MEDCERTS STUDY GUIDE
if an IV is to run at 60mL per hour,what volume will be delivered each minute
1mL
The maximum fluid volume that can be subcutaneously injected is _____ ml.
2
a sodium chloride solution was prepared by adding 2g of NaCI in water so the final volume is 100 ml. what is the percent strength of this solution
2%
a solution calls for 5 mEq of sodium and you have a stock solution that is 20mEq/10mL. what volume is needed
2.5mL
A 1,000 mL IV solution is to be administered over 6 hours. What is the rate of administration in mL/min?
2.8
a 1,000 mL solution is to be administered over 6 hours. what is the rate of administration in mL/min
2.8
Chapter <797> defines a Primary Engineering Control as a device or room that provides appropriate air quality of ISO Class____limits.
5
What is the purpose of auxiliary labels?
Additional Information.
USP -NF Chapter <797>
All of the above
A _________ will provide information about the physical properties of a chemical. A) standard operating procedure B) material safety data sheet C) compounding record D) formulation record
B) material safety data sheet
Gastric acid inhibitors include all of the following drugs except A) Pepcid®. B) metformin. C) Prevacid®. D) Nexium®.
B) metformin.
Which of the following sound-alike/look-alike drugs share the same therapeutic mechanism? A) amitriptyline/aminophylline B) prednisone/prednisolone C) hydrocortisone/hydrocodone D) albuterol/atenolol
B) prednisone/prednisolone
A medical administrative assistant instructs a patient to arrive on Monday at 9:00 AM for cast removal because the provider is only available on Monday mornings for that procedure. What method of scheduling is the assistant using?
Clustering
Which of the following indicates the correct steps involved in the Patient-Centered Care Process for the pharmacist? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Collect, Assess, Plan, Implement, Follow-Up Rationale: The steps for the Patient-Centered Care Process of the pharmacist are: Collect, Assess, Plan, Implement and Follow-Up. The follow up includes Monitoring, Evaluating and Modifying the plan as needed.
Which is a true statement about coloring a compounded liquid?
Coloring agents are contraindicated in all sterile preparations.
Buck is prescribed a medication from the physician in the ER. He is instructed to take the medication twice daily for ten days, cut out coffee and other caffeine from his diet, and follow up with his Primary Care Physician in 2 weeks. After a month, Buck's physician calls and asks him why he did not make a follow up appointment. Buck informs him that after completing his medication, he felt a whole lot better. When his physician asks about Buck discontinuing caffeine from his diet, Buck said he didn't think it was a problem. Which factor did Buck not follow? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Compliance Rationale: Compliance refers to the patient engaging in the recommendations for medication use, diet, and exercise as prescribed by a healthcare provider.
Oral formulations containing water have a USP-NF recommended beyond-use date of not later than 21 days when stored at a controlled cold temperature.
False
Phlebitis can occur if excess air is introduced into the vein.
False
Since tablet triturates are very small tablets, it is not necessary to calibrate the cavity plate.
False
The individual with the responsibility of inspecting and approving or rejecting all components drug product containers, closures, in-process materials, and labeling of compounded preparations is the pharmacy technician.
False
The rate in mL/min for a 600 mL IV administered over 8 hours is 0.8 mL/min.
False
Volatile ingredients such as oils or flavors should be added to the ointment base when it is hot and melted.
False
When intranasally administering a drug with an MDI aerosol, always use in both nostrils.
False
When making tablet triturates, a wetting solution of alcohol and water can be used to dissolve all of the ingredients before filling the triturate mold.
False
While important, DUR warning screens do not need to be reviewed by the pharmacist -
False
XXIV = 29
False
T/F Volumetric means "to measure volumn". Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
False Volumetric means "measures volume". Common volumetric vessels are pipets, cylindrical and the needed volume.
_______________ believed there were four "humours" in man.
Galen
Which of the following is (are( used to describe a needle?
Gauge
Which is not a small volume parenteral (SVP)?
Glycine 1.5% irrigation solution
______ is used best to measure and transfer liquids: Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Graduated Cylinders Graduated cylinders are used for measuring and transferring liquids, which is the preferred device because are available in sizes ranging from 5mls to 4,000mls.
A patient has a diagnosis of hypertension. What describes hypertension?
High blood pressure
Medications known to cause significant harm if an error is made are known as -
High-alert medication
Which of the following is not true regarding hospital pharmacies: Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
Hospital pharmacies can deny patient care If/once directed by prescriber to fill or compound any medications, it is a hospital's obligation to comply with the requirements.
What root word means "abdominal wall"?
Lapar/o
Which of these would not be found in an ICD book? Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
Laparoscopy Rationale: Laparoscopy is a procedure done for diagnostic purposes but is not a diagnosis.
What subscription service is used for voluntarily and anonymously reporting adverse drug events in the United States?
MEDMARX
If the technician were to check-in an order and they notice labels missing off some of the bottles, this is known as: Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
MISBRANDED When and if an order is received within the pharmacy and it appears that there is damage to the tote, medication, labeling mishap, or any damage with the labels, it is known as being misbranded.
When preparing a claim, a medical administrative assistant should use what format when entering a date of birth?
MM/DD/YYYY
A pharmacy technician searching for information on a foreign drug should use
Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
What pharmacy reference would a technician use to research foreign drugs?
Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
Examples of critical care medications include all of the following EXCEPT
amoxicillin.
The usual site for an intradermal injection is the
anterior surface of the forearm.
A local effect occurs
at the site of administration.
A patient presents to the provider's office with flu-like symptoms. What action should the medical administrative assistant take first?
Move the patient to an isolated location.
__________________ are published frequently and provide a useful source of current information.
Newsletters
Which of the following is true regarding the use of a laminar airflow workstation?
No work should be done within 6 inches from the front of the workstation.
Are pharmaceuticals allowed to be disposed of through the sewer supply?
No, the EPA does not allow for medicine to be disposed of in the sewer supply
Which nonaqueous oral solution has 20 grams of drug per 100 mL of solution?
Non-potent tincture
An example of a retail automation device that labels, fills, caps, sorts, and stores the prescription is
Parata Max
A medical administrative assistant should take what action action to be in compliance with OSHA?
Participate in training concerning infection control
What is the intention when a prescriber writes "DAW" in a prescription?
Patient gets the brand name.
Which of the following is NOT required on a valid written prescription when it is presented for filling?
Pharmacy name.
The basic parts of a syringe are:
Plunger, barrel, tip
Which is not a common solvent/vehicle used in compounded solutions?
Polyethylene glycol
SVP solutions are not contained in: Select one: A. Vials B. Ampules C. IV bags D. Prescription bottle
Prescription bottles
________________ was the first drug to be used successfully in the treatment of malaria.
Quinine
What does the FDA require for some products to ensure that their benefits outweigh their risks?
REMs
Which route of administration/formulation has an extent of absorption that is 100%
Rapid intravenous administration/solution
T/F A pharmacy benefit manager is a third party administrator of prescription drug. Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
Rationale: PDM (Pharmacy Benefit Manager) is a third party administrator of prescription programs, PDM's are primarily responsible for developing and maintaining the formulary, contracting with pharmacies, negotiating rebates and other discounts.
The ______ is the cellular material directly involved in the action of a drug.
Receptor: The receptor is described as a lock in which the drug molecule fits as a key and can produce effects at the site.
Companies known as _________ specialize is returns to the manufacturer of expired and discontinued drugs. Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Reverse Distributors Reverse Distributors are companies that specialize in returns to the manufacturer of drugs that need proper disposal, that are expired and that are discontinued.
_______________ wrote the Book of Medicine Dedicated to Mansur.
Rhazes
Which of the following allows employees access to information regarding workplace safety?
Right-to-know law
OSHA-required notices on hazardous substances that provide hazard, handling, clean-up, and first aid information are called
SDSs
an example of an abbreviation for a route of administration could be
SL
An example of an abbreviation for a route of administration could be:
SL.
What method organizes patient records in chronological order according to the department that provided the care?
SOMR (Source-Oriented Medical Record)
Which is not a guideline to minimize parenteral incompatibilities?
Store parenterals at least 48 hours before using them
Which is not a guideline to minimize parenteral incompatibilities?
Store parenterals at least 48 hours before using them.
Ancient __________ believed that illness was caused by demons.
Sumerians
Describe the difference between TD and TC etched on volumetric glassware.
TD means the vessel will deliver the total volume when it is emptied. TC means that the vessel will contain more than the total volume, and does not need to be emptied to dispense the total volume.
T/F ICD9 codes are used to prove medical necessity of the services performed. Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
TRUE
T/F In a pharmacy, an item is deducted from inventory as it is sold or dispensed. Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
TRUE In a pharmacy, when an item is purchased it is immediately deducted from the inventory. Computerized inventory systems provide a continuous picture of the inventory.
The directions used on a prescription label should always start with a -
Verb
What action is appropriate for a medical administrative assistant to take before scheduling a patient for surgery?
Verify the patient's benefits
Which of the following is a health-care website for consumers?
WebMD
Which of the following is an incorrect step-process when performing a aseptic technique?
The airflow workstation is only cleaned at the beginning and end of a shift
What do vancomycin, phenytoin, gentamicin, and digoxin drugs have in common?
They are therapeutically monitored drugs
T or F: When deciding whether or not to compound a preparation, the availability of a commercial product should be considered.
True
The hollow end of the needle is called the lumen.
True
Which is a parenteral route of administration?
Vaginal
Which intravenous (IV) administration device would be appropriate to inject a small volume of medication (e.g., 5 ml) over 1-2 minutes?
syringe and needle
Aqueous solutions containing high concentrations of a sugar are called
syrups.
MEDROXYPROGESTERONE ACETATE
tablets are also exempt
a prescription written ''i tab q hs'' is correctly interpreted as
take one tablet at bedtime
a prescription reads''Cephalexin 250mg/5mL;10mL qid qs 5 days.''The directions on the label for this prescription should read
take two teaspoonsful(10mL)four times a day for five days
Systemic absorption of a drug administered as an ophthalmic formulation can occur when
the drug drains into the lacrimal canaliculi.
if a prescription reads''ii gtt AU qid''it is intended for use in
the ear
The USP-NF provides beyond-use date recommendations for compounded preparations when other scientific stability information is not available. For nonaqueous preparations, what is the USP-NF recommended beyond-use date?
the earliest expiration date of any active principal ingredient or 6 months,whichever is earlier
Consignment stock is usually done when
the medication is high priced
When the bioavailabilities from two formulations are significantly different,
the products are not bioequivalent.
a medication error may include all of the following EXCEPT
the wrong-sized vial
An intradermal injection will produce a ______.
wheal
bottom of rubber stopper
where medication is measured with barrel gauge
hub
where needle meets syringe
Most ophthalmic ointments are mixtures of
white petrolatum and mineral oil.
To ensure that a syringe will deliver a correct volume of liquid,
fill the syringe, hub, and needle with liquid and remove all air bubbles.
The goal of medication reconciliation is
for a patient to always have a correct list of current medications.
Air injected into a vial before a volume of solution is removed
helps withdraw the solution by pressurizing the vial.
lumen
hollow part of the needle
A _________ will provide information about the physical properties of a chemical.
material safety data sheet
After administering a drug, the time when the body first starts to respond to the medication is called the
onset of action.
Adapta-Caps are designed to be used with
oral syringes
Adapt-a-Caps® can be fitted with
oral syringes.
Pharmacy technicians assigned to inventory control are responsible for
ordering medications, checking invoices, and assisting with drug recalls, shortages, and emergency drug procurement.
A typical dose-response curve shows that the response ______ as the dose increases.
plateaus
An inventory system in which the item is deducted from inventory as it is sold or dispensed is called
point-of-sale system
Which is not a common solvent/vehicle used in compounded solutions
polyethylene glycol
The clean room is the area of the pharmacy designed for
preparation of sterile products.
A Safety Data Sheet (SDS) provides product information on
protective measures for chemical exposure
thumb plunger
pushes medication through syringe
Bioavailability is measured by the
rate and extent the drug is available to the site of action.
Needles or other items that may puncture the skin should always be thrown away in
red sharps containers.
The USP-NF defines a "cool place" as a place between 8º and 15ºC. Where in a patient's home can this temperature range be found?
refrigerator
The pharmacy order you are putting away contains several vaccinations that you have not seen before. The package insert says the vaccines should be stored at 2° to 8° Celsius. You should put the vaccines in the
refrigerator.
The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) is responsible for
regulating controlled substances.
A tablet that releases one dose immediately and then releases a second dose later is a ________ tablet.
repeat action
Lyophilized powder in a vial
requires a diluent to solubilize the powder before withdrawing from the vial.
Companies that return expired medications for a pharmacy for credit are called
reverse distributors
A(n) ___________ is a patient safety event that reaches the patient resulting in death, permanent harm, or severe temporary harm.
sentinel event
All suspension formulations should have the following auxiliary label on the container:
shake well before use
Which liquid measuring device can only deliver one volume of liquid?
single volume pipet
gauge
size of the needle
bevel
slanted end of the needle
When calibrating a medicine dropper, the drops should be measured in a:
small graduated cylinder (10 ml).
When calibrating a medicine dropper, the drops should be measured in a
small graduated cylinder (10mL).
When calibrating a medicine dropper, the drops should be measured in a
small graduated cylinder(10mL)
Most drugs given orally are absorbed into the blood from the
small intestine
Which inhalation administration device will help patients coordinate inspiration and actuation?
spacer
''The extent to which a dosage form retains, within specified limits,and throughout it's period of storage and use, the same properties and characteristics it's possessed when it was made'' is one definition of
stability
"The extent to which a dosage form retains, within specified limits, and throughout its period of storage and use, the same properties and characteristics it possessed when it was made" is one definition of
stability.
how many pints are in 1,419 mL of syrup(473 mL=1 pint)
3
Regarding controlled substances, how many scheduled classes are there? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
5 There are 5 scheduled classes regarding controlled substances in the United States.
What does D5NS mean?
5% Dextrose in Sodium Chloride
The average tear volume in the eye is 10 microliters. The average drop size of an eyedropper is ______ microliters.
50
A prescription reads "Cephalexin 250 mg/5mL ; 10mL qid qs 5 days." How many mg of Cephalexin does the patient receive per dose?
500 mg
a prescription reads''Cephalexin 250mg/5 mL;10 mL qid qs 5 days."how many mg of cephalexin does the patient receive per dose
500mg
how many mL of 50% dextrose solution are needed to obtain 25g of dextrose
50mL
a prescription requires 500mg of a drug and the drug is available in a stock solution that is 100mg/mL. what volume of stock solution will provide the needed amount of the drug
5mL
A prescription is written for amoxicillin chewable 250 mg tablets and the dose is 500 mg three times a day for 10 days. How many tablets are needed to fill this prescription?
60
a prescription is written for amoxicillin chewable 250 mg tablets and the dose is 500mg three times a day for 10 days. how many tablets are needed to fill this prescription
60
Prescription reads ii tabs TID x 10d. How many tablets will be dispensed? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
60 Rationale: The sig. is 2 tabs 3 times a day for 10 days. 2 x 3 = 6 x 10 = 60 tablets
How long does a C-II prescription have to be kept on file within the pharmacy after it's filled? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
7 years All controlled prescriptions have to be kept on file however C-II prescriptions have to remain on file for seven years, all others only two years.
Which of the following should be used to clean the interior of the laminar airflow workstation?
70% sterile isopropyl alcohol
Manufacturers sell more than ____ of their pharmaceuticals to wholesalers
75%
In general, 20% of the stock will account for what percent of the orders or prescriptions?
80%
how many mg of NaCI are in 1 liter of 0.9% sodium chloride solution
9,000
The three set of CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) codes that represent pharmacist services for medication therapy management are: Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
99605, 99606 and 99607 Rationale: 99605 is used for a first encounter with a patient and may be billed in 1-15 minute increments. 99606 is used to follow-up encounters and may be billed in 1-15 minute increments and 99607 is an add on CPT code that is used with 99605 and 99606 when additional 15 minute increments of time are spent face to face with a patient.
Durable Medical equipment may be reimbursable to the pharmacy under Medicare part ____. Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
B Rationale: Medicare part B will typically cover medical services and some medical devices.
Pilocarpine was one of the first drugs developed to treat A) hypothyroidism. B) glaucoma. C) angina. D) Parkinson's Disease.
B) glaucoma.
Drugs rapidly distribute to the ______ because of the organ's high blood flow rate. A) muscle B) heart C) skin D) fat
B) heart
The abbreviation po means to take medication: Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
By Mouth
Which is a true statement about removing air from a syringe attached to a membrane filter?
Air removed before the filter becomes wet.
What products OTC or legend for oral use in humans - are required to be in child-resistant containers?
All aspirin products
Which is a positive pressure infusion device?
All of the above
Which is a mechanism of drug action? A) protective physical B) chemical reaction C) modify the creation, release, or control of hormones D) all of the above
D) all of the above
Gender differences in drug disposition in women can be attributed to A) reduced muscle mass. B) menses. C) pregnancy. D) all of the above.
D) all of the above.
An example of a drug with a side effect of coughing is A) hydroxyzine. B) dextromethorphan. C) hydralazine. D) captopril.
D) captopril.
Which is not one of the ADME processes? A) absorption B) distribution C) metabolism D) elimination
D) elimination
The breakdown of drugs into metabolites is caused by A) enzyme induction. B) bile. C) enterohepatic recycling. D) enzymes.
D) enzymes.
Trituration, stirring, and sonication do not increase the solubility of a drug in solution. What do these processes increase?,
Increases rate of dissolution, but not solubility.
When filling a script for a controlled substance, what needs to be on the prescription? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
DEA number Rationale: The prescribers DEA number must be on the prescription for any type of controlled substance.
A patient receives an explanation of benefits stating services will not be covered because out-of-pocket medical expenses have not been met. The amount owed is defined as ________________.
Deductible
_______________ successfully used the vaccine from cowpox to vaccinate against smallpox.
Edward Jenner
Billing Method choices include: Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
Electronic billing and Universal claim form are the two billing method choices.
A gel is a unique dosage form for sublingual administration.
False
A graduated cylinder can only deliver one volume of liquid.
False
A pharmacy technician may legally receive a verbal or telephone prescription order for a new prescription from a physician, once the physician had been correctly identified-
False
A rapid dissolve tablet (RDT) must be taken with a full glass of water.
False
A scar is produced at the site of an intradermal (ID) injection.
False
An elixir oral dosage form is characterized by high sucrose content.
False
An oral liquid formulation where one liquid is dispersed throughout another liquid in the form of small droplets is called a suspension.
False
Because of time constraints, the pharmacy technician is often required to make the final prescription check in a busy pharmacy-
False
Injectability refers to the properties of a suspension while being drawn into a vial.
False
Luer-Lok syringe and an oral syringe are the same.
False
Luer-Lok® syringes will fit into an Adapta-Cap®.
False
Manufacturing and compounding are the same thing. The only difference is the type of dosage forms that are compounded.
False
Oil/water emulsion bases have good washability, but are very greasy.
False
Syringes should be filled to capacity with medication before use.
False
T or F: A graduated cylinder can only deliver one volume of liquid.
False
T or F: A rapid dissolve tablet (RDT) must be taken with a full glass of water.
False
T or F: Luer-Lok® syringes will fit into an Adapt-a-Cap®.
False
T or F: Manufacturing and compounding are the same thing. The only difference is the type of dosage forms that are compounded.
False
T or F: Oil/water emulsion bases have good washability, but are very greasy.
False
T or F: Oral formulations containing water have a USP-NF recommended beyond-use date of not later than 21 days when stored at a controlled cold temperature.
False
T or F: Since tablet triturates are very small tablets, it is not necessary to calibrate the cavity plate.
False
T or F: The individual with the responsibility of inspecting and approving or rejecting all componentsdrug product containers, closures, in-process materials, and labeling of compounded preparations is the pharmacy technician.
False
T or F: Volatile ingredients such as oils or flavors should be added to the ointment base when it is hot and melted.
False
TPN contains intravenous fat emulsions only.
False
The average drop size of an eye dropper is 50 microliters which is the same as the average tear volume of the eye.
False
T/F In some states a patient can present a social security card as identification when dropping of a controlled substance prescription. Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
False In most states proper identification must be presented when dropping off and picking up a controlled substance medications. Must be government Id's with a photo, name, address and signature.
The two pay types permissible are Individual and Insurance. Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
False Pay type is an important field because it determines who will cover the cost of the filled prescription. The two acceptable pay types are private and insurance.
What organization developed the Verified Internet Pharmacy Practice Sites (VIPPS) in response to concern about the safety of pharmacy practices on the Internet?
National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP)
The "zone of turbulence" formed in horizontal laminar flow hood is am area of turbulent airflow formed
In front of (I.e., on the opening side of the hood) a large container.
T or F: A liquid can be measured with a Class A torsion balance.
True
T/F Mortars and pestles are made from glass, wedgwood and porcelain. Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
True
T/F There are three types of syringes; oral, Slip-Tip, and Luer-Lok. Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
True
Tall-man lettering refers to the lettering used to help distinguish between two look-alike medication names -
True
When deciding whether or not to compound a preparation, the availability of a commercial product should be considered.
True
T/F HMOs usually do not cover expenses incurred outside their network. Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
True Rationale: If a person is a part of an HMO they can only see a provider within their group. If the member goes to a provider outside the network, they are responsible for the cost of service.
T/F A pharmacy benefits manager is the entity that may process insurance claims for the insurance company. Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
True Argus and DPS are two Pharmacy Benefits Managers that process claims on behalf of large numbers of insurance companies.
T/F Pharmacy computers should be regularly backed-up or copied to an appropriate storage media. Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
True System databases is a very critical component of the pharmacy or institution which needs to be backed up daily.
When would a technician use geometric dilution in compounding a preparation?
When a small amount of drug powder is to be combined with a large amount of powder diluent.
All of the following regarding the purpose of coding is true, except: Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
When the Doctor is trying to diagnose a patient, coding can help determine the prognosis. Rationale: Coding is not used to help determine the patient's diagnoses.
When is rectal administration the preferred route of administration?
When the drug is degraded by gastric acidity.
Which is not an "injection independent" parenteral route of administration?
epidural
What is the Poison Prevention Packaging Act of 1970 (PPPA) ?
hazardous household products (which include medications) must be sold in child-resistant packaging
What is considered "child-resistant packaging"?
considered child-resistant if 80% of children under 5 years of age CANNOT open it and 90% of adults CAN open it
Intrauterine devices (IUDs) provide long term
contraception protection.
METHYLPREDNISOLONE.
corticosteroid in packages containing not more than 84 mg is exempt. This means the Dosepak® is exempt. If a child does get into it, this amount would not be toxic.
sheath
covers the needle
Half-life is the amount of time needed for blood concentrations of a drug to
decline to one-half of an initial value.
Co-administering epinephrine with a subcutaneously (SC) administered drug is expected to
decrease regional blood flow and decrease the subcutaneous absorption of the drug.
flange
designed for index an middle finger to hold while thumb plunger is pushed
a prescriber indicates that the brand name drug is to be dispensed rather than the generic alternative by writing
dispense as written(DAW)
A reverse distributor
disposes of expired or damaged medications
Drugs rapidly distribute to the __________ because of the organ's high flow rate.
heart
Chemicals produced by the body that regulate body functions and processes are
hormones.
The 340B Drug Program is financially supported by _____
drug manufacturers
A two-phase system in which one liquid is dispersed throughout another liquid in the form of small droplets is called an _____________.
emulsion
The breakdown of drugs into metabolites is caused by
enzymes
The purpose of USP <800> is to
introduce new requirements for receiving, storing, compounding, dispensing, and administering hazardous medications.
Post exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is dispensed from the inpatient pharmacy for an employee when the person
is exposed to HIV infected blood via a needle stick, mucous membrane, or non-intact skin.
Can a container that is easy-open in one position and child-resistant in another position be used legally?
it has flaws
When extra drugs are found in an order the technician should
leave the drugs in the box and send the drugs back to the wholesaler
A dermal collodion
leaves a protective film after application.
Medications that cannot be divided into unit dose increments include
metered dose inhalers.
The _____ is the blood concentration needed to produce a response.
minimum effective concentration (MEC)
Automated dispensing systems that travel throughout a facility and deliver drugs to various nursing units and departments are
mobile robots
Some things that the USP-NF contains:
monographs of compounded and standards of quality, strength, and purity of compounded preparations. and standards for personnel involved in compounding preparations. D) all of the above.
Visual inspection of a parental solution will show two of the six characteristics of a parenteral solution. Which two?
Particulate material & stability
Prescriptions are governed by federal and state rules and regulations. The primary purpose of these rules and regulations is to -
Provide minimal standards of practice.
_____ refers to minimum and maximum stock levels used to determine when a reorder is placed and for how much
Reorder point
The patient is concerned about the side-effects listed on their medication, and starts asking questions about it. What should you do? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
Refer to pharmacists Rationale: A pharmacy technician cannot answer any questions relating to drugs or any health concerns. They must refer to the pharmacist.
The pharmacy technician is responsible for: Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Refilling automated counting machines such as the Parata Max Reverse Distributors are companies that specialize in returns to the manufacturer of drugs that need proper disposal, that are expired and that are discontinued.
The documentation that addresses step-by-step written instructions for conducting specific activities in a compounding pharmacy is the
SOP (standard operating procedure).
The documentation that addresses step-by-step written instructions for conducting specific activities in a compounding pharmacy is the
SOP (standard operation procedure
The documentation that addresses step-by-step written instructions for conducting specific activities in a compounding pharmacy is the
SOP(standard operating procedure)
Why should parenteral solutions be visually inspected against a brightly lit white background before use?
To check for particulate material
Liquid drugs, solvents, or additives are measured in volumetric glassware etched with either TD or TC. What does TD means?
To deliver; will deliver the total volume measured when emptied.
Which of the following is NOT a reason why we use ICD codes? Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
To document inappropiate care and incorrect treatment
What is the purpose of a matrix?
To indicate when a provider is unavailable to treat patients
What action is an appropriate use of a tickler file?
To remind staff of date-specific tasks
What is the purpose of an encounter form?
To save time and improve accuracy in data entry.
Which technique will not reduce the particle size of a powder?
Spatulation on an ointment slab
Which technique will not reduce the particle size of powder?
Spatulation on an ointment slab.
Microsoft Excel is an example of what type of program?
Spreadsheet application
T/F There are multiple levels of procedure coding. CPT is level I and HCPCS are level II. Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
TRUE HCPCS stands for Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System. This procedure coding system consists of multiple levels of codes: Level 1 is for CPT codes used for medical, surgical, and diagnostic services; Level 2 is for HCPC codes, which are a collection of alphanumeric codes mainly for equipment, products and supplies, but also includes procedures and services not found in the CPT coding manual.
T/F PPOs usually require generic substitution. Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
TRUE PPOs (preferred provider organization) will require a generic to be dispensed if one is available.
If a patient has allergies, it's also the pharmacy technician's responsibility to collect information as to what type of reaction they have when they take and/or eat what they're allergic to. Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
TRUE Rationale: As a pharmacy technician, one of the responsibilities is to collect as much data as you can, especially when the patient is dropping off a prescription for the first time. Asking for allergy information to medications and/or food is essential so that when the pharmacist is in the verification stage, everything will be documented for proper review.
T/F There are three key components to determine an E/M level. Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
TRUE Rationale: The three key components used in determining the level of service of an Evaluation and Management procedure is History, Exam and Medical Decision Making.
T/F The NCPDP version field is required for all electronically submitted plans. Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
TRUE The NCPDP filed determines the format in which the information will be transmitted to the insurance. The standard version 5.1 is the official standard for pharmacy claims in HIPAA.
T/F Turnover rate in the pharmacy is associated with inventory control. Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
TRUE Turnover is the number of days it takes to use the entire stock of an item. Turnover can influence quality, spoilage, and financial results.
A provider prescribed an EKG for a patient who has a rapid heart rate. What should be recorded for the reason for the EKG?
Tachycardia
What does the abbreviation PRN stand for? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
Take as needed
Which technique would be expected to increase the solubility of a drug in a solution?
Trituration Stirring the solvent Sonication None of the above
A hematoma can result at one site if intramuscular (IM) sites of injection are not changed or rotated.
True
A liquid can be measured with a Class A torsion balance.
True
A spirit oral dosage form is an alcoholic or hydroalcoholic solution of volatile substances.
True
All prescriptions should include the route of administration in the directions for use -
True
Amino Acids are a type of admixtures used for toxic combinations.
True
A patient calls with a question about her prescription dosage as it relates to her condition. What action is appropriate for the medical administrative assistant to take?
Take message for the physician.
A prescription written "i tab q hs" is correctly interpreted as -
Take one tablet at bedtime.
A prescription reads "Cephalexin 250 mg/5mL ; 10mL qid qs 5 days." The directions on the label for this prescription should read:
Take two teaspoonful (10 mL ) four times a day for five days.
This word means a cure all:
panacea.
barrel
part of syringe that hold medication
Most drugs penetrate through membranes by
passive diffusion
which of the following tasks is not the role of a pharmacy technicians
performing final label and product check
A system that maintains a continuous record of every item in inventory so that it always shows the stock on hand.
perpetual inventory
all of the following health-care professionals are allowed to order prescriptions EXCEPT
pharmacists
The study of drugstheir properties, uses, application, and effectsis called
pharmacology
When extemporaneously compounding capsules, gloves should be worn to
prevent a technician's fingers from contracting the powder
shaft
the needle's outer portion
third-party billing means
the patient's insurance provider will be billed
The abbreviation FIFO refers to
the way items are organized or stocked on the pharmacy shelves (First In First Out)
When using a Class A torsion balance:
the weight goes on the right pan and the powder goes on the left pan.
patients are responsible for administering their own medications in the following setting:
their own homes
Un-ionized drugs penetrate biological membranes because
they are more lipid soluble than the ionized form.
Subcutaneous (SC) injections are given in the
upper back.
When selecting a device for liquid measurement
use the smallest device that will accommodate the volume of liquid
When selecting a device for liquid measurement,
use the smallest device that will accommodate the volume of liquid.
Volumetric vessels that can be used to accurately measure liquids include pipets, cylindrical graduates, burets, syringes, and ________.
volumetric flasks
how many 5 mL could be delivered from an 8oz. bottle of medication(1oz=29.57mL)
47
An 8 oz. bottle of ranitidine solution 150 mg/10mL has just been opened. What is the maximum number of 75 mg doses that can be filled from this bottle?
48
Blood concentration are the results of how many processes simultaneously occurring together?
4:The four processes are absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
According to USP-NF Chapter < 797> requirements, laminar flow hoods are to produce an ISO Class ___ environment.
5
Which injectable route is the most rapid acting?
Intravenous
LVP solutions are administered:
Intravenously
prescription errors can be prevented by
all of the above
To ensure the accuracy of a volume dispensed with a syringe,
completely fill the hub
To ensure the accuracy of a volume of a liquid dispensed with a syringe
completely fill the hub with the liquid.
To ensure the accuracy of a volume dispensed with a syringe,
completely fill the hub.
''the preparation,mixing,assembling,altering,packaging,and labeling of a drug or device in accordance with a licensed's prescription,medication order,or an initiative based on the practitioner/patient/pharmacist/compounder relationship in the course of professional practice'' is an definition of
compounding
The preparation, mixing, assembling, altering, packaging, and labeling of a drug or device in accordance with a licensed practitioner's prescription, medication order, or an initiative based on the practitioner/patient/pharmacist/compo under relationship in the course of professional practice" is an official definition of
compounding
The purchase order number is usually created by the
computer system of the purchaser
Which is a true statement about coloring a compounded liquid? A) Coloring agents are contraindicated in all sterile preparations. B) Dark colored liquids are perceived as very potent. C) Colorless liquids are perceived as very effective. D) Flesh-toned colors are preferred for oral liquids.
A) Coloring agents are contraindicated in all sterile preparations.
An example of Durable Medical Equipment (DME) could be: Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Crutches Durable medical equipment is used to describe any medical equipment used in the home to aid in a better quality of living.
Two large weigh boats can vary as much as _______ mg. A) 5 B) 30 C) 120 D) 200
D) 200
What is required to establish medical necessity on the patient encounter form?
Diagnosis code
A prescriber indicates that the brand name drug is to be dispensed rather than the generic alternative by writing -
Dispense as written (DAW).
0.05 micrograms = 50 g
False
T/F All syringes have needles. Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
False There are many types of syringes used in dispensing and administration that do not have needle tips, such as oral syringes and droppers.
Which of these is a Screening Tool to Alert providers to the Right Treatment for elderly and at-risk patients? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
START Criteria Rationale: START Criteria focuses on alerting physicians (and pharmacists) to the correct treatment, by identifying under-treated or prescribing omissions in elderly patients. START = Screening Tool to Alert to Right Treatment
"Sig" is an abbreviation for the Latin word 'signa,' which means -
To write.
A child who weighs 50 lbs. weighs 22.7 kg.
True
convert 212 degrees fahrenheit to the equivalent temperature in degrees celsuis
100
how many grams of dextrose are in 400mL of a 70% solution
280
Examples of durable medical equipment include all of the following EXCEPT
aspirin
The Chinese Emperor Shen Nung was one of the first known practitioners of
"trial and error" drug testing
What is the amount the medical administrative assistant should submit to the secondary insurance carrier if the encounter balance is $360 and the patient has two plans with an 80/20 split?
$72 (The amount represents the 20% that should be sent to the secondary plan. Twenty percent of $360 equals $72.)
how many days will a prescription for ceflaclor 250mg/5mL,150 mL last if the dose is one teaspoonful three times a day
10
Name some common prescription errors:
- Different color - Ink wrong - Wrong Patient - Wrong Strength
how much diluent is needed if the final volume is 150mL and the powder volume is 50mL
100mL
Large volume parental(LVPS) are packaged in containers holding:
100ml or more
According to the USP-NF, one (1) gram of a drug that is "soluble" in a solvent will _______________ mL of solvent to dissolve.
10-30
Two large weight boats taken from the same box can vary as much as _______mg.
250
How many micrograms of sugar are in 250 g of sugar?
250,000,000
What size particle is expected to reach the alveolar sacs after inhalation administration?
0.6 micron
What is the common strength of Sodium Chloride? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
0.9 The common strength of Sodium Chloride is .9%.
The correct strength of Sodium Chloride in normal saline IV bag is:
0.9%
Which is the largest hard gelatin capsule size?
00
If an IV is to run at 60 mL per hour, what volume will be delivered each minute?
1 mL
According to the USP-NF, one (1) gram of a drug that is "soluble" in a solvent will require _____ ml of solvent to dissolve.
10-30
According to the USP-NF, one (1) gram of a drug that is''soluble'' in a solvent will require____mL of solvent to dissolve
10-30
A prescription is written for amoxicillin 75 mg t.i.d. for 10 days. What is the volume of each dose in mL if you dispense amoxicillin 50 mg/mL?
1.5
a prescription is written for amoxicillin 75mg t.i.d. for 10 days. what is the volume of each dose in mL if you dispense amoxicillin 50mg/mL
1.5
How many days will a prescription for ceflaclor 250 mg/5 mL, 150 mL last if the dose is one teaspoonful three times a day?
10
How many pills would a patient take in a day if the order stated ii tabs q4h? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
12 Rationale: Divide 24 hours by 4 which will equal 6 times a day then multiply by 2 to get 12.
a solution has been prepared with 100g of drug in 1,000 mL solution. how many mg of drug are in 120 mL of the solution
12,000
You need to add 25 mEq of KCl to an IV using a stock solution that is 20 mEq/10 mL. How many mL are needed?
12.5
you need to add 25 mEq of KCI to an IV using a stock solution that is 20 mEq/10mL. how many mL are needed
12.5
Which gauge needle is the most likely to cause coring?
13G
how many tablets are needed to fill a prescription if the dose is 1/2 tablet twice daily for 14 days
14
An IV infusion order is received for dopamine 800 mg in 250 mL of D5W to be infused at 10 mcg/kg/min. The patient weighs 165 lbs. What will the flow rate be in mL/hr?
14 mL/hr
how may micrograms of sugar are in 250 g of sugar
250,000,000
For viscous solution which gauge needle would be appropriate?
27G
Dr. Smith prescribed Prednisone 10mg to be taken ii tab stat, I tab tid x 3d, i tab bid x 3d, i tab qd x 3d. How many tablets should be dispensed? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
20 Rationale: The sig. is take 2 tablets immediately, 1 tablet 3 times a day for 3 days, 1 tablet 2 times a day for 3 days, 1 tablet daily for 3 days. 2 + 9 + 6 + 3 = 20
When a needle is inserted through the stopper of a medication vial, occasionally a small piece of the stopper is shaved off and may not be noticed. This is referred to as coring. Smallr gauge needle may reduce the risk of coring. Which of the following needles would be likely cause coring?
20 gauge
Two large weigh boats can vary as much as _______ mg.
200
what is the final volume if the amount of diluent is 120mL and the powder volume is 80mL
200mL
a prescription is written for amoxicillin 500 mg with the directions''ii caps to start,then i cap tid for seven days.''the number of capsules needed is
22
How many 5 mL doses are in a 120 mL bottle of cough syrup?
24
how many 5 mL doses are in a 120 bottle of cough syrup
24
What is the percent strength (w/w) of a drug if 50 mg of drug are added to 150 mg diluent?
25%
what is the percent strength (w/w) of a drug if 50mg of drug are added to 150mg diluent
25%
Two large weigh boats taken from the same box can vary as much as____mg
250
Main Category codes have how many digits in ICD-10-CM: Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
3 alphanumeric characters Rationale: The main category codes for ICD-10-CM contain 3 digits - one alphabetic character followed by 2 numeric characters. All other alphanumeric characters denote subcategory or sub classification codes. The seventh character is referred to as the extender.
It is recommended to use intranasal dosage forms for ______ before discontinuing their use.
3-5 days
A medication order reads: Acetaminophen syrup 120 mg po q 6 hrs. How much acetaminophen syrup (160 mg/5 mL) is required for each dose?
3.75 mL
Before, after, and throughout each shift, pharmacy technicians should wash their hands with an antimicrobial agent for at least _____seconds.
30
Two weighing papers taken from the same box can vary as much as _____ mg.
30
Vancomycin 5 gram powder for injection is reconstituted with 100 mL to give a concentration of 50 mg/mL. What volume is needed for a dose of 1.5 g?
30 mL
how many mL of 50% dextrose solution and how many mL of water are needed to prepare 100mL of 15% dextrose solution
30mL of 50%dextrose+30mL water
How many 250 mg capsules of a drug are needed to prepare 100 g of a cream that contains 1% of the drug?
4
If a patient's current rate of Lactated Ringer's (LR) solution is 165 mL/hr, how many 1 liter bags are needed to last 24 hours?
4
how many 250mg capsules of a drug are needed to prepare 100g of a cream that contains 1% of the drug
4
What is the powder volume if adding 110 mL of diluent results in a final volume of 150 mL?
40 mL
The supernatural approach to treating illness gave way to a more scientific approach around
400 B.C.
what is the powder volume if adding 110 mL of diluent results in a final volume of 150mL
40mL
How many refills are allowed on a C-IV prescription? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
5 Any medication that is considered a C-I or a C-II is not allowed any refills. Any medication that is scheduled III, IV and V, are allowed up to 5 refills max.
Most drugs given orally are absorbed into the blood from the A) small intestine. B) large intestine. C) stomach. D) liver.
A) small intestine.
A prescription reads "Cephalexin 250 mg/5mL ; 10mL qid qs 5 days."Which would be the most logical choice of bottle for dispensing this prescription?
A 200 mL bottle would be sufficient.
A DUR (Drug Utilization Review) warning may concern all of the following EXCEPT:
A food allergy.
The SOAP note is: Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
A method of documentation employed by healthcare providers to write out notes in a patient's chart Rationale: The SOAP note is a method of documentation employed by health care providers to write out notes in a patient's chart
What is Motivational Interviewing? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
A method that pharmacy team members identify compliance and adherence issues through conversation Rationale: Motivational Interviewing is a system that, through conversation, pharmacy team members identify compliance and adherence issues, any adverse or undesired effects of medication, present opportunity for the patient to ask questions of the pharmacist, document findings and follow up per pharmacist's instruction
An example of Schedule II drug is -
A narcotic pain reliever.
A purchase order number is: Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
A number used to identify an order A purchase order number, or po, is automatically assigned to each order for identification.
A typical review for an altered prescription includes looking for each of the following EXCEPT:
A prescription for a child.
Which of the following telephone calls should the medical administrative assistant route directly to the provider?
A provider from another office needs to discuss a patient's case
Which is a true statement about fecal excretion? A) Fecal excretion is slower than renal excretion. B) Orally administered drugs undergo fecal excretion if they are completely absorbed. C) Drugs that undergo enterohepatic recycling will be excreted in the feces. D) All of the above
A) Fecal excretion is slower than renal excretion.
HIPAA is an acronym for A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) Health Initiative Pharmacy Privacy Act C) Hospital Insurance Plan Protection Act D) None of the above
A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
A prescription written "tab i q hs" is correctly interpreted as: A) Take one tablet at bedtime. B) Insert one suppository at bedtime. C) Take one capsule in the evening. D) None of the above.
A) Take one tablet at bedtime.
The directions for this medication should read: A) Take two teaspoonfuls four times a day for five days B) Take two tablespoonfuls four times a day for five days C) Take 10 teaspoonfuls two times a day for five days D) Take one teaspoonful once a day for one week
A) Take two teaspoonfuls four times a day for five days
What do the following drugs share in common: acetaminophen, methotrexate, nitrofurantoin, phenytoin, and aspirin? A) They can be hepatotoxic. B) They are to be avoided in hyperthyroidism. C) Patients quickly develop a physiological dependence on them. D) Patients get diarrhea when they take them.
A) They can be hepatotoxic
12. Coumadin® has a serious drug interaction with aspirin. A) True B) False
A) True
A person between two and twelve years old is considered a child. A) True B) False
A) True
Antitussive drugs are most commonly prescribed to treat coughing. A) True B) False
A) True
Dopamine is an example of a natural neurotransmitter. A) True B) False
A) True
Elderly patients may experience more drug interactions than other age groups because they have more chronic illnesses and therefore take more drugs. A) True B) False
A) True
Eye inflammation may be treated with corticosteroids. A) True B) False
A) True
Passive diffusion requires a concentration gradient from high concentration to low concentration. A) True B) False
A) True
Tall man lettering refers to the lettering used to help distinguish between two look-alike medication names. A) True B) False
A) True
The extent of absorption is determined by comparing the blood concentration-time profile of the drug product to a blood concentration-time profile of a standard drug product for which the extent of absorption is already known. A) True B) False
A) True
Each of the following organizations are directly involved with the name selection of a drug except the A) USDA. B) FDA. C) APA. D) USAN.
A) USDA.
Passive diffusion requires A) a concentration gradient from high concentration to low concentration. B) a concentration gradient from low concentration to high concentration. C) lipids and proteins. D) proteins only.
A) a concentration gradient from high concentration to low concentration.
A typical review for an altered prescriptions includes looking for each the following EXCEPT A) a prescription for a child. B) a drug with potential for abuse. C) an altered quantity. D) two different colors of ink.
A) a prescription for a child.
Drugs acting on the sympathetic nervous system are called A) adrenergic. B) antihelminthic. C) cholinergic. D) hematoporetic.
A) adrenergic.
The action of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs is both anti-inflammatory and A) analgesic. B) anesthetic. C) antineoplastic. D) immunologic.
A) analgesic.
All of the following are considered cardiovascular agents except A) antimetabolites. B) vasopressors. C) anticoagulants. D) antihyperlipidemics.
A) antimetabolites.
When the directions for a prescription are unclear, the pharmacy technician should A) ask the pharmacist for clarification. B) ask the patient for clarification. C) do their best to fill the prescription with the information available D) telephone the doctor for clarification.
A) ask the pharmacist for clarification.
Which set of circumstances will result in a drug undergoing urinary excretion but not urinary reabsorption? A) basic drug in high pH urine B) basic drug in low pH urine C) acidic drug in low pH urine D) none of the above
A) basic drug in high pH urine
Decreased blood flow from circulatory disorders can affect drug metabolism by A) changing the rate at which drugs move from the blood into hepatic cells. B) increasing the blood flow to the liver. C) shunting blood away from functioning hepatic cells. D) all of the above
A) changing the rate at which drugs move from the blood into hepatic cells.
Extended antagonist stimulation leads to a(n) A) increased number of receptors. B) decreased sensitivity of receptors. C) increased modulation of receptor metabolism. D) all of the above
A) increased number of receptors.
A patient taking warfarin began a diet rich in cruciferous vegetables; their INR decreased 50% within a week. The vegetables A) inhibited the anticoagulant activity. B) increased the urinary excretion of warfarin. C) increased the plasma protein binding of warfarin. D) decreased the absorption of warfarin.
A) inhibited the anticoagulant activity.
A receptor is thought of as a ______ and the drug that interacts with it as a _______. A) lock, key B) ball, chain C) glove, hand D) saucer, cup
A) lock, key
Pharmacogenomics has found that the largest genetic variability occurs in A) metabolism. B) absorption. C) excretion. D) distribution.
A) metabolism.
Child-proof containers are -
A) not required for liquid dosages B) required by law on all prescriptions without exception C) not required for patients aged 65 and older D) none of the above statements is correct. Answer: D) none of the above statements is correct.
Which ointment base is the most effective occlusive dressing? A) oleaginous B) w/o emulsion C) o/w emulsion D) water miscible
A) oleaginous
Opiate analgesics commonly do all of the following except A) reduce fever. B) produce hallucinations. C) cause addiction. D) relieve severe pain.
A) reduce fever.
Which liquid measuring device can only deliver one volume of liquid? A) single volume pipet B) oral syringe C) graduated cylinder D) micropipette
A) single volume pipet
When calibrating a medicine dropper, the drops should be measured in a: A) small graduated cylinder (10 ml). B) small beaker (25 ml). C) small Erlenmeyer Flask (10 ml). D) 1 oz. prescription bottle.
A) small graduated cylinder (10 ml).
"The extent to which a dosage form retains, within specified limits, and throughout its period of storage and use, the same properties and characteristics it possessed when it was made" is one definition: A) stability. B) incompatibility. C) expiration. D) half-life.
A) stability.
Aqueous solutions containing high concentrations of a sugar are called A) syrups. B) elixirs. C) tinctures. D) fluid extracts.
A) syrups.
An example of a drug that should not be used in children under eight years old is A) tetracycline B) Bactrim®. C) nystatin D) cefaclor
A) tetracycline
Third-party billing means A) the patient's insurance provider will be billed. B) the patient's next of kin will be billed. C) the physician's office will be billed. D) the patient will be billed directly.
A) the patient's insurance provider will be billed.
When selecting a device for liquid measurement A) use the smallest device that will accommodate the volume of liquid. B) use a larger device than is required for the volume of liquid to allow room for mixing. C) use only devices marked TC. D) use the appropriate size prescription bottle.
A) use the smallest device that will accommodate the volume of liquid.
A/an _____ is a device that dispenses medications upon confirmation of an order communicated from a centralized computer system at their point of use
ADC, automated dispensing cabinet
Which of the following is a source of comprehensive, evidence-based drug information grouped by therapeutic use?
AHFS Drug Information
The process that transfers the drug into the blood is _______.
Absorption: The process that transfers the drug into the blood is absorption.
What should the medical administrative assistant do when closing the office?
Activate the security alarm
The Drug Supply Chain Act is primarily responsible for
Addressing counterfeit medications
Jane is prescribed a medication from her physician. She is instructed to take it three times daily for fourteen days until gone. Upon her follow three weeks later, Jane informs the physician that she forgot some of her doses each day, and stopped taking the medication after nine days because she was feeling better. Which factor did Jane not follow? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Adherence Rationale: Adherence refers to medication being prescribed without any missed doses.
LVP solutions are commonly used for: Select one: A. Nutrition B. All the above C. Fluid balance disturbances D. Administration for other drugs
All the above
What action is appropriate for a medical administrative assistant to take when providing preoperative instructions to a patient who is anxious?
Allow extra time to reinforce the instructions
When a drug is added to a parental solution, the resulting preparation is called
An admixture solution.
What is a syrup?
An aqueous solution that contains a high concentration of a sugar, generally sucrose.
The typoe of formulary that allows purchase of any medication that is prescribed is
An open formulary
What specialty reference is used to find information on physical pharmacy?
Ansel's Pharmaceutical Dosage Forms and Drug Delivery Systems
Which of the following most accurately describes the difference between agonists and antagonists?
Antagonist bind to a receptor but don't activate it
Drugs that bind to receptors but do not activate them is called?
Antagonist is a drug that binds to receptors.
A high alert medication is -
Any medication with a narrow therapeutic index.
The avoid first-pass metabolism, the drug needs to be administered:
Any other route other than oral: With oral administration, a drug is absorbed through the GI tract and is delivered to the liver. Any other route bypasses the liver which will avoid first-pass metabolism.
Which reference would best help a pharmacy technician review principles involved in the production of compounded products?
Applied Pharmaceutics in Contemporary Compounding
If the prescriber indicates the medication is to be used PRN, it means -
As needed
What is the relationship between the capsule size number and the physical size of the capsule?
As the capsule number increases, the size of the capsule decreases.
When the directions for a prescription are unclear, the pharmacy technician should -
Ask the pharmacist for clarification.
The abbreviation ADC refers to
Automated Dispensing Cabinet
According to the USP-NF, one (1) gram of a drug that is "soluble" in a solvent will require _____ ml of solvent to dissolve. A) 1 B) 10-30 C) 30-100 D) 100-1,000
B) 10-30
Two weighing papers taken from the same box can vary as much as _____ mg. A) 5 B) 30 C) 120 D) 200
B) 30
_________ involves the movement of drugs from an area of lower concentration to higher concentration. A) Active diffusion B) Active transport C) Absorption D) Passive diffusion
B) Active transport
Patients should drink plenty of water while taking A) verapamil. B) Bactrim®. C) Plendil®. D) amlodipine.
B) Bactrim®.
19. Circulatory disorders will have a major impact on drugs that are less than 50% eliminated by the kidney. A) True B) False
B) False
A delay in gastric emptying will increase the absorption of a drug that is degraded by gastric acidity. A) True B) False
B) False
A patient with gouty arthritis is most likely to be taking a calcium channel blocker to treat arthritis. A) True B) False
B) False
A pharmacy technician may legally receive a new verbal or telephone prescription order from a physician, once the physician has been correctly identified. A) True B) False
B) False
Acyclovir is used to treat fungal infections . A) True B) False
B) False
All prescriptions must contain the patient's identification number to ensure correctness. A) True B) False
B) False
Because of time constraints, the pharmacy technician is often required to make the final prescription check in a busy pharmacy. A) True B) False
B) False
Bioequivalency is determined by comparing the extent of absorption of two products. A) True B) False
B) False
Foods contain carbohydrates. Carbohydrates bind to the same plasma protein binding sites as many drugs. A) True B) False
B) False
In chronic renal disease, the binding of acidic drugs is reduced because there is an increase in the plasma concentration of albumin. A) True B) False
B) False
Meclizine is commonly used in the treatment of hypertension A) True B) False
B) False
Most drugs and their metabolites are excreted by the gallbladder. A) True B) False
B) False
The technician is not responsible for ensuring HIPAA laws are adhered to. A) True B) False
B) False
While important, patient allergies need not be included in the patient profile. A) True B) False
B) False
An example of an abbreviation for a route of administration could be: A) QID B) SL C) DAW D) PRN
B) SL
All suspension formulations should have the following auxiliary label on the container: A) Refrigeration required B) Shake well before use C) Keep at room temperature D) For internal use only
B) Shake well before use
What do vancomycin, phenytoin, gentamicin, and digoxin drugs have in common? A) They are only given by oral administration. B) They are therapeutically monitored drugs. C) They are common antibiotics. D) They have identical MECs.
B) They are therapeutically monitored drugs.
Drugs often used therapeutically for cardiovascular disorders include all of the following except A) ACE inhibitors. B) alkylating agents. C) diuretics. D) calcium channel blockers.
B) alkylating agents.
Albuterol and theophylline are considered drugs with _______________ action. A) decongestant B) bronchodilator C) antihistamine D) anti-inflammatory
B) bronchodilator
To ensure the accuracy of a volume of a liquid dispensed with a syringe A) use only Slip-Tip® syringes. B) completely fill the hub with the liquid. C) depress the plunger to expel air bubbles. D) fully submerge the tip of the syringe into the fluid when filling.
B) completely fill the hub with the liquid.
"The preparation, mixing, assembling, altering, packaging, and labeling of a drug or device in accordance with a licensed practitioner's prescription, medication order, or an initiative based on the practitioner/patient/pharmacist/compounder relationship in the course of professional practice" is an official definition of: A) manufacturing. B) compounding. C) stability. D) documentation.
B) compounding.
Half-life is the amount of time needed for blood concentrations of a drug to A) increase 50% of an initial value. B) decline to one-half of an initial value. C) decline from the MTC to one-half of the MEC. D) progress from 50% the onset of action to 50% of the MEC.
B) decline to one-half of an initial value
A high carbohydrate (low protein) diet is expected to A) increase oral absorption. B) decrease hepatic metabolism. C) increase urinary reabsorption. D) increase displacement of plasma protein bound drugs.
B) decrease hepatic metabolism.
Circulatory disorders can effect drug absorption by A) increasing intestinal motility. B) delaying drug absorption. C) increasing blood flow to the intestine. D) increasing gastric emptying rate.
B) delaying drug absorption.
All of the following are local anesthetics EXCEPT A) procaine. B) etomidate. C) dyclonine. D) lidocaine.
B) etomidate.
Drugs used as anticoagulants typically cause which adverse drug reaction? A) allergic reactions after five days B) excessive bleeding C) dose dependent anaphylactic shock D) end stage renal disease
B) excessive bleeding
A "sterile" IV solution means it is free from:
Bacteria & other microorganisms.
A new drug was found to have elevated plasma concentrations within 24 hours when given with cimetidine. What is the most likely drug-drug interaction mechanism? A) an additive drug interaction B) hepatic enzyme inhibition C) decreased glomerular filtration D) plasma protein binding displacement
B) hepatic enzyme inhibition
Pharmacogenomics is the study of A) birth defects. B) heredity effects on the ADME processes. C) pregnancy and offspring. D) all of the above
B) heredity effects on the ADME processes.
Ambien® may be best described as a A) narcotic. B) hypnotic. C) antidepressant. D) benzodiazepine.
B) hypnotic.
When absorption is the predominant ADME process, blood concentrations A) decrease. B) increase. C) remain the same. D) fluctuate between a maximum and a minimum.
B) increase.
Which physiological effect would not explain an increased drug bioavailability in hepatic disease? A) intestinal blood flow that bypasses liver cells B) increased metabolism in the intestinal wall C) increased intestinal drug absorption D) decreased first-pass metabolism
B) increased metabolism in the intestinal wall
A typical dose-response curve shows that the response ______ as the dose increases. A) decreases B) increases C) remains the same D) plateaus
B) increases
Which route of administration formulation has an extent of absorption that is 100%? A) oral administration/capsules B) rapid intravenous administration/solution C) rectal administration/emulsion D) topical administration/cream
B) rapid intravenous administration/solution
Antiarrythmics regulate conduction activity of the heart. Which of the following area of the heart is not directly involved with this function? A) Purkinje fibers B) right ventricle C) SA node D) AV node
B) right ventricle
Which would be the preferred method of blending eutectic mixtures? A) trituration B) spatulation C) sieving D) tumbling
B) spatulation
Which technique will not reduce the particle size of a powder? A) trituration with a mortar and pestle B) spatulation on an ointment slab C) levigation D) dissolve the powder in a solvent, and then evaporate the solvent
B) spatulation on an ointment slab
The USP-NF provides beyond-use date recommendations for compounded preparations when other scientific stability information is not available. For nonaqueous formulations what is the USP-NF recommended beyond-use date? A) fourteen days B) the earliest expiration date of any active principal ingredient or 6 months, whichever is earlier C) 6 months D) the intended duration of therapy
B) the earliest expiration date of any active principal ingredient or 6 months, whichever is earlier
When using a Class A torsion balance: A) the weight goes on the left pan and the powder goes on the right pan. B) the weight goes on the right pan and the powder goes on the left pan. C) no need to place weights, as the weight can be adjusted internally. D) Class A torsion balances only have one pan to weigh powders.
B) the weight goes on the right pan and the powder goes on the left pan.
Which ingredient is used in a suspension to retard the settling of the suspended particles? A) flocculating agent B) thickening agent C) surface active agent D) sweetening agent
B) thickening agent
_____ for medications are used in many pharmaceutical applications
Bar-code scanners
Which set of circumstances will result in a drug undergoing urinary excretion but not urinary reabsorption?
Basic drug in low pH urine
The primary number needed from an insurance card to submit claims through the pharmacy for a prescription is the: Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
BIN NUMBER Rationale: The BIN (Bank Identification number) is needed to route the claim to the insurance from the pharmacy. .
Obtaining vital signs against a patient's will is an example of what type of offence?
Battery
The _____ is the angled end of a needle?
Bevel
Dual co-pays are used for: Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
Brand medications and generic medications Rationale: Dual co-pay means a lower co-pay applies to generics and higher co-pay applies to brand name drugs.
Alzheimer's Disease, a progressive dementia, may often be treated with A) prednisone. B) lorazepam. C) Aricept®. D) cephalexin.
C) Aricept®.
A patient with an allergy to "sulfa" (sulfonamides) should not take A) tetracycline. B) minocycline C) Bactrim DS®. D) Augmentin®.
C) Bactrim DS®.
Common examples of antipsychotic drugs include all of the following except A) Thorazine®. B) Risperdal®. C) Prozac®. D) Seroquel®.
C) Prozac®.
_______ occur(s) when two drugs with similar pharmacological actions produce greater effects than the sum of individual effects. A) Displacement B) Inhibition C) Synergism D) Additive effects
C) Synergism
An example of a Schedule II drug is A) a birth control pill. B) an inhaler for asthma. C) a narcotic pain reliever. D) an antibiotic.
C) a narcotic pain reliever.
The term which best describes a drug which inhibits bacterial growth is A) bactericidal. B) bacterial modifier. C) bacteriostatic. D) antimycobacterial.
C) bacteriostatic.
If a prescription reads: "QID pc" it is to be taken A) four times a day before meals. B) three time a day and at bedtime, if needed. C) four times a day after food. D) four times a day with water.
C) four times a day after food.
Which type of mortar and pestle would be best for mixing liquids and semisolids? A) wedgewood B) porcelain C) glass D) ceramic
C) glass
When compounding an emulsion by the beaker method, the: A) water soluble components are heated to 100°C. B) oil soluble components are heated to 55°C. C) internal phase is added and mixed with the external phase. D) external phase is added all at once to the internal phase.
C) internal phase is added and mixed with the external phase.
The _____ is the blood concentration needed to produce a response. A) minimum toxic concentration (MTC) B) onset of action C) minimum effective concentration (MEC) D) therapeutic window
C) minimum effective concentration (MEC)
Which kind of contraceptive product least mimics natural ovarian hormones? A) biphasic mix B) triphasic/biphasic mix C) monophasic D) triphasic
C) monophasic
Emulsions are compounded using a combination of: A) oleaginous and aqueous components plus energy. B) oleaginous and aqueous components plus emulsifying agent plus energy. C) oleaginous components plus emulsifying agent plus energy. D) oleaginous and aqueous components plus emulsifying agent.
C) oleaginous and aqueous components plus emulsifying agent plus energy.
Adapt-a-Caps® can be fitted with A) Slip-Tip® syringes. B) Luer-Lok® syringes. C) oral syringes. D) calibrated pipets.
C) oral syringes.
When extemporaneously compounding capsules gloves should be worn to A) enhance a technician's ability to grip the shell. B) keep the capsules from sticking together. C) prevent a technician's fingers from contacting the powder. D) prevent a technician's fingers from extracting moisture from the shell.
C) prevent a technician's fingers from contacting the powder.
Prescriptions are governed by federal and state rules and regulations. The primary purpose of these rules and regulations is to A) improve pharmacy efficiency. B) lower drug costs. C) provide minimal standards of practice. D) improve patient compliance.
C) provide minimal standards of practice.
The USP-NF defines a "cool place" as a place between 8º and 15ºC. Where in a patient's home can this temperature range be found? A) bathroom medicine cabinet B) kitchen cabinet C) refrigerator D) a shady corner in the living room
C) refrigerator
When the bioavailabilities from two formulations are significantly different, A) the blood concentration-time profiles are identical. B) the products have the same bioequivalence. C) the products are not bioequivalent. D) the products contain the same amount of fillers, binders, lubricants, etc.
C) the products are not bioequivalent.
Unionized drugs penetrate biological membranes because A) they associate with water. B) they cannot bind to proteins. C) they are more lipid soluble than the ionized form. D) charges on the biological membranes attract them.
C) they are more lipid soluble than the ionized form.
Liquid drugs, solvents, or additives are measured in volumetric glassware etched with either TD or TC. What does TD mean? A) to dispense, will dispense only part of the volume measured when emptied B) to dispense, will dispense the total volume measured when emptied C) to deliver, will deliver the total volume measured when emptied D) to deliver, will deliver more than the volume measured when emptied
C) to deliver, will deliver the total volume measured when emptied
It is mandatory for hospital pharmacies to keep all _____ drugs in a locked, secure area.
CII
What form is used to submit health insurance claims for a provider's office?
CMS-1500
Claims for disease management services are submitted using: Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
CMS-1500 Rationale: The CMS-1500 claim form is the universal standard claim form accepted by most insurers.
If a patient has a primary and secondary insurance, ____ allows for patients to have maximum coverage for health-care expenses through both insurance plans. Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
COB (coordination of benefits) Rationale: COB (Coordination of Benefits) allows the patients to get maximum coverage for healthcare expenses through both insurance plans.
A medical administrative assistant in a multi-specialty practice is scheduling an appointment for a patient who has an arrhythmia. The assistant should schedule an appointment with what type of provider?
Cardiologist
An office manager asks a medical administrative assistant to mail a letter to a patient who is being dismissed from the practice. What method should the assistant use to mail the letter?
Certified Mail
_______________ wrote the first great book of Indian medicine.
Charaka
If a pharmacy technician notices a controlled medication missing from the Pyxis machine on the nursing unit, who do they notify? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Charge Nurse
If two patients have the same name and live at the same address, the best way to ensure the correct patient is selected is to -
Check the birth date.
A shipping invoice should be: Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Checked Item for Item A shipping invoice is sent by the supplier with the shipment listing the items shipped. The invoice must be checked item by item against the items in the shipment to make certain nothing is missing.
Which statement best describes the consideration in selection a graduated cylinder?
Choose a graduated cylinder slightly larger than volume of liquid you intended to mesure.
Who would benefit the most from mail order filling? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
Chronic Condition Patients Rationale: Chronic condition means long term (maintenance meds) and acute means short team and/or stat. Chronic condition patients would benefit the most from mail order being that they are on medications long term.
What information is included in an explanation of benefits (EOB)?
Claim adjustments
What type of balance do pharmacies use? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Class A prescription balance Most pharmacies have a Class A prescription balance. It is a 2 pan torsion type balance which uses both internal and external weights.
ORAL CONTRACEPTIVES, ETC
Cyclically administered oral contraceptives and conjugated estrogens in a calendar pack are exempt.
"Sig" is an abbreviation for the Latin word Signa which means A) "beware." B) "fill." C) "recipe." D) "to write."
D) "to write."
Prescription errors can be prevented by A) the technician. B) computer alerts. C) the pharmacist. D) All of the above.
D) All of the above.
Store __________ in tightly closed original container. A) Vytorin® B) furosemide C) digoxin D) Nitrostat®
D) Nitrostat®
Child-proof containers are A) required by law on all prescriptions without exception. B) not required for patients aged 65 and older. C) not required for liquid dosages. D) None of the above statements is correct.
D) None of the above statements is correct
Which of the following tasks is not the role of a pharmacy technician? A) Matching the correct patient with the correct prescription at time of pick-up. B) Phoning an MD's office for refill authorization. C) Consulting insurance formularies for preferred medications. D) Performing final label and product check.
D) Performing final label and product check
Which of the following is NOT required on a valid written prescription when presented for filling? A) Drug name and quantity B) Patient name C) Physician name and signature D) Pharmacy name
D) Pharmacy name
Iron salts from dietary sources can significantly decrease the absorption of tetracycline. How can these two drugs be given concomitantly? A) Take the iron salt at bedtime. B) Give both of the drugs at the same time with food. C) Have the patient take the iron salts with a glass of milk. D) Separate the administration of the two drugs by about two hours.
D) Separate the administration of the two drugs by about two hours.
At which stage of General Anesthesia would you most commonly see systemic excitement? A) Stage IV B) Stage III C) Stage I D) Stage II
D) Stage II
Geometric dilution should be used to blend A) a large amount of drug powder with a large amount of powder diluent. B) a small amount of drug powder with a small amount of powder diluent. C) a large amount of drug powder with a small amount of powder diluent. D) a small amount of drug powder with a large amount of powder diluent.
D) a small amount of drug powder with a large amount of powder diluent.
Polyethylene glycol (PEG) 8,000 would be expected to be: A) a liquid. B) a gel. C) an emulsion. D) a solid.
D) a solid.
From a blood concentration-time profile, which parameter can be determined? A) onset of action B) duration of action C) therapeutic window D) all of the above
D) all of the above
Bioavailability is measured by the A) rate and extent the drug is available to the site of action. B) rate the drug is available to the site of action. C) extent the drug is available to the site of action. D) none of the above.
D) none of the above.
The primary health care professionals allowed to order prescriptions include all of the following EXCEPT: A) podiatrists B) medical doctors C) opticians D) pharmacists
D) pharmacists
You may see the anti-platelet agent, Plavix®, commonly ordered for a patient who A) is clinically depressed. B) needs hormonal replacement. C) suffers from hyperglycemia. D) recently had a stroke.
D) recently had a stroke.
In chronic renal disease, A) the dosage of a drug eliminated by the liver should be increased. B) the dosage of a drug eliminated by the kidney should be increased. C) the dosage of a drug eliminated by the liver should be decreased. D) the dosage of a drug eliminated by the kidney should be decreased.
D) the dosage of a drug eliminated by the kidney should be decreased.
If a prescription reads: ii gtt OS qid, it is intended for use in A) the ear. B) the nose. C) the mouth. D) the eye.
D) the eye
Patients are responsible for administering their own medications in the following setting: A) nursing homes B) hospices C) hospitals D) their own homes
D) their own homes
In the blood concentration-time profile, the duration of action can be measured as the A) time between minimum effective concentration (MEC) and minimum toxic concentration (MTC). B) time between dose administration and when the blood concentration first reaches the MEC. C) time between dose administration and when declining blood concentrations reach the MEC. D) time between when blood concentrations first reach the MEC and when the declining blood concentrations reach the MEC.
D) time between when blood concentrations first reach the MEC and when the declining blood concentrations reach the MEC.
Drugs which act to relax the smooth muscle of the bronchi are A) piperzines. B) mucolytics. C) antihistamines. D) xanthine derivatives.
D) xanthine derivatives
Which of the following health-care workers is allowed to prescribe medications for patients?
D.O.
Which one is not an E/M factor? Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
DATE Rationale: The Evaluation and Management factors to take into consideration when selecting a code are the place, type of service and patient status. Not the date.
If a patient were to come into the pharmacy with a name brand prescription, for example name brand "Tenormin" and the pharmacy ends up dispensing the generic "Atenolol", what DAW code could have been written on the prescription? Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
DAW 0 Rationale: All DAW codes 1 through 9 are intended for dispensing Brand Name. DAW 0 means "no dispense as written", it's an uncommon code that doctors never typically indicate on a script however if they did, the pharmacy can dispense the generic.
The U.S. government agency that regulates the distribution of controlled substances is the
DEA
What number is necessary for any prescriber that is written for a controlled substance as well as identifying the prescriber? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
DEA The DEA number is necessary for a controlled substance prescription as well as it is a requirement for many third-party payers.
Dioscorides wrote
De Materia Medica
The objective of _______ is to deliver the right drug, in the right concentration, to the right site of action, and the right time to produce the desired effect.
Drug therapy is to deliver the accurate drug, in the right concentration, to the right site of action, and at the right time. An example is people who get strep throat might have antibiotic therapy for a few weeks to cure the condition.
Comprehensive Medication Review (CMR) involves the pharmacist reviewing all of the following except: Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Diet and Nutrition The Pharmacist reviews all of patient's drugs including: prescribed medications, OTC's, herbal and dietary supplements as part of a Comprehensive Medication Review (CMR). This service falls under MTM and is billable to insurances. CMR is becoming an annual requirement for pharmacists to perform for polypharmacy patients.
What does the abbreviation DAW stand for?
Dispense as written if checked or written must be brand name.
All of the ADME processes together are sometimes referred to as:
Disposition is sometimes referred to as the four processes of blood concentration, ADME.
When working in a laminar flow hood
Do not sneeze into the hood.
_______________ was the first person in what is now the United States known to administer a smallpox vaccine.
Dr. Zabdiel Boylston
If the prescriptions reads ii gtt AD BID. What is the formulation of administration? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
Drops
What common pharmacy reference is used to compare medications in the same therapeutic class?
Drug Facts and Comparisons
What common drug information reference is the flagship publication from Lexicomp?
Drug Information Handbook
Before adding medical records to a patient's chart, the medical administrative assistant should do what action?
Ensure the provider has initialed reports
__________ was used for general anesthesia in the first publicized operation with general anesthesia.
Ether
The USP-NF Chapter<797> requires that the contagious compounding area be clean and sanitized
Every shift.
T/F Medications should be organized in a way that will dispense the newest items first. Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
FALSE Medications should be organized oldest to newest.
T/F DAW, dispense as written, means the pharmacy must dispense generic medication. Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
FALSE Rationale: DAW means to dispense the brand product only, not the generic.
T/F Only Hospitals use ICD coding for documentation. Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
FALSE Rationale: Hospitals use ICD coding as well as doctors' offices and even pharmacies.
Compounding pharmacies must follow policy and regulations of which organization?
FDA
If a prescription reads "QID pc" it is to be taken -
Four times a day after food.
Therapeutic route is the amount of a drug available to the site of action and the rate it becomes available.
False: Bioavailability is the technical term when the amount of a drug available to the site of action and the rate at which it becomes available.
Which is a true statement about fecal excretion?
Fecal excretion is slower than renal excretion
When working with glass ampules to prepare IV admixtures using aseptic technique, which type of needle must be used?
Filter
_________ are items that are readily available on the nursing unit or in ancillary areas and are not labeled for individual patients.
Floor stock
A laminar airflow workstation is a piece of equipment that provides an ultra clean work environment for compounding. What direction does the air flow in a vertical laminar airflow workstation?
From the top of the airflow workstation to the bottom
Which of the following is considered a high-alert medication?
Heparin
CPT codes for pharmacist services can include, but not limited to, all of the following, except: Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
HCPC Rationale: Pharmacist services can include ICD Codes, 99605 through 99607 descriptive services as well as the use of a CMS 1500 form. The HCPC is normally used in other healthcare settings such as medical, surgical and diagnostics.
Where should the pharmacy technician check for a possible incompatibility of two intravenous medications?
Handbook of Injectable Drugs
A pharmacy technician searching for storage information on inactive ingredients used in compounding would consult which reference book?
Handbook of Pharmaceutical Excipients
__________________________ is a specialty reference used for finding safety and storage information on inactive ingredients used in compounding.
Handbook of Pharmaceutical Excipients
Which organization can a pharmacy technician use to check the credibility of an Internet website?
Health on the Net Foundation (HON)
On which site would a pharmacy technician look for information on the privacy and security of electronic health records?
HealthIT.gov
A patient is renting a walker during recovery from hip surgery. Which code set is used to indicate the item received? Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System Rationale: Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) codes are used to code items, equipment, drugs, and supplies (such as wheelchairs, walkers, wound care dressings, IV nutrition or oxygen used in the home).
Why is it important to pay attention to DUR warning?
Help manage health care system understand, interpret, and improve the prescribing, administration, and use of medications.
What does the route of administration mean?
How to take it or where to put it.
A common prescribed generic Diuretic medication is:
Hydrochlorothiazide: One of the most common prescribed Diuretic's is Brand name Prinzide, generic name Hydrochlorothiazide.
When considering subcutaneous (SC) administration, which listing is the expected order of absorption rates from fastest to slowest?
IM>SC>Oral
Which of the following standard codes is used to represent diseases, injuries, burns, impairments, and other health-related problems? Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
ICD Rationale: ICD stands for International Classification of Diseases. These are the codes that are used to represent the patient's diagnosis or condition.
When an antibiotic injection is given in a small volume of solution that is connected to a main IV fluid bag, this is known as an
IV piggyback.
Which listing of parenteral routes is the expected order of absorption rates from fastest to slowest?
IV>IM>SC
Certain CPT Codes have been created to allow pharmacists to bill for consultation services such as: Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Immunizations, Diabetes training, and Medication Therapy Management Rationale: Pharmacists can use CPT codes to bill for consultation services such as: Medication Therapy Management, Immunizations, Physician Office Visits, Diabetes Self-Management, Transitional Care Management, and Annual Wellness visits.
Enzyme ______ is a process in which larger doses of drugs must be administered to produce therapeutic effects.
Induction: Enzyme induction is larger doses to be administered and enzyme inhibition is smaller doses.
A provider is running 30 min behind schedule because of an early morning emergency. What action should the medical administrative assistant take to maintain effective scheduling in the office?
Inform waiting patients that an emergency has caused a delay in the schedule and that they can wait or reschedule.
Which is not an "injection dependent" parenteral route of administration?
Inhalation
According to the USP-NF one (1) gram of a drug that is "insoluble" in a solvent will require how many ml of solvent to dissolve?,
Insoluble describes that more than 10,000 grams of solvent will be needed to dissolve 1 gram of drug, which in practical terms means the drug will not dissolve in any usable quantity of solvent.
Piggybacks are used to administer
Intermittent IV medications, 50-100 ml of IV fluid, and fluid through the same administration set as a primary LVP fluid.
If the prescription order indicates 200mg IM q8h, what is the route of administration? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
Intramuscular
All investigational drug trials within a hospital must be reviewed by the
Investigational Review Board.
What does TD etched in volumetric glassware mean?
It means "to deliver." The total volume measured will be dispensed when the vessel is emptied.
Which is a disadvantage of an oral suspension formulation?
It settles over time
What is the purpose of using a thickening agent in a compounded suspension?
It will increase the viscosity of the suspension and retard the settling rate of the particles.
Quinine is also called
Jesuit's powder
What should a pharmacy technician do with expired medications?
Keep it isolated from regular stock
The ______ filters the blood and removes wastes from the body.
Kidneys: The kidneys filter blood and remove wastes, drugs, and metabolites from the body.
An early form of immunization was practiced by
King Mithridates of Pontos.
What is the legal record of medications and drugs administered to the patient called? Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
MAR Rationale: A MAR (Medication Administration Record) is the legal document that is a full record of medications and drugs administered to the patient.
What are the four steps to compounding prescriptions? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Measure, Mix, Mold and Package Each individual compounded prescription can be viewed as a four step process: measure, mix, mold, and package.
A platform that allows a patient to have a designated, single date for refilling all of their prescriptions is: Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Med-Sync Medication Synchronization (Med-Sync) allows the Pharmacy Tech to recommend and schedule refills for a patient on a single, designated day to assist with medication adherence and compliance
The NDC number is unique 11 digit number used to identify -
Medication/Drug
Which is an example of packaging for SVP solutions?
Minibags Glass vials Ampules Correct! All of the above
Describe how a technician can blend two ingredients that form an eutectic mixture.
Mix each ingredient separately with a carrier powder such as starch, or lactose, and then blend the two mixtures together by spatulation.
When a drug produces an effect, it is acting at a/an _______ level.
Molecular:When a drug produces an effect, it is interacting at a molecular level with cellular material or structure.
How does the Pharmacy Technician assist the Pharmacist with improving Therapeutic Outcomes? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Monitoring compliance and adherence The Pharmacy Technician helps the Pharmacist with Therapeutic Outcomes through monitoring that the patient is engaging in the recommendations for medication use, diet, and exercise, and that the patient is taking their medications as prescribed. These are the elements involved in Compliance and Adherence
What is used to grind crystals and large particles into fine powders? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Mortar & Pestle A mortar and pestle are used to grind crystals and large particles into fine powders. The process is called trituration.
Which is an incorrect statement regarding clean rooms?
Must have restricted air flow.
Imhotep was the first physician known by
Name
Other questions that have come up: Can we reuse a child-resistant container on a refill?
No. One exception: any threaded container (screw top) can be reused but the lid must be replaced
Which technique would be expected to increase the solubility of a drug in a solution?
None of the above
A prescription is written for amoxicillin 500 mg with the directions "ii caps to start, then i cap tid for seven days." The number of capsules needed is -
None of the above answers. (7•3=21 => 21+2=23)
Describe the two primary methods used to compound an ointment.
One method is to simply combine two ointments together or incorporate a drug into an ointment base. This is typically done with spatulas on an ointment slab. The other method is to form the ointment base as part of the compounding process. Typically, this is done with the Beaker method of making emulsions.
What is the relationship between the molecular weight of PEG and the physical state of the PEG?
Numbers less than 1,000 are liquids, and numbers greater than 1,000 are solids.
Which organization regulated on the MSDS data sheets? Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
OSHA MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheets) are regulated by OSHA on a hazardous substance.
T/F Ointment slabs are used to mix liquid medications. Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Ointment slabs have a hard non-absorbable surface for mixing compounds an preparing ointments, creams and gels.
Which ointment base is the most effective occlusive dressing?
Oleaginous
From a blood concentration-time profile, which parameter can be determined?
Onset of action Duration of action Therapeutic window **All of the above**
The allowable purchase of any medication that is prescribed is called? Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Open Formulary An open formulary is one that allows purchase of any medication that is prescribed.
Which dosage form does not have a disintegration and dissolution step as part of its oral absorption process?
Oral solutions
If the insurance rejects a submitted claim with an error message "non-formulary", what type of insurance rejection would it be? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
PA Typically, a PA (Prior Authorization) means that the doctors needs to provide authorization on why the drug is medically necessary. The PA would require that the doctor's office submit info to the insurance stating why the medication is needed being that it's not on the normally covered formulary (non-formulary).
What is the abbreviation of a type of insurance plan?
POS (Point of Service)
Which Act requires pharmacies to carry child safety caps? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
PPA The Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA) requires pharmacies to carry child safety caps to help prevent children from poisoning if they accidently get into prescription medications.
The third set of numbers within an NDC number represents: Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
Package Size Rationale: There are three sets of numbers within an NDC. First set represents the manufacturer, the second is the strength and dosage and the third set is the package size.
_______________ is the most complete record of ancient Egyptian medicine and pharmacology and included about 800 prescriptions using 700 drugs.
Papyrus Ebers
________________ was a Swiss alchemist in the early 1500s who rejected all previous medical teaching other than Hippocrates.
Paracelsus
An advantage of Medication Synchronization is: Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Patients can have a designated, single date, for refilling all their prescriptions Rationale: Medication Synchronization is a platform that allows a patient to have a designated, single date for refilling all their prescriptions, assists the patient's ability for compliance and adherence and pharmacy technicians can directly recommend and schedule for patients.
Which of the following tasks is not the role of pharmacy technician?
Performing final label and product check.
The system in which maintains a continuous record of every item in inventory is called? Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Perpetual Inventory System In order to maintain adequate supply of medications, pharmacies use a Perpetual Inventory System.
Quinine is made from the bark of the
Peruvian cinchona tree.
What is the root word meaning of "swallow"?
Phag
_______ equivalents is a drug product that contain identical amounts of the same active ingredient in the same dosage form.
Pharmaceutical: Therapeutic equivalents produce same effects with a different dosage form but pharmaceutical equivalents contact identical amounts of the same ingredient in the same dosage form. To find a complete list of the FDA's approved drug products and their therapeutic equivalents, refer to the "Orange Book".
Who would be ultimately responsible to take refill requests over the phone from a doctor's office? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
Pharmacist Only the pharmacist can legally take a new prescription over the phone being called in by the physician's office.
Prescription errors can be prevented by -
Pharmacist, technician, and computer alerts. Answer: All of the above
Counseling, as required by OBRA '90, is to be provided by -
Pharmacists
All of the following health-care professionals are allowed to order prescriptions EXCEPT:
Pharmacists.
What is the procedure called that involves a mechanical process of handling and distributing medications using a robotic precision dispensing machine? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Pharmacy Automation Pharmacy automation is the technical term of handling and distrusting medications using a robotic precision dispensing machine
Which type of pharmacy literature provides the foundation for the development of other pharmacy literature?
Primary
If the insurance company rejects a submission from the pharmacy, with an error stating that this "medication is non-formulary", what type of rejection would the pharmacy receive? Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
Prior Authorization Rationale: Most insurance that requires a prior authorization need verification from the provider why a non-formulary is required.
What type of publication is America's Pharmacist?
Professional Practice Journal
Which drug would not typically be monitored by peak and trough blood concentrations?
Promethazine
Which is a mechanism of drug action?
Protective/physical Chemical reaction Modify the creation, release, or control of hormones **All of the Above***
Medication Therapy Management is important for all except which of these reasons? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Provides the technician with the Frayer Model drug worksheet Rationale: The importance of MTM is that it allows the pharmacist to spend more time with the patient to answer questions, fostering the patient's understanding of their medication regimens which leads to better outcomes, improves patient safety and enhances patient adherence to treatment plans
When an order is received in the pharmacy, the order invoice must be carefully checked against the _______? Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Purchase Order It's important that the pharmacy checks any incoming orders against the purchase order to ensure accuracy.
A ____ is assigned by the purchaser to each order for identification
Purchase Order Number
Which system is an example of an automated point-of-use storage system for making floor stock items available to nurses in the hospital setting?
Pyxis Supply Station
Which is the correct procedure of adding a lyophilized drug packaged in a vial to the LVP solution?
Reconstitute the lyophilized drug in the vial and add to the LVP
Which of the following is an order for medication to be given immediately?
STAT
The federal legislation describing proper disposal of medications is called
Safe Water Drinking Act
In order for the laminar airflow workstation to meet Class 100 standards, its HEPA filter must allow fewer than 100 particles that measure greater than 0.3 micrometers per cubic foot of air. At the minimum , how often should a laminar flow airflow workstation be professionally serviced?
Semiannually
To calibrate is to: Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Set, mark, or check graduations of measuring device
All suspension formulations should have the following auxiliary label on the container:
Shake well before use
All suspension formulations should have the following auxiliary label on the container.
Shake well before use.
What auxiliary label should be on a compounded suspension container?
Shake well before use.
All of the methods of compounding emulsions require that energy be put into the system. How can this be done during a compounding process?
Shaking, heat, or through the action of a mortar and pestle.
___________________ is an early Chinese forerunner to the FDA approved drug list.
Shen Nung Pen Tsao
The place where a drug causes an effect to occur is called the:
Site of action
What do irrigation solutions, peritoneal dialysis solutions, and total parenteral nutrition solutions have in common?
Solution volumes are greater than 1, 000 mL
An example of a hospital automation device used to efficiently store bulk or unit dose medications is the
Talyst AutoCarousel
What does it mean when we say that the Pharmacy Technician's role is to be the "eyes and ears" of the Pharmacist? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Tech identifies any red flags with adverse drug effects or PIM that might require intervention or monitoring An area of concern is the use of Potentially Inappropriate Medications (PIM) and that age-related changes put the elderly at risk for adverse drug effects. Therefore, the Pharmacy Tech needs to adopt an anticipatory attitude to look and listen for any red flags that might require the Pharmacist to closely monitor meds, or intervene to prevent Medication-Related Problems (MRP's).
Which of the following is not a benefit of CMR? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Technician gains knowledge to make medication recommendations Rationale: CMR allows the technician to gain knowledge of medications, based on the Pharmacists recommendations. The Technician cannot make medication recommendations - only the Pharmacist can.
If a prescription error has been discovered after the prescription has been dispensed, what should be done and why?
Tell the pharmacist, call the patient.
When it is necessary to recap a needle, which of the following is correct? Select one: A. Two hands to ensure stability B. All needles should be recapped before being placed in a sharps container C. Needles should never be recapped under any circumstance D. The "One-hand" method of recapping is safer the two hands
The "One-hand" method of recapping is safer the two hands
Which of the following consists of a systematic review of evidence-based primary research in human health care and health policy?
The Cochrane Library
Which association accredits and certifies health-care organizations and programs in the United States?
The Joint Commission
Which pharmacy publication provides information about the entire body of pharmacy practice and also includes continuing education articles?
The Journal of Pharmacy Technology
Which of the following contains short abstracts from journal articles and information on clinical trials?
The Medical Letter
If a compounded preparation is stable what does that mean?
The dosage form retains, within specified limits, and throughout its period of storage and use, the same properties and characteristics it possessed when it was made.
If a prescription reads "ii gtt AU qid" it is intended for use in -
The ear.
The USP-NF provides beyond-use date recommendations for compounded preparations when other scientific stability information not available. For nonaqueous preparations, what is the USP-NF recommended beyond-use date?
The earliest expiration date of any active principal ingredient 6 months, whichever is earlier
The USP-NF provides beyond-use date recommendations for compounded preparations when other scientific stability information is not available. For nonaqueous preparations, what is the USP-NF recommended beyond-use date?
The earliest expiration date of any active principal ingredient or 6 months, whichever is earlier
What does the second letter within a DEA number represent? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
The first initial letter of the physicians last name The first letter of the DEA number will always begin with either an A or a B and the second letter will be the first initial letter of the physicians last name.
Prescription drug benefit cards contain necessary billing information, excluding: Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
The patient's address Rationale: Prescription drug benefit cards contain the patient's identification number, group number, and co-pay amount.
Third-party billing means -
The patient's insurance provider will be billed.
Controlled substance prescriptions can be entered in the system by: Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
The pharmacy technician and pharmacist can both enter in a new controlled prescription into the system.
What state governmental agency has jurisdiction for compounding in their states.
The state boards of pharmacy.
Why are glycerated gelatin suppositories preferable for vaginal suppositories?
The suppositories dissolve slowly and provide a prolonged release of the active ingredient.
What does the term half-life refer to?
The time it takes for the serum concentration of a drug to decline to half the initial value
When using a Class A torsion balance where does the technician place the weight and the drug?
The weight goes on the right pan and the powder goes on the left pan.
Pharmacies receive payment from: Lesson 17 - Financial Issues
The wholesaler & third parties The patient and third parties both pay the pharmacies for medications dispensed.
A medication error may include all of the following EXCEPT:
The wrong-sized vial.
Patients are responsible for administering their own medications in the following setting:
Their own homes.
Why should gloves be worn when compounding capsules?
This will to keep a compounder's finger prints off of the capsules. They can prevent a compounder from contacting the powder.
Viadur™ Duros®, Supprelin® LA, and Implanon® have which of the following in common?
They are subcutaneous implants
Why is a Schedule II medication different from other medications?
They have a high potential for abuse.
Which ingredient is used in a suspension to restart the settling of the suspended particles?
Thickening agent
Which ingredient is used in a suspension to retard the settling of the suspended particles?
Thickening agent
Bioequivalency is comparing one dosage form to another.
True: The FDA requires manufacturers to perform bioequivalence testing to compare one dosage form to another. Bio-equivalency studies are used to compare bioavailability between different dosage forms (tablets, capsules, etc.), different manufacturers and different production lots.
Laminar flow hoods provide a ___ work area.
Ultraclean
Are you allowed to ask elderly patients if they want easy-open containers?
Under the law, YES
Which is not considered a particulate material?
Undissolved active drug particles
A package containing a single dose of a medication: Lesson 16 - Inventory Management
Unit Dose Unit dose packaging allows the dispensing of individual doses of medications to patients in hospitals and other settings.
Biological safety cabinets
Use HEPA filters.
When selecting a device for liquid measurement,
Use the smallest device that will accommodate the volume of liquid.
When compounding an emulsion by the breaker method, the
internal phase is added and mixed with the external phase.
What protects the balance pans from damage and provides a convenient way to transfer weighed material from the balance? Lesson 15 - Pharmacy Equipment
Weight boats or weight papers protect the pans from damage and also provide a convenient way to transfer the weighed material from the balance to another vessel
Which is the correct example in which a prescriber name should be into the computer system? Lesson 19: Pharmacy Management Software and Reading Prescriptions
Williams, Robert Williams, Robert is the correct way to enter the prescriber name. Start with the last name followed by a comma, one space, and then the first name.
With MTM, the Pharmacy Technician must do all but which of the following? Lesson 14 - Medication Therapy Management
Work with the patient to achieve best therapeutic outcomes Rationale: The Pharmacist works directly with the patient to achieve best therapeutic outcomes. With Medication Therapy Management, technicians take a greater role in patient care and safety, need to be knowledgeable of nomenclature and criteria, and work closely with the pharmacist
Can a patient come to you and request all prescriptions in easy-open packages?
Yes, but you should get it in writing. Pt sign a "rubber stamp" statement placed on the back of such prescriptions which states that the patient will be responsible for keeping all meds out of the reach of children.
How are drugs intranasally administered?
all of the above
a prescription reads''Celphalexin 250mg/5mL;10mL qid qs 5 days.''the directions on the label for this prescription should read
a 200mL bottle would be sufficient
CPT stands for: Lesson 18 - An Introduction to Medical Coding
a Current Procedural Terminology
The PTCB requires that pharmacy technicians obtain 20 hours of continuing education credit every 2 years; which of the following also applies?
a and b (In pharmacy law) & (patient safety)
Temperature, pH , and use of buffers
a factor that can cause parenteral incompatibilities.
a DUR(Drug Utilization Review)warning may concern all of the following EXCEPT
a food allergy
an example of a Schedule II drug is
a narcotic pain reliever
a typical review for an altered prescription includes looking for each of the following EXCEPT
a prescription for a child
Geometric dilution should be used to blend
a small amount of drug powder with a large amount of powder diluent
Geometric dilution should be used to blend
a small amount of drug powder with a large amount of powder diluent.
Polyethylene glycol (PEG) 8,000 would be expected to be:
a solid.
A regular customer is at the counter requesting pick up of medication that is a schedule II. What is required besides the customer's signature? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
a valid ID
Medications should be organized in
a way that will facilitate the dispensing of the oldest inventory first
Orally administered drugs can be lost by which mechanism?
all of the above
Piggybacks are used to administer
all of the above
The information needed to return a medication to the wholesaler usually includes the
all of the above
To avoid _________, change or rotate the site of intramuscular (IM) administration.
all of the above
Which ADME process does a drug have after intramuscular (IM) administration that is not present after intravenous (IV) administration?
absorption
First-pass metabolism refers to the substantial degradation of the drug following
absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.
The ADME process that involves the movement of drug molecules from the site of administration, across cell membranes, and into the circulatory system of the body is known as
absorption.
The most widely used drug in the world is
acetylsalicylic acid
safety device
activated immediately after injection
USP Chapter <800>
addresses the way hazardous drugs are stored and promotes safety for patients and workers in health care and veterinarian care.
When a drug is added to a parenteral solution, the resulting preparation is called an
admixture solution
The pharmacy technician is filling an order that reads Montelukast 10 mg po tid. The technician knows that this medication is usually given once daily. The technician should
alert the pharmacist of the potential error.
a high-alert medication is
any medication with a narrow therapeutic index
If the directions read i tab prn for anxiety, how often is the medication taken? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
as needed
when the directions for a prescription are unclear,the pharmacy technician should
ask the pharmacist for clarification
Special markings on medication bottles called _____ are used to quickly identify a medication with the computer system
bar codes
When intranasally administering a drug with an MDI aerosol,
breathe in as the MDI is actuated.
What about Imitrex® in a bubble pack?
bubble packs may be child-resistant, but not all are.
The word pedrigree refers to the
chain of custody from manufacturer to final dispensing pharmacy
if two patients have the same name and live at the same address,the best way to ensure the correct patient is selected is to
check the birth date
What is important to remember with "child-resistant packaging"?
child-resistant container statute addresses only drugs for oral use in humans. Animal prescriptions may not be required but pharmacists do it as a precaution
Which statement best describes the consideration in selecting a graduated cylinder?
choose a graduated cylinder slightly larger than the volume of liquid you intend to measure
The discovery of _____________ revolutionized surgery and dentistry.
cocaine
Which is a true statement about coloring a compounded liquid?
coloring agents are contraindicated in all sterile preparations
The action of reducing a material to small particles is called
comminution
"The preparation, mixing, assembling, altering, packaging, and labeling of a drug or device in accordance with a licensed practitioner's prescription, medication order, or an initiative based on the practitioner/patient/pharmacist/compounder relationship in the course of professional practice" is an official definition of
compounding.
if a prescription reads''QID pc''it is to be taken
four times a day after food
Which is not a site of intramuscular (IM) administration?
front of thigh
Which oral liquid formulation is characterized by a three-dimensional network of particles?
gel
Which type of mortar and pestle would be best for mixing liquids and semisolids?
glass
If a technician wants to reduce the number of calories in a syrup that uses sucrose as the sugar ___________ or __________ could be suggested.
glucose; fructose
Using wholesalers
greatly simplifies the drug purchasing process
Which is the appropriate abbreviation for "Drops"? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
gtt
Which is a disadvantage of vaginal administration?
has variable absorption due to organ dynamics
Exceptions for aspirin packaging:
if Bayer Aspirin 325 mg tablets are sold in packages of 30, 50 and 100 tablets, one of those sizes can be marketed in an easy-open container - MUST BE LABELED
Shipments of broken or damaged stock should be tracked and reported to the wholesaler or supplier
immediately
The "zone of turbulence" formed in a horizontal airflow workstation is an area of turbulent airflow formed.
in front of (i.e., on the opening side of the workstation) a large container.
Extended antagonist stimulation leads to a(n)
increased number of receptors.
When absorption is the predominant ADME process, blood concentrations in a blood concentration-time profile are
increasing.
What does 'inh' stand for? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
inhalation
Injectability refers to the properties of a suspension while being ______.
injected through a needle
When compounding an emulsion by the beaker method,the
internal phase is added and mixed with the external phase
When compounding an emulsion by the beaker method, the
internal phase is added and mixed with the external phase.
Cocaine was the first effective
local anesthetic
A receptor is thought of as a ______ and the drug that interacts with it as a _______.
lock, key
Which dermal formulation is a suspension?
lotion
Which is a unique dosage form for sublingual administration?
lozenge
Some reasons why is there a need for pharmaceutical compounding?
make dosage forms that are more appealing to increase compliance and parenteral admixtures ordered on an "as needed" basis and difficulty in handling or measuring dosages. D) all of the above.
Some reasons why is there a need for pharmaceutical compounding? A) make dosage forms that are more appealing to increase compliance. B) parenteral admixtures ordered on an "as needed" basis. C) difficulty in handling or measuring dosages. D) all of the above.
make dosage forms that are more appealing to increase compliance and parenteral admixtures ordered on an "as needed" basis and difficulty in handling or measuring dosages. D) all of the above.
Some things that the USP-NF contains: A) monographs of compounded preparations. B) standards of quality, strength, and purity of compounded preparations. C) standards for personnel involved in compounding preparations. D) all of the above.
monographs of compounded and standards of quality, strength, and purity of compounded preparations. and standards for personnel involved in compounding preparations. D) all of the above.
ISOSORBIDE DINITRATE
must be readily available to relieve severe angina pectoris.
Sublingual Nitrogen
must not be dispensed in child-resistant containers.
The NDC number is used by the manufacturer to indicate
none of the above
Which technique would be expected to increase the solubility of a drug in a solution
none of the above
child-proof containers are
none of the above statements is correct
Which ointment base is the most effective occlusive dressing?
oleaginous
Emulsions are compounded using a combination of
oleaginous and aqueous components plus emulsifying agent plus energy
Emulsions are compounded using a combination of
oleaginous and aqueous components plus emulsifying agent plus energy.
Schedule II controlled substances are ordered
on a DEA-222 form or electronically on CSOS
If the physician directs a patient to take a prescription qd, how often should it be taken? Lesson 31 - Interpreting Prescriptions and Scenarios
once every day
which of the following is NOT required on a valid written prescription when it is presented for filling
pharmacy name
When extemporaneously compounding capsules, glove should be worn to
prevent a technician's fingers from contacting the powder
When extemporaneously compounding capsules, gloves should be worn to
prevent a technician's fingers from contacting the powder.
prescriptions are governed by federal and state rules and regulations. the primary purpose of these rules and regulations is to
provide minimal standards of practice
break the seal
pull plunger back and forth to loosen the seal
When a solution is free from soluble products produced by microorganisms, it is said to be
pyrogen free
A natural medicine that is found in some of today's teas and that became popular in the 1500s for its use on kidney and bladder ailments is
sarsaparilla.
Which would be the preferred method of blending eutectic mixtures?
spatulation
Which technique will not reduce the particle size of a powder?
spatulation on an ointment slab
"The extent to which a dosage form retains, within specified limits, and throughout its period of storage and use, the same properties and characteristics it possessed when it was made" in one definition of
stability
Ophthalmic formulations must be ______ in their final container.
sterile
Liquid drugs, solvents, or additives are measured in volumetric glassware etched with either TD or TC. What does TD mean?
to deliver, will deliver the total volume measured when emptied
Liquid drugs,solvents,or additives are measured in volumetric glassware etched with either TD or TC. What does TD mean?
to deliver;will deliver the total volume measured when emptied
''Sig'' is an abbreviation for the latin word signa,which means
to write
In horizontal laminar airflow workstations, air blows
toward the operator.
Which technique would NOT be expected to increase the solubility of a drug in a solution?
trituration and stirring the solvent and sonication D) All of the above
Which technique would NOT be expected to increase the solubility of a drug in a solution? A) trituration B) stirring the solvent C) sonication D) All of the above
trituration and stirring the solvent and sonication D) All of the above
Look-alike and sound-alike (LASA) medications
typically use tall-man lettering to help differentiate them.
Businesses that purchase drugs from phsrmaceutical manufacturers and resell their inventory to hospitals, pharmacies, and other phsrmaceutical dispensers are
wholesalers
. Items with trace amounts of chemotherapy or cytotoxic medications should be disposed of in _______ bins
yellow