Medsurg Exam 3 Practice Questions

90. The public health nurse is discussing hepatitis B with a group in the community. Which health promotion activities should the nurse discuss with the group? Select all that apply. 1. Do not share needles or equipment. 2. Use barrier protection during sex. 3. Get the hepatitis B vaccine. 4. Obtain immune globulin injections. 5. Avoid any type of hepatotoxic medications.

1, 2, 3 1. Hepatitis B can be transmitted by sharing any type of needles, especially those used by drug abusers. 2. Hepatitis B can be transmitted through sexual activity; therefore, the nurse should recommend abstinence, mutual monogamy, or barrier protection. 3. Three doses of hepatitis B vaccine provide immunity in 90% of healthy adults.

79. The client in end-stage liver failure has vitamin K deficiency. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply. 1. Avoid rectal temperatures. 2. Use only a soft toothbrush. 3. Monitor the platelet count. 4. Use small-gauge needles. 5. Assess for asterixis.

1, 2, 3, 4 1. Vitamin K deficiency causes impaired coagulation; therefore, rectal thermometers should be avoided to prevent bleeding. 2. Soft-bristle toothbrushes will help prevent bleeding of the gums. 3. Platelet count, partial thromboplastin time/prothrombin time (PTT/PT), and international normalized ratio (INR) should be monitored to assess coagulation status. 4. Injections should be avoided, if at all possible, because the client is unable to clot, but if they are absolutely necessary, the nurse should use small-gauge needles.

64. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse report to the health-care provider for the client recovering from an open cholecystectomy? Select all that apply. 1. Clay-colored stools. 2. Yellow-tinted sclera. 3. Amber-colored urine. 4. Wound approximated. 5. Abdominal pain

1, 2, 5 - Clay-colored stools are caused by recurring stricture of the common bile duct, which is a sign of post-cholecystectomy syndrome. - Yellow-tinted sclera and skin indicate residual effects of stricture of the common bile duct, which is a sign of post- cholecystectomy syndrome. - Abdominal pain indicates a residual effect of a stricture of the common bile duct, inflammation, or calculi, which is a sign of post-cholecystectomy syndrome.

73. The client is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which signs/symptoms should the nurse expect the client to exhibit? 1. Complaints of extreme fatigue and hair loss. 2. Exophthalmos and complaints of nervousness. 3. Complaints of profuse sweating and flushed skin. 4. Tetany and complaints of stiffness of the hands.

1. A decrease in thyroid hormone causes decreased metabolism, which leads to fatigue and hair loss.

81. The nurse is teaching the client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. Which information should be taught to the client? Select all that apply. 1. Notify the HCP if a three (3)-pound weight loss occurs in two (2) days. 2. Discuss ways to cope with the emotional lability. 3. Notify the HCP if taking over-the-counter medication. 4. Carry a medical identification card or bracelet. 5. Teach how to take thyroid medications correctly.

1. 2. 3. 4. - Weight loss indicates the medication may not be effective and will probably need to be increased. - The client needs to know emotional highs and lows are secondary to hyperthyroidism. With treatment, this emotional lability will subside. - Any over-the-counter medications (for example, alcohol-based medications) may negatively affect the client's hyperthyroidism or medications being used for treatment. - This will help any HCP immediately know of the client's condition, especially if the client is unable to tell the HCP.

68. The nurse is planning the care of a client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which interventions should be implemented? Select all that apply. 1. Restrict fluids per health-care provider order. 2. Assess level of consciousness every two (2) hours. 3. Provide an atmosphere of stimulation. 4. Monitor urine and serum osmolality. 5. Weigh the client every three (3) days.

1. 2. 4. - Fluids are restricted to 500 to 600 mL per 24 hours. - Orientation to person, place, and time should be assessed every two (2) hours or more often. - Urine and serum osmolality are monitored to determine fluid volume status.

71. The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which clinical manifestations should be reported to the health-care provider? 1. Serum sodium of 112 mEq/L and a headache. 2. Serum potassium of 5.0 mEq/L and a heightened awareness. 3. Serum calcium of 10 mg/dL and tented tissue turgor. 4. Serum magnesium of 1.2 mg/dL and large urinary output.

1. A serum sodium level of 112 mEq/L is dangerously low, and the client is at risk for seizures. A headache is a symptom of a low-sodium level.

51. The nurse is planning the care of a client diagnosed with Addison's disease. Which intervention should be included? 1. Administer steroid medications. 2. Place the client on fluid restriction. 3. Provide frequent stimulation. 4. Consult physical therapy for gait training.

1. Clients diagnosed with Addison's disease have adrenal gland hypofunction. The hormones normally produced by the gland must be replaced. Steroids and androgens are produced by the adrenal gland.

54. The nurse is performing discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with Cushing's disease. Which statement by the client demonstrates an understanding of the instructions? 1. "I will be sure to notify my health-care provider if I start to run a fever." 2. "Before I stop taking the prednisone, I will be taught how to taper it off." 3. "If I get weak and shaky, I need to eat some hard candy or drink some juice." 4. "It is fine if I continue to participate in weekend games of tackle football."

1. Cushing's syndrome/disease predisposes the client to develop infections as a result of the immunosuppressive nature of the disease

77. The client diagnosed with liver failure is experiencing pruritus secondary to severe jaundice. Which action by the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) warrants intervention by the nurse? 1. The UAP is assisting the client to take a hot, soapy shower. 2. The UAP applies an emollient to the client's legs and back. 3. The UAP puts mittens on both hands of the client. 4. The UAP pats the client's skin dry with a clean towel.

1. Hot water increases pruritus, and soap will cause dry skin, which increases pruritus; therefore, the nurse should discuss this with the UAP.

80. The 68-year-old client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism is being treated with radioactive iodine therapy. Which interventions should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Explain it will take up to a month for symptoms of hyperthyroidism to subside. 2. Teach the iodine therapy will have to be tapered slowly over one (1) week. 3. Discuss the client will have to be hospitalized during the radioactive therapy. 4. Inform the client after therapy the client will not have to take any medication.

1. Radioactive iodine therapy is used to destroy the overactive thyroid cells. After treatment, the client is followed closely for three (3) to four (4) weeks until the euthyroid state is reached.

63. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse for the client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus? 1. Serum sodium. 2. Serum calcium 3. Urine glucose. 4. Urine white blood cells.

1. The client will have an elevated sodium level as a result of low circulating blood volume. The fluid is being lost through the urine. Diabetes means "to pass through" in Greek, indicating polyuria, a symptom shared with diabetes mellitus. Diabetes insipidus is a totally separate disease process.

86. The public health nurse is teaching day-care workers. Which type of hepatitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route via contaminated food, water, or direct contact with an infected person? 1. Hepatitis A. 2. Hepatitis B. 3. Hepatitis C. 4. Hepatitis D

1. The hepatitis A virus is in the stool of infected people and takes up to two (2) weeks before symptoms develop.

82. The client has end-stage liver failure secondary to alcoholic cirrhosis. Which complication indicates the client is at risk for developing hepatic encephalopathy? 1. Gastrointestinal bleeding. 2. Hypoalbuminemia. 3. Splenomegaly. 4. Hyperaldosteronism.

1. Blood in the intestinal tract is digested as a protein, which increases serum ammonia levels and increases the risk of developing hepatic encephalopathy.

74. The nurse identifies the client problem "risk for imbalanced body temperature" for the client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which intervention should be included in the plan of care? 1. Discourage the use of an electric blanket. 2. Assess the client's temperature every two (2) hours. 3. Keep the room temperature cool. 4. Space activities to promote rest.

1. External heat sources (heating pads, electric or warming blankets) should be discouraged because they increase the risk of peripheral vasodilation and vascular collapse.

40. The nurse and an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are caring for clients on an oncology floor. Which intervention should the nurse delegate to the UAP? 1. Assist the client with abdominal pain to turn to the side and flex the knees. 2. Monitor the Jackson Pratt drainage tube to ensure it is draining properly. 3. Check to see if the client is sleeping after pain medication is administered. 4. Empty the bedside commode of the client who has been having melena.

1. The UAP can help a client to turn to the side and assume the fetal position, which decreases some abdominal pain.

43. The client is diagnosed with cancer of the head of the pancreas. Which signs and symptoms should the nurse expect to assess? 1. Clay-colored stools and dark urine. 2. Night sweats and fever. 3. Left lower abdominal cramps and tenesmus. 4. Nausea and coffee-ground emesis.

1. The client will have jaundice, clay-colored stools, and tea-colored urine resulting from blockage of the bile drainage.

66. Which data should the nurse expect to assess in the client who had an upper gastrointestinal (UGI) series? 1. Chalky white stools. 2. Increased heart rate. 3. A firm, hard abdomen. 4. Hyperactive bowel sounds.

1. A UGI series requires the client to swallow barium, which passes through the intestines, making the stools a chalky white color.

62. The client two (2) hours postoperative laparoscopic cholecystectomy is complaining of severe pain in the right shoulder. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Apply a heating pad to the abdomen for 15 to 20 minutes. 2. Administer morphine sulfate intravenously after diluting with saline. 3. Contact the surgeon for an order to x-ray the right shoulder. 4. Apply a sling to the right arm, which was injured during surgery.

1. A heating pad should be applied for 15 to 20 minutes to assist the migration of the CO2 used to insufflate the abdomen. Shoulder pain is an expected occurrence.

70. The charge nurse is monitoring client laboratory values. Which value is expected in the client with cholecystitis who has chronic inflammation? 1. An elevated white blood cell (WBC) count. 2. A decreased lactate dehydrogenase (LDH). 3. An elevated alkaline phosphatase. 4. A decreased direct bilirubin level.

1. The white blood cell count should be elevated in clients with chronic inflammation.

77. The client is admitted to the intensive care department diagnosed with myxedema coma. Which assessment data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. Serum blood glucose level of 74 mg/dL. 2. Pulse oximeter reading of 90%. 3. Telemetry reading showing sinus bradycardia. 4. The client is lethargic and sleeps all the time.

2. A pulse oximeter reading of less than 93% is significant. A 90% pulse oximeter reading indicates a Pao2 of approximately 60 on an arterial blood gas test; this is severe hypoxemia and requires immediate intervention.

61. The client diagnosed with a pituitary tumor developed syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). Which interventions should the nurse implement? 1. Assess for dehydration and monitor blood glucose levels. 2. Assess for nausea and vomiting and weigh daily. 3. Monitor potassium levels and encourage fluid intake. 4. Administer vasopressin IV and conduct a fluid deprivation test.

2. Early signs and symptoms are nausea and vomiting. The client has the syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic (against allowing the body to urinate) hormone. In other words, the client is producing a hormone that will not allow the client to urinate.

78. The nurse identifies the client problem "excess fluid volume" for the client in liver failure. Which short-term goal would be most appropriate for this problem? 1. The client will not gain more than two (2) kg a day. 2. The client will have no increase in abdominal girth. 3. The client's vital signs will remain within normal limits. 4. The client will receive a low-sodium diet.

2. Excess fluid volume could be secondary to portal hypertension. Therefore, no increase in abdominal girth would be an appropriate short-term goal, indicating no excess of fluid volume.

84. Which signs/symptoms should make the nurse suspect the client is experiencing a thyroid storm? 1. Obstipation and hypoactive bowel sounds. 2. Hyperpyrexia and extreme tachycardia. 3. Hypotension and bradycardia. 4. Decreased respirations and hypoxia

2. Hyperpyrexia (high fever) and heart rate above 130 beats per minute are signs of thyroid storm, a severely exaggerated hyperthyroidism.

64. The nurse is discharging a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus. Which statement made by the client warrants further intervention? 1. "I will keep a list of my medications in my wallet and wear a Medic Alert bracelet." 2. "I should take my medication in the morning and leave it refrigerated at home." 3. "I should weigh myself every morning and record any weight gain." 4. "If I develop a tightness in my chest, I will call my health-care provider."

2. Medication for DI is usually taken every eight (8) to 12 hours, depending on the client. The client should keep the medication close at hand.

87. Which type of precaution should the nurse implement to protect from being exposed to any of the hepatitis viruses? 1. Airborne Precautions. 2. Standard Precautions. 3. Droplet Precautions. 4. Exposure Precautions.

2. Standard Precautions apply to blood, all body fluids, secretions, and excretions, except sweat, regardless of whether they contain visible blood.

37. The nurse is assessing a client with complaints of vague upper abdominal pain worse at night but relieved by sitting up and leaning forward. Which assessment question should the nurse ask next? 1. "Have you noticed a yellow haze when you look at things?" 2. "Does the pain get worse when you eat a meal or snack?" 3. "Have you had your amylase and lipase checked recently?" 4. "How much weight have you gained since you saw an HCP?"

2. The abdominal pain is often made worse by eating and lying supine in clients diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas

84. The client is admitted with end-stage liver failure and is prescribed the laxative lactulose (Chronulac). Which statement indicates the client needs more teaching concerning this medication? 1. "I should have two to three soft stools a day." 2. "I must check my ammonia level daily." 3. "If I have diarrhea, I will call my doctor." 4. "I should check my stool for any blood."

2. There is no instrument used at home to test daily ammonia levels. The ammonia level is a serum level requiring venipuncture and laboratory diagnostic equipment.

73. The client diagnosed with end-stage liver failure is admitted with esophageal bleeding. The HCP inserts and inflates a triple-lumen nasogastric tube (Sengstaken-Blakemore). Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement for this treatment? 1. Assess the gag reflex every shift. 2. Stay with the client at all times. 3. Administer the laxative lactulose (Chronulac). 4. Monitor the client's ammonia level.

2. While the balloons are inflated, the client must not be left unattended in case they become dislodged and occlude the airway. This is a safety issue.

52. The client is admitted to rule out Cushing's syndrome. Which laboratory tests should the nurse anticipate being ordered? 1. Plasma drug levels of quinidine, digoxin, and hydralazine. 2. Plasma levels of ACTH and cortisol. 3. A 24-hour urine for metanephrine and catecholamine. 4. Spot urine for creatinine and white blood cells (WBCs).

2. The adrenal gland secretes cortisol and the pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), a hormone used by the body to stimulate the production of cortisol.

63. The nurse is teaching a client recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which statement indicates the discharge teaching is effective? 1. "I will take my lipid-lowering medicine at the same time each night." 2. "I may experience some discomfort when I eat a high-fat meal." 3. "I need someone to stay with me for about a week after surgery." 4. "I should not splint my incision when I deep breathe and cough."

2. After removal of the gallbladder, some clients experience abdominal discomfort when eating fatty foods.

69. Which assessment data indicate to the nurse the client recovering from an open cholecystectomy may require pain medication? 1. The client's pulse is 65 beats per minute. 2. The client has shallow respirations. 3. The client's bowel sounds are 20 per minute. 4. The client uses a pillow to splint when coughing.

2. An open cholecystectomy requires a large incision under the diaphragm. Deep breathing places pressure on the diaphragm and the incision, causing pain. Shallow respirations indicate inadequate pain control, and the nurse should intervene.

66. The nurse is caring for clients on a medical floor. Which client should be assessed first? 1. The client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) who has a weight gain of 1.5 pounds since yesterday. 2. The client diagnosed with a pituitary tumor who has developed diabetes insipidus (DI) and has an intake of 1,500 mL and an output of 1,600 mL in the last 8 hours. 3. The client diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) who is having muscle twitching. 4. The client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus (DI) who is complaining of feeling tired after having to get up at night.

3. Muscle twitching is a sign of early sodium imbalance. If an immediate intervention is not made, the client could begin to seize.

56. The nurse writes a problem of "altered body image" for a 34-year-old client diagnosed with Cushing's disease. Which intervention should be implemented? 1. Monitor blood glucose levels prior to meals and at bedtime. 2. Perform a head-to-toe assessment on the client every shift. 3. Use therapeutic communication to allow the client to discuss feelings. 4. Assess bowel sounds and temperature every four (4) hours.

3. Allowing the client to ventilate feelings about the altered body image is the most appropriate intervention. The nurse cannot do anything to help the client's buffalo hump or moon face

49. The nurse is admitting a client diagnosed with primary adrenal cortex insufficiency (Addison's disease). Which clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to assess? 1. Moon face, buffalo hump, and hyperglycemia. 2. Hirsutism, fever, and irritability. 3. Bronze pigmentation, hypotension, and anorexia. 4. Tachycardia, bulging eyes, and goiter.

3. Bronze pigmentation of the skin, particularly of the knuckles and other areas of skin creases, occurs in Addison's disease. Hypotension and anorexia also occur with Addison's disease.

80. Which gastrointestinal assessment data should the nurse expect to find when assessing the client in end-stage liver failure? 1. Hypoalbuminemia and muscle wasting. 2. Oligomenorrhea and decreased body hair. 3. Clay-colored stools and hemorrhoids. 4. Dyspnea and caput medusae.

3. Clay-colored stools and hemorrhoids are gastrointestinal effects of liver failure.

74. The client has had a liver biopsy. Which postprocedure intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Instruct the client to void immediately. 2. Keep the client NPO for eight (8) hours. 3. Place the client on the right side. 4. Monitor blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine level.

3. Direct pressure is applied to the site, and then the client is placed on the right side to maintain site pressure.

39. The nurse is planning a program for clients at a health fair regarding the prevention and early detection of cancer of the pancreas. Which self-care activity should the nurse discuss as an example of a primary nursing intervention? 1. Monitor for elevated blood glucose at random intervals. 2. Inspect the skin and sclera of the eyes for a yellow tint. 3. Limit meat in the diet and eat a diet low in fat. 4. Instruct the client with hyperglycemia about insulin injections.

3. Limiting the intake of meat and fats in the diet is an example of primary interventions. Risk factors for the development of cancer of the pancreas are cigarette smoking and eating a high-fat diet. By changing these behaviors, the client could possibly prevent the development of cancer of the pancreas. Other risk factors include genetic predisposition and exposure to industrial chemicals.

60. The client diagnosed with Cushing's disease has undergone a unilateral adrenalectomy. Which discharge instructions should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Instruct the client to take the glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid medications as prescribed. 2. Teach the client regarding sexual functioning and androgen replacement therapy. 3. Explain the signs and symptoms of infection and when to call the health-care provider. 4. Demonstrate turn, cough, and deep-breathing exercises the client should perform every two (2) hours.

3. Notifying the HCP if signs/symptoms of infection develop is an instruction given to all surgical clients on discharge.

76. The client diagnosed with end-stage renal failure and ascites is scheduled for a paracentesis. Which client teaching should the nurse discuss with the client? 1. Explain the procedure will be done in the operating room. 2. Instruct the client a Foley catheter will have to be inserted. 3. Tell the client vital signs will be taken frequently after the procedure. 4. Provide instructions on holding the breath when the HCP inserts the catheter.

3. The client is at risk for hypovolemia; therefore, vital signs will be assessed frequently to monitor for signs of hemorrhaging.

65. The client is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of rule-out diabetes insipidus (DI). Which instructions should the nurse teach regarding a fluid deprivation test? 1. The client will be asked to drink 100 mL of fluid as rapidly as possible and then will not be allowed fluid for 24 hours. 2. The client will be administered an injection of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), and urine output will be measured for four (4) to six (6) hours. 3. The client will have nothing by mouth (NPO), and vital signs and weights will be done hourly until the end of the test. 4. An IV will be started with normal saline, and the client will be asked to try to hold the urine in the bladder until a sonogram can be done.

3. The client is deprived of all fluids, and if the client has DI the urine production will not diminish. Vital signs and weights are taken every hour to determine circulatory status. If a marked decrease in weight or vital signs occurs, the test is immediately terminated.

42. The client is being admitted to the outpatient department prior to an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP) to rule out cancer of the pancreas. Which preprocedure instruction should the nurse teach? 1. Prepare to be admitted to the hospital after the procedure for observation. 2. If something happens during the procedure, then emergency surgery will be done. 3. Do not eat or drink anything after midnight the night before the test. 4. If done correctly, this procedure will correct the blockage of the stomach.

3. The client should be NPO after midnight to make sure the stomach is empty to reduce the risk of aspiration during the procedure.

75. The client diagnosed with hypothyroidism is prescribed the thyroid hormone levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which assessment data indicate the medication has been effective? 1. The client has a three (3)-pound weight gain. 2. The client has a decreased pulse rate. 3. The client's temperature is WNL. 4. The client denies any diaphoresis.

3. The client with hypothyroidism frequently has a subnormal temperature, so a temperature WNL indicates the medication is effective.

70. The unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) complains to the nurse she has filled the water pitcher four (4) times during the shift for a client diagnosed with a closed head injury and the client has asked for the pitcher to be filled again. Which intervention should the nurse implement first? 1. Tell the UAP to fill the pitcher with ice cold water. 2. Instruct the UAP to start measuring the client's I&O. 3. Assess the client for polyuria and polydipsia. 4. Check the client's BUN and creatinine levels.

3. The first action should be to determine if the client is experiencing polyuria and polydipsia as a result of developing diabetes insipidus, a complication of the head trauma.

81. Which assessment question is priority for the nurse to ask the client diagnosed with end-stage liver failure secondary to alcoholic cirrhosis? 1. "How many years have you been drinking alcohol?" 2. "Have you completed an advance directive?" 3. "When did you have your last alcoholic drink?" 4. "What foods did you eat at your last meal?"

3. The nurse must know when the client had the last alcoholic drink to be able to determine when and if the client will experience delirium tremens, the physical withdrawal from alcohol.

55. The charge nurse of an intensive care unit is making assignments for the night shift. Which client should be assigned to the most experienced intensive care nurse? 1. The client diagnosed with respiratory failure who is on a ventilator and requires frequent sedation. 2. The client diagnosed with lung cancer and iatrogenic Cushing's disease with ABGs of pH 7.35, Pao2 88, Paco2 44, and HCO3 22. 3. The client diagnosed with Addison's disease who is lethargic and has a BP of 80/45, P 124, and R 28. 4. The client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism who has undergone a thyroidectomy two (2) days ago and has a negative Trousseau's sign.

3. This client has a low blood pressure and tachycardia. This client may be experiencing an addisonian crisis, a potentially life-threatening condition. The most experienced nurse should care for this client.

83. The client is diagnosed with end-stage liver failure. The client asks the nurse, "Why is my doctor decreasing the doses of my medications?" Which statement is the nurse's best response? 1. "You are worried because your doctor has decreased the dosage." 2. "You really should ask your doctor. I am sure there is a good reason." 3. "You may have an overdose of the medications because your liver is damaged." 4. "The half-life of the medications is altered because the liver is damaged."

3. This is the main reason the HCP decreases the client's medication dose and is an explanation appropriate for the client.

83. The nurse is preparing to administer the following medications. Which medication should the nurse question administering? 1. The thyroid hormone to the client who does not have a T3, T4 level. 2. The regular insulin to the client with a blood glucose level of 210 mg/dL. 3. The loop diuretic to the client with a potassium level of 3.3 mEq/L. 4. The cardiac glycoside to the client who has a digoxin level of 1.4 mg/dL.

3. This potassium level is below normal, which is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L. Therefore, the nurse should question administering this medication because loop diuretics cause potassium loss in the urine

78. Which medication order should the nurse question in the client diagnosed with untreated hypothyroidism? 1. Thyroid hormones. 2. Oxygen. 3. Sedatives. 4. Laxatives.

3. Untreated hypothyroidism is characterized by an increased susceptibility to the effects of most hypnotic and sedative agents; therefore, the nurse should question this medication

65. The nurse is caring for the immediate postoperative client who had a laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Which task could the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? 1. Check the abdominal dressings for bleeding. 2. Increase the IV fluid if the blood pressure is low. 3. Ambulate the client to the bathroom. 4. Auscultate the breath sounds in all lobes.

3. A day surgery client can be ambulated to the bathroom, so this task can be delegated to the UAP.

67. The client is one (1) hour post-endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatogram (ERCP). Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Instruct the client to cough forcefully. 2. Encourage early ambulation. 3. Assess for return of a gag reflex. 4. Administer held medications.

3. The ERCP requires an anesthetic spray be used prior to insertion of the endoscope. If medications, food, or fluid are given orally prior to the return of the gag reflex, the client may aspirate.

72. The nurse assesses a large amount of red drainage on the dressing of a client who is six (6) hours postoperative open cholecystectomy. Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Measure the abdominal girth. 2. Palpate the lower abdomen for a mass. 3. Turn client onto side to assess for further drainage. 4. Remove the dressing to determine the source.

3. Turning the client to the side to assess the amount of drainage and possible bleeding is important prior to contacting the surgeon.

38. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the problem of "altered nutrition: less than body requirements." Which collaborative intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care? 1. Continuous feedings via (PEG) tube. 2. Have the family bring in foods from home. 3. Assess for food preferences. 4. Refer to the dietitian.

4. A collaborative intervention is to refer to the nutrition expert, the dietitian.

75. The client diagnosed with end-stage liver failure is admitted with hepatic encephalopathy. Which dietary restriction should be implemented by the nurse to address this complication? 1. Restrict sodium intake to 2 g/day. 2. Limit oral fluids to 1,500 mL/day. 3. Decrease the daily fat intake. 4. Reduce protein intake to 60 to 80 g/day.

4. Ammonia is a by-product of protein metabolism and contributes to hepatic encephalopathy. Reducing protein intake should decrease ammonia levels.

88. The school nurse is discussing methods to prevent an outbreak of hepatitis A with a group of high school teachers. Which action is the most important to teach the high school teachers? 1. Do not allow students to eat or drink after each other. 2. Drink bottled water as much as possible. 3. Encourage protected sexual activity. 4. Sing the happy birthday song while washing hands.

4. Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal- oral route. Good hand washing helps to prevent its spread. Singing the happy birthday song takes approximately 30 seconds, which is how long an individual should wash his or her hands.

48. The nurse caring for a client diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas writes the nursing diagnosis of "risk for altered skin integrity related to pruritus." Which intervention should the nurse implement? 1. Assess tissue turgor. 2. Apply antifungal creams. 3. Monitor bony prominences for breakdown. 4. Have the client keep the fingernails short.

4. Keeping the fingernails short will reduce the chance of breaks in the skin from scratching.

69. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with diabetes insipidus (DI). Which intervention should be implemented? 1. Administer sliding-scale insulin as ordered. 2. Restrict caffeinated beverages. 3. Check urine ketones if blood glucose is >250. 4. Assess tissue turgor every four (4) hours.

4. The client is excreting large amounts of dilute urine. If the client is unable to drink enough fluids, the client will quickly become dehydrated, so tissue turgor should be assessed frequently.

76. Which nursing intervention should be included in the plan of care for the client diagnosed with hyperthyroidism? 1. Increase the amount of fiber in the diet. 2. Encourage a low-calorie, low-protein diet. 3. Decrease the client's fluid intake to 1,000 mL/day. 4. Provide six (6) small, well-balanced meals a day.

4. The client with hyperthyroidism has an increased appetite; therefore, well-balanced meals served several times throughout the day will help with the client's constant hunger.

79. Which statement made by the client makes the nurse suspect the client is experiencing hyperthyroidism? 1. "I just don't seem to have any appetite anymore." 2. "I have a bowel movement about every three (3) to four (4) days." 3. "My skin is really becoming dry and coarse." 4. "I have noticed all my collars are getting tighter."

4. The thyroid gland (in the neck) enlarges as a result of the increased need for thyroid hormone production; an enlarged gland is called a goiter.

82. The nurse is providing an in-service on thyroid disorders. One of the attendees asks the nurse, "Why don't the people in the United States get goiters as often?" Which statement by the nurse is the best response? 1. "It is because of the screening techniques used in the United States." 2. "It is a genetic predisposition rare in North Americans." 3. "The medications available in the United States decrease goiters." 4. "Iodized salt helps prevent the development of goiters in the United States."

4. Almost all of the iodine entering the body is retained in the thyroid gland. A deficiency in iodine will cause the thyroid gland to work hard and enlarge, which is called a goiter. Goiters are commonly seen in geographical regions having an iodine deficiency. Most table salt in the United States has iodine added.

71. Which problem is highest priority for the nurse to identify in the client who had an open cholecystectomy surgery? 1. Alteration in nutrition. 2. Alteration in skin integrity. 3. Alteration in urinary pattern. 4. Alteration in comfort.

4. Acute pain management is the highest priority client problem after surgery because pain may indicate a life-threatening problem.

61. The client is four (4) hours postoperative open cholecystectomy. Which data warrant immediate intervention by the nurse? 1. Absent bowel sounds in all four (4) quadrants. 2. The T-tube has 60 mL of green drainage. 3. Urine output of 100 mL in the past three (3) hours. 4. Refusal to turn, deep breathe, and cough.

4. Refusing to turn, deep breathe, and cough places the client at risk for pneumonia. This client needs immediate intervention to prevent complications.

68. Which outcome should the nurse identify for the client scheduled to have a cholecystectomy? 1. Decreased pain management. 2. Ambulate first day postoperative. 3. No break in skin integrity. 4. Knowledge of postoperative care.

4. This would be an expected outcome for the client scheduled for surgery. This indicates preoperative teaching has been effective.