MED SURG CHAPTER 67
A nurse is instructing the spouse of a client who suffered a stroke about the use of eating devices the client will be using. During the teaching, the spouse starts to cry and states, "One minute he is laughing, and the next he's crying; I just don't understand what's wrong with him." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
"Emotional lability is common after a stroke, and it usually improves with time." Explanation: This is the most therapeutic and informative response. Often, most relatives of clients with stroke handle the physical changes better than the emotional aspects of care. The family should be prepared to expect occasional episodes of emotional lability. The client may laugh or cry easily and may be irritable and demanding or depressed and confused. The nurse can explain to the family that the client's laughter does not necessarily connote happiness, nor does crying reflect sadness, and that emotional lability usually improves with time. The remaining responses are nontherapeutic and do not address the spouse's concerns.
The client with a cerebral aneurysm asks the nurse, "What's the big fuss over a headache?" Which is the best response from the nurse regarding to a cerebral aneurysm?
"Your physician wants to evaluate the location and condition of the aneurysm." Explanation: Keeping the client calm and quiet is an important aspect of care. Explaining the need for further evaluation is factual. The nurse should avoid saying "don't worry" or telling a client how to feel—this is not a therapeutic response. The aneurysm is growing or leaking are both inappropriate responses from a nurse and can lead to increased concern and anxiety for the client.
A client with hypercholesterolemia is receiving Lipitor (atorvastatin) to prevent high cholesterol and stroke. The order is for Lipitor 40 mg PO daily. The medication is supplied in 80 mg tabs. How many tabs will the nurse administer to the client? Enter the correct number ONLY.
0.5 Explanation: 40 mg/80 mg = 0.5 tabs.
A patient is admitted via ambulance to the emergency room of a stroke center at 1:30 p.m. with symptoms that the patient said began at 1:00 p.m. Within 1 hour, an ischemic stroke had been confirmed and the doctor ordered tPA. The nurse knows to give this drug no later than what time?
4:00 p.m. Explanation: Tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) must be given within 3 hours after symptom onset. Therefore, since symptom onset was 1:00 pm, the window of opportunity ends at 4:00 pm.
A 154-pound woman has been prescribed tPA (0.9 mg/kg) for an ischemic stroke. The nurse knows to give how many mg initially?
6.3 mg Explanation: A person who weighs 154 lbs weighs 70 kg. To calculate dosage, multiply 70 × 0.9 mg/kg = 63 mg. The nurse gives 10% (6.3 mg) over 1 minute
A nurse is assisting with a community screening for people at high risk for stroke. To which of the following clients would the nurse pay most attention?
A 60-year-old African-American man Explanation: The 60-year-old African-American man has three risk factors: gender, age, and race. African Americans have almost twice the incidence of first stroke compared with Caucasians.
A nurse is teaching a community group about modifiable and nonmodifiable risk factors for ischemic strokes. Which of the following is a risk factor that cannot be modified?
Advanced age Explanation: Modifiable risk factors for ischemic stroke include hypertension, atrial fibrillation, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, smoking, asymptomatic carotid stenosis, obesity, and excessive alcohol consumption. Nonmodifiable risk factors include advanced age, gender, and race
Which interventions would be recommended for a client with dysphagia? Select all that apply.
Assist the client with meals. Test the gag reflex before offering food or fluids. Allow ample time to eat. Explanation: Interventions for dysphagia include placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth, allowing ample time to eat, assisting the client with meals, and testing the client's gag reflex before offering food or fluids.
Which of the following is the most common side effect of tissue plasminogen activator (tPA)?
Bleeding Explanation: Bleeding is the most common side effect of tPA. The patient is closely monitored for bleeding (at IV insertion sites, gums, urine/stools, and intracranially by assessing changes in level of consciousness). Headache, increased ICP, and hypertension are not side effects of tPA
A patient presents to the emergency room with complaints of having an "exploding headache" for the last 2 hours. The patient is immediately seen by a triage nurse who suspects the patient is experiencing a stroke. Which of the following is a possible cause based on the characteristic symptom?
Cerebral aneurysm Explanation: A cerebral aneurysm is a type of hemorrhagic stroke that is characterized by an exploding headache.
A client has been diagnosed as having global aphasia. The nurse recognizes that the client will be unable to do perform which action?
Form understandable words and comprehend spoken words Explanation: Global aphasia is a combination of expressive and receptive aphasia and presents a tremendous challenge to the nurse to communicate effectively with the client. In receptive and expressive aphasia, the client is unable to form words that are understandable. The client who is unable to speak at all is referred to as mute.
Which disturbance results in loss of half of the visual field?
Homonymous hemianopsia Explanation: Homonymous hemianopsia (loss of half of the visual field) may occur from stroke and may be temporary or permanent. Double vision is documented as diplopia. Nystagmus is ocular bobbing and may be seen in multiple sclerosis. Anisocoria is unequal pupils.
The nurse practitioner advises a patient who is at high risk for a stroke to be vigilant in his medication regimen, to maintain a healthy weight, and to adopt a reasonable exercise program. This advice is based on research data that shows the most important risk factor for stroke is:
Hypertension Explanation: Hypertension is the most modifiable risk factor for either ischemic or hemorrhagic stroke. Unfortunately, it remains under-recognized and undertreated in most communities.
A client is receiving an IV infusion of mannitol (Osmitrol) after undergoing intracranial surgery to remove a brain tumor. To determine whether this drug is producing its therapeutic effect, the nurse should consider which finding most significant?
Increased urine output Explanation: The therapeutic effect of mannitol is diuresis, which is confirmed by an increased urine output. A decreased LOC and elevated blood pressure may indicate lack of therapeutic effectiveness. A decreased heart rate doesn't indicate that mannitol is effective.
Which is a contraindication for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)?
Intracranial hemorrhage Explanation: Intracranial hemorrhage, neoplasm, and aneurysm are contraindications for t-PA. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke, age 18 years or older, and a systolic blood pressure less than or equal to 185 mm Hg are eligibility criteria
Which are contraindications for the administration of tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)? Select all that apply.
Intracranial hemorrhage Major abdominal surgery within 10 days Explanation: Intracranial hemorrhage, neoplasm, aneurysm, and major surgical procedures within 14 days are contraindications to t-PA. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke, being 18 years of age or older, and a systolic BP less than or equal to 185 mm Hg are eligibility criteria.
A client is admitted with weakness, expressive aphasia, and right hemianopia. The brain MRI reveals an infarct. The nurse understands these symptoms to be suggestive of which of the following findings?
Left-sided cerebrovascular accident (CVA) Explanation: When the infarct is on the left side of the brain, the symptoms are likely to be on the right, and the speech is more likely to be involved. If the MRI reveals an infarct, TIA is no longer the diagnosis. There is not enough information to determine if the stroke is still evolving or is complete.
Which of the following is accurate regarding a hemorrhagic stroke?
Main presenting symptom is an "exploding headache." Explanation: One of hemorrhagic stroke's main presenting symptom is an "exploding headache." In ischemic stroke, functional recovery usually plateaus at 6 months; it may be caused by a large artery thrombosis and may have a presenting symptoms of numbness or weakness of the face
A patient is brought to the emergency department with a possible stroke. What initial diagnostic test for a stroke, usually performed in the emergency department, would the nurse prepare the patient for?
Noncontrast computed tomogram Explanation: The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is usually a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan. This should be performed within 25 minutes or less from the time the patient presents to the emergency department (ED) to determine if the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic (the category of stroke determines treatment).
Which is the initial diagnostic test for a stroke?
Noncontrast computed tomography Explanation: The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is nonconstrast computed tomography performed emergently to determine whether the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic. Further diagnostics include a carotid Doppler, electrocardiogram, and transcranial Doppler
The nurse is caring for a client with dysphagia. Which intervention would be contraindicated while caring for this client?
Placing food on the affected side of the mouth Explanation: Interventions for dysphagia include placing food on the unaffected side of the mouth, allowing ample time to eat, assisting the client with meals, and testing the client's gag reflex before offering food or fluids.
The nurse practitioner is able to correlate a patient's neurologic deficits with the location in the brain affected by ischemia or hemorrhage. For a patient with a left hemispheric stroke, the nurse would expect to see:
Right-sided paralysis. Explanation: A left hemispheric stroke will cause right-sided weakness or paralysis. Because upper motor neurons decussate, a disturbance on one side of the body can cause damage on the opposite side of the brain.
The nurse is caring for a patient having a hemorrhagic stroke. What position in the bed will the nurse maintain this patient?
Semi-Fowler's Explanation: The head of the bed is elevated 15 to 30 degrees (semi-Fowler's position) to promote venous drainage and decrease intracranial pressure.
An emergency department nurse is interviewing a client with signs of an ischemic stroke that began 2 hours ago. The client reports that she had a cholecystectomy 6 weeks ago and is taking digoxin, coumadin, and labetelol. This client is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy for which of the following reasons?
She is taking coumadin. Explanation: To be eligible for thrombolytic therapy, the client cannot be taking coumadin. Initiation of thrombolytic therapy must be within 3 hours in clients with ischemic stroke. The client is not eligible for thrombolytic therapy if she has had surgery within 14 days. Digoxin and labetelol do not prohibit thrombolytic therapy.
Which is a modifiable risk factor for transient ischemic attacks and ischemic strokes?
Smoking Explanation: Modifiable risk factors for TIAs and ischemic stroke include hypertension, type 1 diabetes, cardiac disease, smoking, and chronic alcoholism. Advanced age, gender, and race are nonmodifiable risk factors for stroke
A nurse is teaching a community class that those experiencing symptoms of ischemic stroke need to enter the medical system early. The primary reason for this is which of the following?
Thrombolytic therapy has a time window of only 3 hours. Explanation: Currently approved thrombolytic therapy for ischemic strokes has a treatment window of only 3 hours after the onset of symptoms. Urgency is needed on the part of the public for rapid entry into the medical system. The other three choices are related to hemorrhagic strokes.
Which of the following is the chief cause of intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH)?
Uncontrolled hypertension Explanation: Primary intracerebral hemorrhage (ICH) from a spontaneous rupture of small arteries or arterioles accounts for approximately 80% of hemorrhagic strokes and is caused chiefly by uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes, hypercholesterolemia, and migraine headaches are not a chief cause of ICH.
A client reports light-headedness, speech disturbance, and left-sided weakness lasting for several hours. The neurologist diagnosed a transient ischemic attack, which caused the client great concern. What would the nurse include during client education?
When symptoms cease, the client will return to presymptomatic state. Explanation: Impaired blood circulation can be caused by arteriosclerosis, cardiac disease, or diabetes. A TIA is a sudden, brief episode of neurologic impairment. Symptoms may disappear within 1 hour; some continue for as long as 1 day. One third of people who experience a TIA subsequently develop a stroke
A client diagnosed with a stroke is ordered to receive warfarin. Later, the nurse learns that the warfarin is contraindicated and the order is canceled. The nurse knows that the best alternative medication to give is
aspirin. Explanation: If warfarin is contraindicated, aspirin is the best option, although other medications may be used if both are contraindicated.
Which of the following is the initial diagnostic in suspected stroke?
Noncontrast computed tomography (CT) Explanation: An initial head CT scan will determine whether or not the patient is experiencing a hemorrhagic stroke. An ischemic infarction will not be readily visible on initial CT scan if it is performed within the first few hours after symptoms onset; however, evidence of bleeding will almost always be visible.
While providing information to a community group, the nurse tells them the primary initial symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke are:
Severe headache and early change in level of consciousness Explanation: The main presenting symptoms for ischemic stroke are numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body, confusion or change in mental status, and trouble speaking or understanding speech. Severe headache, vomiting, early change in level of consciousness, and seizures are early signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. Footdrop and external hip rotation can occur if a stroke victim is not turned or positioned correctly.
A stroke victim is experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. The nurse knows that brain damage has most likely occurred in which lobe?
Frontal Explanation: If damage has occurred to the frontal lobe, learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions may be impaired. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and a lack of motivation.
Which terms refers to blindness in the right or left half of the visual field in both eyes?
Homonymous hemianopsia Explanation: Homonymous hemianopsia occurs with occipital lobe tumors. Scotoma refers to a defect in vision in a specific area in one or both eyes. Diplopia refers to double vision or the awareness of two images of the same object occurring in one or both eyes. Nystagmus refers to rhythmic, involuntary movements or oscillations of the eyes.
A client is suspected of having had a stroke. Which is the initial diagnostic test for a stroke?
Noncontrast computed tomography Explanation: The initial diagnostic test for a stroke is usually a noncontrast computed tomography (CT) scan. This should be performed within 25 minutes or less from the time the client presents to the ED to determine whether the event is ischemic or hemorrhagic (the category of stroke determines treatment). Further diagnostics include a carotid Doppler, electrocardiogram, and transcranial Doppler.
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke. The nurse recognizes that which intervention is most important?
Maintaining a patent airway Explanation: Maintaining the airway is the most important nursing intervention. Immediate complications of a hemorrhagic stroke include cerebral hypoxia, decreased cerebral blood flow, and extension of the area of injury. Providing adequate oxygenation of blood to the brain minimizes cerebral hypoxia. Brain function depends on delivery of oxygen to the tissues. Administering supplemental oxygen and maintaining hemoglobin and hematocrit at acceptable levels will assist in maintaining tissue oxygenation. All other interventions are appropriate, but the airway takes priority. The head of the bed should be elevated to 30 degrees, monitoring the client because of the risk for seizures, and stool softeners are recommended to prevent constipation and straining, but these are not the most important interventions.
The nurse is providing information about strokes to a community group. Which of the following would the nurse identify as the primary initial symptoms of an ischemic stroke?
Weakness on one side of the body and difficulty with speech Explanation: The main presenting symptoms for an ischemic stroke are numbness or weakness of the face, arm, or leg, especially on one side of the body; confusion or change in mental status; and trouble speaking or understanding speech. Severe headache, vomiting, early change in level of consciousness, and seizures are early signs of a hemorrhagic stroke. Footdrop and external hip rotation are things that can occur if a stroke victim is not turned or positioned correctly
Which term will the nurse use when referring to blindness in the right or left half of the visual field in both eyes?
Homonymous hemianopsia Explanation: Homonymous hemianopsia occurs with occipital lobe tumors. Scotoma refers to a defect in vision in a specific area in one or both eyes. Diplopia refers to double vision or the awareness of two images of the same object occurring in one or both eyes. Nystagmus refers to rhythmic, involuntary movements or oscillations of the eyes.
The nurse is preparing to administer tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) to a patient who weighs 132 lb. The order reads 0.9 mg/kg t-PA. The nurse understands that 10% of the calculated dose is administered as an IV bolus over 1 minute, and the remaining dose (90%) is administered IV over 1 hour via an infusion pump. How many milligrams IV bolus over 1 minute will the nurse initially administer?
5.4 Explanation: The patient is weighed to determine the dose of t-PA. Typically two or more IV sites are established prior to administration of t-PA (one for the t-PA and the other for administration of IV fluids). The dosage for t-PA is 0.9 mg/kg, with a maximum dose of 90 mg. Of the calculated dose, 10% is administered as an IV bolus over 1 minute. The remaining dose (90%) is administered IV over 1 hour via an infusion pump. First, the nurse must convert the patient's weight to kilograms (132/2.2 = 60 kg), then multiply 0.9 mg × 60 kg = 54 mg. Next, the nurse figure out that 10% of 54 mg is 5.4 (54 ×.10). The nurse will initially administer 5.4 mgs IV bolus over 1 minute.
Which term refers to the failure to recognize familiar objects perceived by the senses?
Agnosia Explanation: Auditory agnosia is failure to recognize significance of sounds. Agraphia refers to disturbances in writing intelligible words. Apraxia refers to an inability to perform previously learned purposeful motor acts on a voluntary basis. Perseveration is the continued and automatic repetition of an activity, word, or phrase that is no longer appropriate
A client with a history of atrial fibrillation has experienced a TIA. In an effort to reduce the risk of cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse anticipates the priority medical treatment to include which of the following?
Anticoagulant therapy Explanation: Anticoagulant or antiplatelet therapy can prevent clot formation associated with cardiac dysrhythmias such as atrial fibrillation. Cholesterol-lowering drugs can be ordered if indicated to manage atherosclerosis. Prothrombin and international normalized ratio (INR) levels may be ordered to monitor therapeutic effects of anticoagulant therapy. Carotid endarterectomy would be anticipated only when the carotids have narrowing from plaque
The nurse is caring for a client with aphasia. Which strategy will the nurse use to facilitate communication with the client?
Establishing eye contact Explanation: The following strategies should be used by the nurse to encourage communication with a client with aphasia: face the client and establish eye contact, speak in your usual manner and tone, use short phrases, and pause between phrases to allow the client time to understand what is being said; limit conversation to practical and concrete matters; use gestures, pictures, objects, and writing; and as the client uses and handles an object, say what the object is. It helps to match the words with the object or action. Be consistent in using the same words and gestures each time you give instructions or ask a question, and keep extraneous noises and sounds to a minimum. Too much background noise can distract the client or make it difficult to sort out the message being spoken.
During assessment of cognitive impairment, post-stroke, the nurse documents that the patient was experiencing memory loss and impaired learning capacity. The nurse knows that brain damage has most likely occurred in which lobe?
Frontal Explanation: Frontal lobe damage results in impaired learning capacity, memory, and other higher cortical intellectual functions.
A physician orders several drugs for a client with hemorrhagic stroke. Which drug order should the nurse question?
Heparin sodium Explanation: Administering heparin, an anticoagulant, could increase the bleeding associated with hemorrhagic stroke. Therefore, the nurse should question this order to prevent additional hemorrhage in the brain. In a client with hemorrhagic stroke, the physician may use dexamethasone to decrease cerebral edema and pressure; methyldopa, to reduce blood pressure; and phenytoin, to prevent seizures.
A client has experienced an ischemic stroke that has damaged the lower motor neurons of the brain. Which of the following deficits would the nurse expect during assessment?
Lack of deep tendon reflexes Explanation: Damage to the occipital lobe can result in visual agnosia, whereas damage to the temporal lobe can cause auditory agnosia. If damage has occurred to the frontal lobe, learning capacity, memory, or other higher cortical intellectual functions may be impaired. Such dysfunction may be reflected in a limited attention span, difficulties in comprehension, forgetfulness, and lack of motivation. Damage to the lower motor neurons may cause decreased muscle tone, flaccid muscle paralysis, and a decrease in or loss of reflexes.
What clinical manifestations does the nurse recognize when a patient has had a right hemispheric stroke?
Left visual field deficit Explanation: A left visual field deficit is a common clinical manifestation of a right hemispheric stroke. Aphasia, slow, cautious behavior, and altered intellectual ability are all clinical manifestations of a left hemispheric stroke.
A patient who has suffered a stroke begins having complications regarding spasticity in the lower extremity. What ordered medication does the nurse administer to help alleviate this problem?
Lioresal (Baclofen) Explanation: Spasticity, particularly in the hand, can be a disabling complication after stroke. Botulinum toxin type A injected intramuscularly into wrist and finger muscles has been shown to be effective in reducing this spasticity (although the effect is temporary, typically lasting 2 to 4 months) (Teasell, Foley, Pereira, et al., 2012). Other treatments for spasticity may include stretching, splinting, and oral medications such as baclofen (Lioresal).
The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a subarachnoid hemorrhage resulting from a leaking aneurysm. The client is awaiting surgery. Which nursing interventions would be appropriate for the nurse to implement? Select all that apply.
Provide a dimly lit environment. Elevate the head of bed 30 degrees. Administer docusate per order. Explanation: Cerebral aneurysm precautions are implemented for the patient with a diagnosis of aneurysm to provide a nonstimulating environment, prevent increases in intracranial pressure (ICP), and prevent further bleeding. The patient is placed on immediate and absolute bed rest in a quiet, nonstressful environment, because activity, pain, and anxiety elevate blood pressure, which increases the risk for bleeding. Visitors, except for family, are restricted. Dim lighting is helpful because photophobia (visual intolerance of light) is common. The head of the bed is elevated 15 to 30 degrees to promote venous drainage and decrease ICP. No enemas are permitted, but stool softeners (Colace) and mild laxatives are prescribed. Both prevent constipation, which would cause an increase in ICP, as would enemas.
The nurse is providing diet-related advice to a male patient following a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). The patient wants to minimize the volume of food and yet meet all nutritional elements. Which of the following suggestions should the nurse give to the patient about controlling the volume of food intake?
Provide thickened commercial beverages and fortified cooked cereals. Explanation: Patients with CVA or other cerebrovascular disorders should lose weight and therefore should minimize their volume of food consumption. To ensure this, the nurse may provide thickened commercial beverages, fortified cooked cereals, or scrambled eggs. Patients should avoid eating high-fat foods, and serving foods hot or tepid will not minimize the volume consumed by the patient. Foods such as peanut butter, bread, tart foods, dry or crisp foods, and chewy meats should also be avoided because they cause choking.
A client's spouse relates how the client reported a severe headache and then was unable to talk or move their right arm and leg. After diagnostics are completed and the client is admitted to the hospital, when would basic rehabilitation begin?
immediately Explanation: Beginning basic rehabilitation during the acute phase is an important nursing function. Measures such as position changes and prevention of skin breakdown and contractures are essential aspects of care during the early phase of rehabilitation. The nursing goal is to prevent complications that may interfere with the client's potential to recover function.
A 64-year-old client reports symptoms consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA) to the physician in the emergency department. What is the origin of the client's symptoms?
impaired cerebral circulation Explanation: TIAs result from impaired blood circulation in the brain, which can be caused by atherosclerosis and arteriosclerosis, cardiac disease, hypertension, or diabetes.