiber would generate more power. A is incorrect because slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers would not generate similar power. B is incorrect because slow-twitch and fast-twitch fibers would generate similar force. D is incorrect because force generation would be equal due to similar cross-sectional areas, while power would be dissimilar. (you did this right!!!)

Which of the following best describes the chemical energy that is derived from the Krebs cycle? Energy is produced in the forms of: A.ATP, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and NAD+, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain. B.NAD+, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and ATP, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain. C.ATP, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and NADH, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain. D.NADH, which directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, and ATP, which supplies energy for the electron transport chain.

C because the Krebs cycle produces both ATP and NADH but not NAD+. ATP directly supplies energy for many cellular processes, such as muscle contraction, and NADH, which is used in the electron transport chain. (you did it right the first time!!!)

A neutrophil has point mutations in the genes coding for the alpha and the beta subunits of the adhesion receptor. However, this cell can still migrate through endothelium. Which of the following conclusions about the effect of this mutation can be drawn? A.The cell cannot release toxic products such as prostaglandins. B.The cell has only functional beta subunits. C.The cell can bind to endothelium. D.The cell has a defective cell membrane.

C because, according to the passage, neutrophil migration into endothelium occurs after adhesion to endothelium. Thus, this cell must still be able to bind to endothelium, suggesting that the mutation either does not affect the cell's adherence ability or enhances it.

Participants in a weight-loss program agree to have their body mass index (BMI) measured to track their progress in the program. Among a sample of 72 participants, the mean BMI is 30 and the median BMI is 25. Which statement provides an accurate description of the sample? A.More participants had a BMI over 25 than a BMI under 25. B.The majority of participants had a BMI between 25 and 30. C.Half of the participants had a BMI over 25 and half had a BMI under 25. D.More outliers among the participants had a BMI under 25 than a BMI over 30.

C, BECAUSE YOURE NOT DUMB PAY ATTENTION CMON

In E Coli, the bglF transcript is known to have a short half-life within the cytosol. What mechanism is most likely responsible for transport of this transcript to the cytoplasmic membrane once it is synthesized? a. Diffusion across the cytoplasm b. Transport via attachment to the mitotic spindle c. Active transport along cytoskeletal filaments d. Transport from the endoplasmic reticulum in vesicles

C, because it is faster than diffusion. there is no mitotic spindle, endoplasmic reticulum, or vesicles becuase it is a bacteria and not a eukaryotic cell (PAY ATTENTION THIS WAS A REALLY DUMB MISTAKE)

During the production of insulin, the translated polypeptide is cleaved into the mature form and secreted from the cell. The cleavage most likely takes place in which of the following locations? A.Nucleus B.Ribosomes C.Endomembrane system D.Cytoplasm

C, because secreted proteins such as insulin are cleaved into mature form within endomembrane system.

If the researchers wanted to study the impact of emotions on cardiac mortality during the holidays, which concept are they LEAST likely to address? A.Learned helplessness B.Locus of control C.Fundamental attribution error D.Self-efficacy

C, because the fundamental attribution error, which refers to an observer's bias in favor of internal attributions in explaining another person's behavior, would have no bearing on the research described in the question. Each of the distractors has the potential to regulate the impact of emotions on cardiac mortality.

When designing a study to test the hypothesis that controlling for SES should reduce racial differences in stress, which data would a researcher be LEAST likely to include in an aggregate measure of SES? A.Occupational status B.Income sources C.Social capital D.Educational attainment

C, because the only option among the four choices that is not directly related to measuring socioeconomic status (SES) is social capital, which refers to the benefits provided by social networks. The other options refer to the three main components of SES (occupation, income, and education).

Squalene is produced in the human body as a precursor to which important class of compounds? A.Triacyl glycerols B.Phospholipids C.Steroid hormones D.Prostaglandins

C, because the structure of squalene is highly suggestive of its transformation into the fused four-ring system common to cholesterol and all of the steroid hormones.

A researcher replicates the experiment with the addition of a physical stressor to the first phase of the experiment. According to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, this change is: A.necessary, because humans respond differently to different types of stressors. B.necessary, because physical stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict, whereas social stressors cause approach-approach conflict. C.unnecessary, because the human stress response is not specific to the type of stressor. D.unnecessary, because both physical stressors and social stressors cause avoidance-avoidance conflict.

C, because, according to Selye's general adaptation syndrome, people's response to various stressors is similar. Selye's theory does not make claims about avoidance-avoidance or approach-approach conflicts.

If a viral antigen were to bind to the receptors on the surface of a B lymphocyte, which of the following immune responses would NOT occur? A.Division of the B lymphocyte into cells that differentiate to secrete antibodies B.Interaction of the B lymphocyte with other immune cells that stimulate B-lymphocyte proliferation C.Secretion of toxins by the B lymphocyte that destroy nearby virus-infected cells D.Proliferation of cells that can recognize the antigen more rapidly in the event of a future infection

C, humoral immunity is an antibody-mediated immune response. During an infection, B lymphocytes bind foreign antigens and become activated. Activated lymphocytes divide into many identical cells, some of which differentiate into short-lived plasma cells that secrete antibodies during the immediate immune response. The remaining cells differentiate into long-lived memory cells, which can respond more rapidly to future infections. Natural killer and cytotoxic T cells, not B lymphocytes, respond to antigens by releasing toxins that induce apoptosis (cell death) in nearby infected cells.

selectins

CAM, bind to carbohydrate molecules that project from other cell surfaces. Weakest formed by types of CAM discussed. Expressed on white blood cells and the endothelial cells that line blood vessels, Impotant role in host defense (inflammation and white blood cell migration)

cadherins

CAM, group of glycoproteins that mediate calcium-dependent cell adhesion, hold similar types of cells together, different cells have type sepcific cadhering (N-cadherin for nerve cells and E-cadherin for epithelial cells)

Integrins

CAM, group of proteins that all ahve 2 membrane spanning chains called alpha and beta, chains important in binding to and communicating with the extracellular matrix. cellular signaling, promotes cell division/apoptosis/other processes. Used for white blood cell migration/stabilization of epithelium to basement membrane/other processes

pyruvate kinase

Catalyzes substrate-level phosphorylation of ADP by using PEP (phosphoenolpyruvate). Activated by fructose 1,6 biphosphate from the PFK1 reaction (feed forward activation) (substrate level phosphorylation reaction which places an inorganic phosphate onto ADP to form ATP)

polysaccharides

Cellulose- main structural unit in plants/ fiber in humans. Starches- amylose and amylopectic-function as a main energy storage form for plants. Glycogen-main energy storage form for animals

Control points of the Citric Acid cycle

Citrate synthase-ATP and NADH are allosteric inhibitors of the citrate synthase because both are products of the enzyme. Citrate also allosterically inhibits citrate synthase directly, as does succinyl CoA. Isocitrate dehyrogenase-inhibted by energy products, ATP and NADH. ADP and NAD+ function as allosteric activators for the enzyme and enhance its affinity for substrates. Alpha ketoglutarate dehyrogenase complex-Reaction products of succinyl CoA and NADH function as inhibitors of the enzyme complex and ATP is inhibitory and slows the rate of the cycle when the cell has high levels of ATP. Complex is stimulated by ADP and calcium ions.

clathrin protein

Clathrin is a protein that plays a major role in the formation of coated vesicles

coenzyme A

CoA is a thiol (contains an -SH group), when it forms it does so via covalent attachment of the actyl group to the -SH group which results in the formation of a thioester, which contains sulfur instead of the typical oxygen ester -OR. thioesters have high energy properties.

Complex III of ETC

CoQH2 cytochrome c oxidoreductase-facilitates the transfer of electrons from CoQ to cytochrome C in a few steps. Involves the oxidation and reduction of cytochromes: proteins with heme groups in which iron is reduced to Fe2+ and reoxidized to Fe3+ CoQH2 + 2 Cytochrome c [with Fe3+] --> CoQ + 2 cytochrome C [with Fe 2+] + 2H+ main contribution of III to the proton motive force is via Q cycle in which two electrons are shuttled from a molecule of ubiquinol (CoQH2) near the intermembrance space to amolecule of ubiquinone (CoQ) near the mitochondrial matrix. Another 2 electrons are attached to heme moieties, reducing two molecules of cytochrome C. Th Q cycle continues to increase the gradient of the proton motive force across innter mitochondrial membrane bc 4 protons are displaced to the intermembrane space.

pyruvate dehydrogenase

Complex of enzymes that convert pyruvate to acetyl-CoA, stimulated by insulin, inhibited by acetyl-CoA

Karl Marx is most identified with what theory?

Conflict Theory, because of his interest in the economic conflict between different social classes; he believed that capitalism produced internal tensions that would ultimately lead to the self-destruction of capitalist society, to be replaced by socialism

fertility facor F+ is required for what mechanism

Conjugation

counterculture, utilitarian organization, aggregate, subculture

Counterculture opposes and rejects the norms/values of the dominant culture (eg, much of the antiwar movement of the 1960s). The sects and churches described in the passage are distinct from mainstream culture, but there is no indication that they are opposed to it, making them subcultures, not countercultures. Utilitarian organizations compensate members for their involvement (eg, money, certification/diploma). The sects and churches described in the passage could be considered normative organizations (ie, membership based on shared values), not utilitarian organizations. An aggregate is a collection of individuals who share a common location but do not identify as a group (eg, all the people at a given store at 11:00 AM). The sects and churches described in the passage could be considered in-groups (ie, groups to which members identify and belong), not aggregates. Subculture is a group of individuals who are characteristically distinct from the dominant culture, but whose values and norms still generally align with the dominant culture.

CDK

Cyclin-dependent kinases. A protein kinase that is active only when attached to a particular cyclin. Activity rises and falls depending on the concentration of the cyclin partner. Always present in the cell.

According to the cross-bridge model of muscle contraction, the muscles stiffen after death because ATP is unavailable to bind and directly release: A.ADP from the actin head. B.ADP from the myosin head. C.the actin head from the myosin filament. D.the myosin head from the actin filament.

D because during normal muscle contraction, ATP is required to break the bonds between the actin filament and the myosin head. After death, no new ATP is generated, so the myosin head cannot be released from the actin filament, resulting in stiffening of muscles.

Which primer is most suitable for PCR? A. 5BB-8-1-prime.gif-ATTACGTTAACATGAAG-3BB-8-1-prime.gif B. 5BB-8-1-prime.gif-ATATCGTTAACAAATTG-3BB-8-1-prime.gif C. 5BB-8-1-prime.gif-GCTATAAAGATTGCAAA-3BB-8-1-prime.gif D. 5BB-8-1-prime.gif-GCATAGAAGCATTCCGC-3BB-8-1-prime.gif

D because suitable primers have a high GC content and have G or C base pairs at the 5BB-8-1-prime.gif and 3BB-8-1-prime.gif ends.

Which of the following best describes the bonds between Cu2+ and the nitrogen atoms of the ammonia molecules in [Cu(NH3)4]2+? A.Ionic B.Covalent C.Coordinate ionic D.Coordinate covalent

D because the Lewis acid-base interaction between a metal cation and an electron pair donor is known as a coordinate covalent bond.

Public health campaigns often target behaviors that are formed in adolescence. For example, alcohol, tobacco, and drug use interventions are often designed to prevent or delay risky behaviors because patterns established in adolescence are associated with disorders in adulthood. This example is best described as using which approach to health? A.The biopsychosocial model of health risks B.A macrosociological perspective on health risks C.The social construction of health behavior D.A life course perspective on health behavior

D because the description of behavioral interventions in the question calls attention to how substance use patterns develop at particular life stages. Attending to life stages is a major characteristic of the life course perspective.

What kind of image is formed by the lenses of the glasses worn by a 68-year-old male who sees an object 2 m away? (focal length=-50) A.Real and enlarged B.Real and reduced C.Virtual and enlarged D.Virtual and reduced

D because the lenses have a negative focal length which means they are diverging lenses. Such lenses form virtual and reduced images of objects situated at distances larger than the focal length.

CCCCGGGC Which type(s) of restriction enzyme(s) can recognize the HIF binding sequence? A restriction enzyme that has: a four-base recognition sequence a six-base recognition sequence an eight-base recognition sequence A.I only B.II only C.III only D.I and II only

D because there is only a palindromic sequence for the 4 and 6 length restriction enzyme that is used (can be read 5'to3' and is the same as the 5'to3' on the complementary strand, the whole 8 sequence is not palindromic so it can not be used as the restriction enzyme)

patients with high interoceptive awareness are likely to associate mild changes in bodily sensations (such as slightly heightened heartbeat) with the panic they experienced during panic attacks; this leads to conditioned fear in response to changes in bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 1). Another maintenance factor for PD is the misappraisal of bodily sensations (Maintenance Factor 2), such as interpreting bodily sensations as signs of imminent death or loss of control. Which two processes best summarize maintenance factors 1 and 2, respectively? A.Operant conditioning and top-down processes B.Classical conditioning and affective processes C.Operant conditioning and physiological processes D.Classical conditioning and cognitive processes

D, because Maintenance Factor 1 focuses on classical conditioning of a fear response to bodily sensations, whereas Maintenance Factor 2 focuses on cognitive appraisal (interpretation) of bodily sensations.

Which action(s) could contribute to the positive inotropic effect of digoxin on cardiac myocytes? Decrease transport of Ca2+ to the extracellular environment. Increase availability of intracellular Ca2+ to bind to troponin. Increase overall Ca2+ stores in the sarcoplasmic reticulum. A.II only B.III only C.I and II only D.I, II, and III

D, because all of these actions will lead to an increase in intracellular calcium levels, resulting in enhancement of the contractile force of the heart.

Kallman Syndrome is a disease in which gonadotropin-releasing hormone producing neurons fail to migrate from the olfactory area to the hypothalamus during embryonic development. Which endocrine axis is disrupted in individuals with Kallman Syndrome? A.The stress axis B.The growth hormone axis C.The thyroid axis D.The reproductive axis

D, because gonadotropin-releasing hormone regulates pituitary gonadotropin (luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone) secretion. Thus, if gonadotropin-releasing hormone is not able to regulate luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone secretion from the pituitary, the reproductive axis will remain quiescent.

A separate group of scientists repeated the amino acid transport experiments described in the passage. All protocols were performed as outlined in the initial study with one major exception: D-alanine was used as the primary amino acid substrate. What effect will this change have on the synthesis of new proteins in the animals studied? Protein synthesis will: A.increase two-fold. B.not change. C.decrease by one-half. D.be inhibited.

D, because only L isomers are used to form proteins during ribosomal protein synthesis

Damage to which nervous system structure is most likely to cause problems in the participants' ability to perform the synchronous behaviors in studies 1 and 2? A.Hippocampus B.Hypothalamus C.Cochlea D.Cerebellum

D, because the cerebellum is most likely to be involved in the execution of a coordinated motor task.

Suppose squares 1, 2, 3, and 4, moving from left to right at the top of the grid light up and some participants think "top row lights up first," to remember the sequence. Which process is most likely being used to enhance working memory capacity? A.Divided attention B.Priming C.Automatic processing D.Chunking

D, because the participants are organizing single unit squares into larger rows to help them hold more information in working memory. This encoding process, which is referred to as "chunking," requires effortful processing and therefore involves selective attention and conscious effort.

A researcher suggests that the effect of the testing condition on the affiliation ratings is caused by increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to performing a repetitive behavior. Is this explanation likely to be supported? A.Yes, because studies show that increased sympathetic nervous system arousal can affect how people feel about others. B.Yes, because the design used in Study 1 allows researchers to establish the effect of sympathetic nervous system arousal on affiliation ratings. C.No, because performing repetitive behaviors is more likely to increase parasympathetic nervous system activity. D.No, because both of the conditions involve repetitive behaviors, but participants' ratings differ under the two conditions.

D, because the participants engaged in repetitive activities in both the synchronous and asynchronous testing conditions. Therefore, if sympathetic nervous system arousal had caused the differences in the affiliation ratings, only the synchronous condition would have been affected.

The relative thermodynamic stability of isomeric organic compounds can be inferred from which of the following types of experimental data? A.Boiling points B.UV-visible absorption spectra C.Mass spectroscopic fragmentation patterns D.Heats of combustion

D, because the relative thermodynamic stability of isomers can be determined based on the amount of heat produced when the compounds are combusted; less heat, greater stability.

Study 1 In a cross-sectional study of 328 children living in a Midwestern city in the United States, researchers found that academic, behavioral, and emotional problems were more common among children who lived in food-insecure households than among those who did not. Specifically, aggression and related oppositional behaviors, such as fighting or stealing, had the strongest association with the risk of hunger. The researchers hypothesized that these behaviors may be due to disruptions in homeostasis. They suggested that healthcare providers should consider food insecurity as a factor in psychosocial dysfunction among patients from low-income households. The regulation of which neurotransmitter is implicated in the specific finding reported with Study 1? A.Acetylcholine B.GABA C.Endorphins D.Serotonin

D, because the specific finding from Study 1 states that aggression and oppositional behaviors had the strongest association with the risk of hunger. Serotonin is involved in the regulation of both mood (specifically, aggression) and appetite (it is also used to regulate intestinal movements). The distractors are other neurotransmitters that are not specifically involved in the hunger drive, mood, or aggressive behavior.

Which type of enzyme is responsible for activating subunit A? A.Endonuclease B.Exonuclease C.Ribonuclease D.Protease

D, because the subunit A is part of a polypeptide chain that is subject to hydrolytic cleavage. This reaction is most likely catalyzed by a protease.You must recognize that hydrolytic cleavage activates the subunit and that proteases are the type of enzyme that catalyzes this reaction.

Which compound has the bond with the smallest dipole moment? A.H2O B.H2S C.H2Se D.H2Te

D, electronegativity is greatest at top right of periodic table

During glycolysis, pyruvate CH3C(=O)CO2- is reduced to lactate CH3CH(OH)CO2- by nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NADH). What is the balanced reaction for this conversion? A.CH3C(=O)CO2- + 2NADH → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + 2NAD+ B.CH3C(=O)CO2- + 2NADH + 2H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + 2NAD+ C.CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + 2H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+ D.CH3C(=O)CO2- + NADH + H+ → CH3CH(OH)CO2- + NAD+

D, which can only be arrived at by using half-reactions. The balanced half-reaction for the reduction of pyruvate is CH3C(=O)CO2- + 2H+ + 2e- → CH3CH(OH)CO2-. Balance was attained by first balancing hydrogen with H+ (adding two H+ to the reactant side) and then the charge with e- (adding two to the reactant side, also). The oxidation half-reaction is: NADH → NAD+ + H+ + 2e-, which is balanced in a similar manner. At this point the half-reactions are added in such a way that the e- involved will cancel. Since two e- are involved in both the oxidation and the reduction, the two half-reactions can be added directly to provide the balanced reaction.

Which statement accurately represents the application of CBT in the study? In the study, CBT addresses smoking behaviors through: A.examining personal histories for the causal mechanism behind behavior. B.associating negative states with unwanted behavior. C.observation of others in order to model effective and healthy behaviors. D.systematic modification of individual behavior and self-assessments.

D. CBT first addresses maladaptive behaviors through behavior therapy to systematically modify a person's behavior. This is followed by sessions designed to foster cognitive change, through self-assessments.

Individuals who have the ability to delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards are most likely to be categorized as having which type of intelligence? A.Analytical B.Creative C.Interpersonal D.Emotional

D. Emotional intelligence refers to the ability to perceive, express, understand, and manage one's emotions. Emotionally intelligent people are self-aware and can delay gratification in pursuit of long-term rewards, rather than being overtaken by immediate impulses. None of the other answer choices is related to delaying gratification.

Sociologists describe the health benefits of social support as resulting from all of the following EXCEPT: A.friends and family members that help patients adhere to medical treatment. B.friends and family members that help patients to reduce harmful behaviors. C.social relationships that help individuals to cope with stressful events. D.social activities that help individuals to avoid loneliness and boredom.

D. Social support refers to social network ties (friends, family, and other relationships) that provide an individual with various types of assistance, which are associated with improving health or reducing harm.

Normally the immune system avoids attacking the tissues of its own body because: a. a special intracellular process recognizes only foreign antigens. b. the body does not make any antigens that the immune system could recognize. c. it changes its antibodies to be specific only to foreign antigens. d. it suppresses cells specific to the body's own antigens.

D. The immune system is designed to attack foreign material in the body. It avoids attacking tissues of its own body because it suppresses cells that are specific to its own body's antigens (surface molecules that would otherwise initiate an immune response).

A researcher is interested in how anxiety disorders affect escape learning. Which procedure is most appropriate for assessing the dependent variable in this study? A.Having the participants fill out a validated questionnaire that screens for anxiety disorders B.Having a trained practitioner assess the participants for anxiety disorders C.Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to avoid a response that results in an electric shock when the electric shock is signaled with a tone D.Monitoring how many trials it takes for participants to be conditioned to perform a response that results in the termination of an electric shock

D. The purpose of the study was to determine how anxiety disorders affect escape learning, and this option is the only one that refers to an empirical observation of escape behavior.

connect the pairs: D,S,R,L

D=R and L=S

nernst equation

E=(61.5/z)log(ionoutside/ioninside) example Calcium has 10000 times the Ca outside than inside. Z for calcium is 2+ (the charge) so (61.5/2)log(10000/1)=(~31)(log10^4)=(~31)(4)=~124

Are cortisol levels and depression independent of each other?

Elevated cortisol levels are directly correlated to decreased brain serotonin and an increase in depression; therefore BDI scores and cortisol levels are directly correlated. Depression and cortisol have been shown by numerous studies to be linked, so BDI scores (a measure of depression) will not be independent of cortisol levels.

protista are

Eukaryotes

Heterochromatin

Eukaryotic chromatin that remains highly compacted during interphase and is generally not transcribed.

RNase H

Excises RNA Primer

beta oxidation of fatty acids process

Fatty acid attached to CoA which activated the fatty acid. This is catalyzed by fatty acyl CoA synthetase and the product is a fatty acyl CoA or acyl Coa. Short and medium chain atty acids (2-4 C and 6-12 C) diffuse freely into the mitochondria where they are oxidized. Long chain (14-20 C) also oxidized in mitochondria, but they require transport via a carnitine shuttle. Very long chain (over 20 C) are oxidized elsewhere in the cell Carnitine acyltransferase I is the rate limiting enzyme of fatty acid oxidation. Beta oxidation in the mitochondria. Reverses the process of fatty acid synthesis by oxidizing and releasing molecules of acetyl CoA. Repetitive 4 step cycle. Each step releases one acetyl CoA and reduces NAD+ and FAD (produces NADH and FADH2) NADH and FADH2 are oxidized by the ETC and produce ATP. Muscle and adipose tissue-acetyl CoA enters the citric acid cycle. Liver-acetyl CoA cannot be converted to glucose so instead, gluconeogenesis is stimulated by activting pyruvate carboxylase. In fasting state-liver produces extra acetyl CoA from beta oxidation that in used in the citric acid cycle so that the acetyl CoA can be used to synthesize ketone bodies (two acetyl CoA molecules connected) which would neneccary for survival. 1. Oxidation of the fatty acid to form a double bond 2. Hydration of the double bond to form a hydroxyl group 3. Oxidation of the hydroxyl group to form a carbonyl (beta ketoacid) 4. Splitting of the beta ketoacis into a shorter acyl CoA and acetyl CoA. the above 4 step process continues until the chain is shortened to two carbons, creating the final acetyl CoA. for chains with an odd number of carbons, the end result is not two acetyl CoA's, but an acetyl CoA and a propionyl CoA carboxylase which can turn into methylamalonyl CoA with the help of biotin and then into succinyl CoA with the help of B12 and then can go into the citric acid cycle (the expetion to the rule that fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose in humans) all of the above is for saturated fatty acids for unsaturated fatty acids there are two additional enzymes necessary because of the double bonds which can cause stereochemistry problems. Enoyl CoA isomerase rearranges cis double bonds in the 3,4 position to trans double bonds at the 2,3 position. In monounsaturated fatty acids this step alone permits beta oxidation to proceed. 2.4 dienoyl CoA reductase converts two conjugated double bonds in polyunsaturated fatty adcids to just one double bond at the 3,4 position where it will undergo the same rearrangement as monounsaturated fatty acids.

DNA Polymerase I

Fills in gaps left behind after RNA primer excision

Emile Durkheim is most associated with what?

Functionalism

which types of receptors use second messenger sytems

GCPR and enzyme linked receptors. Ligand gated ion channels DO NOT use secondary messenger systems. Hormones usually act on the GCPR and enzyme linked receptors because they are in low concentration in the blood and have a very strong effect.

GAP

GTPase activating protein (a phosphatase)

glycolysis reaction

Glucose + 2 ADP + 2 Pi + 2 NAD+ ---> 2 Pyruvate + 2 ATP + 2 NADH + 2 H+ + 2 H2O

oxidative phase of pentose phosphate pathway

Glucose 6 phosphate + 2 NADP+ + H2O ---> Ribose 5 Phosphate + 2NADPH + 2H+ +CO2

NADPH is used to reduce

Glutathione; Reduced glutathione is important in protecting cells from oxidative damage. In people with glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency, NADPH cannot be produced sufficiently so then glutathione cannot be reduced which leads to cell membrane and protein (hemoglobin) damage due to oxidative stress

histone proteins

H2A, H2B, H3, H4 are what DNA is wound around to form nucleosomes and H1 stabilizes the nucleosomes

during fatty acid mobilization

HSL (hormone sensitive lipase) is activated and free fatty acids are released

hnRNA

Heterogeneous nuclear RNA; the primary transcript made in eukaryotes BEFORE SPLICING

Statin drugs inhibit HMG-CoA reductase. As such they are likely prescribed for: Hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol) Hypertriglyceridemia (high triacylglycerol) Hypocholesterolemia (low cholesterol) Visceral Adiposity (obesity)

Hypercholesterolemia (high cholesterol) because statins act as competitive inhibitors of HMG CoA reductase which is the rate limiting enzyme of de novo cholesterol synthesis.

James-Lange, Cannon-bard, Schachter-Singer

I am afraid because my heart is pounding, my heart is pounding and the wolf makes me feel afraid, my pounding hear signifies fear because I have appraised the situation as dangerous. common sense, my heart is pounding because I am afraid

IR: Broad peak at Carboxylic acids Sharp peak at Sharp peak at NMR: Hydrogens on sp3 carbons Hydrogens on sp2 carbons Hydrogens on sp carbons Aldehyde Hydrogens Carboxylic acids Hydrogens Aromatics Hydrogens

IR: Broad peak at 3300 cm-1 > O-H Carboxylic acids > 3000 cm-1 Sharp peak at 3300 cm-1 > N-H Sharp peak at 1750 cm-1 > C=O NMR: Hydrogens on sp3 carbons > 0 to 3 ppm Hydrogens on sp2 carbons > 4.6 to 6.0 ppm Hydrogens on sp carbons > 2.0 to 3.0 ppm Aldehyde Hydrogens > 9 to 10 ppm Carboxylic acids Hydrogens > 10.5 to 12 ppm Aromatics Hydrogens > 6.0 to 8.5 ppm

Thomas Theorem

If people define situations as real, they are real in their consequences

positive reinforcement

Increasing behaviors by presenting positive stimuli, such as food. A positive reinforcer is any stimulus that, when presented after a response, strengthens the response.

negative reinforcement

Increasing behaviors by stopping or reducing negative stimuli, such as shock. A negative reinforcer is any stimulus that, when removed after a response, strengthens the response. (Note: negative reinforcement is not punishment.) (when a response results in escape from an aversive stimulus)

Erik Erikson's theory of psychological development (list the phases and corresponding crises).

Infancy (oral-sensory): trust vs. mistrust. Early childhood (anal-motor): autonomy vs shame and doubt Preschool: initiative vs. guilt School age (latency phase):industry vs inferiority Adolescence: identity vs role confusion Young adulthood: intimacy vs isolation Middle adulthood: generativity vs stagnation Maturity: Ego integrity vs despair

what happens during apoptosis

It breaks up into little blebs and begins release chemoattractants to stimulate phagocytosis. This will attract macrophages that will come and eat the blebs of the cell. cytochrome c release, cell shrinkage and blebbing, caspase activation DAMAGE TO OTHER CELLS DOES NOT OCCUR, THAT ONLY HAPPENS IN NECROSIS, NOT IN APOPTOSIS

DNA Ligase

Joins DNA strands together (okazaki fragments)

aldosterone causes excretion of __________

K+

slope of a lineweaver burke plot

Km/Vmax

cholesterol is derived from

LDL or HDL but some choesterol may be synthesized de novo (synthesis of cholesterol occurs in the liver and is driven by acetyl CoA and ATP) citrate shuttle- carries mitochondrial acetyl CoA into the cytoplasm where synthesis occurs. NADPH from the PPP supplies reducing equivalents. Synthesis of mevalonic acid in the smooth ER is the rate limiting step in cholesterol biocynthesis and is catalyzed by 3 hydroxyl 3 methylglutaryl CoA reductase. Increased levels of cholesterol can inhibit further synthesis by feedback, insulin promotes cholesterol synthesis. Control over de novo cholesterol synthesis is also dependent on regulation of HMG-CoA reductase gene expression in the cell. LCAT=lecithin cholesterol acyltransferase enzyme found in the bloodstream and is activated by HDL lipoproteins. Adds a fatty acid to cholesterol which produces soluble cholesteryl esters such as those in HDL. HDL cholestery esters can be distributed to other lipoproteins like IDL which becomes LDL by aquiring these choesteryl esters. CETP=cholesteryl ester transfer protein facilitates this transfer process.

an atom must be a _______ to coordinate to calcium ions

Lewis base

sphingolipids

Lipids with a sphingosine backbone: ceramide, sphingomyelins, glycosphingolipids, gangliosides

brain imaging

MRI- magnetic field to look at brain structure CAT/CT- X-ray to look at brain structure fMRI- functional MRI, measures brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow, good spatial resolution PET- radiolabelled glucose or other molecules, detect cancer cells and other cellular functions EEG- record electrical activity, good temporal resolution

modernization, secularization, fundamentalism

Modernization Reduced importance of religion as society industrializes Secularization Reduced power of religion as religious involvement declines Fundamentalism Renewed commitment to traditional religion as a reaction to secularization

chaperone protein

Molecule that steers proteins along productive folding pathways, helping them to fold correctly and preventing them from forming aggregates inside the cell.

electron carriers

NADH -> NAD+ + H+ + 2e- FADH2 -> FAD+ + H+ + 2e- NADH and FADH2 carry 2 electrons CoQ carries 1 or 2 electrons cytochrome C carries 1 electron

Complex I of ETC

NADH CoQ oxidoreductase-transfer of electrons from NADH to coenzyme Q is catalyzed by this complex. Has over 20 subunits. Has an iron sulfur cluster and a flavoprotein that oxidizes NADH. Flavoprotein has a coenzyme call flavin mononucleotide (FMN) covanelty bonded to it. FMN is similar in structure to FAD. Step one involves NADH transferring its electrons over to FMN thereby becoming oxidized to NAD+ as FMN is reduced to FMNH2. Flavoprotein then becomes reoxidized while the iron sulfur cluster is reduced. The reduced iron sulfur cluster donates the elctrons it received from FMNH2 to CoQ (ubiquinone). CoQ becomes CoQH2. This first complex is one of three sites where proton pumping occurs as four protons are moved to the intermembrane space. 1. NADH + H+ + FMN --> NAD+ + FMNH2 2. FMNH2 + 2Fe-Soxidized --> FMN + 2 Fe-Sreduced + 2H+ 3. 2 Fe-Sreduced + CoQ + 2H+ --> 2 Fe-Aoxidized + CoQH2 Net effect is passing high energy electrons from NADH to CoQ to form CoQH2 NADH + H+ + CoQ --> NAD+ + CoQH2

complex 1

NADH dehydrogenase complex

everything about amino acids

Nonpolar: PI GALVY MWF "my PI goes to Galveston on mon/wed/fri" Acidic: DE (negative at physiological pH) Basic: HRK (positive at physiological pH) alanine - ala - A glycine - gly - G valine - val - V leucine - leu - L isoleucine - ile - I proline - pro - P phenylalanine - phe - F tryptophan - trp - W tyrosine - tyr - Y (10.1) serine - ser - S threonine - thr - T cysteine - cys - C (8) methionine - met - M lysine - lys - K (10.5) arginine - arg - R (12.5) histidine - his - H (6.1) aspartic acid - asp - D (3.9) glutamic acid - glu - E (4.1) asparagine - asn - N glutamine - gln - Q amino group (10) carboxyl group (2)

spreading activation

Occurs when one item brought into working memory triggers an activation of related memory

medulla oblongata

Part of the brainstem that controls vital life-sustaining functions such as heartbeat, breathing, blood pressure, and digestion.

Mead's Me

Part of the self that is conscious of social norms and expectations and acts in a way that is responsive to these. This is the part of the self that acts from the viewpoint of the generalized other.

Primase

Places ~10 nucleotide RNA primer to begin DNA replication

Positive hydropathy index

Positive hydropathy index means the amino acids are hydrophobic , and therefore more likely to reside within a plasma membrane.

archaea and bacteria are

Prokaryotes

adhesion protein

Protein that helps cells stick together in animal tissues.

charge in a capacitor formula

Q = CV

complex 3

Q-cytochrome c oxidoreductase

Enhancers are transcriptional regulatory sequences that function by enhancing the activity of: RNA polymerase at a single promoter site RNA polymerase at multiple promoter sites Spliceosomes and a lariate formation of the ribosome Transcription factors that bind to the promoter but not to RNA polymerase

RNA polymerase at a single promoter site so that it can transcribe the specific gene for that enhancer more efficiently

DNA topoisomerase

Reduces torsional strain from positive supercoils by introducing nicks in the DNA strand

glycogen phosphorylase

Removes single glucose 1-phosphate molecules by breaking alpha-1,4 glycosidic links; in the liver, activated by glucagon to prevent low blood sugar. in exercising skeletal muscle, it is activated by epinephrine and AMP to provide glucose for the muscle itself

Main function of the nucleolus

Ribosomal RNA synthesis

thin lens equation and magnification formula

S (strength of eye) = 1/I (image)+ 1/O (object) or 1/f = 1/I + 1/O -1/O=M

meiosis

S phase: 1. DNA replication 2. sister chromatids are created and attached at centromere prophase I: 1. homologous chromosomes pair up to from tetrads, connected by synaptonemal complex 2. recombination/crossing-over occurs between homologous pairs 3. chromosomes condense, nuclear envelope breaks down, spindles form 4. longest phase! metaphase I: 1. tetrads align along metaphase plate anaphase I: 1. homologous pairs separate, sister chromatids remain together 2. begin cytokinesis telophase I: 1. chromosomes decondense, nuclear envelope forms, spindles breakdown 2. cytokinesis ends 3. now considered haploid, since each cell has single set meiosis II: 1. identical to mitosis, but with haploid cells 2. oocyte/spermatocyte is formed, haploid can form 2^n different gametes, n = haploid number or how many chromosomes gametes combine to form zygote, diploid

mammalian amino acids are R/S which corresponds to D/L.

S, L

What stereochemical designation can be assigned to naturally occurring aspartic acid? S Z D E

S. Z and E is for double bonds so it does not apply. Naturally occurring aspartic acid is L not D.

Complex II of ETC

SUccinate CoQ oxidoreductase. transfers electrons to CoQ. while complex I received electrons from NADH, II actually receives electrons from succinate. Succinate is a citric acid intermediate and it is oxidized to fumarate upon interacting with FAD. FAD is covalently bonded to complex II and once succinate is oxidized, its converted to FADH2. After this, FADH2 gets reoxidized to FAD as it reduces an iron sulfur protein. Final step reoxidizes the irons sulfur protein as CoQ is reduced. Because succinate dehydrogenase was responsible for succinate to fumarate in the citric acid cycle, it makes sense that succinate dehydrogenase is also a part of complex II. No hydrogen pumping happens here to contribute to the proton gradient. succinate + FAD --> fumarate + FADH2 FADH2 + Fe-Soxidized --> FAD + Fe-reduced Fe-Sreduced + CoQ + 2 H+ --> Fe-Soxidized + CoQH2 net effect is passing high energy electrons from succinate to CoQ to form CoQH2 succinate + CoQ + 2H+ --> fumurate + CoQH2

General Adaptation Syndrome

Seyle's concept that the body responds to stress with alarm, resistance and exhaustion

psychoanalytic perspective

Sigmund Freud, personality shaped by unconscious and childhood libido- life instinct, drives behavior focused on pleasure, survival, and avoidance of pain death instinct- drives dangerous behavior, desire to hurt others/oneself id- generally unconscious, pleasure principle is to avoid pain and seek pleasure ego- generally conscious, reality principle uses logic and reality, deals with the id and the superego, attempts to compromise superego- morality, right and wrong

paracrine signaling

Signal released from a cell has an effect on neighboring cells.

Northern Blot

Similar technique [to Southern], except that Northern blotting involves radioactive DNA probe binding to sample RNA .

in a silica gel, what type of molecule elutes first?

Since silica gel serves as the stationary phase for the experiment, increasing the polarity of the eluting molecule will increase its affinity for the stationary phase and increase the elution time (decreased Rf).

social constructionism, structural functionalism, conflict theor

Social constructionism suggests that reality is created through shared meanings and definitions arising from social interactions. A definition for what is sacred that depends on the religion reflects a perspective that is most consistent with social constructionism (not symbolic interactionism). Structural functionalism emphasizes how social structures maintain dynamic equilibrium (ie, homeostasis) in society. The maintenance of dynamic equilibrium through the gradual shifting of social control from religion to medicine reflects a functionalist (not symbolic interactionist) perspective. Conflict theory focuses on how inequalities between social classes cause conflict. A situation in which religious groups attempt to reduce health care disparities that stem from class inequalities aligns with a conflict (not symbolic interactionist) perspective.

endocrine signaling

Specialized cells release hormone molecules into vessels of the circulatory system, by which they travel to target cells in other parts of the body.

ericksons stages of development

Stage 1: Trust v. Mistrust: in HP1, we are introduced to Severus Snape, who we constantly oscillate between trusting and not trusting throughout the rest of the series. (infancy) Stage 2: Autonomy v. Shame: in HP2, Ron+Harry steal the AUTOmobile and experience lots of SHAME once Molly Weasley sends Ron a Howler.(early childhood) Stage 3: Initiative v. Guilt: in HP3, "GUILTY" Sirius Black finally takes INITIATIVE and escapes Azkaban. wooohoo!!!(preschool) Stage 4: Industry v. Inferiority: (pretty sure in this stage, industry refers to the school that the individual is becoming accustomed to.) in HP4, we see many INDUSTRIES (schools) coming together for the Triwizard Tournament. Harry feels INFERIOR compared to the other contestants in the Triwizard Tournament as well.(school) Stage 5: Identity v. Role Confusion: in HP5, Harry keeps seeing visions of what Voldemort sees. He's confused of his IDENTITY & experiences ROLE CONFUSION as he wonders whether he's more similar to Voldemort than he once thought. (or you can go for a diff reference, that Umbridge is trying to get Harry to change his IDENTITY by forcing him to "not tell lies")(adolescent) Stage 6: Intimacy v. Isolation -> HP6. Harry finally gets INTIMATE w Ginny, and we see flashbacks of Voldy feeling ISOLATED as a child.(young adult) Stage 7: Generativity v. Stagnation -> HP7. Harry has to cast lots of his STAG(nation) patronuses while hunting for horcruxes. Before the hunt, he also has to GENERATE clones of himself so Voldy's peeps don't know who the real Harry is.(middle age) Stage 8: Integrity v. Despair -> think HP movie #8. Harry has INTEGRITY and finally "accepts death." There is lots of DESPAIR as many great people die(later life)

Km

Substrate concentration at 1/2 Vmax

T cells

T-cell development: 1. lymphocytes in cell-mediated immunity, T helpers and T killers 2. T cells are produced in bone marrow, but mature in thymus gland 3. T helpers (CD4)- activates B cells and T killer cells, communicates with hormones (lymphokines, interleukins), host of HIV 4. T killers (CD8)- destroy abnormal hosts cells (virus infected, cancer, foreign grafts) MHC I- every cell has them, displays foreign protein on surface of cell to be detected by T killers MHC II- only on antigen-presenting cells (macrophages and B cells), displays foreign protein after chopping it up to be detected by T helpers T cell activation only occurs when T cell binds to both antigen and MHC molecule

which acts faster T4 or T3

T3

Southern Blot test

Technique to find specific DNA sequence by using a segment of nuclei acid

What is the difference between the Existential and the Categorical Self?

The Existential Self is understanding that you are a separate and distinct entity from others. It is constant and unchanging. The Categorical Self is understanding the way in which you fit into the world (age, gender, traits, careers, etc). It can change.

Self-concept can be broken down into what?

The Existential and Categorical Self.

A sparingly soluble metal hydroxide, M(OH)2 has a molar solubility of S mol/L at 25°C. Its Ksp value is: S^2. 2S^2. 2S^3. 4S^3.

The Ksp for a substance, AaBb, equals [A]a[B]b. The Ksp for M(OH)2 = [M][OH-]2. If the solubility of M(OH)2 is S mol/L, then [M] = S mol/L and [OH-] = 2S mol/L. The Ksp = S(2S)2 = S(4S2) = 4S3. Thus, 4S^3 is the best answer.

mismatch repair

The cellular process that uses specific enzymes to remove and replace incorrectly paired nucleotides, G2 phase

substrate-level phosphorylation

The enzyme-catalyzed formation of ATP by direct transfer of a phosphate group to ADP from an intermediate substrate in catabolism.

hexokinase

The enzymes that catalyzes the phosphorylation of glucose to form glucose-6-phosphate in the first step of glycolysis. Hexokinase is feedback-inhibited by glucose-6-P.

The intensity level of Sound B is 20 dB greater than the intensity level of Sound A. How many times greater is the intensity level of Sound B than the intensity level of Sound A? 2 10 20 100

The examinee is asked to compare the intensities of two sounds, given a comparison of their intensity levels in decibels, dB. The intensity level β in dB is defined by: β = 10Log(I/I0), where I is the intensity of the sound and I0 is the minimum intensity audible to the human ear. "Log" indicates the base 10 logarithm. Two sounds A and B would have intensity levels βA = 10Log(IA/I0) and βB = 10Log(IB/I0) which may be subtracted to yield: βB- βA = 10Log(IB/IA). The question states that βB is 20 dB larger than βA, hence βB- βA = 20 dB. Thus, 20 = 10Log(IB/IA) or Log(IB/IA) = 2. This yields IB/IA = 102 = 100. Thus 100 is the best answer.

Gluconeogenesis

The formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources, such as amino acids (mostly in liver but also in cytoplasm, mitochondria, and kidneys)

In eukaryotes, oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondrion. The analogous structure used by bacteria to carry out oxidative phosphorylation is the:

The inner membrane of a mitochondrion is analogous to the PLASMA MEMBRANE of a prokaryote. The enzymes for oxidative phosphorylation are embedded in the inner membrane. The endosymbiotic theory suggests that mitochondria are descendents of prokaryotes that were engulfed by endocytosis into a vesicle lined with a membrane derived from the cell membrane of the eukaryote host.

Euchromatin

The less condensed form of eukaryotic chromatin that is available for transcription.

The cell type in the male reproductive system that is most analogous to the female ovum is the: a. spermatogonium. b. primary spermatocyte. c. spermatid. d. spermatozoon.

The mature ovum is the female gamete that has completed meiosis and contains the haploid number of maternally derived chromosomes. This makes it most analogous to spermatozoa, the mature male gametes that contain the haploid number of paternally derived chromosomes. Thus, D is the best answer.

Self-Efficacy Theory

The perception of one's ability to perform a task successfully A situation-specific form of self-confidence

Kohlberg's stages of moral development include six stages grouped into three levels, what are these levels and describe them.

The pre-conventional level of moral reasoning, during which morality is judged by direct consequences to one's self. The conventional level of moral reasoning, during which morality is judged in comparison to society's views and expectations. The post-conventional level of moral reasoning, during which morality is judged by internal ethical guidelines.

mutarotation

The rapid interconversion between different anomers of a sugar

mixed methods approach

The research design employs both a quantitative component (the statistical analysis of the total claims) and a qualitative component (the in-depth analysis of a subset of cases). Bringing together quantitative methods and qualitative methods is referred to as mixed methods in sociology.

social construction of health

The very notion of health is socially constructed and variable across populations and across time.

Perceptual maladaptation

Trait that is more harmful than helpful. maladaptation in neuroplasticity within the evolution of the brain is phantom pain in individuals who have lost limbs.

3-phosphoglycerate kinase

Transfers the high-energy phosphate from 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to ADP, forming ATP and 3-phosphoglycerate (substrate level phosphorylation reaction which places an inorganic phosphate onto ADP to form ATP)

membrane receptors

Transmembrane protein molecules that act enzymatically or as ion channels to participate in signal transduction, must have both an intra and extra cellular domain. In order to initiate a second messenger cascade, they typically display enzymatic activity, although some may only act as channels

social reproduction

Transmission of social inequality from one generation to the next

Stop codons

UAA, UAG, UGA

Dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP)

Used in hepatic and adipose tissue for triacylglycerol synthesis Formed from fructose 2,6-bisphosphate Can be isomerized to glycerol 3-phosphate, which can be converted to glycerol (the backbone of triacylglycerols)

entropic penalty

When a hydrophobic amino acid is in a hydrophilic area, and vice versa it increases the amount of entropy in the area To decrease entropic penalty: put hydrophobic aa in hydrophobic area, hydrophilic aa in hydrophilic area

retinal disparity

a binocular cue for perceiving depth by comparing images from the retinas in the two eyes, the brain computes distance—the greater the disparity (difference) between the two images, the closer the object.

counter conditioning

a classical conditioning procedure for changing the relationship between a conditioned stimulus and its conditioned response

halo effect

a cognitive bias in which judgments of an individual's character can be affected by the overall impression of the individual

coordinate covalent bond

a covalent bond in which one atom contributes both bonding electrons

extinction

a decreased response to a conditioned stimulus when its no longer paired with an unconditioned stimulus

Reticular Activating System (RAS)

a dense network of neurons found in the core of the brain stem; it arouses the cortex and screens incoming information

motion parallax

a depth cue in which the relative movement of elements in a scene gives depth information when the observer moves relative to the scene

The diathesis-stress model

a diagnostic model that proposes that a disorder may develop when an underlying vulnerability is coupled with a precipitating event

stimulus discrimination

a differentiation between two similar stimuli when only one of them is consistently associated with the unconditioned stimulus

illness anxiety disorder

a disorder in which a person interprets normal physical sensations as symptoms of a disease

imprinted gene

a gene of which only the mother's or the father's copy is expressed, but not both in the normal Mendelian sense

The life course approach is

a holistic, multidisciplinary framework for understanding how psychological, biological, and sociocultural factors across a lifetime have a cumulative effect on health outcomes. This perspective considers how personal life events (eg, illness in infancy), individual choices/behaviors (eg, having unprotected sex), and sociocultural and historical context (eg, being born during wartime) impact health and illness. Research suggesting that lifetime exposure to biological (eg, respiratory infections), sociocultural (eg, low socioeconomic status), and behavioral (eg, smoking) risk factors increases the likelihood of developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is most reflective of the life course approach to illness.

Phosphofructokinase 1 (PFK-1)

a key rate-limiting enzyme of the anaerobic glycolytic energy system, inhibited by ATP and citrate and glucagon and activated by AMP and insulin

absolute poverty

a lack of resources that is life-threatening

CAT scan

a method of creating static images of the brain through computerized axial tomography

Symbolic interactionism is

a micro-sociological perspective concerned with the interpersonal interactions through which the subjective meanings that shape social reality are developed. Subjective meanings differ by context and culture (eg, avoiding eye contact is a sign of respect in Japan but is considered rude in the US) and can change over time. The statement that individuals create meaning through serving (ie, interacting with) others in faith-based mission work is most consistent with symbolic interactionism. Under the symbolic interactionist perspective, mission work may become a meaningful expression and symbol of a believer's faith.

biopsychosocial model

a model of health that integrates the effects of biological, behavioral, and social factors on health and illness

iconic memory

a momentary sensory memory of visual stimuli; a photographic or picture-image memory lasting no more than a few tenths of a second

semantic memory

a network of associated facts and concepts that make up our general knowledge of the world

self-verification

a person's inherent motivation to confirm and maintain his/her existing self-concept

Labeling theory

a perspective on deviance that suggests labels get applied to certain groups or individuals regardless of specific behaviors

Social facilitation is what?

a phenomenon in which the presence of others improves a person's performance

phosphorylation

a phosphate ester is formed by transferring a phosphate group from ATP onto a sugar

convergent evolution is defined as

a process whereby distantly related organisms independently evolve similar traits to adapt to similar needs.

dependency ratio is

a ratio of the number of economically dependent members of the population to the number of economically productive members. The economically dependent are those considered too young or too old to work, whereas the economically productive are the working-age population (approximately between the ages of 18 and 65).

self-serving bias

a readiness to perceive oneself favorably

Social interference is what?

a reduction in performance due to the presence of others

repliosome/replication complex

a set of specialized proteins that assist the DNA polymerase

role confusion

a situation in which an adolescent does not seem to know or care what his or her identity is

social constructionism

a sociological theory that argues that people actively shape their reality through social interaction; it is therefore something that is constructed, not inherent; it looks to uncover the ways in which individuals and groups participate in the construction of their perceived social reality

NMDA receptor

a specialized ionotropic glutamate receptor that controls a calcium channel that is normally blocked by Mg2+ ions; involved in long-term potentiation

marginal poverty

a state of poverty that occurs when a person lacks stable employment

peg words

a system which uses images associated with numbers

confirmation bias

a tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence

confirmation bias

a tendency to search for information that supports our preconceptions and to ignore or distort contradictory evidence, stronger for emotionally charged subjects

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator

a test according to Carl Jung's personality types in an attempt to figure out one's personality

Beck's Cognitive Therapy

a type of cognitive therapy, developed by Aaron Beck, in which the therapist works to develop a warm relationship with the person and has the person carefully consider the evidence for his or her beliefs in order to see the errors in his or her thinking

aversive conditioning

a type of counterconditioning that associates an unpleasant state (such as nausea) with an unwanted behavior (such as drinking alcohol)

operant conditioning

a type of learning in which behavior is strengthened if followed by a reinforcer or diminished if followed by a punisher

classical conditioning

a type of learning in which one learns to link two or more stimuli and anticipate events

avoidance learning

a type of negative reinforcement in which a behavior is increased to prevent an unpleasant future consequence

PET scan

a visual display of brain activity that detects where a radioactive form of glucose goes while the brain performs a given task

Fatty acids enter the catabolic pathway in the form of

acetyl CoA

pyruvate is converted to

acetyl CoA for the citric acid cycle (via pyruvate dehydrogenase complex), lactate during fermentation (via lactate dehydrogenase), or oxaloacetate for gluconeogenesis (via pyruvate carboxylase). high levels of acetyl CoA inhibit pyruvate dehydrogenase and stimulates pyruvate carboxylase directly. so, when fatty acid beta oxidation predominates in the liver, alot of acetyl CoA is produced, which inhibts pyruvate dehydrogenase so the citric acid cycle won't occur, and it does nothing to produce lactate, however is stimulates pyruvate carboxylase so the pyruvate will turn into oxaloacetate and enter gluconeogenesis

TCA cycle

acetyl-CoA converted to citric acid, OAA from previous cycle also converted to citric acid each turn produces 2 CO2, 3 NADH, 1 GTP, 1 FADH2 each glucose does two turns aconitase- only enzyme name that doesn't match product "can I keep selling sex for money, officer?"

The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is what?

acetylcholine

If a substance has a greater Ka than Kb, it is an _________. If it has a greater Kb than Ka, it is an ___________. In regards to an acid, the greater the Ka the _______ it is.

acid, base, stronger an acid

racial discrimination involves

action toward a racial group (not just thoughts, such as stereotyping or prejudice)

gluconeogenesis

activated by low glucose, high ATP requires 6 ATP, 2 NADH to convert pyruvate to glucose slightly different from glycolysis because pyruvate kinase is irreversible, so instead pyruvate is converted to OAA, then to PEP bypasses acetyl-CoA, which means fatty acids cannot be converted to glucose first step by pyruvate carboxylase happens in mitochondria, then transported out to cytosol formation of glucose, fructose-6-P, and PEP are irreversible steps that push equilibrium to favor gluconeogenesis glycogen- stored in liver, converted to glucose

Describe the process of fatty acid synthesis

activation (attachment to acyl carrier proteins) followed by bond formation (between malonyl CoA and the growing fatty acid chain), reduction (of a carboxyl group), dehydration, and reduction (of a double bond).

pholonology

actual sounds of a language

DNA Polymerase III

adds nucleotides in a 5' to 3' direction to a growing daughter strand

GLUT 4

adipose tissue and muscle, mediates insulin stimulated glucose uptake (the only insulin response glucose transporter)

fermentation

aerobic conditions- pyruvate enters Krebs cycle, NADH from glycolysis is oxidized in ETC anaerobic conditions- 2 ATP produced, 2 NADH must go back to regenerate NAD+ to continue glycolysis to regenerate NAD+, pyruvate reduced to ethanol (yeast) or lactate (muscle), toxic when building up

glucogenic amino acdis

all but leucine and lysine, can be converted to glucose through gluconeogenesis.

glycolysis

all cells possess this pathway, occurs in cytoplasm glucose is oxidized and split into two pyruvates, produced net 2 ATP, 2 NADH 3 key steps: 1. hexokinase- converts glucose to glucose-6-P, uses ATP 2. phosphofructokinase (PFK) - converts fructose-6-P to fructose-1,6-P2, committed step of glycolysis, allosterically inhibited by high ATP 3. pyruvate kinase- converts PEP to pyruvate, produces 2 ATP "goodness gracious, father franklin did go buy phat pumpkins (to) prepare pies" "GG, final fantasy did get boring playing people punching people"

Schachter-Singer

all think and annoying

What is an agent of socialization?

an agent that is transmitting values and beliefs about acceptable behaviors

Uracil is produced from cytosine as a result of a conversion of

an amine group for a carbonyl group (the deamination of cytosine results in an amine group of cytosine being replaced with a carbonyl group to give uracil)

generalized anxiety disorder

an anxiety disorder in which a person is continually tense, apprehensive, and in a state of autonomic nervous system arousal

psychodynamic approach

an approach that regards personality as formed by needs, strivings, and desires largely operating outside of awareness-motives that can also produce emotional disorders

proton motive force

an electrochemical proton gradient generated by the complexes of the electron transport chain.

peptidyl transferase

an enzyme that catalyzes the formations of a peptide bond between the incoming amino acid in the A site and the growing polypeptide chain in the P site

what would occur in the absence of apolipoproteins

an inability to secrete lipid transport lipoproteins, an inability to endocytose lipoproteins, a decreased ability to remove cholesterol from blood vessels

manifest function

an intended positive effect on a system

what is a committed step?

an irreversible step

shaping

an operant conditioning procedure in which reinforcers guide behavior toward closer and closer approximations of the desired behavior

latent function

an unintended positive effect on a system

glycolysis is

anaerobic

speciation and evolution

anagenesis- one species becomes another cladogenesis- one species diversifies to become two species 1. allopatric speciation- geographic isolation to make two new species 2. sympatric speciation- inhabit same location homologous structures- physical features shared by two different species b/c of common ancestor analogous structures- same thing but no common ancestor convergent evolution- two species come to possess many analogous structures divergent evolution- cladogenesis parallel evolution- species undergo similar selective pressures, similar evolutionary changes a distinct evolutionary event can cause the loss of a trait, which can be mapped by a tree

hypothalamic-pituitary control axis

anterior pituitary- adrenohypophysis, controlled indirectly by hypothalamus with tropic hormones, makes and secretes FLAT PeG 1. FSH, LH for testosterone/estrogen 2. ACTH for adrenal cortex (cortisol, aldosterone) 3. TSH for thyroid gland, stimulate metabolism 4. prolactin for milk 5. endorphins 6. growth hormone, stimulate growth capillary cells, hormone making cells, uses portal veins posterior pituitary- neurohypophysis, composed of neurons from hypothalamus that directly release hormones, stores and releases oxytocin and ADH (vasopressin) neuroendocrine cells- neurons that release hormones, action potential travels down cell

ADH is what and is what type of hormone and is produced by what and is released by what and does what?

anti-diuretic hormone, peptide hormone, produced by the hypothalamus, released by the posterior pituitary, promotes water reabsorption

response bias

anything in a survey design that influences responses

apolipoproteins

apoA-I: activates LCAT, an enzyme that catalyzes cholesterol esterificiation apoB-48: mediates chylomicron secretion apoB-100: permits uptake of LDL by the liver apoC-II: activates lipoprotin lipase apoE: permits uptake of chlyomicron remnants and VLDL by the liver

constructionist understanding of gender

asserts that categories of gender are fluid and subject to social processes of meaning-making

Attachment/dissociation of the myosin head to the actin filament requires what?

attachment requires calcium and dissociation requires ATP

Conflict theory is a sociological theory that what?

attempts to explain how power relates to social order and related conflict

Huntington's disease and Alzheimer's Disease have what sort of familial inheritance pattern?

autosomal dominant mutation

canon bard

bard=b=both (the simultaneous arousal of the nervous system and cognitive response lead to action (both at same time))

what is learning theory and who's work is it based on

based on works of B.F. Skinner. states that parents reinforce phonemes that sound most like their language, resulting in preferential preservation of these phonemes

bases can do what regarding peptide bonds?

bases can hydrolyze peptide bonds

heme, which is a porphyrin, has what structure?

basic unit of a porphyrin is the pyrrole ring, a five-sided heterocycle containing one nitrogen atom

For what reason does cytosolic NADH potentially yield less ATP than mitochondrial NADH

becasue electron transfer from the cytosol to the matrix can take more than one pathway

why do ketose sugars have the ability to act as reducing sugars?

because they can undergo tautomerization

Protein catabolism

begins in stomach with pepsin and continues with pancreatic trypsin, chymotrypsin, and carboxypeptidases A and B, which are secreted as zymogens. digestion complemented by the small intestine brush border enzymes dipeptidase and aminopeptidase. Main end products are amino acids, dipeptides, and tripeptides. absorption of amino acids and small peptides through the luminal membrane is accomplished by secondary active transport linked to sodium. at basal membrane simple and facilitated diffusion transports amino acids into the bloodstream. amino acids released from proteins usually lose their amino group through transamination or deamination, remaining carbon skeleton is used for energy. The removed amino groups are ammonia toxin and excreted through the urea cycle. basic amino acid side chains feed into the urea cycle and the others act like the carbon skeleton and produce energy through gluconeogenesis or ketone production

in farsightedness, the image of a close object is focused

behind the retina, requires a converging lens correction

Which enzyme cleaves polysaccharide chains and yields maltose exclusively?

beta amylase. It cleave amylose at the nonreducing end of the polymer to yielf maltose exclusively while alpha amylase cleave amylose anywhere along the chain to yield short polysaccharides, maltose, and glucose.

emulsification is aided by bile which contains

bile salts, pigments, and cholesterol, secreted by the liver and stored in the gallbladder.

transcription factors do what

bind DNA and subsequently recruit RNA polymerase

similarities and differences in chylomicrons and VLDL

both contain apolipoproteins and primarily transport triacyglycerols. Chylomicrons transport dietary triacylglycerol and originate in the small intestine while VLDL transport newly synthesized triacylglycerols and originate in the liver.

glycogenolysis

breakdown of glycogen to glucose using glycogen phosphorylase and debranching enzyme

ketolysis is the

breakdown of ketone bodies to acetyl CoA for energy. cannot occur in liver but occurs in the brain and muscle tissue.

The medulla oblongata regulates what and is located where?

breathing, heart rate, and blood pressure, located in the hindbrain

what ions are classically protein bound

calcium and magnesium. na and k must be free to participate in action potentials and cl is readily excreted (which it would not be if it were bound to a protein)

a ketone group alone can/cannnot be oxidized

cannot

lyases

catalyze cleavage of a single molecule into two products

Hydrolases

catalyze cleavage with the addition of water

Oxidoreductases

catalyze oxidation-reduction reactions

ligases

catalyze the formation of bonds with the input of ATP and the removal of water

isomerases

catalyze the rearrangement of bonds within a molecule

LCAT

catalyzes the formation of cholesteryl esters. they add a fatty acid to cholesterol and produce cholesteryl esters which dissolve in the core of HDL and allow HDL to transport cholesterol from the periphery to the liver

glucocorticoids do what in regard to weight

cause weight gain because they increase glucose levels which causes insulin secretion which causes glucose uptake and turns it into fat (glucose from liver is converted into lipids in the adipose tissue under insulin stimulation)

Conformity refers to what

changing one's behavior to match that of other group members

Plasmodesmata

channels through cell walls that connect the cytoplasms of adjacent cells in plants

collagen

characteristic trihelical fiber, makes up most of the extracelluar matrix of connective tissue, strength and flexibility

structural poverty

characterized by single-parent families, low levels of education, high infant mortality rates, and low social mobility

World Systems Theory

characterizes global inequalities in terms of core nations (more economically developed with strong governments and institutions) and periphery nations (less economically developed with weak governments and institutions).

juxtacrine signaling

chemical messenger passed between two connected cells (MHC II presentation to a T cell receptor)

compounds that contribute to membrane fluidity will lower the melting point or disrupt the crystal structure, what compounds do this? What compound does not?

cholesterol and unsaturated lipids contribute, saturated lipids (such as trans glycerophospholipids) do not.

Soaps are chemically modified natural products that can be derived from all of the following EXCEPT: fatty acids. cholesterols. triacylglycerols. phospholipids.

cholesterols, they are not structurally similar to fatty acids (which are necessary for soaps to be made)

lipoprotein density scale thing

chylomicrons are the least dense with the highest fat to protein ratio. VLDL (very low density lipoprotein) is slightly more dense. It is followed by IDL (intermediate density lipoprotein) and then by LDL (low density) and HDL (high density). chylomicrons-transport dietary triacylglycerols, cholesterol, and cholesteryl esters from the intestine to the tissues VLDL-transports triacylglyerols and fatty acids from the liver to the tissues IDL (VLDL Remnants)-Picls up cholesteryl esters from HDL to become LDL. Picked up by the liver LDL-Delivers cholesterol into cells HDL- Picks up cholesterol accumulating in blood vessels. Delivers choesterol to the liver and steroidogenic tissues. Transfers apolipoproteins to other lipoproteins.

mitcochondrial DNA is

circular, self-replicating, and double stranded

most phobias are what type of conditioned response?

classically conditioned response

aldolase B

cleaves fructose-1-phosphate into glyceraldehyde and DHAP

Gemeinschaften

communities that are bonded together by beliefs, ancestry, or geography

What is cDNA

complementary DNA that is formed from a processed RNA strand by reverse transcription. Used in DNA libraries, contains only the exons of genes that are transcriptionally active in the sample tissue

which complex does not contribute to the electromotive force

complex II does not contribute. Complex I and III each add 4 protons to the proton gradient. Complex IV adds 2 protons to the gradient.

the appendix and colon are continuous/discontinuous

continuous

Phosphofructokinase-2

converts a tiny amount of fructose 6 phosphate to fructose 2,6,biphosphate which activates PFK1. Inhibited by glucagon

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

converts fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to fructose 6 phosphate (bypasses phosphofructokinase 1). Rate limiting step of gluconeogenesis. Activated by ATP directly and by glucagon indirectly. Inhibited directly by AMP and indirectly by insulin.

Glucose-6-phosphatase

converts glucose-6-phosphate to free glucose (bypasses glucokinase). Only in the endoplasmic reticulum of liver cells.

pyruvate carboxylase

converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate, which is converted to phosphoenolpyruvate by phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK). These two enzymes bypass pyruvate kinase. Activated by acetyl CoA from beta oxidation. PEPCK is activated by glucagon and cortisol

what is CRH and where is it made?

corticotropin releasing hormone, hypothalamus

steps in TCA cycle that create energy

create NADH (3 total for 1 turn, 6 total for 1 glucose): 1. pyruvate DH complex- pyruvate to acetyl-CoA (technically not part of TCA cycle) 2 isocitrate DH- isocitrate to alpha-ketoglutarate 3. aKG DH- alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl-CoA 4. malate DH- malate to OAA create GTP (1 total for 1 turn, 2 total for 1 glucose): 1. succinyl-CoA synthetase- succinyl-CoA to succinate create FADH2 (1 total for 1 turn, 2 total for 1 glucose): 1. succinate DH- succinate to fumarate

glycogen synthase

creates alpha 1,4 glycosidic links between glucose molecules, activated by insulin in the liver and in muscle

hypothyroidism in newborn infants causes what>

cretinism-poor neurological and physical development

Comple IV of ETC

cytochrome C oxidase- facilitates the culminating step of the ETC: the transfer of electrons from cytochrome C to oxygen, the final electron acceptor. Series of redox reactions causes cytochrome oxidase to ge toxidized as oxygen becomes reduced and forms water. Final location on the transport chain where proton pumping occurs, as two protons are moved across the membrane. overall reaction 4 cytochrome C [with Fe2+] + 4H+ + O2 --> 4 cytochrome C [with Fe3+] +2 H2O

complex 4

cytochrome c oxidase

mixed inhibition

decreased vmax, increased/decreased km binds at allosteric site, better affinity than substrate type I: prefers to bind ES complex, so decreased Km type II: prefers to bind E alone, so increased Km

Extinction (operant conditioning)

decreases in the frequency of a behavior when the behavior is no longer reinforced

Neuroticism

degree of emotional instability or stability

delta g equation

delta G= delta G degree +RTlnQ

social stigma

derived from the symbolic interactionist perspective in sociology can calls attention to how certain individuals or groups face social disapproval

Tollen's or Benedict's reagent does what

detect reducing sugars

fatty acid ketogenesis

during starvation, glucose level fall and fatty acids are oxidized to supplement TCA cycle in liver cells, remaining acetyl-CoA produced react together to form ketone bodies, enter brain or other organs to be reconverted to acetyl-CoA 2 acetyl-CoAs combined to form acetoacetate, which can split to beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetone

What are the elements of McDonaldization?

efficiency, calculability, uniformity, and technological control

The proton motive force is the _______ generated by the _______ across the inner mitochondrial membrane. The intermembrane space has a ________ concentration of protons than the matrix, this gradient stores energy which can be used to form ATP via ___________.

electrochemical, ETC,higher, chemiosmotic coupling

the ability to exist in both an oxidized and reduced state is a characteristic of

electron carriers

eV is what

electrovolt (e*v=1.6*10^-19*whatever v is =E) and then E=hf so you can solve for f because h is just a constant

conflict theory perspective

emphasizes social relations of capital, power, and status as the driving forces in society

macrosociological perspective

emphasizes the analysis of social systems and populations on a large scale, at the level of social structure, and often at a necessarily high level of theoretical abstraction

bile does what

emulsifies fats (does NOT digest lipids because it is not an enzyme)

semantic encoding

encoding based on the meaning of the information, strongest method of encoding

fatty acid metabolism

energy stored as triglycerides, glycerol, fatty acids lipase is enzyme that breaks down triglycerides 1. in cytosol, fatty acid activated by addition of S-CoA to carboxylic end 2. in matrix, fatty acid undergoes beta oxidation to acetyl-CoA 3. goes to TCA cycle

phosphoglucose isomerase

enzyme in glycolysis

ATP Synthase

enzyme responsible for generating ATP from ADP and an inorganic phosphate (Pi) F0 portion is an ion channel, allowing protons to flow down the gradient from the intermembrane space to the matrix. F1 portion uses the energy released by the gradient to phosphorylate ADP to ATP.

enzymes

enzymes physiological catalysts increase reaction rate so it happens in a biologically relevant time-frame, not used up in reaction, specific to a reaction (important for regulation) interact with substrate at active site, always stereospecific and can form specific stereoisomers from non-chiral molecules can interact with different substrates that have similar chemical linkages induced-fit model vs. lock-key model dimers have two similar proteins connected by hydrophobic amino acids or by disulfide bonds heterodimer- two different proteins homodimer- two identical proteins common types: 1. kinases takes phosphate group from donor (ATP) 2. phosphatases removes phosphate group 3. phosphorylases adds phosphate group 3. ligases combine two molecules 4. lyases break apart a molecule, form double bond 5. isomerases convert between isomers 6. transferases transfer functional groups from one molecule to another (sometimes includes kinases and phosphatases)

epimerase

enzymes that catalyze the conversion of one sugar epimer to another

motor proteins

enzymes that use energy from ATP to move, transient interactions with either actin or microtubules

how to sociologists differentiate between concepts of ethnicity and race

ethnicity classifies by culture whereas race classifies by physical characteristics. Ethnicity to be categorizations of people based on culture and ancestry. Race to be categorizations of people based on perceived physical characterics. both concept (in sociology) are understood as complex, social categories that change over time, rather than simply biological features of human beings.

ethnocentrism

evaluation of other cultures according to preconceptions originating in the standards and customs of one's own culture.

Hydrolysis of ATP is what type of process endergonic or exergonic?

exergonic

elastin

extracellular matrix of connective tissue, stretch and then recoil like a spring and restores the original shape of the tissue

woman who is pregnant told shes not pregnant

false negative/type 2 error

man told he is pregnant

false positive/type 1 error

Ketone bodies

fasting state, liver converts excess acetyl CoA from beta oxidation of fatty acids into the ketone bodies acetoacetate and 3-hydroxybutyrate (beta hydroxybutyrate) which can be used for energy. cardiac/skeletal muscle and renal cortex-metabolize acetoacetate and 3 hydroxybutyrate to acetyl CoA and during fasting periods muscles can metabolize at the same rate as production so ketone bodies so not accumulate. After one week of fasting, ketone concentration affects the brain and the brain begins to metabolize the ketone bodies as well

which of the following is least likely to result from protein degradation and processing in the liver? fatty acids glucose acetoacetate 3 hydroxybutyrate

fatty acids Protein is only used for energy in starving states and so it would not be broken down to make fatty acids (fatty acid production occurs when nergy is being stored)

unimolecular folding reaction is what order

first order, rate units of 1/s

nucleoside

five carbon sugar (pentose) bonded to a nitrogenous base

nucleotide excision repair

fixes helix-deforming lesions of DNA (such as thymine dimers) via a cut-and-patch process that requires an excision endonuclease, G1, G2

Selective attention is what?

focusing mental resources on a select portion of the stimulus field.

disaccharide

for as a result of glycosidic bonding between two monosaccharides (sucrose, lactose, and maltose)

power is what

force*velocity

in what stage of Piaget's theory is hypothetical reasoning mastered?

formal operational stage

RNA polymerase I

found int he nucleolus, in charge of transcribing most of the rRNA for use during ribosomal creation

The products of the pentose phosphate pathway include______?

fructose-6-phosphate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (both glycolytic intermediates, NADPH, and ribose-5-phosphate.

fructose

fruit sugar

cardiac muscle cells

functional syncytium- electrical synapses, no chemical synapses intercalated disks- connection between cardiac muscle cells, contain gap junctions cardiac conduction system- atria signal is transmitted to ventricles after a delay, since they are separate systems not connected by gap junctions voltage-gated Ca2+ channels- in addition to voltage-gated Na+ channels, these stay open longer for longer depolarization, greater contraction of cardiac muscle, and less tetany (twitches) T tubules- plasma membrane dips into cytoplasm, more surface area for Ca2+ channels, also sarcoplasmic reticulum actin-myosin fibers- contract in response to influx of Ca2+

Sick role theory is a

functionalist approach describing how disruption to typical social activity (eg, work) caused by illness is minimized through the sick role, which legitimizes illness as socially acceptable deviance.

restriction endonucleases are use din what processes

gene therapy, southern blotting, DNA repair

innate/natural immunity

general protection against invaders: 1. skin 2. lysozyme- enzyme in tears/saliva/blood that kills bacteria 3. stomach acidity 4. macrophages and neutrophils 5. complement system- blood proteins that nonspecifically bind to foreign cells, signal for destruction

Glycerol 3 phosphate shuttle

generate 1.5 ATP

Malate-aspartate shuttle

generates 2.5 ATP

which enzymes catalyze irreversible reactions in glycolysis?

glucokinase, hexokinase, PFK-1, and pyruvate kinase

what amino acid reduces steric hindrance?

glycine (the smallest)

glycogenolysis

glycogen is converted to glucose-6P glycogen phosphorylase- just add phosphate group, no ATP required regulation: allosteric- ATP and glucose inhibit glycogenolysis hormonal- epinephrine and glucagon activates glycogenolysis, insulin inhibits, all done through cAMP/pkA signalling 3 endpoints: 1. glycolysis- energy source for muscles 2. gluconeogenesis- glucose-6-phosphatase is only in live, converts to glucose and releases to blood 3. pentose phosphate pathway

glycogenesis

glycogen synthesis, production of glycogen using glycogen synthase and branching enzyme

A spontaneous reaction occurs when E° is ____________ than zero.

greater (Ered-Eox)

ATP synthase

harnesses the energy from electrochemical gradient to form ATP form ADP and an inorganic phosphate

aldonic acids are compounds that

have been oxidized and have acted as reducing agents

beta anomers

have the -OH on the anomeric carbon cis to the free -CH2OH group

alpha anomers

have the -OH on the anomeric carbon trans to the free -CH2OH group

isoelectronic

having the same number of electrons

regulation of cellular respiration

high ATP and citrate indicate Kreb's cycle activity, both inhibit PFK allosterically, activate fructose-1,6-P2ase (FBP) substrate availability- glucose influx activate glycolysis, OAA influx activates gluconeogenesis insulin- released with high glucose, activate PFK, promotes glycolysis, also recruits glucose transporters to plasma membrane, increases storage in glycogen and lipids glucagon- released with low glucose, inhibit PFK, activate FBP, promotes gluconeogenesis, breaks down stored glycogen and lipids

1,3-biphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG) and phosphoenolpyruvate (PEP)

high energy intermediates used to generate ATP by substrate level phosphorylation (the only ATP that is gained in anaerobic respiration)

the lowest frequency corresponds to the highest/lowest period?

highest (pay attention to the question, dumb mistake)

Lev Vygotsky's zone of proximal development theory

hold that children are often unable to perform tasks by themselves, but can complete the task with the help of a more knowledgeable other

fall in insulin levels activates

hormone sensitive lipase (HSL) that hydrolyzes triacylglycerols and yields fatty acids and glycerol. Epi and cortison can also activate HSL. released glycerol from fat may be transported to the leiver for glycolysis or gluconeogenesis. HSL is effective withing adipose cells, but lipoprotein lipase (LPL) is necessary for the metabolism of chylomicrons and very low density lipoproteins (VLDL). LPL is an enzyme that can release free fatty acids from triacylglycerols in these lipoproteins.

syntax

how words are put together to form sentences

nativist hypothesis

humans are pre-programmed with the innate ability to develop language

Hypothalamus regulates what and is located where?

hunger, thirst, and sex drive, located in the diencephalon, just above the brain stem

orexin

hunger-triggering hormone secreted by hypothalamus, involved in alertness and the sleep wake cycle. hypoglycemia is a trigger for orexin release

an alpha helix is most likely to be held together by what type of bond?

hydrogen bond

proteases are

hydrolases

inflammation of the thyroid or iodine efficiency causes what?

hypothyroidism

alter-casting

imposing an identity onto another person

social facilitation

improved performance of tasks in the presence of others; occurs with simple or well-learned tasks but not with tasks that are difficult or not yet mastered

lipid raft

in a membrane, a group of lipids and proteins that float together as a unit in a larger sea of lipids

luteinizing hormone (LH)

in females, triggers ovulation and development of the corpus luteum in males, stimulates Leydig cell production of testosterone

in nearsightedness, the image of a distant object is focused

in front of the retina, requires a diverging lens correction

biphosphoglycerate mutase

in red blood cells, produces 2,3 biphosphoglyverate from 1,3-BPG in glycolysis

Cytochrome C is located where

in the inner mitochondrial membrane

folding of secretory proteins occurs where

in the rough ER

The impression management theory of aligning actions

in which one provides socially acceptable reasons for unexpected behavior (providing an excuse for poor performance or laughing off an inappropriate comment as a joke)

problem-solving dream model

indicates that dreams are used to solve problems while sleeping due to untethering of dreams from obstacles perceived while awake

social interactionist theory

indicates that language develops via interaction with parents and caregivers as well as a desire of the child to communicate

functionalism

individual parts working together to maintain solidarity and social stability, maintain homeostasis and dynamic equilibrium, macro-level manifest function- intended function of social structure latent function- unintended consequences of social structure convergence theory- globalization leads to a united global culture Emile Durkheim- a founder of modern sociology, believer of functionalism, dynamic equilibrium of interdependent parts, individual is significant only in terms of contribution to society

lac operon is what type of system

inducible system, an inducer binds to the repressor, thus permitting transcription

beta oxidation of fatty acids stimulation and inhibition

inhibited directly by insulin and stimulated by glucagon

The primary motor cortex is responsible for what and is located where?

initiating voluntary movement, located in the frontal lobe

keratin

intermediate filament proteins found in epithelial cells, mechanical integrity of the cell, regulatory proteins, hair and nails

acoustic encoding

intermediate method of encoding

state dependent recall is concerned with the internal/external states rather than the internal/external states of the individual.

internal, external

dyneins

involved in sliding movement of cilia and flagella, bring vesicles toward the - end of a microtubule

Three main functions of NADPH are

involvement in biosynthesis of lipids and cholesterol (precursor of steroid hormones), production of bactericidal bleach in the lysosomes of certain white blood cells, and maintenance of a supply of reduced glutathione for protection against free radical (oxidative) damage. ***Energy carriage is an important function of NADH not NADPH***

representative heuristic

involves categorization and classification based on how well an individual example fits its category

ethrographic research

involves observing social interactions in real social settings

ethnographic research

involves observing social interactions in real social settings.

The "me" is the part of the self that

is formed in interaction with others and with the general social environment according to Mead's theory of identity.

anomers

isomers that differ at a new asymmetric carbon atom formed on ring closure

is bile polar or nonpolar?

it is amphipathic

in a reaction that is catalyzed by an enzyme, does the delta G change or stay the same?

it stays the same between the normal and the catalyzed versions of the reaction

james lange

james loved lily before he knew what it was (physiological arousal precedes the identification of emotion)

watt*second

joule

Kinesin

key role in aligning chromosomes during metaphase and deplymerization during anaphase of mitosis, bring vesicles toward the + end of the microtubule

slop of lineweaver burke plot is

km/vmax

what are the four functional areas of the functional attitudes theory?

knowledge, adaptability, ego expression, and ego defense

starting materials of gluconeogenesis

lactate, pyruvate, glycerol (enters through DHAP), amino acids (enter through pyruvate), any TCA cycle intermediates (enter through OAA)

G protein coupled receptors (GPCR)

large family of integral membrane proteins involved in signal transduction, 7 alhpa helices that span the membrane, utilize a heterotrimeric G protein to transmit a signal to an effector in the cell. Binding of a ligan increases the affinity for the receptor for the G protein and can result in activation/inhibition. 3 types 1. Gs stimulates adenylate cycalse which increase levels of cAMP in the cell 2. Gi inhibits andenylate cyclase which decreases levels of cAMP i nteh cell and 3. Gq which activated phospholipase C which cleaves a phospholipid from the membrane to form PIP2 which is then cleaved into DAG and IP3and IP3 can open Ca channels in the endoplasmic reticulum which increases Ca levels in the cell. 3 subunits that comprise the G protein are alpha, beta and gamma. Inactive form-alpha subunit bind GDP and is in a complex with the beta and gamma subunits. When a ligand binds to the GPCR the receptor becomes activated and engages in the corresponding G protein and once the GDP is replaced with GTP, the alpha subunit can dissociate from the complex and the activated alpha subunit alters the activity of the adenylate cyclase. Alpha s activates the enzyme and alpha i inhibits the enzyme, Once GTP on the activated alpha subunit is dephosphorylated to GDP the alpha subunit will rebind to the beta and gamma complex and renders the G protein inactive

what are peptide hormones

large in size (short peptides of complex polypeptides), hormones that act via second messengers (for example, they cause ATP to be converted to cAMP (cAMP is a second messenger, it triggers a signaling cascade in the cell))

increased synthetic activity of the parathyroid glands would lead to what and through what mechanisms?

lead to an increase in blood calcium levels via 3 mechanisms: increased calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, increased bone resorption, and increased absorption of calcium from the gut.

Latent learning is what?

learning that is not immediately expressed in an overt response, and that occurs without any obvious reinforcement (e.g. a rat carried through a maze will eventually learn how to run through the maze on its own

latent learning

learning that occurs but is not apparent until there is an incentive to demonstrate it

brain areas that process linguistic information (both production and comprehension) are lateralized in the ____________ hemisphere

left

what hemisphere is language produced in (for the majority of individuals)?

left hemisphere

hemisphere

left hemisphere: 1. connected to right side of body 2. interprets right side of visual field 3. language processing (on dominant hemisphere) right hemisphere 1. connected left side of body 2. interprets left side of visual field 3. visuospatial skills 4. emotional processing 5. music perception

urea size

less than 10 kDa

ketogenic amino acids

leucine, lysine, isoleucine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and tyronsine can be converted into acetyl CoA and ketone bodies.

Which organ does not require a constant supply of glucose from the blood for energy during a fast?

liver because it can make its own from gluconeogenesis

fatty acids are

long chain carboxylic acids. the carboxyl group is on carbon 1 and the carbon 2 is the alpha carbon. 2 important essential fatty acids are alpha liolenic acid and linoleic acid (polyunsaturated fatty acids)

triacylglycerols

main constituent of dietary fat, the rest being cholesterol, cholesteryl esters, phospholipids, and free fatty acids

actin

makes up microfilaments and the thin filaments in myofibrils, positive and negative side, polarity allows motor proteins to travel unidirectionally along an actin filament

tubulin

makes up microtubules, microtubules provide structure and do chromosome separation during mitosis an dmeiosis and intracelluar transport with kinesin and dynein. Has polarity, - end near the nucleus and + end in the periphery of the cell

upstream regulation of the citric acid cycle

mechanism is phosphorylation of PDH which is facilitated by pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase enzyme. When ATP levels rise, phosphorylating PDH inhibits acetyl CoA production. Conversely, the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex is reactivated by the pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase enzyme in response to high ADP levels. By removing a phosphate from PDH, pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase is able to reactivate acetyl CoA production. Acetyl CoA has negative feedback on its own production. ATP and NADH are markers of the cell being energetically satisfied so they inhibit PDH.

reconstructive memory

memory that has been simplified, enriched, or distorted, depending on an individual's experiences and attitudes

absorption of micelles

micelles diffuse to the brush border of the intestinal mucosal cells where they are absorbed. Digested lipids pass through the brush border, absorbed by the mucosa and re-esterified to form triacylclygerols and choesteryl esters and are packaged with apoproteins, fat soluble vitamins, and other lipids into chylomicrons. Chylomicrons leave the intestine via lacteals (vessels in the lymphatic system) and re enter the bloodstream via the thoracic duct (a lymphatic vessel that empties into the left subclavian vein at the base of the neck). The more water soluble short chain fatty acids can be absorbed by simple diffusion directly into the bloodstream.

__________ function in chromosomal movements in cell division

microtubules

galactose

milk sugar

Ketogenesis

mitochondria of liver cells when excess acetyl CoA accumulates in the fasting state. HMG CoA synthase forms HMG CoA. HMG CoA lyase breaks down HMG CoA into acetoacetate which can be reduced to 3 hydroxybutyrate. Acetone is a side product that is formed but not used as energy for tissues

citric acid cycle/krebs cycle/TCA cycle

mitochondria, oxidation of acetyl CoA to CO2 and H2O. Cycle produces the high electron-carrying molecules NADH and FADH2. Acetyl CoA obtained from metabolism of carbs, fatty acids, and amino acids.

exchange mobility

mobility in which, if we hold fixed the changing distribution of jobs, individuals trade jobs not one-to-one but in a way that ultimately balances out

carbohydrates

monomer is monosaccharide, CnH2nOn glucose, fructose, sucrose, ribose, deoxyribose disaccharides are connected by glycosidic linkage 3 common disaccharides: 1. maltose (glucose + glucose, alpha-1,4) (reducing sugar) 2. sucrose (glucose + fructose, alpha-1,2) (nonreducing sugar) 3. lactose (glucose + galactose, beta-1,4) 3 common polysaccharides: 1. glycogen (all glucose, animal storage, alpha-1,4 for linear, alpha-1,6 for branching) 2. starch (all glucose, plant storage, alpha-1,4) 3. cellulose (all glucose, plant structure, beta-1,4) broken down to CO2 during oxidation, cellular metabolism

Social identity theorists think that the greater the identification with the in-group the more/less likely in-group bias will occur.

more likely

From the perspective of basic group dynamics in sociology, larger groups are generally considered more/less stable but less intimate, whereas smaller groups are usually considered more/less stable but more intimate.

more, less. Dyads, two-person groups such as the physician-patient group, are unstable because either party can break the single social tie. The triad, three person groups such as the physician-patient-cultural liaison group, is considered relatively more stable because of the additional social ties.

debranching enzyme

moves a block of oligoglucose from one branch and connects it to the chain using an alpha-1,4 glycosidic link, also removes a branchpoint (which is connected via a 1,6 glycosidic link) which releases a free glucose molecule

branching enzyme

moves a block of oligoglucose from one chain and adds it to the growing glycogen as a new branch using an alpha 1,6 glycosidic link

the molecule with the most +/- standard free energy of hydrolysis is also the molecule that is able to spontaneously transfer a phosphate group to create a phosphorylated compound of a lower energy

negative

T3 and T4 have positive/negative feedback on what?

negative feedback on the follicular cells of the thyroid

escape from an aversive stimulus is

negative reinforcement

Schachter singer thory

nervous system arousal and interpretation of context lead to a cognitive response

James lange theory

nervous system arousal leads to a cognitive response in which the emotion is labeled

changes in brain size as a function of environmental influences is an example of

neural plasticity

Does faciliated diffusion require energy?

no

lipid and carbohydrate synthesis

nontemplate synthesis processes becuase they do not rely directly on the coding of a nucleic acid, unlike protein and nucleic acid synthesis

Skinner asserted that punishment is what?

not an ideal form of behavior modification because it is only effective so long as the punishment, or threat of punishment, is present.

Conscious effort is needed to visually process what types of information: spatial, temporal, novel, frequential

novel, due to the brain's capacity for parallel processing, information about space, time and frequency of events is automatically processed; however, conscious effort is needed to process novel information

nucleotide

nucleoside with 1 to 3 phosphate groups added

all chromatin is found in the

nucleus

specific activity

number of enzyme units per milligram of total protein

Stanley Milgram's shock experiments analyzed what?

obedience and the power of authority figures

Pentose Phosphate Pathway/hexose monophosphate shunt

occurs in the cytoplasm of most cells, generates NADPH and sugars for biosynthesis (derived from ribulose 5 phosphate)

fatty acid biosynthesis

occurs in the liver and its products are subsequently transported to adipose tissue for storage. Adipose tissue also synthesizes smaller quantities of fatty acids. Major enzymes are acetyl CoA carboxylase and fatty acid synthase (both are stimulated by insulin). Palmitic acid (palmitate) is the primary end product of fatty acid synthesis

source monitoring error

occurs when a memory derived from one source is misattributed to another source

confirmation bias

occurs when a person only seeks information that reinforces his/her own opinions

social facilitation

occurs when an individual completes a manageable task in front of an audience

DO MATH PROPERLY EVEN THOUGH YOU DONT HAVE A CALCULATOR DOESNT MEAN YOUR DUMB JUST TAKE A SECOND AND THINK ABOUT NUMBER CMON

ok

IF IT SAYS EXCEPT/NOT/BUT THEN PAY ATTENTION BECAUSE YOU ARENT RIGHT NOW AND YOURE GETTING QUESTIONS WRONG DUM BUM

ok

plz just read the question properly

ok

review amino acids

ok

review dependent and independent stressors

ok

review erik eriksons developmental theory

ok

review the periodic trends

ok

trust your choice dont keep changing it

ok

Diffusion and osmosis rely on what electrochemical gradient?

only depend on the gradient of the compound of interest, not all the compounds

veins/arteries/both have valves. what about a layer of endothelial cells?

only veins have valves and both have a layer of endothelial cells

five factor model

openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, neuroticism

Freud's stages of psychosexual development

oral stage, anal stage, phallic stage, latency stage, genital stage

More oxygen in the molecule constitutes an ..?

oxidation

The reaction of glucose-6-phosphate to ribulose-5-phosphate is a ________?

oxidation of glucose 6 phosphate

pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

oxidative decarboxylation, pyruvate oxidized to acetyl-CoA (loses a carbon) uses up CoA, NAD+ reduced to NADH, releases CO2 TPP- prosthetic group which is a covalently bound cofactor that helps with decarboxylation, derived from thiamine (vitamin B) thiamine deficiency would increase rate of anaerobic glycolysis allosteric regulation- ATP and fatty acids inhibit, since acetyl-CoA goes to fatty acid synthesis and ATP synthesis

antibiotics cause

oxidative stress

lactate dehydrogenase

oxidizes NADH to NAD+ and reduces pyruvate to lactate

lactate dehydrogenase

oxidizes NADH to NAD+, replenishing the oxidized coenzyme for glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase.

if you inhibit electron transport, what happens to oxygen and glucose consumption?

oxygen consumption decreases and glucose consumption increases

Pancreas secretes

pancreatic lipase, colipase, and choesterol esterase in the small intestine, together these enzymes hydrolyze the lipid components to 2-monoacylglycerol, free fatty acids, and cholesterol.

symbolic interactionism

people act towards things based on interpretation and meaning, which is derived from social interaction symbols- cultural derived objects that have shared meaning, maintained through social interaction and language, micro-level George Mead- founder of social psychology, symbolic interactionism self- developed through language, play, and games generalized other- organized attitude of social group "I"- subject, autonomous self, spontaneous, individuality "me"- object, social self, conforming, internalized social expectations social stigma- disapproval of a deviant attribute or behavior, labelling theory looking-glass self- self is shaped by our perception of how other people perceive us, we internalize stigma

The decrease in serum _____ levels would lead to increased 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D production, since vitamin D functions to ______>

phosphate, increase serum calcium and phosphate levels when they are low

In a single strand of a nucleic acid, nucleotides are linked by what type of bond?

phosphodiester bond

rate limiting enzyme of glycolysis

phosphofructokinase

citrate acts a negative allosteric inhibitor for

phosphofructokinase 1 (the enzyme that catalyzed the rate limiting step of glycolysis)

sensing light

photoreceptors are rods (best at detecting low light) and cones (best at detecting color) opsins are proteins on photoreceptors cones are concentrated in the fovea, cones have pigments that absorb green, red, blue, intensity of each color determines the final color perceived photoreceptors are default on retinal bound to opsins convert to all-trans on absorbing a photon, triggers polarization of cell by blocking Na+ channels that stops release of glutamate to bipolar cells ganglion cells transmit to through optic nerve optical chasm divides the signal so left visual field goes to right brain, right visual field goes to left brain, first hits lateral geniculate nucleus in thalamus, then goes to respective occipital lobes signal intensity is determined by how many action potentials are sent

what are the three components of emotion

physiological, cognitive, and behavorial

explain the hydropathy index

positive is hydrophobic and negative is hydrophilic

the left frontal lobe is associated with negative/positive feelings while the right frontal lobe is associated with negative/positive feelings

positive, negative

electric field lines exit from ________and enter ___________ charges. The axon is ________ charged. The extracellular solution has a ______ net potential. So the electric field lines go in what direction?

positive, negative, negatively, zero, into the axon from the outside fluid.

nativist theory

posits a critical period during which language acquisition occurs

Kohlberg's stages of moral development (3)

preconventional: 1. obedience (avoid punishment) 2. self-interest (personal gain) conventional: 1. conformity (approval) 2. authority (social order), most adults are here postconventional: 1. social contract (fairness) 2. universal principles (ethics)

glucokinase

present in the pancreatic beta-islet cells as part of the glucose sensor and is responsive to insulin in the liver

social constructionism

presumes that ideas (such as knowledge about health and disease) are created through historical processes, that are socially defined and culturally distinct.

single stranded DNA binding protein

prevents reannealing of DNA double helix during replication

tubulin

primary component in microtubules which are responsible for the structure and movement of cilia and flagella and which centrioles organize in the mitotic spindle. Microfilaments however, are not composed of tubulin, they are composed of actin.

types of memory

procedural memory sensory memory working memory short term memory long term memory STM and LTM are separate memory systems implicit memory- responses influenced by experience, no awareness of remembering explicit memory- intentional retrieval, semantic and episodic are the two types semantic- facts and general knowledge episodic- declarative memory, events iconic memory- visual memory echoic memory- auditory memory retrograde- memory before event, going back in time anterograde- memory after event, going forward in time

Working memory is a part of the memory system that allows us to what?

process and manipulate information held in short-term memory

prion

protein particles that cause disease

cell adhesion molecule (CAM)

proteins found on the surface of most cells and aid in binding the cell to the extracelluar matrix or other cells, integral membrane proteins, 3 families, cadherins, integrins, and selectins

Antibodies (immunoglobulins)

proteins produced by B cells that function to neutralize targets in the body and recruit other cells to help eliminate the threat, y shaped and disulfide linkages and noncovalent interactions hold the heavy an dlight chains together, Has an antigen binding region at the tip of the y, region has special polypeptide sequences that will bind one specific antigen sequence and teh reamining part of the antibody is the constant region which is involed in recruitment and binding of other cells of the immune system.

somatic symptom disorder

psychological disorder in which the symptoms take a somatic (bodily) form without apparent physical cause

Which gluconeogenic enzyme replaces the irreversible glycolytic enzymes?

pyruvate carboxylase replaces pyruvate kinase, phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK) replaces pyruvate kinase, fructose 2,6 phosphatase replaces phophofructokinase 1, glucose 6 phosphatase replaces glucokinase

Acetyl CoA is an inhibitor of

pyruvate dehydrogenase

pyruvate dehydrogenase comples is made of what 5 enzymes

pyruvate dehydrogenase (PDH) , dihydrolipoyl transacetylase, dihydrolipoyl dehydrogenase, pyruvate dehydrogenase kinase, and pyruvate dehydrogenase phosphatase. First three work together to convert pyruvate to acetyl CoA and the last two regulate the actions of PDH. complex is inhibited by an accumulation of acetyl CoA and NADH (which can occur is the electron transport chain is not properly functioning or in inhibited)

Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

rate limiting enzyme of gluconeogenesis

glycogen synthase

rate limiting enzyme of glycogenesis

social constructionism

reality is socially constructed, concepts differ by cultures objects are embedded with the social values of people who create or interact with them socialization- individual internalizes values, beliefs, norms of society, how social constructs are maintained over time agents of socialization- popular culture, family, schools macro and micro-level

snowball sampling

recruitment of participants based on word of mouth or referrals from other participants (can cause bias, such as if participants are chosen based on social media)

pragmatics

refers to changes in usage, wording, and inflection based on context

encoding specificity

refers to enhanced memory when testing takes place under the same conditions as learning

role engulfment

refers to how a person's identity becomes based on a role the person assumes, superseding other roles

semantics

refers to the association of meaning with a word

deductive reasoning

refers to the drawing conclusions by integrating different pieces of evidence

validity

refers to the extent to which a measure reflects the phenomenon being studied

Functionalism is a sociological theory that what?

refers to the interdependence that exists among institutions within society

cultural relativism

refers to the recognition that social groups and cultures should be studied on their own terms

expressivity

refers to the varying phenotypic manifestations of a given genotype

For a thermodynamic mixture of isomeric products, the relative mole ratio of products is directly related to the

relative stability of these products.

Debranching enzyme

removes oligosaccharides from a branch in glycogen or starches

phosphatase

removes phosphate

trp operon

repressible system, an abundance of tryptophan in the environment allows for the repressor to bind tryptophan and then bind to the operator site so that it blocks the transcription of the genes required to synthesize tryptophan within the cell

steps in gluconeogenesis that require energy

require ATP (6 total for 1 glucose): pyruvate carboxylase- pyruvate to OAA PEP carboxykinase- OAA to PEP phosphoglycerate kinase- 3-phosphoglycerate to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate require NADH (2 total for 1 glucose): GAPDH- 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde-3-P adding phosphate to glucose and fructose at the end does not require ATP

comparative research

research that compares one set of findings on one society with the same type of findings on other societies

RQ

respiratory quotient CO2 produced/O2 consumed

Social reciprocity refers to what?

responding to a kind or generous action with another kind or generous action

hormone sensitive lipase

responds to low insulin levels (as well as cortisol and epi) to mobilize fatty acids from adipocytes

RNA polymerase II

responsible for hnRNA and snRNA

RNA polymerase III

responsible for tRNA and 5S rRNA

What tissues require insulin for glucose uptake

resting skeletal muscle and adipose tissue

electron capture has the same end result as what form of Beta decay?

same end result as positron emission In β− decay, a neutron converts into a nuclear proton and emits an electron. In β+ decay, a proton converts into a neutron (the opposite of β−-decay) and emits a positron (an electron with a positive charge). In electron capture, a proton captures an electron near the nucleus and converts into a neutron without a positron or electron emission.

fatty acid oxidation (beta oxidation)

saturated fatty acids- dehydrogenase to create double bond (produce FADH2), then produce NADH to create ketone, breaks off acetyl-CoA, repeat unsaturated fatty acids- isomerase to move double bond, then produce NADH to create ketone, break off acetyl-CoA, repeat in mitochondrial matrix needs 2 ATP to initially activate fatty acid need 1 FAD, 1 NAD+ for each 2 C removed produces 1 FADH2, 1 NADH

Roger's humanistic theory

says people are inherently good and we are self-motivated to improve so we can reach self-actualization

Iconic memory is a type of what type of memory?

sensory memory

complicated, multi stage behaviors are typically taught through what?

shaping

shRNAs

short hairpin RNA, useful biotechnology tool used in RNA interference

the presence of a disulfide bond would cause what in regards to elution time in size exclusion chromatography?

shorter time because larger size

what graph curve indicates cooperativity

sigmoidal

Monosaccharides

single carb units with glucose as the most commonly observed monomer. Can undergo redox, esterification, and glycoside formation

adrenal glands

sits on top of the kidneys adrenal medulla- releases epinephrine, sympathetic NS adrenal cortex- releases aldosterone and cortisol (both steroid hormones), stress

glucocorticoids act on_________ muscle causing the breakdown of __________. Therefore, if a patient is given too high a replacement dose of glucocorticoids, this will result in ________.

skeletal muscle, muscle proteins, muscle weakness.

Social constructionism suggests that

social reality is created through interpersonal interactions, which result in shared meanings and expected roles/behaviors.

Gesellschaft

society in which individuals are working toward the same goal, such as a company or country

humoral immunity

specific protection by antibodies (immunoglobulins), produced by B cells antibody structure: 1. light and heavy chains joined by disulfide bonds 2. constant region- classes include IgG, IgA, IgM, IgD, IgE 3. variable region- specific antigen binding antibody function: 1. epitope- small binding site on antigen 2. hapten- small molecule that is only recognized after bound to large carrier protein 3. can directly inactivate antigen, induce phagocytosis, or activate complement system antibodies generated in one species will get recognized as a foreign substance in a different species

"I" is the

spontaneous and autonomous part of the self, according to Mead's theory of identity.

fatty acid synthesis

starts with acetyl-CoA and malonyl-CoA (from acetyl-CoA, using bicarbonate), activated to acetyl-ACP and malonyl-ACP acetyl-ACP to acetyl-FAS (with fatty acid synthase attached) fatty acid synthase helps combine malonyl-ACP with acetyl (release CO2), NADPH to remove ketone, then NADPH to remove double bond in cytosol need 2 NADPH for each 2 carbons added

pentose-phosphate pathway

starts with glucose-6-P getting converted by GAPDH releases 2 NADPHs total oxidative phase- glucose-6-P converted to ribulose-5-P, 2 NADPHs and CO2 produced non-oxidative phase- ribulose-5-P converted to ribose-5-P and glycolysis intermediates (2 GAP, 2 fructose-6-P) it takes 3 glucose-6-P to make it through both phases 3 goals: 1. NADPH for reducing power in fatty acid synthesis 2. NADPH for eliminating free radicals 3. ribose-5-P for producing nucleotides

activation synthesis theory

states that dreams are caused by widespread, random activation of neural circuitry

social construction model

states that emotions are always a product of the current social situation and does not posit any biological basis for emotions, implying a lack of a role for emotions in evolution

basic model of emotion

states that emotions serve an evolutionary purpose and thus are similar across cultures (seven universal emotions have also been used as support for this theory)

Instinct theory of motivation

states that people are motivated to act base don instincts that they are programmed to exhibit

Yerkes-Dodson Law

states that there is an optimal level of arousal necessary to perform

The rate of glycolysis is controlled by PFK-1, which is

stimulated by the allosteric effector F2,6BP. When glycolysis is active, F2,6BP synthesis is also most likely active.

regulation of TCA cycle

substrate availability- amino acids can be converted to alpha-ketoglutarate to speed up TCA cycle substrates inhibit their own enzyme- citrate inhibits citrate synthase, succinyl-CoA inhibits aKG DH allosteric regulation- ATP, NADH inhibit TCA cycle

complex 2

succinate dehydrogenase

esterification

sugars react with carboxylic acids and their derivatives, forming esters

deoxy sugars

sugars with an H replacing an OH group

nonoxidative phase of pentose phosphate pathway

sugars----> other sugars (intermediates of the glycolytic pathway)

what atom is the nucleophile in methionine

sulfur because it has lone electron pairs making it a better nucleophile than the other atoms in it

heart

superior/inferior vena cava- receives deoxygenated blood from body right atrium- waiting room tricuspid AV valve right ventricle- pumps deoxygenated blood to lungs pulmonary semilunar valve pulmonary artery- carries deoxygenated blood to lungs pulmonary vein- carries oxygenated blood from lungs left atrium- waiting room bicuspid/mitral AV valve left ventricle- pumps oxygenated blood to body aortic semilunar valve aortic arch- carries oxygenated blood to body

The illness experience is a

symbolic interactionist approach to understanding how people incorporate and make sense of illness as part of their self-identity and daily routines.

The majority of triacylglycerols stored in adipocytes originate from: Synthesis in the adipocyte Dietary intake Ketone bodies Synthesis in the liver

synthesis in the liver (synthesized in the liver and then transported as VLDL to adipose tissue for storage). adipocytes and dietary intake constitute a minor source of triacylglycerols

Hormonal control is

systemic and covalent

Ubiquitination

targets a protein for degradation by a proteasome.

Neobehaviorists believe what?

that behavior can be modified by rewards or punishments (most effective way to modify behavior is with positive reinforcement, however)

The Robber's Cave experiment showed what?

that even arbitrary group distinctions (camp teams) can cause bitter rivalry and discrimination, thus demonstrating in-group/out-group biases

what is the cognitive process theory

that wakeful and dreaming states use the same mental systems withing the brain, particularly stream-of-consciousness

Social learning theory posits what?

that we learn new behaviors through imitation

analytical intelligence

the ability to break problems down into component parts, or analysis, for problem solving

creative intelligence

the ability to deal with new and different concepts and to come up with new ways of solving problems

Social mobility refers to what?

the ability to move up or down within the social stratification system

emotional intelligence

the ability to perceive, understand, manage, and use emotions

interpersonal intelligence

the ability to read, empathize, and understand others

priming effect

the activation of certain associations, thus predisposing your perception, memory, or response

actor-observer bias

the actor's tendency to explain his/her own behavior by situational factors whereas the observer tends to explain the actor's behavior by internal stable traits.

positive punishment

the administration of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior's recurring

semantic networks

the associations of similar concepts in the mind to aid in their retrieval

impression management

the attempt by people to get others to see them as they want to be seen

glycoside formation

the basis for building complex carbs and requires the anomeric carbon to link to another sugar

why is the alpha anomer of D-glucose less likely to form than the beta anomer

the beta anomer undergoes less electron repulsion

What is primary appraisal

the categorization of the stressor as irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful

semantic memory

the category of long term memory that refers to recall of facts, rather than experiences or skills

the buoyant force on an object is equal to

the difference between its weight and its apparent weight in water

proactive interference

the disruptive effect of prior learning on the recall of new information

a separation between the primacy and recency effects indicate what?

the dissociability of of long term and short term memory

antidiuretic hormone (ADH) acts to decrease urine output by increasing the water permeability of the walls of

the distal tubule and the collecting duct

Adaptive radiation involves the divergence of one species into multiple species over time, which can occur when subgroups of the original species are separated or isolated in different environments so that these subgroups evolve independently of one another.

the divergence of one species into multiple species over time, which can occur when subgroups of the original species are separated or isolated in different environments so that these subgroups evolve independently of one another.

group polarization

the enhancement of a group's prevailing inclinations through discussion within the group

what is secondary appraisal

the evaluation of the ability of the organism to cope with that stress

research is potentially weakened by

the exclusion of significant numbers of cases (about 10%) from the sample

self serving bias

the fact that individuals will view their own successes as being based on internal factors , while viewing failures as being based on external factors

procedural memory

the gradual acquisition of skills as a result of practice, or "knowing how" to do things

when glucose reacts with ethanol under acid catalysis, what happens?

the hemiacetal is converted to an acetal via replacement of the anomeric hydroxyl group with an alkoxy group

encoding specificity principle

the idea that cues and contexts specific to a particular memory will be most effective in helping us recall it

how does the ideal temperature for a reaction change with and without an enzyme catalyst?

the ideal temperature is generally lower with a catalyst than without

role strain

the incompatibility among roles corresponding to a single status

hidden curriculum

the informal and unofficial aspects of culture that children are taught in school latent function of school

endoderm, mesoderm, ectoderm

the inner germ layer that develops into the lining of the digestive and respiratory systems, middle germ layer that develops into muscles, and much of the circulatory, reproductive, and excretory systems, outermost germ layer that produces sense organs, nerves, and outer layer of skin

How do the inner and outer membrane of the mitochondria differ?

the inner membrane is less permeable and lacks cholesterol

resistivity is what to conductivity

the inverse

relative poverty

the lack of resources of some people in relation to those who have more

Solomon Asch's conformity experiments looked at what?

the likelihood of conformity in a group setting

the heart and blood vessels differentiate from which germ layer?

the mesoderm

anomeric carbon

the new chiral center formed in ring closure; it was the carbon containing the carbonyl in the straight-chain form

coordination number

the number of ions of opposite charge that surround each ion in a crystal

a volume of gas depends only on what

the number of moles of gas

Sensory memory is what?

the part of the memory system that receives input from the sensory organs

Long-term memory is what?

the part of the memory system that retains information for prolonged periods of time

Mead's I

the part of the self that is spontaneous, impulsive, creative, and unpredictable

parts of self concept

the past self, the future self, and the self schemata

penetrance

the percentage of a population with a given genotype that actually exhibits the predicted phenotype

sensory interaction

the principle that one sense may influence another, as when the smell of food influences its taste

Induction

the process by which a cell influences other cells to follow a particular differentiation pathway

Socialization is what?

the process by which humans learn the norms of their society

Racialization

the process by which understandings of race are used to classify individuals or groups of people

shaping behavior

the process of guiding learning in graduated steps using reinforcement or lack of reinforcement

apolipoproteins

the protein components of lipoproteins

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

the rate-limiting enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway

Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase

the rate-limiting enzyme in the pentose phosphate pathway, activated by NADP+ and insulin and is inhibited by NADPH

the specific gravity of an object is

the ratio of its weight to the weight of an equal volume of water (ie. (its weight)/(the buoyant force on it)=(its weight)/(its weight-its apparent weight in water) )

Gentrification is

the reinvestment in lower income neighborhoods in urban areas, which results from the influx of more affluent groups. With the arrival of more affluent residents, housing demand increases and generally results in a decrease of affordable housing for lower income residents.

negative punishment

the removal of a stimulus to decrease the probability of a behavior's recurring

vestibular sense

the sense of body movement and position, including the sense of balance

Cannon bard theory

the simultaneous arousal of the nervous system and cognitive response lead to action

life course perspective

the study of the family trajectories of individuals and groups as they progress through their lives, in social and historical context

which atom is the nucleophile in a methionine residue?

the sulfur because it is the only one with electron pairs (making it the most nucleophilic)

social stigma is derived from

the symbolic interactionist perspective in sociology and calls attention to how certain groups face social disapproval (derived from an attribute that is devalued)

autocrine signaling

the target cell is also the secreting cell

fundamental attribution error

the tendency for observers, when analyzing another's behavior, to underestimate the impact of the situation and to overestimate the impact of personal disposition

self serving bias

the tendency for people to take personal credit for success but blame failure on external factors

hindsight bias

the tendency to believe, after learning an outcome, that one would have foreseen it

stimulus generalization

the tendency to respond to a stimulus that is only similar to the original conditioned stimulus with the conditioned response

role conflict

the tension caused by competing demands between two or more roles pertaining to different statuses

drive reduction theory

the theory that one will act to eliminate uncomfortable internal states known as drives. The body will push toward homeostasis.

The opponent-process model

the theory that opposing retinal processes (red-green, yellow-blue, white-black) enable color vision. For example, some cells are stimulated by green and inhibited by red; others are stimulated by red and inhibited by green

Associative learning is what?

the type of learning that occurs in both classical and operant conditioning, wherein the individual learns the association between two stimuli

Conservation is what? When does is develop?

the understanding that a quantity of something like water will remain the same volume no matter what shape it is in; conservation does not develop until the concrete operational stage

Social capital refers to what?

the use of social networks to gain some sort of individual benefit

Social stratification refers to what?

the way that people are categorized within society

visual encoding

the weakest method of encoding

what do high citric acids levels suggest in regards to the Krebs cycle? What would the high citric acid levels do PFK activity?

there is increased substrate (acetyl coA) being supplied to the Krebs cycle by glycolysis. The high citric acid levels would negatively regulate PFK activity (would lower it so that glycolysis slows and less acetyl coA is supplied to the Krebs cycle)

situational (external) attributions

those that relate to features of the surroundings, such as threats, money, social norms, and peer pressure

dispositional (internal) attributions

those that relate to the person whose behavior is being considered, including his or her beliefs, attitudes, and personality characteristics

thyroid gland

thyroid hormone is regulated by anterior pituitary gland is a peptide hormone with long lasting effects stimulate growth in children parathyroid- releases PTH to break down bone, increases Ca2+ in blood

what are reasons for conjugating proteins?

to direct their delivery to a particular organelle, to direct their delivery to the cell membrane, and to add a cofactor needed for their activity

an operon containing two genes in prokaryotic cells is

transcribed from a single promoter upstream of the first gene in the operon. (prokaryotes dont do splicing, only eukaryotes do!!)

trasferases

transfer functional groups (includes kinases)

shuttle mechanism

transfers the high energy electrons of NADH to a carrier that can cross the inner mitochondrial membrane. Depending on shuttle mechanism used, either 1.5 or 2.5 ATP will be produced. Glycerol 3 phosphate and malate-aspartate are the two shuttles.

frucokinase

traps fructose in the cell

galactokinase

traps galactose in the cell by converting it to glucose 1 phosphate via galactose 1 phosphate uridyltransferase and an epimerase

all stages of protein synthesis require energy t/f

true

t/f the free energyof hydrolysis of ATP is nearly the same as for ADP

true

man told hes not pregnant

true negative

woman who is pregnant told shes pregnant

true positive

an open pipe has its fundamental resonant wavelength at ___________.

twice the length of the pipe

Each molecule of NADH can provide ____ electrons.

two

oxidative phosphorylation

two steps: 1. ETC- empty the electron carriers 2. chemiosmosis- make ATP 3 complexes pump H+ to intermembrane space: 1. NADH dehydrogenase- converts NADH to NAD+, CoQ carries electrons to complex 3 2. converts FADH2 to FAD+, CoQ carries electrons to complex 3 3. cytC reductase- cytC carries electrons to complex 4 4. cytC oxidase- O2 accepts electrons, converts to H2O ATP synthase- H+ flows allowed to flow from intermembrane space to matrix, converts ADP to ATP NADH produces 3 (2.5) ATP, moves 10 H+ FADH2 produces 2 (1.5) ATP, moves 6 H+

neurocognitive theory

unifies cognitive and biological perspectives by correlating the subjective dream experience with the physiological experience of dreaming (subjective experience of dreaming and the physiology of dreaming)

helicase

unwinds DNA double helix

cytosine degradation results in what?

uracil

base rate fallacy

using prototypical or stereotypical factors while ignoring actual numerical information (student volunteering in a stroke facility believes that a greater percentage of people above the age of 65 have a stroke, when in reality the percentage is much less)

ketones --> acetyl-CoA

usually acetyl-CoA is used to produce ketones, but when PDH complex is inhibited, the reverse reaction can occur and ketones can produce acetyl CoA.

The image formed by a diverging lens/convex

virtual, erect, and smaller than the object

work done by an elastic force

w=(kx^2)/2=Fx/2

water column will rise until

water will rise to a height such that the weight (mass multiplied by gravitational acceleration) of the water column equals the atmospheric pressure multiplied by the tube cross-sectional area A.

Stereotypes are weakest when what? strongest when what?

weakest when individuals or groups are familiar with each other, they are strongest when individuals or groups are unfamiliar with each other or when they belong to different groups

alcohol to acetyl CoA

when alcohol is consumes, the enzymes alcohol dehydrogenase and acetaldehyde dehydrogenase convert it to acetyl CoA. However this reaction results in a build up of NADH which inhibits the Krebs cycle. Therefore, the acetyl CoA formed through this process is used primarily to synthesize fatty acids.

cognitive dissonance theory

when an individual's attitudes are incongruent with his or her behavior, this leads to cognitive dissonance. To eliminate cognitive dissonance, the individual can either change his or her attitudes or his or her behavior. The theory posits that individuals are more likely to adjust their attitudes to align with their behavior than the other way around.

Informational social influence describes what?

when an individual's behavior conforms or changes because he or she wants to do the "right thing"

Normative social influence describes what?

when someone changes her or his behavior (conforms) because she or he has a desire for the approval of others and wants to avoid rejection

concave lens image/converging

when the lens causes the image to look upright but smaller than the original

Back stage self

when we "let down our guard" and be ourselves. E.g. how we act at home vs. work.

Attribution theory attempts to explain what?

why individuals interpret the actions of others in the ways they do (the bystander is making the assumption that the individual with factitious limb disorder is rude)

Formation of creatinine occurs non-enzymatically, so it will/will not be affected by allosteric regulation

will not

intra vs inter

within vs between

glycogen phosphorylase

yields glucose 1-phosphate

A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material? A.Aromatic B.Hydrophobic C.Salt bridge D.Hydrogen bonding

you did this correctly the first time!!! D, because a polysaccharide of glucose has numerous hydroxyl groups that can hydrogen bond to the polar side chains that are typically exposed on a protein surface.

What function group is in fats? in proteins? in sugars? Which one of the following is not a largely important functional group in any biologically important molecule: carboxylic acid, ester, ether, amide, amine, acetal, hemiacetal?

ester in fats, amides in protein, hemiacetals in sugars ethers aren't in important biological molecules

Egocentrism is what?

focus only on their own perspectives

Role-playing explains what?

how individuals (humans) take on expected roles within groups

during an asthma attack, lungs are likely to be ___________ because of _________________.

hyperexpanded, air trapping (bronchiole diameter is decreased, causing it to be more difficult to let air out so some air may end up stuck in the lungs)

hyperacute rejection: what time period, attributed to what stuff that is secreted by what cells and is classified as what type of immunity?

immediate post operative, antibodies which are secreted by B-cells into the blood, humoral immunity.

transcription factors are where in the cell?

in the nucleus

pancreatic secretions increase/decrease intestinal pH?

increase

oxidation potential trend

increased to the left and down the periodic table

taurine and glycine have high/low pka values?

low

Low ATP/ADP and NADH/NAD+ ratios suggest what and activate/deactivate what?

low cellular energy which would activate PFK (phosphofructokinase) in glycolysis

Catalysts increase the reaction rate by doing what?

lowering the activation energy (stabilizing the transition state) of the reaction

Antibodies can mark antigens for destruction by what types of cells?

macrophages and other phagocytes (not by helper T cells)

the blastopore lip is where the _________ formation starts

mesoderm

The hypothalamus is involved in what?

metabolic processes and hormone release

smaller molecules are less/more/equal in volatility to large molecules.

more

what happens in Parkinson's disease?

neurons in the brain that make dopamine and control muscle movement begin to die

Can antibodies directly degrade other things?

no because they are not enzymes

The ostrich effect is what?

not a social phenomenon, refers to an individual avoiding an apparently risky financial situation by pretending it does not exist

velocity is/is not constant when traveling in a circle?

not constant because the direction is constantly changing

Nuclear proteins contain a _____which targets proteins to the secretory pathway.

nuclear localization signal

Hydrolysis of imines is an example of _______, in which the _______ water attacks the _____carbon involved in the C=N double bond. However, in the case of a hydrazone, the lone pair from the second nitrogen can delocalize, placing a _________charge on the C in the C-N bond. This significantly _________ the electrophilicity of this C, and makes it _____ susceptible to hydrolysis.

nucleophilic addition, nucleophilic, electrophilic, negative, reduces, less.

Review R/S Stereochemistry

ok

review heart chart from systems physiology

ok

review kirchoffs laws and resistors in series and paraller

ok

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is usually secreted by________. It functions to _________. The increase in serum ________ would feedback to the parathyroid gland to reduce the secretion of PTH.

4 small parathyroid glands posterior to the thyroid, increase serum calcium levels, calcium,

Electronegativity, electron affinity, and ionization energy all increase across a periodic table row and decrease down a periodic table group. Why does acidity not follow this trend? A. Acidity relates to the ability of the nuclear protons to attract hydrogen atoms and not valence electrons. B. Acidity relates to the stability of the conjugate base, and larger atoms form more stable conjugate bases even when they are less electronegative than smaller atoms. C. Acidity is not influenced by nuclear shielding and effective nuclear charge, while the other trends are. D. Acidity increases across a periodic table row like the other trends, but it increases down a group because the electronegativity of the elements approaches that of hydrogen.

B

Charged, polar amino acids which are negative (acidic) and which are positive (basic) what are the pKa's of the side groups?

D, E, K, H, R, DEKHR(a) D, E are acidic negative K, H, R are basic positive D=3.9 E=4.1 K=10.5 H=6.0 (more base form (neutral) at ph=7.4) R=12.5

transcription factors have ____ to bind DNA.

DNA binding motifs

What does glucagon do? Glucagon stimulates the production of glucose and encourages its release into the bloodstream, elevating blood glucose levels.

It stimulates the production of glucose and encourages its release into the bloodstream (elevated blood glucose levels)

In competitive inhibition what happens to Km and Vmax?

Km increases and Vmax is unaffected

In uncompetitive inhibition what happens to Km and Vmax?

Km is reduced and Vmax is reduced

In noncompetitive inhibition what happens to Km and Vmax?

Km is unaffected and Vmax is reduced

nonpolar/hydrophobic amino acids are:

L, A, V, I, W, F, M, P, G (The LAW is that the MVP must eat dry (no water/hydrophobic/nonpolar) FIG(s))

Uncharged/Polar amino acids what are the pKa's of the side groups?

N, Q, T, S, C, Y (Uhhhhhhh (uncharged), Y(why) is SCN (skinny) QT (cute)? C=8.4 (more acid form) Y=10.5

in the pentose phosphate pathway, ______ is produced and can be used in the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation to generate ATP.

NADH

what are the products of the pentose phosphate pathway?

NADPH, glycolytic intermediates, andribose 5 phosphate

Order the following from highest to lowest electron affinity NAD+, FAD, O2,CoQ

O2, CoQ, FAD, NAD+

a primary transcript is DNA/RNA.

RNA

Crown ethers (18-crown-6 shown below) are a family of compounds often used to aid in the crystallization of compounds bearing amine entities from cold, ether-type solvents. How do these compounds aid crystallization?

The crown ether saturates the hydrogen bonding capabilities of the amine, decreasing its interaction with the solvent.

centripetal force is what?

a force pointing to the center of a circle

what is an imine

a functional group it which there is a double bond between a nitrogen and a carbon

Ennui is what?

a mental state characterized by lethargy and apathy, often associated with depression; it is not a social effect

adding more electronegative atoms to a lewis acid/base and better electron donor groups to a lewis acid/base will result in a stronger bond.

acid, base.

the pentose phosphate pathway is more active in ________ tissue than muscle tissue.

adipose

what is ACTH and where is it made?

adrenocorticotropic hormone, anterior pituitary

supercritical fluid

any substance at a temperature and pressure above its critical point, where distinct liquid and gas phases do not exist

unreliable witness effect is what?

associated with eyewitnesses in court cases being unable to accurately and reliably recall the events they witnessed

The self-serving bias does what?

attributes success to internal factors and failure to external ones

The medulla oblongata controls what?

autonomic processes like respiration and heart rate

What are the units of the rate constant k for a second order reaction? A. 1/s B. 1/s2 C. L/(mol•s) D. L/(mol•s2)

c

constructive interference vs destructive interference

constructive makes it bigger, amplifies. Destructive goes against, flattens the wave.

amp unit

coulomb per second

acute rejection: time period, attributed to what cell and what type of immunity?

days to weeks, T-cell mediated response, cell mediated immunity

What occurs during the conversion of cysteine to taurine in the body?

decarboxylation

Exogenous corticosteroids would have what effect on the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis (what effect on CRH and ACTH) and why?

decrease in both CRH and ACTH because the exogenous drug provides negative feedback which inhibits the production of CRH and ACTH

Nucleophilicity trend

decreases across a period and increases going down the periodic table due to greater size and polarizability

connect the pairs: D,S,R,L

delete this its wrong

weak acids are more hydrophilic when _______and _________which means that you should use a dilute acid/base to make them this way.

deprotonated and charged, base

according to f = Av, flow rate is ?

directly proportional to flow speed if area is held constant

The catecholamine neurotransmitters are what?

dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine

sympathetic nervous system causes the release of epi/norepi

epi

What type of muscle is in the diaphragm? What are the effector neurotransmitters for the diaphragm? What is the diaphragm innervated by and where does this system/nerve originate and it what type of controls? Where does the diaphragm receive neural signals from?

only skeletal muscle, only acetylcholine, innervated by the phrenic nerve which originates both in the cerebral cortex (for voluntary breathing) and in the brain stem (for involuntary breathing), from the cerebral cortex and the brain stem.

what is the rate limiting enzyme in glycolysis

phosphofructokinase

In a nucleophilic addition we'd expect to see a (what bonds break and what bonds form)?

pi bond in the molecule break in order to form two new alpha bonds

what does beta mercaptoethanol do?

reduces disulfide bonds and irreversibly denatures proteins

The thalamus is involved in what?

relaying sensory and motor signals to and from the cortex and regulating sleep and consciousness

Learned helplessness occurs when ________.

repeated failure discourages further effort, even when circumstances change

what types of medications are used to treat asthma

short acting beta agonists (smooth muscle relaxant), glucocorticoids (steroids reduce inflammation), and mast cell stabilizers (help reduce the inflammatory response caused by mast cells degranulating and releasing histamine)

more volatile compounds have shorter/longer retention times in gas chromatography.

shorter

in size exclusion chromatography, what size is retained in the column the longest?

small molecules are retained longer than large molecules.

An object is placed in front of a concave mirror between the focal point and the mirror. If the object is then moved closer to the mirror, the image would be:

smaller and closer to the mirror

Social loafing theory states what?

that when we are members of a group, we work below our individual potential (individuals exert less effort when performing a group task than when they perform the same task independently)

theory of mind

the ability to attribute mental states—beliefs, intents, desires, emotions, knowledge, etc.—to oneself, and to others, and to understand that others have beliefs, desires, intentions, and perspectives that are different from one's own

Saponification is another way to describe ...?

the basic hydrolysis of ester bonds, typically in a triglyceride

Innate immunity refers to what and is/is not involved in acute organ rejection.

the general, non-specific protection the body provides (e.g., tears, skin, complement system) and IS NOT involved in acute rejection

The subcortical structure most involved in working memory is what?

the hippocampus

cells require more than ? the number of NAD+ electron carriers compared to FAD electron carriers, in order to harvest ATP from fatty acids

twice

What do southern blots do?

used to analyze extracted DNA for a potential DNA segment

reverse transcriptase PCR gives information on ____?western blots give information on ________?

what transcripts are present in a cell, protein expression

When is cAMP mediated protein kinase activity increased?

when G protein coupled receptors are bound and activated