med surg I- ch 24 (management of patients with COPD)

A 55-year-old client is scheduled for spirometry testing for evaluation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse

atelectasis

what is stage III of COPD

severe COPD

what is stage IV of COPD

very severe COPD

A child is having an asthma attack and the parent can't remember which inhaler to use for quick relief. The nurse accesses the child's medication information and tells the parent to use which inhalant?

Proventil Explanation: Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists (albuterol [AccuNeb, Proventil, Ventolin], levalbuterol [Xopenex HFA], and pirbuterol [Maxair]) are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. Cromolyn sodium (Crolom, NasalCrom) and nedocromil (Alocril, Tilade) are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. These medications are contraindicated in acute asthma exacerbations. Long-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists are not indicated for immediate relief of symptoms. These include theophylline (Slo-Bid, Theo- Dur) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus).

A patient is being treated for status asthmaticus. What danger sign does the nurse observe that can indicate impending respiratory failure?

Respiratory acidosis Explanation: In status asthmaticus, increasing PaCO2 (to normal levels or levels indicating respiratory acidosis) is a danger sign signifying impending respiratory failure.

A patient with cystic fibrosis is admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. When should the nurse administer the pancreatic enzymes that the patient has been prescribed?

with meals explanation: Nearly 90% of patients with cystic fibrosis have pancreatic exocrine insufficiency and require oral pancreatic enzyme supplementation with meals (Warwick & Elston, 2011).

A client has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Following a coughing episode, the client reports sudden and unrelieved shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most important for the nurse to assess?

lung sounds explanation: A client with COPD is at risk for developing pneumothorax. The description given is consistent with possible pneumothorax. Though the nurse will assess all the data, auscultating the lung sounds will provide the nurse with the information if the client has a pneumothorax.

what is stage I of COPD

mild COPD

what is stage II of COPD

moderate COPD

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) expresses a desire to quit smoking. The first appropriate response from the nurse is:

"Have you tried to quit smoking before?" explanation: All the options are appropriate statements; however, the nurse needs to assess the client's statement further. Assessment data include information about previous attempts to quit smoking.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cor pulmonale is being prepared for discharge. The nurse should provide which instruction?

"Weigh yourself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day." Explanation: The nurse should instruct the client to weigh himself daily and report a gain of 2 lb in 1 day. COPD causes pulmonary hypertension, leading to right-sided heart failure or cor pulmonale. The resultant venous congestion causes dependent edema. A weight gain may further stress the respiratory system and worsen the client's condition. The nurse should also instruct the client to eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention and engage in moderate exercise to avoid muscle atrophy.The client shouldn't smoke at all.

Upon assessment, the nurse suspects that a patient with COPD may have bronchospasm. What manifestations validate the nurse's concern? (Select all that apply.)

-Compromised gas exchange -Wheezes -Decreased airflow

Which of the following is accurate regarding status asthmaticus?

A severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy explanation: Status epilepticus is a severe asthma episode that is refractory to initial therapy. It is a medical emergency. Patients report rapid progressive chest tightness, wheezing, dry cough, and shortness of breath. It may occur with little or no warning.

A client is diagnosed with a chronic respiratory disorder. After assessing the client's knowledge of the disorder, the nurse prepares a teaching plan. This teaching plan is most likely to include which nursing diagnosis?

Anxiety

A client has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and is exhibiting shallow respirations of 32 breaths per minute, despite receiving nasal oxygen at 2 L/minute. To improve the client's shortness of breath, the nurse encourages the client to

Exhale slowly explanation: nurse encourages the client to perform pursed-lip breathing, which includes exhaling slowly.

The nurse has instructed the client to use a peak flow meter. The nurse evaluates client learning as satisfactory when the client

Exhales hard and fast with a single blow explanation: To use a peak flow meter, the client stands. Then the client takes a deep breath and exhales hard and fast with a single blow. The client repeats this twice and records a "personal best" in an asthma diary.

A nurse consulting with a nutrition specialist knows it's important to consider a special diet for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which diet is appropriate for this client?

High-protein explanation: Breathing is more difficult for clients with COPD, and increased metabolic demand puts them at risk for nutritional deficiencies. These clients must have a high intake of protein for increased calorie consumption. Full liquids, 1,800-calorie ADA, and low-fat diets aren't appropriate for a client with COPD.

In which stage of COPD is the forced expiratory volume (FEV) less than 30%?

III explanation: Stage III patients demonstrate an FEV less than 30% with respiratory failure or clinical signs of right heart failure. Stage II patients demonstrate an FEV of 30% to 80%. Stage I is mild COPD with an FEV less than 70%. Stage 0 is characterized by normal spirometry.

Asthma is cause by which type of response?

IgE-mediated explanation: Atopy, the genetic predisposition for the development of an IgE-mediated response to allergens, is the most common identifiable predisposing factor for asthma. Chronic exposure to airway allergens may sensitize IgE antibodies and the cells of the airway.

A patient with bronchiectasis is admitted to the nursing unit. The primary focus of nursing care for this patient includes which of the following?

Implementing measures to clear pulmonary secretions

A nurse is assisting a client with mild chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to set a goal related to the condition. Which of the following is an appropriate goal for this client?

Increase walking distance around a city block without shortness of breath. explanation: If the client has mild COPD, goals are to increase exercise and prevent further loss of pulmonary function. The client who increases his walking distance without shortness of breath meets these criteria. If the client has severe COPD, goals are then to preserve current pulmonary function and relieve symptoms as much as possible. Examples of these goals are the other options, in which the activity level is at current and symptoms are relieved to tolerable or close to tolerable.

A client has intermittent asthma attacks. Which of the following therapies does the nurse teach the client to use at home when experiencing an asthma attack?

Inhaled albuterol (Ventolin)

A client with symptoms of mild persistent asthma is now initiating treatment. Which of the following is the preferred therapy that the nurse will teach the client to use at home?

Inhaled beclomethasone (Beconase) explanation: For mild persistent asthma, the preferred treatment is an inhaled corticosteroid, such as beclomethasone. The other medications are for long-term control, prevention, or both in moderate to severe persistent asthma.

The nurse is assigned to care for a patient with COPD with hypoxemia and hypercapnia. When planning care for this patient, what does the nurse understand is the main goal of treatment?

Providing sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation explanation: The main objective in treating patients with hypoxemia and hypercapnia is to give sufficient oxygen to improve oxygenation.

In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), decreased carbon dioxide elimination results in increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood, leading to which of the following acid-base imbalances?

Respiratory acidosis explanation: Increased carbon dioxide tension in arterial blood leads to respiratory acidosis and chronic respiratory failure. In acute illness, worsening hypercapnia can lead to acute respiratory failure. The other acid-base imbalances would not correlate with COPD.

A nurse administers albuterol (Proventil), as ordered, to a client with emphysema. Which finding indicates that the drug is producing a therapeutic effect?

Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute

A patient comes to the clinic for the third time in 2 months with chronic bronchitis. What clinical symptoms does the nurse anticipate assessing for this patient?

Sputum and a productive cough

To help prevent infections in clients with COPD, the nurse should recommend vaccinations against two bacterial organisms. Which of the following are the two vaccinations?

Streptococcus pneumonia and Haemophilus influenzae explanation: Clients with COPD are more susceptible to respiratory infections, so they should be encouraged to receive the influenza and pneumococcal vaccines. Clients with COPD aren't at high risk for varicella or hepatitis B. The HPV vaccine is to guard against cervical cancer and is recommended only for females ages 9 to 26 years.

Emphysema is described by which of the following statements?

a disease characterized by the destruction of the walls overextended alveoli

A physician orders a beta2 adrenergic-agonist agent (bronchodilator) that is short-acting and administered only by inhaler. The nurse knows this would probably be

albuterol explanation: Short-acting beta2-adrenergic agonists include albuterol, levalbuterol, and pirbuterol. They are the medications of choice for relief of acute symptoms and prevention of exercise-induced asthma. They are used to relax smooth muscle.

The nurse should be alert for a complication of bronchiectasis that results from a combination of retained secretions and obstruction and that leads to the collapse of alveoli. What complication should the nurse monitor for?

ateletasis explanation: In bronchiectasis, the retention of secretions and subsequent obstruction ultimately cause the alveoli distal to the obstruction to collapse (atelectasis).

Which of the following is a leading cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation?

bronchitis explanation: A wide range of viral, bacterial, and mycoplasmal infections can produce acute episodes of bronchitis, a leading cause of exacerbations. Pneumonia, the common cold, and asthma are not leading causes of exacerbations.

A client has asthma. Which of the following medications is a commonly prescribed mast cell stabilizer used for asthma?

cromolyn sodium explanation: Cromolyn sodium and nedocromil are mild to moderate anti-inflammatory agents and are considered alternative medications for treatment. These medications stabilize mast cells. Albuterol is a long-acting beta2-antagonist. Budesonide is an inhaled corticosteroid. Theophylline is a mild to moderate bronchodilator. P: 639

A nurse is assisting with a subclavian vein central line insertion when the client's oxygen saturation drops rapidly. He complains of shortness of breath and becomes tachypneic. The nurse suspects the client has developed a pneumothorax. Further assessment findings supporting the presence of a pneumothorax include:

diminished or absent breath sounds on the affected side.

A junior-level nursing class has just finished learning about the management of clients with chronic pulmonary diseases. They learned that a new definition of COPD leaves only one disorder within its classification. Which of the following is that disorder?

empysema

Which of the following exposures accounts for most of the risk factors for COPD?

exposure to tobacco smoke explanation: . Occupational exposure, passive smoking, and ambient air pollution are risk factors, but they do not account for most cases.

Histamine, a mediator that supports the inflammatory process in asthma, is secreted by

mast cells explanation: Mast cells, neutrophils, eosinophils, and lymphocytes play key roles in the inflammation associated with asthma.