Med surg success respiratory disorders

51. The nurse is discussing cancer statistics with a group from the community. Which information about death rates from lung cancer is accurate?

2. Lung cancers are responsible for almost twice as many deaths among males as any other cancer and more deaths than breast cancer in females.

68. The nurse is writing a care plan for a client newly diagnosed with cancer of the larynx. Which problem is the highest priority? 1. Wound infection. 2. Hemorrhage. 3. Respiratory distress. 4. Knowledge deficit.

3. Respiratory distress is the highest priority. Hemorrhaging and infection are serious problems, but airway is priority.

27. The nurse is assessing the client diagnosed with COPD. Which data require immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. Large amounts of thick white sputum. 2. Oxygen flowmeter set on eight (8) liters. 3. Use of accessory muscles during inspiration. 4. Presence of a barrel chest and dyspnea.

2. The nurse should decrease the oxygen rate to two (2) to three (3) liters. Hypoxemia is the stimulus for breathing in the client with COPD. If the hypoxemia improves and the oxygen level increases, the drive to breathe may be eliminated.

28. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with COPD. Which outcome requires a revision in the plan of care? 1. The client has no signs of respiratory distress. 2. The client shows an improved respiratory pattern. 3. The client demonstrates intolerance to activity. 4. The client participates in establishing goals.

3. The expected outcome should be that the client has tolerance for activity; because the client is not meeting the expected outcome, the plan of care needs revision.

38. The nurse is planning the care of a client diagnosed with asthma and has written a problem of "anxiety." Which nursing intervention should be implemented? 1. Remain with the client. 2. Notify the health-care provider. 3. Administer an anxiolytic medication. 4. Encourage the client to drink fluids.

38. 1. Anxiety is an expected sequela of being unable to meet the oxygen needs of the body. Staying with the client lets the client know the nurse will intervene and the client is not alone.

67. The charge nurse is assigning clients for the shift. Which client should be assigned to the new graduate nurse? 1. The client diagnosed with cancer of the lung who has chest tubes. 2. The client diagnosed with laryngeal spasms who has stridor. 3. The client diagnosed with laryngeal cancer who has multiple fistulas. 4. The client who is two (2) hours post-partial laryngectomy.

1. Chest tubes are part of the nursing education curriculum. The newgraduate should be capable of caring for this client or at least knowing when to get assistance.

15. The nurse in a long-term care facility is planning the care for a client with a percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) feeding tube. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Inspect the insertion line at the naris prior to instilling formula. 2. Elevate the head of the bed after feeding the client. 3. Place the client in the Sims position following each feeding. 4. Change the dressing on the feeding tube every three (3) days.

2. Elevating the head of the bed uses gravity to keep the formula in the gastric cavity and help prevent it from refluxing into the esophagus, which predisposes the client to aspiration.

12. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a cold. Which is an example of an alternative therapy? 1. Vitamin C, 2,000 mg daily. 2. Strict bedrest. 3. Humidification of the air. 4. Decongestant therapy.

12. 1. Alternative therapies are therapies not accepted as standard medical practice. These may be encouraged as long as they do not interfere with the medical regimen. Vitamin C in large doses is thought to improve the immune system's functions.

19. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? Select all that apply. 1. Place the client on oxygen delivered by nasal cannula. 2. Plan for periods of rest during activities of daily living. 3. Place the client on a fluid restriction of 1,000 mL/day. 4. Restrict the client's smoking to two (2) to three (3) cigarettes per day. 5. Monitor the client's pulse oximetry readings every four (4) hours.

19. 1. The client diagnosed with pneumonia will have some degree of gas-exchange deficit. Administering oxygen would help the client. 2. Activities of daily living require energy and therefore oxygen consumption. Spacing the activities allows the client to rebuild oxygen reserves between activities. 5. Pulse oximetry readings provide the nurse with an estimate of oxygenation in the periphery.

17. The 56-year-old client diagnosed with tuberculosis (Tb) is being discharged. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the discharge instructions? 1. "I will take my medication for the full three (3) weeks prescribed." 2. "I must stay on the medication for months if I am to get well." 3. "I can be around my friends because I have started taking antibiotics." 4. "I should get a Tb skin test every three (3) months to determine if I am well."

2 Compliance with treatment plans for Tb includes multidrug therapy for six(6) months to one (1) year for the

5. The client diagnosed with tonsillitis is scheduled to have surgery in the morning. Which assessment data should the nurse notify the health-care provider about prior to surgery? 1. The client has a hemoglobin of 12.2 g/dL and hematocrit of 36.5%. 2. The client has an oral temperature of 100.2˚F and a dry cough. 3. There are one (1) to two (2) white blood cells in the urinalysis. 4. The client's current international normalized ratio (INR) is 1.0.

2. A low-grade temperature and a cough could indicate the presence of an infection, in which case the health-care provider would not want to subject the client to anesthesia and the possibility of further complications. The surgery would be postponed.

92. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse the chest tubes inserted three (3) days ago have been effective in treating the client with a hemothorax? 1. Gentle bubbling in the suction compartment. 2. No fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal compartment. 3. The drainage compartment has 250 mL of blood 4. The client is able to deep breathe without any pain.

2. At three (3) days postinsertion, no fluctuation (tidaling) indicates the lung has reexpanded, which indicates the treatment has been effective.

47. The nurse is discussing the care of a child diagnosed with asthma with the parent. Which referral is important to include in the teaching? 1. Referral to a dietitian. 2. Referral for allergy testing. 3. Referral to the developmental psychologist. 4. Referral to a home health nurse.

2. Because asthma can be a reaction to an allergen, it is important to determine which substances may trigger an attack.

11. Which task is most appropriate for the nurse to delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? 1. Feed a client who is postoperative tonsillectomy the first meal of clear liquids. 2. Encourage the client diagnosed with a cold to drink a glass of orange juice. 3. Obtain a throat culture on a client diagnosed with bacterial pharyngitis. 4. Escort the client diagnosed with laryngitis outside to smoke a cigarette.

2. Clients with colds are encouraged to drink 2,000 mL of liquids a day. The UAP could do this.

40. The client is diagnosed with mild intermittent asthma. Which medication should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Daily inhaled corticosteroids. 2. Use of a "rescue inhaler." 3. Use of systemic steroids. 4. Leukotriene agonists.

2. Clients with intermittent asthma will have exacerbations treated with rescue inhalers. Therefore, the nurse should teach the client about rescue inhalers.

54. The client diagnosed with lung cancer is in an investigational program and receiving a vaccine to treat the cancer. Which information regarding investigational regimens should the nurse teach? 1. Investigational regimens provide a better chance of survival for the client. 2. Investigational treatments have not been proven to be helpful to clients. 3. Clients will be paid to participate in an investigational program. 4. Only clients who are dying qualify for investigational treatments.

2. Investigational treatments are just that—treatments being investigated to determine if they are effective in the care of clients diagnosed with cancer. There is no guarantee the treatments will help the client.

69. The male client has had a radial neck dissection for cancer of the larynx. Which action by the client indicates a disturbance in body image? 1. The client requests a consultation by the speech therapist. 2. The client has a towel placed over the mirror. 3. The client is attempting to shave himself. 4. The client practices neck and shoulder exercises.

2. Placing a towel over the mirror indicates the client is having difficulty looking at his reflection, a body-image problem.

84. The client is getting out of bed and becomes very anxious and has a feeling of impending doom. The nurse thinks the client may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Administer oxygen 10 L via nasal cannula. 2. Place the client in high Fowler's position. 3. Obtain a STAT pulse oximeter reading. 4. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.

2. Placing the client in this position facilitates maximal lung expansion and reduces venous return to the right side of the heart, thus lowering pressures in the pulmonary vascular system.

42. The client diagnosed with asthma is admitted to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and a blue color around the mouth. Which diagnostic test will be ordered to determine the status of the client? 1. Complete blood count. 2. Pulmonary function test. 3. Allergy skin testing. 4. Drug cortisol level.

2. Pulmonary function test are completed to determine the forced vital capacity (FVC), the forced expiratory capacity in the first second (FEV1 ), and the peak expiratory flow (PEF). A decline in the FVC, FEV1 , and PEF indicates respiratory compromise.

9. The client diagnosed with influenza A is being discharged from the emergency department with a prescription for antibiotics. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of this prescription? 1. "These pills will make me feel better fast and I can return to work." 2. "The antibiotics will help prevent me from developing a bacterial pneumonia." 3. "If I had gotten this prescription sooner, I could have prevented this illness." 4. "I need to take these pills until I feel better; then I can stop taking the rest."

2. Secondary bacterial infections often accompany influenza, and antibiotics are often prescribed to help prevent the development of a bacterial infection.

88. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assists the client with a chest tube to ambulate to the bathroom. Which situation warrants immediate intervention from the nurse? 1. The UAP keeps the chest tube below chest level. 2. The UAP has the chest tube attached to suction. 3. The UAP allowed the client out of the bed. 4. The UAP uses a bedside commode for the client.

2. The chest tube system can function as a result of gravity and does not have to be attached to suction. Keeping it attached to suction could cause the client to trip and fall. Therefore, this is a safety issue and the nurse should intervene and explain this to the UAP.

72. The client who has undergone a radical neck dissection and tracheostomy for cancer of the larynx is being discharged. Which discharge instructions should the nurse teach? Select all that apply. 1. The client will be able to speak again after the surgery area has healed. 2. The client should wear a protective covering over the stoma when showering. 3. The client should clean the stoma and then apply a petroleum-based ointment. 4. The client should use a humidifier in the room. 5. The client can get a special telephone for communication.

2. The client breathes through a stoma in the neck. Care should be taken not to allow water to enter the stoma. 4. The client has lost the use of the nasal passages to humidify the inhaled air, and artificial humidification is useful until the client's body adapts to the change. 5. Special equipment is available for clients who cannot hear or speak.

33. The nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) removing the nasal cannula from the client diagnosed with COPD while ambulating the client to the bathroom. Which action should the nurse implement? 1. Praise the UAP since this prevents the client from tripping on the oxygen tubing. 2. Place the oxygen back on the client while sitting in the bathroom and say nothing. 3. Explain to the UAP in front of the client oxygen must be left in place at all times. 4. Discuss the UAP's action with the charge nurse so appropriate action can be taken.

2. The client needs the oxygen, and the nurse should not correct the UAP in front of the client; it is embarrassing for the UAP and the client loses confidence in the staff.

63. The client is three (3) days post-partial laryngectomy. Which type of nutrition should the nurse offer the client? 1. Total parenteral nutrition. 2. Soft, regular diet. 3. Partial parenteral nutrition. 4. Clear liquid diet.

2. The client should be eating normal foods by this time. The consistency should be soft to allow for less chewing of the food and easier swallowing because a portion of the throat musculature has been removed. The client should be taught to turn the head toward the affected side when swallowing to help prevent aspiration.

95. The alert and oriented client is diagnosed with a spontaneous pneumothorax, and the health care provider is preparing to insert a left-sided chest tube. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Gather the needed supplies for the procedure. 2. Obtain a signed informed consent form. 3. Assist the client into a side-lying position. 4. Discuss the procedure with the client.

2. The insertion of a chest tube is an invasive procedure and requires informed consent. Without a consent form, this procedure should not be done on an alert and oriented client.

75. Which nursing assessment data support that the client has experienced a pulmonary embolism? 1. Calf pain with dorsiflexion of the foot. 2. Sudden onset of chest pain and dyspnea. 3. Left-sided chest pain and diaphoresis. 4. Bilateral crackles and low-grade fever.

2. The most common signs of a pulmonary embolism are sudden onset of chest pain when taking a deep breath and shortness of breath.

46. The client diagnosed with restrictive airway disease (asthma) has been prescribed a glucocorticoid inhaled medication. Which information should the nurse teach regarding this medication? 1. Do not abruptly stop taking this medication; it must be tapered off. 2. Immediately rinse the mouth following administration of the drug. 3. Hold the medication in the mouth for 15 seconds before swallowing. 4. Take the medication immediately when an attack starts.

2. The steroids must pass through the oral cavity before reaching the lungs. Allowing the medication to stay within the oral cavity will suppress the normal flora found there, and the client could develop a yeast infection of the mouth (oral candidiasis).

93. The nurse is caring for a client with a right-sided chest tube secondary to a pneumothorax. Which interventions should the nurse implement when caring for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Place the client in the low Fowler's position. 2. Assess chest tube drainage system frequently. 3. Maintain strict bedrest for the client. 4. Secure a loop of drainage tubing to the sheet. 5. Observe the site for subcutaneous emphysema.

2. The system must be patent and intact to function properly. 4. Looping the tubing prevents direct pressure on the chest tube itself and keeps tubing off the floor, addressing both a safety and a potential clogging of the tube. 5. Subcutaneous emphysema is air under the skin, which is a common occurrence at the chest tube insertion site.

79. The nurse identified the client problem "decreased cardiac output" for the client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Monitor the client's arterial blood gases. 2. Assess skin color and temperature. 3. Check the client for signs of bleeding. 4. Keep the client in the Trendelenburg position.

2. These assessment data monitor tissue perfusion, which evaluates for decreased cardiac output.

58. The client is four (4) hours post-lobectomy for cancer of the lung. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. The client has an intake of 1,500 mL IV and an output of 1,000 mL. 2. The client has 450 mL of bright-red drainage in the chest tube. 3. The client is complaining of pain at a "10" on a 1-to-10 scale. 4. The client has absent lung sounds on the side of the surgery.

2. This is about a pint of blood loss and could indicate the client is hemorrhaging.

20. The nurse is feeding a client diagnosed with aspiration pneumonia who becomes dyspneic, begins to cough, and is turning blue. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Suction the client's nares. 2. Turn the client to the side. 3. Place the client in Trendelenburg position. 4. Notify the health-care provider.

2. Turning the client to the side allows for the food to be coughed up and come out of the mouth, rather than be aspirated into the lungs.

Chest Trauma 85. The client is admitted to the emergency department with chest trauma. Which signs/symptoms indicate to the nurse the diagnosis of pneumothorax? 1. Bronchovesicular lung sounds and bradypnea. 2. Unequal lung expansion and dyspnea. 3. Frothy, bloody sputum and consolidation. 4. Barrel chest and polycythemia.

2. Unequal lung expansion and dyspnea indicate a pneumothorax.

23. The nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) entering an airborne isolation room and leaving the door open. Which action is the nurse's best response? 1. Close the door and discuss the UAP's action after coming out of the room. 2. Make the UAP come back outside the room and then reenter, closing the door. 3. Say nothing to the UAP but report the incident to the nursing supervisor. 4. Enter the client's room and discuss the matter with the UAP immediately.

23. 1. Closing the door reestablishes the negative air pressure, which prevents the air from entering the hall and contaminating the hospital environment. When correcting an individual, it is always best to do so in a private manner.

24. The client is admitted to a medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse assess in the client? 1. Pleuritic chest discomfort and anxiety. 2. Asymmetrical chest expansion and pallor. 3. Leukopenia and CRT <three (3) seconds. 4. Substernal chest pain and diaphoresis.

24. 1. Pleuritic chest pain and anxiety from diminished oxygenation occur along with fever, chills, dyspnea, and cough.

26. The client diagnosed with an exacerbation of COPD is in respiratory distress. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Assist the client into a sitting position at 90 degrees. 2. Administer oxygen at six (6) LPM via nasal cannula. 3. Monitor vital signs with the client sitting upright. 4. Notify the health-care provider about the client's status.

26. 1. The client should be assisted into a sitting position either on the side of the bed or in the bed. This position decreases the work of breathing. Some clients find it easier sitting on the side of the bed leaning over the bed table. The nurse needs to maintain the client's safety.

3. Which information should the nurse teach the client diagnosed with acute sinusitis? 1. Instruct the client to complete all the ordered antibiotics. 2. Teach the client how to irrigate the nasal passages. 3. Have the client demonstrate how to blow the nose. 4. Give the client samples of a narcotic analgesic for the headache.

3. 1. The client should be taught to take all antibiotics as ordered. Discontinuing antibiotics prior to the full dose results in the development of antibioticresistant bacteria. Sinus infections are difficult to treat and may become chronic, and will then require several weeks of therapy or possibly surgery to control.

1. The home health-care nurse is talking on the telephone to a male client diagnosed with hypertension and hears the client sneezing. The client tells the nurse he has been blowing his nose frequently. Which question should the nurse ask the client? 1. "Have you had the flu shot in the last two (2) weeks?" 2. "Are there any small children in the home?" 3. "Are you taking over-the-counter medicine for these symptoms?" 4. "Do you have any cold sores associated with your sneezing?"

3. A client diagnosed with hypertension should not take many of the over-thecounter medications because they work by causing vasoconstriction, which will increase the hypertension.

61. The nurse is admitting a client with a diagnosis of rule-out cancer of the larynx. Which information should the nurse teach? 1. Demonstrate the proper method of gargling with normal saline. 2. Perform voice exercises for 30 minutes three (3) times a day. 3. Explain that a lighted instrument will be placed in the throat to biopsy the area. 4. Teach the client to self-examine the larynx monthly.

3. A laryngoscopy will be performed to allow for visualization of the vocal cords and to obtain a biopsy for pathological diagnosis.

83. The nurse is preparing to administer medications to the following clients. Which medication should the nurse question administering? 1. The oral coagulant warfarin (Coumadin) to the client with an INR of 1.9. 2. Regular insulin to a client with a blood glucose level of 218 mg/dL. 3. Hang the heparin bag on a client with a PT/PTT of 12.9/98. 4. A calcium channel blocker to the client with a BP of 112/82.

3. A normal PTT is 39 seconds, and for heparin to be therapeutic, it should be 1.5 to 2 times the normal value, or 58 to 78. A PTT of 98 indicates the client is not clotting and the medication should be held.

21. The day shift charge nurse on a medical unit is making rounds after report. Which client should be seen first? 1. The 65-year-old client diagnosed with tuberculosis who has a sputum specimen to be sent to the lab. 2. The 76-year-old client diagnosed with aspiration pneumonia who has a clogged feeding tube. 3. The 45-year-old client diagnosed with pneumonia who has a pulse oximetry reading of 92%. 4. The 39-year-old client diagnosed with bronchitis who has an arterial oxygenation level of 89%.

3. A pulse oximetry reading of 92% means that the arterial blood oxygen saturation is somewhere around 60% to 70%.

78. The nurse is preparing to administer the oral anticoagulant warfarin (Coumadin) to a client who has a PT/PTT of 22/39 and an INR of 2.8. What action should the nurse implement? 1. Assess the client for abnormal bleeding. 2. Prepare to administer vitamin K (AquaMephyton). 3. Administer the medication as ordered. 4. Notify the HCP to obtain an order to increase the dose.

3. A therapeutic INR is 2 to 3; therefore, the nurse should administer the medication.

98. The client diagnosed with ARDS is transferred to the intensive care department and placed on a ventilator. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Confirm that the ventilator settings are correct. 2. Verify that the ventilator alarms are functioning properly. 3. Assess the respiratory status and pulse oximeter reading. 4. Monitor the client's arterial blood gas results.

3. Assessment is the first part of the nursing process and is the first intervention the nurse should implement when caring for a client on a ventilator.

101. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse the client diagnosed with ARDS has experienced a complication secondary to the ventilator? 1. The client's urine output is 100 mL in four (4) hours. 2. The pulse oximeter reading is greater than 95%. 3. The client has asymmetrical chest expansion. 4. The telemetry reading shows sinus tachycardia.

3. Asymmetrical chest expansion indicates the client has had a pneumothorax, which is a complication of mechanical ventilation.

52. The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which information provided by the UAP warrants immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. The client diagnosed with cancer of the lung has a small amount of blood in the sputum collection cup. 2. The client diagnosed with chronic emphysema is sitting on the side of the bed and leaning over the bedside table. 3. The client receiving Procrit, a biologic response modifier, has a T 99.2˚F, P 68, R 24, and BP of 198/102. 4. The client receiving prednisone, a steroid, is complaining of an upset stomach after eating breakfast.

3. Biologic response modifiers stimulate the bone marrow and can increase the client's blood pressure to dangerous levels. This BP is high and warrants immediate attention.

Reactive Airway Disease (Asthma) 37. The nurse is completing the admission assessment on a 13-year-old client diagnosed with an acute exacerbation of asthma. Which signs and symptoms would the nurse expect to find? 1. Fever and crepitus. 2. Rales and hives. 3. Dyspnea and wheezing. 4. Normal chest shape and eupnea.

3. During an asthma attack, the muscles surrounding the bronchioles constrict, causing a narrowing of the bronchioles. The lungs then respond with the production of secretions that further narrow the lumen. The resulting symptoms include wheezing from air passing through the narrow, clogged spaces, and dyspnea.

18. The employee health nurse is administering tuberculin skin testing to employees who have possibly been exposed to a client with active tuberculosis (Tb). Which statement indicates the need for radiological evaluation instead of skin testing? 1. The client's first skin test indicates a purple flat area at the site of injection. 2. The client's second skin test indicates a red area measuring four (4) mm. 3. The client's previous skin test was read as positive. 4. The client has never shown a reaction to the tuberculin medication.

3. If the client has ever reacted positively, then the client should have a chest x-ray to look for causation and inflammation.

4. The client has been diagnosed with chronic sinusitis. Which sign/symptom alerts the nurse to a potentially life-threatening complication? 1. Muscle weakness. 2. Purulent sputum. 3. Nuchal rigidity. 4. Intermittent loss of muscle control.

3. Nuchal rigidity is a sign/symptom of meningitis, which is a life-threatening potential complication of sinusitis resulting from the close proximity of the sinus cavities to the meninges.

55. The nursing staff on an oncology unit are interviewing applicants for the unit manager position. Which type of organizational structure does this represent? 1. Centralized decision making. 2. Decentralized decision making. 3. Shared governance. 4. Pyramid with filtered-down decisions.

3. Shared governance is a system where the staff is empowered to make decisions such as scheduling and hiring of certain staff. Staff members are encouraged to participate in developing policies and procedures to reach set goals.

34. Which clinical manifestation should the nurse expect to assess in the client recently diagnosed with COPD? 1. Clubbing of the client's fingers. 2. Infrequent respiratory infections. 3. Chronic sputum production. 4. Nonproductive hacking cough.

3. Sputum production, along with cough and dyspnea on exertion, are the early signs/symptoms of COPD.

Which referral is most appropriate for a client diagnosed with end-stage COPD? 1. The Asthma Foundation of America. 2. The American Cancer Society. 3. The American Lung Association. 4. The American Heart Association.

3. The American Lung Association has information helpful for a client with COPD.

59. The client is admitted to the outpatient surgery center for a bronchoscopy to rule out cancer of the lung. Which information should the nurse teach? 1. The test will confirm the results of the MRI. 2. The client can eat and drink immediately after the test. 3. The HCP can do a biopsy of the tumor through the scope. 4. There is no discomfort associated with this procedure.

3. The HCP can take biopsies and perform a washing of the lung tissue for pathological diagnosis during the procedure.

65. The client has had a total laryngectomy. Which referral is specific for this surgery? 1. CanSurmount. 2. Dialogue. 3. Lost Chord Club. 4. SmokEnders.

3. The Lost Chord Club is an American Cancer Society-sponsored group of survivors of larynx cancer. These clients are able to discuss the feelings and needs of clients who have had laryngectomies because they have all had this particular surgery.

86. The client had a right-sided chest tube inserted two (2) hours ago for a pneumothorax. Which action should the nurse implement if there is no fluctuation (tidaling) in the water-seal compartment? 1. Obtain an order for a STAT chest x-ray. 2. Increase the amount of wall suction. 3. Check the tubing for kinks or clots. 4. Monitor the client's pulse oximeter reading.

3. The key to the answer is "2 hours." The air from the pleural space is not able to get to the water-seal compartment, and the nurse should try to determine why. Usually the client is lying on the tube, it is kinked, or there is a dependent loop.

76. The client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus is in the intensive care unit. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention from the nurse? 1. The client's ABGs are pH 7.36, PaO2 95, PaCO2 38, HCO3 24. 2. The client's telemetry exhibits occasional premature ventricular contractions. 3. The client's pulse oximeter reading is 90%. 4. The client's urinary output for the 12-hour shift is 800 mL.

3. The normal pulse oximeter reading is 93% to 100%. A reading of 90% indicates the client has an arterial oxygen level of around 60.

8. The charge nurse on a surgical floor is making assignments. Which client should be assigned to the most experienced registered nurse (RN)? 1. The 36-year-old client who has undergone an antral irrigation for sinusitis yesterday and has moderate pain. 2. The six (6)-year-old client scheduled for a tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy this morning who will not swallow medication. 3. The 18-year-old client who had a Caldwell-Luc procedure three (3) days ago and has purulent drainage on the drip pad. 4. The 45-year-old client diagnosed with a peritonsillar abscess who requires IVPB antibiotic therapy four (4) times a day.

3. The postoperative client with purulent drainage could be developing an infection. The experienced nurse would be needed to assess and monitor the client's condition.

90. The nurse is presenting a class on chest tubes. Which statement best describes a tension pneumothorax? 1. A tension pneumothorax develops when an air-filled bleb on the surface of the lung ruptures. 2. When a tension pneumothorax occurs, the air moves freely between the pleural space and the atmosphere. 3. The injury allows air into the pleural space but prevents it from escaping from the pleural space. 4. A tension pneumothorax results from a puncture of the pleura during a central line placement.

3. This describes a tension pneumothorax. It is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention to preserve life.

16. The client diagnosed with a community-acquired pneumonia is being admitted to the medical unit. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority? 1. Administer the ordered oral antibiotic STAT. 2. Order the meal tray to be delivered as soon as possible. 3. Obtain a sputum specimen for culture and sensitivity. 4. Have the unlicensed assistive personnel weigh the client.

3. To determine the antibiotic that will effectively treat an infection, specimens for culture are taken prior to beginning the medication. Administering antibiotics prior to cultures may make it impossible to determine the actual agent causing the pneumonia.

45. The client diagnosed with exercise-induced asthma (EIA) is being discharged. Which information should the nurse include in the discharge teaching? 1. Take two (2) puffs on the rescue inhaler and wait five (5) minutes before exercise. 2. Warm-up exercises will increase the potential for developing the asthma attacks. 3. Use the bronchodilator inhaler immediately prior to beginning to exercise. 4. Increase dietary intake of food high in monosodium glutamate (MSG).

3. Using a bronchodilator immediately prior to exercising will help reduce bronchospasms.

10. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client diagnosed with laryngitis and identifies the client problem "altered communication." Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Instruct the client to drink a mixture of brandy and honey several times a day. 2. Encourage the client to whisper instead of trying to speak at a normal level. 3. Provide the client with a blank note pad for writing any communication. 4. Explain that the client's aphonia may become a permanent condition.

3. Voice rest is encouraged for the client experiencing laryngitis.

31. Which client problems are appropriate for the nurse to include in the plan of care for the client diagnosed with COPD? Select all that apply. 1. Impaired gas exchange. 2. Inability to tolerate temperature extremes. 3. Activity intolerance. 4. Inability to cope with changes in roles. 5. Alteration in nutrition.

31. 1. The client diagnosed with COPD has difficulty exchanging oxygen with carbon dioxide, which is manifested by physical signs such as fingernail clubbing and respiratory acidosis as seen on arterial blood gases. 2. The client should avoid extremes in temperatures. Warm temperatures cause an increase in the metabolism and increase the need for oxygen. Cold temperatures cause bronchospasms. 3. The client has increased respiratory effort during activities and can be fatigued. Activities should be timed so rest periods are scheduled to prevent fatigue. 4. The client may have difficulty adapting to the role changes brought about because of the disease process. Many cannot maintain the activities involved in meeting responsibilities at home and at work. Clients should be assessed for these issues. 5. Clients often lose weight because of the effort expended to breathe. TEST-TAKING HINT: This is an example of an alternate-type question. There may be more than one (1) correct answer. The test taker should consider all options independently and understand that the question is not a trick.

32. Which outcome is appropriate for the client problem "ineffective gas exchange" for the client recently diagnosed with COPD? 1. The client demonstrates the correct way to pursed-lip breathe. 2. The client lists three (3) signs/symptoms to report to the HCP. 3. The client will drink at least 2,500 mL of water daily. 4. The client will be able to ambulate 100 feet with dyspnea.

32. 1. Pursed-lip breathing helps keep the alveoli open to allow for better oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange.

35. Which statement made by the client indicates the nurse's discharge teaching is effective for the client diagnosed with COPD? 1. "I need to get an influenza vaccine each year, even when there is a shortage." 2. "I need to get a vaccine for pneumonia each year with my influenza shot." 3. "If I reduce my cigarettes to six (6) a day, I won't have difficulty breathing." 4. "I need to restrict my drinking liquids to keep from having so much phlegm."

35. 1. Clients diagnosed with COPD should receive the influenza vaccine each year. If there is a shortage, these clients have top priority.

39. The case manager is arranging a care planning meeting regarding the care of a 65-year-old client diagnosed with adult-onset asthma. Which health-care disciplines should participate in the meeting? Select all that apply. 1. Nursing. 2. Pharmacy. 3. Social work. 4. Occupational therapy. 5. Speech therapy.

39. 1. Nursing is the one discipline remaining with the client around the clock. Therefore, nurses have knowledge of the client that other disciplines might not know. 2. The pharmacist will be able to discuss the medication regimen the client is receiving and make suggestions regarding other medications or medication interactions. 3. The social worker may be able to assist with financial information or home care arrangements.

94. The charge nurse is making client assignments on a medical floor. Which client should the charge nurse assign to the licensed practical nurse (LPN)? 1. The client with pneumonia who has a pulse oximeter reading of 91%. 2. The client with a hemothorax who has Hb of 9 g/dL and Hct of 20%. 3. The client with chest tubes who has jugular vein distention and BP of 96/60. 4. The client who is two (2) hours post-bronchoscopy procedure.

4. A client two (2) hours post- bronchoscopy procedure could safely be assigned to an LPN. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must understand that the LPN should be assigned the least critical client or the client who is stable and not exhibiting any complications secondary to the admitting disease or condition.

77. The client is admitted to the medical unit diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Administer oral anticoagulants. 2. Assess the client's bowel sounds. 3. Prepare the client for a thoracentesis. 4. Institute and maintain bedrest.

4. Bedrest reduces the risk of another clot becoming an embolus leading to a pulmonary embolus. Bedrest reduces metabolic demands and tissue needs for oxygen in the lungs.

30. Which statement made by the client diagnosed with chronic bronchitis indicates to the nurse more teaching is required? 1. "I should contact my health-care provider if my sputum changes color or amount." 2. "I will take my bronchodilator regularly to prevent having bronchospasms." 3. "This metered-dose inhaler gives a precise amount of medication with each dose." 4. "I need to return to the HCP to have my blood drawn with my annual physical."

4. Clients should have blood levels drawn every six (6) months when taking bronchodilators, not yearly. This indicates the client needs more teaching. TEST-TAKING HINT: When evaluating whether the client has learned the information presented, the test taker is observing for incorrect information. The test taker should pay close attention to time frames such as "every 12 months."

57. The clinic nurse is interviewing clients. Which information provided by a client warrants further investigation? 1. The client uses Vicks VapoRub every night before bed. 2. The client has had an appendectomy. 3. The client takes a multiple vitamin pill every day. 4. The client has been coughing up blood in the mornings.

4. Coughing up blood is not normal and is cause for investigation. It could indicate lung cancer. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker should read all distracters carefully. "Further investigation" means something abnormal is occurring. Coughing up blood is always abnormal.

2. The school nurse is presenting a class to students at a primary school on how to prevent the transmission of the common cold virus. Which information should the nurse discuss? 1. Instruct the children to always keep a tissue or handkerchief with them. 2. Explain that children current with immunizations will not get a cold. 3. Tell the children they should go to the doctor if they get a cold. 4. Demonstrate to the students how to wash hands correctly.

4. Hand washing is the single most useful technique for prevention of disease. TEST-TAKING HINT: Option "1" contains the word "always," an absolute word, and in most questions, absolutes such as "always,""never," and "only" make that answer option incorrect.

14. The nurse is planning the care of a client diagnosed with pneumonia and writes a problem of "impaired gas exchange." Which is an expected outcome for this problem? 1. Performs chest physiotherapy three (3) times a day. 2. Able to complete activities of daily living. 3. Ambulates in the hall several times during each shift. 4. Alert and oriented to person, place, time, and events.

4. Impaired gas exchange results in hypoxia, the earliest sign/symptom of which is a change in the level of consciousness. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker should match the answer option to the listed nursing problem. Option "1" is a staff goal to accomplish. When writing goals for the client, it is important to remember they are written in terms of what is expected of the client. Options "2" and "3" are appropriately written client goals, but they do not evaluate gas exchange.

41. Which statement indicates to the nurse the client diagnosed with asthma understands the teaching regarding mast cell stabilizer medications? 1. "I should take two (2) puffs when I begin to have an asthma attack." 2. "I must taper off the medications and not stop taking them abruptly." 3. "These drugs will be most effective if taken at bedtime." 4. "These drugs are not good at the time of an attack."

4. Mast cell drugs are routine maintenance medications and do not treat an attack. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must be knowledgeable about medications. There are not many test-taking hints. If the test taker knows that a specific option applies to a medication other than the one (1) mentioned in the stem, the test taker can eliminate that option.

7. The client diagnosed with chronic sinusitis who has undergone a Caldwell-Luc procedure is complaining of pain. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Administer the narcotic analgesic IVP. 2. Perform gentle oral hygiene. 3. Place the client in semi-Fowler's position. 4. Assess the client's pain.

4. Prior to intervening, the nurse must assess to determine the amount of pain and possible complications occurring that could be masked if narcotic medication is administered.

29. The nurse is caring for the client diagnosed with end-stage COPD. Which data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. The client's pulse oximeter reading is 92%. 2. The client's arterial blood gas level is 74. 3. The client has SOB when walking to the bathroom. 4. The client's sputum is rusty colored.

4. Rusty-colored sputum indicates blood in the sputum and requires further assessment by the nurse. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker could rule out options "1" and "2" as correct answers because both describe the same data of decreased oxygen, which is characteristic of COPD.

49. The nurse is taking the social history from a client diagnosed with small cell carcinoma of the lung. Which information is significant for this disease? 1. The client worked with asbestos for a short time many years ago. 2. The client has no family history for this type of lung cancer. 3. The client has numerous tattoos covering both upper and lower arms. 4. The client has smoked two (2) packs of cigarettes a day for 20 years.

4. Smoking is the number-one risk factor for developing cancer of the lung. More than 85% of lung cancers are attributable to inhalation of chemicals. There are more than 400 chemicals in each puff of cigarette smoke, 17 of which are known to cause cancer. TEST-TAKING HINT: If the test taker did not know this information, option "3" has no anatomical connection to the lungs and could be eliminated. This information has been widely disseminated in the media for more than 40 years since the Surgeon General's office first warned about the dangers of smoking in the early 1960s.

89. The nurse is caring for a client with a right-sided chest tube that is accidentally pulled out of the pleural space. Which action should the nurse implement first? 1. Notify the health-care provider to have chest tubes reinserted STAT. 2. Instruct the client to take slow shallow breaths until the tube is reinserted. 3. Take no action and assess the client's respiratory status every 15 minutes. 4. Tape a petroleum jelly occlusive dressing on three (3) sides to the insertion site.

4. Taping on three sides prevents the development of a tension pneumothorax by inhibiting air from entering the wound during inhalation but allowing it to escape during exhalation. TEST-TAKING HINT: The words "implement first" in the stem of the question indicate to the test taker that possibly more than one (1) intervention could be warranted in the situation but only one (1) is implemented first. Remember, do not select assessment first without reading the question. If the client is in any type of crisis, then the nurse should first do something to help the client's situation.

64. The nurse is preparing the client diagnosed with laryngeal cancer for a laryngectomy in the morning. Which intervention is the nurse's priority? 1. Take the client to the intensive care unit for a visit. 2. Explain that the client will need to ask for pain medication. 3. Demonstrate the use of an antiembolism

4. The client is having the vocal cords removed and will be unable to speak. Communication is a high priority for this client. If the client is able to read and write, a Magic Slate or pad of paper should be provided. If the client is illiterate, the nurse and the client should develop a method of communication using pictures. TEST-TAKING HINT: Questions addressing highest priority include all of the options being possible interventions, but only one is priority. Use Maslow's hierarchy of needs to answer the question—safety is priority.

81. Which statement by the client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus indicates the discharge teaching is effective? 1. "I am going to use a regular-bristle toothbrush." 2. "I will take antibiotics prior to having my teeth cleaned." 3. "I can take enteric-coated aspirin for my headache." 4. "I will wear a Medic Alert band at all times."

4. The client should wear a Medic Alert band at all times so that, if any accident or situation occurs, the health-care providers will know the client is receiving anticoagulant therapy. The client understands the teaching. TEST-TAKING HINT: This is a higher level question in which the test taker must know clients with a pulmonary embolus are prescribed anticoagulant therapy on discharge from the hospital. If the test taker had no idea of the answer, the option stating "wear a Medic Alert band" is a good choice because many disease processes require the client to take longterm medication and a health-care provider should be aware of this.

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) 25. The nurse is assessing the client with COPD. Which health promotion information is most important for the nurse to obtain? 1. Number of years the client has smoked. 2. Risk factors for complications. 3. Ability to administer inhaled medication. 4. Willingness to modify lifestyle.

4. The client's attitude toward lifestyle changes is the most important consideration in health promotion, in this case smoking cessation. The nurse should assess if the client is willing to consider cessation of smoking and carry out the plan. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker should read the stem for words such as "health promotion." These words make all the other answer options incorrect because they do not promote health.

71. The client diagnosed with cancer of the larynx has had four (4) weeks of radiation therapy to the neck. The client is complaining of severe pain when swallowing. Which scientific rationale explains the pain? 1. The cancer has grown to obstruct the esophagus. 2. The treatments are working on the cancer and the throat is edematous. 3. Cancers are painful and this is expected. 4. The treatments are also affecting the esophagus, causing ulcerations. 72. The client who has undergone a radical neck dissection and tracheostomy for

4. The esophagus is extremely radiosensitive, and esophageal ulcerations are common. The pain can become so severe the client cannot swallow saliva. This is a situation in which the client will be admitted to the hospital for IVnarcotic pain medication and possibly total parenteral nutrition. TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must remember not to jump to conclusions and to realize what a word is actually saying. Swallowing is an action involving the esophagus, so the best choice would be either option "1" or option "4," both of which contain the word "esophagus."

60. The client diagnosed with oat cell carcinoma of the lung tells the nurse, "I am so tired of all this. I might as well just end it all." Which statement should be the nurse's first response? 1. Say, "This must be hard for you. Would you like to talk?" 2. Tell the HCP of the client's statement. 3. Refer the client to a social worker or spiritual advisor. 4. Find out if the client has a plan to carry out suicide.

4. The priority action anytime a client makes a statement regarding taking his or her own life is to determine if the client has thought it through enough to have a plan. A plan indicates an emergency situation. TEST-TAKING HINT: In a question that asks for a first response, all answer options may be actions the nurse would take. Ranking the options in order of action—"4,""1,""2,""3"—may help the test taker to make a decision. Applying Maslow's hierarchy of needs, safety comes first.

22. The client is admitted with a diagnosis of rule-out tuberculosis. Which type of isolation procedures should the nurse implement? 1. Standard Precautions. 2. Contact Precautions. 3. Droplet Precautions. 4. Airborne Precautions.

4. Tuberculosis bacteria are capable of disseminating over long distances on air currents. Clients with tuberculosis are placed in negative air pressure rooms where the air in the room is not allowed to cross-contaminate the air in the hallway.

43. The nurse and a licensed practical nurse (LPN) are caring for five (5) clients on a medical unit. Which clients would the nurse assign to the LPN? Select all that apply. 1. The 32-year-old female diagnosed with exercise-induced asthma who has a forced vital capacity of 1,000 mL. 2. The 45-year-old male with adult-onset asthma who is complaining of difficulty completing all of the ADLs at one time. 3. The 92-year-old client diagnosed with respiratory difficulty who is beginning to be confused and keeps climbing out of bed. 4. The 6-year-old client diagnosed with intrinsic asthma who is scheduled for discharge and the mother needs teaching about the medications. 5. The 20-year-old client diagnosed with asthma who has a pulse oximetry reading of 95% and wants to sleep all the time.

43. 1. A forced vital capacity of 1,000 mL is considered normal for most females; therefore, the LPN could care for this client. 2. The client should be encouraged to pace the activities of daily living; this is expected for a client diagnosed with asthma, so the LPN could care for this client. 5. A pulse oximetry level of 95% is normal, so this client could be assigned to an LPN. TEST-TAKING HINT: The nurse cannot assign a licensed practical nurse assessment, teaching, evaluation, or an unstable client.

44. The charge nurse is making rounds. Which client should the nurse assess first? 1. The 29-year-old client diagnosed with reactive airway disease who is complaining the nurse caring for him was rude. 2. The 76-year-old client diagnosed with heart failure who has 2+ edema of the lower extremities. 3. The 15-year-old client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis after a bout with the flu who has a blood glucose reading of 189 mg/dL. 4. The 62-year-old client diagnosed with COPD and pneumonia who is receiving O2 by nasal cannula at two (2) liters per minute.

44. 1. The charge nurse is responsible for all clients. At times it is necessary to see clients with a psychosocial need before other clients who have expected and non-life-threatening situations.

48. The nurse is discharging a client newly diagnosed with restrictive airway disease (asthma). Which statement indicates the client understands the discharge instructions? 1. "I will call 911 if my medications don't control an attack." 2. "I should wash my bedding in warm water." 3. "I can still eat at the Chinese restaurant when I want." 4. "If I get a headache, I should take a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug."

48. 1. The client must be able to recognize a life-threatening situation and initiate the correct procedure.

50. The nurse writes a problem of "impaired gas exchange" for a client diagnosed with cancer of the lung. Which interventions should be included in the plan of care? Select all that apply. 1. Apply O2 via nasal cannula. 2. Have the dietitian plan for six (6) small meals per day. 3. Place the client in respiratory isolation. 4. Assess vital signs for fever. 5. Listen to lung sounds every shift.

50. 1. Respiratory distress is a common finding in clients diagnosed with lung cancer. As the tumor grows and takes up more space or blocks air movement, the client may need to be taught positioning for lung expansion. The administration of oxygen will help the client to use the lung capacity that is available to get oxygen to the tissues. 2. Clients with lung cancer frequently become fatigued trying to eat. Providing six (6) small meals spaces the amount of food the client eats throughout the day. 4. Clients with cancer of the lung are at risk for developing an infection from lowered resistance as a result of treatments or from the tumor blocking secretions in the lung. Therefore,monitoring for the presence of fever, a possible indication of infection, is important. 5. Assessment of the lungs should be completed on a routine and PRN basis.

53. The client diagnosed with lung cancer has been told the cancer has metastasized to the brain. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Discuss implementing an advance directive. 2. Explain the use of chemotherapy for brain involvement. 3. Teach the client to discontinue driving. 4. Have the significant other make decisions for the client.

53. 1. This situation indicates a terminal process, and the client should make decisions for the end of life.

56. The client diagnosed with lung cancer is being discharged. Which statement made by the client indicates more teaching is required? 1. "It doesn't matter if I smoke now. I already have cancer." 2. "I should see the oncologist at my scheduled appointment." 3. "If I begin to run a fever, I should notify the HCP." 4. "I should plan for periods of rest throughout the day."

56. 1. Research indicates smoking will still interfere with the client's response to treatment, so more teaching is needed.

6. The influenza vaccine is in short supply. Which group of clients would the public health nurse consider priority when administering the vaccine? 1. Elderly and chronically ill clients. 2. Child-care workers and children <four (4) years of age. 3. Hospital chaplains and health-care workers. 4. Schoolteachers and students living in a dormitory.

6. 1. The elderly and chronically ill are at greatest risk for developing serious complications if they contract the influenza virus.

62. The client is diagnosed with cancer of the larynx and is to have radiation therapy to the area. Which prophylactic procedure will the nurse prepare the client for? 1. Removal of the client's teeth and fitting for dentures. 2. Take antiemetic medications every four (4) hours. 3. Wear sunscreen on the area at all times. 4. Placement of a nasogastric feeding tube.

62. 1. The teeth will be in the area of radiation and the roots of teeth are highly sensitive to radiation, which results in root abscesses. The teeth are removed and the client is fitted for dentures prior to radiation.

66. The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for a group of clients on a surgical floor. Which information provided by the UAP requires immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. There is a small, continuous amount of bright-red drainage coming out from under the dressing of the client who had a radical neck dissection. 2. The client who has had a right upper lobectomy is complaining that the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump is not providing any relief. 3. The client diagnosed with cancer of the lung is complaining of being tired and short of breath. 4. The client admitted with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is making a whistling sound with every breath.

66. 1. The most serious complication resulting from a radical neck dissection is rupture of the carotid artery. Continuous bright-red drainage indicates bleeding, and this client should be assessed immediately.

70. The HCP has recommended a total laryngectomy for a male client diagnosed with cancer of the larynx but the client refuses. Which intervention by the nurse illustrates the ethical principle of nonmalfeasance? 1. The nurse listens to the client explain why he is refusing surgery. 2. The nurse and significant other insist that the client have the surgery. 3. The nurse refers the client to a counselor for help with the decision. 4. The nurse asks a cancer survivor to come and discuss the surgery with the client.

70. 1. This is an example of nonmalfeasance, where the nurse "does no harm." In attempting to discuss the client's refusal, the nurse is not trying to influence the client; the nurse is merely attempting to listen therapeutically.

Pulmonary Embolus 73. The client is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus and is receiving a heparin drip. The bag hanging is 20,000 units/500 mL of D5W infusing at 22 mL/hr. How many units of heparin is the client receiving each hour? ________

73. 880 units. If there are 20,000 units of heparin in 500 mL of D5W, there are 40 units in each mL: 20,000 ÷ 500 = 40 units If 22 mL are infused per hour, then 880 units of heparin are infused each hour: 40 × 22 = 880 TEST-TAKING HINT: The test taker must know how to calculate heparin drips

74. The client is suspected of having a pulmonary embolus. Which diagnostic test confirms the diagnosis? 1. Plasma D-dimer test. 2. Arterial blood gases. 3. Chest x-ray. 4. Magnetic resonance imaging.

74. 1. The plasma D-dimer test is highly specific for the presence of a thrombus; an elevated D-dimer indicates a thrombus formation and lysis.

80. Which nursing interventions should the nurse implement for the client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus who is undergoing thrombolytic therapy? Select all that apply. 1. Keep protamine sulfate readily available. 2. Avoid applying pressure to venipuncture sites. 3. Assess for overt and covert signs of bleeding. 4. Avoid invasive procedures and injections. 5. Administer stool softeners as ordered.

80. 1. Heparin is administered during thrombolytic therapy, and the antidote is protamine sulfate and should be available to reverse the effects of the anticoagulant. 3. Obvious (overt) as well as hidden (covert) signs of bleeding should be assessed for. 4. Invasive procedures increase the risk of tissue trauma and bleeding. 5. Stool softeners help prevent constipation and straining, which may precipitate bleeding from hemorrhoids. TEST-TAKING HINT: Thrombolytic therapy is ordered to help dissolve the clot resulting

82. The client diagnosed with a pulmonary embolus is being discharged. Which intervention should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Increase fluid intake to two (2) to three (3) L/day. 2. Eat a low-cholesterol, low-fat diet. 3. Avoid being around large crowds. 4. Receive pneumonia and flu vaccines.

82. 1. Increasing fluids will help increase fluid volume, which will, in turn, help prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis, the most common cause of PE.

87. Which intervention should the nurse implement for a male client who has had a leftsided chest tube for six (6) hours and who refuses to take deep breaths because of the pain? 1. Medicate the client and have the client take deep breaths. 2. Encourage the client to take shallow breaths to help with the pain. 3. Explain deep breaths do not have to be taken at this time. 4. Tell the client if he doesn't take deep breaths, he could die.

87. 1. The client must take deep breaths to help push the air out of the pleural space into the water-seal drainage, and deep breaths will help prevent the client from developing pneumonia or atelectasis.

91. Which action should the nurse implement for the client with a hemothorax who has a right-sided chest tube with excessive bubbling in the water-seal compartment? 1. Check the amount of wall suction being applied. 2. Assess the tubing for any blood clots. 3. Milk the tubing proximal to distal. 4. Encourage the client to cough forcefully.

91. 1. Checking to see if someone has increased the suction rate is the simplest and a noninvasive action for the nurse to implement; if it is not on high, then the nurse must check to see if the problem is with the client or the system.

96. Which intervention should the nurse implement first for the client diagnosed with a hemothorax who has had a right-sided chest tube for three (3) days and has no fluctuation (tidaling) in the water compartment? 1. Assess the client's bilateral lung sounds. 2. Obtain an order for a STAT chest x-ray. 3. Notify the health-care provider as soon as possible. 4. Document the findings in the client's chart.

96. 1. Assessment of the lung sounds could indicate the client's lung has reexpanded because it has been three (3) days since the chest tube has been inserted.

Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome 97. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is bathing the client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The bed is in a high position with the opposite side rail in the low position. Which action should the nurse implement? 1. Demonstrate the correct technique for giving a bed bath. 2. Encourage the UAP to put the bed in the lowest position. 3. Instruct the UAP to get another person to help with the bath. 4. Provide praise for performing the bath safely for the client and the UAP.

97. 1. The opposite side rail should be elevated so the client will not fall out of the bed. Safety is priority, the nurse should demonstrate the proper way to bathe a client in the bed.

99. The nurse suspects the client may be developing ARDS. Which assessment data confirm the diagnosis of ARDS? 1. Low arterial oxygen when administering high concentration of oxygen. 2. The client has dyspnea and tachycardia and is feeling anxious. 3. Bilateral breath sounds clear and pulse oximeter reading is 95%. 4. The client has jugular vein distention and frothy sputum.

99. 1. The classic sign of ARDS is decreased arterial oxygen level (PaO2 ) while administering high levels of oxygen; the oxygen is unable to cross the alveolar membrane.

Lower Respiratory Infection 13. The nurse is assessing a 79-year-old client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to assess in the client? 1. Confusion and lethargy. 2. High fever and chills. 3. Frothy sputum and edema. 4. Bradypnea and jugular vein distention.

Lower Respiratory Infection 13. 1. The elderly client diagnosed with pneumonia may present with weakness, fatigue, lethargy, confusion, and poor appetite but not have any of the classic signs and symptoms of pneumonia.