MICRO Ch. 18
Transmission of tineas include A. human to human. B. animal to human. C. soil to human. D. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct
Chickenpox A. is transmitted by inhalation of respiratory secretions. B. is transmitted by skin lesion contact or airborne spread of lesion material. C. has an incubation period of 10 to 20 days. D. has fever and vesicular rash that occurs in successive crops. E. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Human herpesvirus 3 (HHV-3) A. uses the respiratory epithelium as its portal of entry. B. becomes latent in dorsal root ganglia that serve specific dermatomes. C. has humans as its reservoir. D. causes chickenpox and shingles. E. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding fifth disease? A. It is caused by Parvovirus B19. B. It is a childhood febrile disease characterized by a red rash on the cheeks. C. The causative agent is capable of crossing the placenta. D. It is characterized by a maculopapular rash that lasts for days to weeks. E. All of the choices are correct.
All of the choices are correct.
Eyes are relatively vulnerable to infection because A. they are not covered by keratinized epithelium. B. immune privilege restricts access to the cells conferring innate immunity. C. there is scant normal microbiota to serve a protective role. D. All of these answers are correct.
All of these answers are correct
Which of the following skin defenses and its mechanism is mismatched? A. Antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes B. Sebum; lipid hydrolysis leads to toxic by-products that inhibit microbial growth C. Lysozyme; hydrolyzes peptidoglycan in bacterial cell walls D. Keratinized surface; protein that provides waterproofing
Antimicrobial peptides; disrupt positively charged bacterial membranes
What is the only way to prevent non-neonatal conjunctivitis? A. Screen pregnant women B. Good hygiene C. Prophylactic antiviral chemotherapy D. Vaccine E. Insect repellent
Good hygiene
Which of the following is not a causative agent of cutaneous mycoses? A. Malassezia B. Trichophyton C. Microsporum D. Epidermophyton
Malassezia
Which of the following is the causative agent of tinea versicolor? A. Epidermophyton B. Microsporum C. Malassezia D. Trichophyton
Malassezia
Which of the following ocular tissues and infections is mismatched? A. Conjunctivitis; milky discharge and infection of eyelid lining B. River blindness; microfilariae visible in the vitreous chamber C. Keratitis; infection of deep eye tissue D. Trachoma; infection of epithelial cells
River blindness; microfilariae visible in the vitreous chamber
Which of the following is a febrile disease characterized by a rash and is caused by a virus that can cross the placenta to cause serious fetal damage? A. Measles B. Impetigo C. Shingles D. Smallpox E. Rubella
Rubella
Microbes are not likely to be found in which of the following locations on human skin? A. Hair follicle B. Sebaceous gland C. Sensory nerve fiber in the dermis D. The stratum corneum
Sensory nerve fiber in the dermis
Which of the following statements regarding viremia is incorrect? A. HHV-3 is disseminated to the skin by viremia. B. Droplet transmission of viruses like the measles virus results in viremia. C. The variola virus multiplies in white blood cells, and cell lysis results in viremia. D. Shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chicken pox.
Shingles is a manifestation of persistent viremia after a course of chicken pox
In a recent surgery, when the cut area was sutured, bacteria entered the open tissue. As a result, you now have an infection of deep tissue exhibiting redness, swelling, pain, fever, and a rash. With your knowledge of microbiology, you predict that you have a developed an infection caused by ______. A. Neisseria B. human herpesvirus 3 C. E. coli D. Staphylococcus
Staphylococcus
Which microorganism species is most well-adapted to life on the skin? A. Corynebacterium diphtheriae B. Candida albicans C. Staphylococcus epidermidis D. Malassezia E. Streptococcus pyogenes
Staphylococcus epidermidis
True/False: Debridement of diseased tissue is important in the care of patients with gas gangrene.
TRUE
True/False: Herpes keratitis is an infection of the eye.
TRUE
True/False: Impetigo involves itching papules that break and form a very contagious yellow crust.
TRUE
True/False: Molluscum contagiosum is transmitted by direct contact with skin lesions, fomites, and sexual activity.
TRUE
True/False: Mottled, discolored skin pigmentation is observed in patients with tinea versicolor.
TRUE
True/False: Occassionally, Staphylococcus epidermidis may be isolated from the eye.
TRUE
Which of the following provides the eye with its best defense against microorganisms? A. Tears B. Conjunctiva C. Eyelashes D. Eyelids E. Lymphocytes
Tears
Which of the following statements regarding vaccines as disease preventatives is incorrect? A. Zostavax is recommended for older adults to prevent shingles. B. The Carter Center has promoted the development of a vaccine against river blindness. C. There is currently no smallpox vaccine available to the general public. D. Immunization is currently not possible against Clostridium perfringens.
The Carter Center has promoted the development of a vaccine against river blindness
Your sister cut herself with a knife, and within a few days, she had a severe pus-producing infection of the hand. A day later, skin begins to come off, exposing muscle and other tissue below the skin. Predict what caused the severity of this infection. A. The infectious agent is a fungus. B. This is not an infectious disease; it is an autoimmune disease. C. The infectious agent produces exotoxins. D. The infectious agent is likely a virus.
The infectious agent produces exotoxins.
Among the natural defenses present in tears is the protein lactoferrin. As you can infer from its name, it is also present in milk and other body secretions, and its function involves binding iron ions. The presence of lactoferrin in tears is protective against bacterial infection because A. all pathogens must acquire iron from their environment and lactoferrin ensures that the iron concentration is low. B. pathogens with magnetosomes will be segregated from the eye tissue and swept away by the tears. C. in the presence of lysozyme, as found in tears, the proteins form a protective barrier on the lens. D. free iron serves as an immune signal to recruit T cells to the eye.
all pathogens must acquire iron from their environment and lactoferrin ensures that the iron concentration is low.
The organisms that cause ringworm, or tinea, use keratin protein as their growth substrate. This is why these infections A. cause a discoloration of the skin by damaging skin pigment protein. B. produce a rash all over the body during an infection. C. are restricted to superficial skin layers. D. have a high mortality rate.
are restricted to superficial skin layers.
Necrotizing fasciitis is A. typically a sequelae of streptococcal pharyngitis. B. possibly caused by antibodies to Group A streptococci that cross-react with body tissues. C. also called impetigo. D. associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins. E. not treatable with antimicrobial drugs.
associated with strains of Streptococcus pyogenes producing destructive enzymes and toxins
Your child has developed an eye infection with a yellowish discharge. You predict that this is a case of ______. A. herpes keratitis B. bacterial conjunctivitis C. helminth infection D. rubella E. trachoma
bacterial conjunctivitis
To perform the coagulase test on a strain of bacteria that is believed to be S. aureus, the first step is to inoculate a tube of ______ with the strain of interest. A. blood plasma B. nutrient broth C. mannitol salt medium D. blood
blood plasma
Mannitol salt agar is selective for Staphylococcus aureus because this organism A. can withstand high salt concentration. B. can synthesize catalase. C. is unique in its ability to ferment mannitol. D. is often resistant to methicillin. E. can tolerate brief exposures to high temperature.
can withstand high salt concentration.
A higher rate of eye infections can be expected from a person who _____. A. is very young B. wears glasses C. cannot produce tears D. has a vitamin deficiency
cannot produce tears
Staphylococcus can be differentiated from Streptococcus by the ______. A. Gram stain B. catalase test C. fermentation of mannitol D. coagulase test E. cellular morphology
catalase test
The toxin of Staphylococcus aureus that causes blisters and desquamation of skin in staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome is ______. A. enterotoxin B. hemolysin C. exfoliative toxin D. erythrogenic toxin E. toxic shock syndrome toxin
exfoliative toxin
Smallpox is a disease in which A. fever, malaise, and rash occur. B. the virus becomes latent in ganglia of sensory neurons. C. recurrent episodes are called shingles. D. transmission occurs by direct contact with skin crusts. E. All of the choices are correct.
fever, malaise, and rash occur.
The environment of human skin requires an adaptation for microbes that can tolerate moderately ______ conditions. A. alkaline B. thermophilic C. halophilic D. anaerobic E. psychrophilic
halophilic
Keratitis is usually caused by ______. A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae D. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
Protective features of the skin include all of the following except ______. A. high pH B. high salt content C. lysozyme D. a keratinized surface E. resident biota
high pH
Neonatal conjunctivitis differs from non-neonatal conjunctivitis in that A. it is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than 4 weeks old. B. neonates have immune privilege, and are therefore more susceptible to all types of infection. C. it cannot be prevented as the causative organisms are normal microbiota for the mother. D. neonatal conjunctivitis can be caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, Neisseria gonnorhoeae, or any number of viruses.
it is transmitted during birth and occurs only in neonates less than 4 weeks old.
Measles is described as a ______ skin lesion. A. macule B. bulla C. pustular D. maculopapular E. vesicular
maculopapular
Oral lesions called Koplik's spots are seen in patients with ______. A. croup B. measles C. influenza D. rubella E. mumps
measles
Current recommendations in the United States for treatment of MRSA are to use A. more than one antibiotic. B. no antibiotics to allow the immune system to function. C. any antibiotic other than methicillin. D. no antibiotics to curb the development of resistance. E. erythromycin and a second antibiotic.
more than one antibiotic.
Current recommendations for the treatment of MRSA infections in the United States will change based on A. patterns of antibiotic resistance. B. the cost of different antibiotics. C. the availability of different antibiotics. D. congressional approval.
patterns of antibiotic resistance.
Measles is also known as ______. A. varicella B. fifth disease C. rubella D. shingles E. rubeola
rubeola
Leishmaniasis is transmitted through the bite of a(n) ______. A. Anopheles mosquito B. tsetse fly C. hard-bodied tick D. sand fly E. reduviid "kissing" bug
sand fly
Streptococcus pyogenes causes all of the following infections except ______. A. scalded skin syndrome B. impetigo C. erysipelas D. necrotizing fasciitis E. scarlet fever
scalded skin syndrome
Many gyms are abundantly supplied with towels and antimicrobial sprays for wiping down equipment after each user. The reason for this is to cut down on the transmission of ______. A. athlete's foot fungus B. skin microbes like MRSA C. measles virus D. shingles E. ringworm
skin microbes like MRSA
The integument includes all of the following except ______. A. skin B. hair C. sweat glands D. surface capillaries E. nails
surface capillaries
Impetigo can be caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. Culture-based identification of the causative organism can be complicated by A. the common surface antigens of these two organisms. B. the ability of S. aureus to kill S. pyogenes. C. the fastidious nature of both organisms. D. their common optimal growth temperature, 37°C.
the ability of S. aureus to kill S. pyogenes.
Cutaneous anthrax is A. seen in epidemic proportions in the United States. B. a high mortality disease. C. found only in humans. D. transmitted by contact.
transmitted by contact.
The smallpox vaccine uses the ______ virus. A. variola B. herpes simplex C. human herpesvirus 6 D. smallpox E. vaccinia
vaccinia
Considering the diseases and conditions described in this chapter, those transmitted by respiratory droplets are caused by ______. A. viruses B. bacteria C. fungi D. All of these answers are correct.
viruses
True/False: All warts caused by human papillomaviruses are linked to cancers.
FALSE
True/False: Chickenpox is caused by an orthopoxvirus.
FALSE
Impetigo is caused by ______. A. C. perfringens B. C. diphtheriae C. S. aureus D. S. pyogenes E. Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes are correct.
Both S. aureus and S. pyogenes are correct
True/False: Diseases that manifest as skin rashes are transmitted through direct contact with affected individuals or with fomites.
FALSE
True/False: The eye generally has a large percentage of normal biota present.
FALSE
True/False: The most serious teratogenic effects of intrauterine rubella infection occur if it is acquired during the third trimester.
FALSE
Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding the effects of rubella and rubeola in different populations? A. Infection during pregnancy with either of these viruses can cause serious injury to the fetus. B. A 30-year-old man infected with rubella will experience severe symptoms and require constant medical attention for several weeks. C. A six-year-old child infected with rubeola will experience fever, cough, and a rash, and barring complications, should recover in a few weeks. D. Congenital rubella is least serious if it is contracted during the final trimester of pregnancy.
A 30-year-old man infected with rubella will experience severe symptoms and require constant medical attention for several weeks.
The disease pathogenesis seen in river blindness is caused by ______. A. Wolbachia bacteria B. Onchocerca volvulus worms C. a blood fluke D. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) E. Both Wolbachia and Onchocerca volvulus are correct.
Both Wolbachia and Onchocerca volvulus are correct.
Which of the following statements about blisters is correct? A. Blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis. B. Blisters originate in the subcutaneous layer. C. Blisters are confined to the epidermis. D. Blisters originate in the dermis.
Blisters result from a separation of epidermis from dermis
The causative agent of trachoma is ______. A. herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) B. adenovirus C. N. gonorrhoeae D. S. aureus E. C. trachomatis
C. trachomatis
The main causative agent of gas gangrene is ______. A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Clostridium perfringens C. Staphylococcus aureus D. Mycobacterium leprae E. Staphylococcus epidermidis
Clostridium perfringens
Which form of anthrax involves a black eschar on the skin? A. Gastrointestinal B. Inhalational C. Cutaneous D. Muscular
Cutaneous
Which of the following is the most common form of transmission for impetigo? A. Body fluids B. Mechanical vectors C. Blood D. Fomites E. Direct contact
Direct contact
Which of the following statements regarding eye infections is correct? A. Immune privilege restricts virtually all microbes from the tissues of the eye. B. Inflammation occurs in most eye infections and serves to initiate repair of the damaged tissue. C. Lysozyme in tears targets the gram-negative microbes that contact the eye. D. Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye.
Eye infections may be opportunistic infections by the normal microbiota of the eye
Despite the fact that skin-to-skin contact is important in establishing bonding between babies and their caregivers, that same contact can also expose them to pathogens. You have been asked to teach a short class for child care workers to help them identify highly contagious diseases that can cause outbreaks in their environment. Which two of these conditions are most common and most infectious in babies? A. Impetigo and ringworm B. Impetigo and cellulitis C. Impetigo and conjunctivitis D. Conjunctivitis and rubella E. Ringworm and hand, foot, and mouth disease
Impetigo and conjunctivitis
Which of the following is not true of bacterial conjunctivitis? A. It can be caused by S. pyogenes or S. pneumoniae. B. Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye. C. It can be transmitted through both direct and indirect contact. D. Treatment is with a broad-spectrum topical antibiotic.
Infection produces a clear discharge from the eye.
Which of the following is not true of cellulitis? A. Surgery may be required for treatment. B. Lymphangitis may occur with this infection. C. It is caused by S. aureus or S. pyogenes. D. It affects the epidermis layer of the skin. E. It causes pain, tenderness, swelling, and warmth.
It affects the epidermis layer of the skin
Which of the following statements does not pertain to Streptococcus pyogenes? A. It causes gas gangrene. B. It secretes streptokinase. C. It is often spread from an endogenous source. D. It coats itself with host proteins. E. It causes impetigo.
It causes gas gangrene.
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the MMR vaccine? A. It is given in early childhood. B. It contains toxoids. C. It protects against three different viral diseases. D. It contains attenuated viruses.
It contains toxoids.
Which of the following is not true of measles? A. It causes cell membranes to fuse to form syncytia. B. Its causative agent is a member of the Morbillivirus genus. C. It is transmitted by respiratory droplets. D. It is a single-stranded nonenveloped RNA virus. E. It is in the Paramyxovirus family.
It is a single-stranded nonenveloped RNA virus
Which of the following statements is correct regarding rubella? A. It manifests as high fever, severe sore throat, severe cough, and myalgia. B. It is not preventable by a vaccine. C. It is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infant. D. It is caused by the measles virus (Morbillivirus).
It is associated with congenital transmission causing miscarriage, deafness, and cardiac and mental defects in the infant
Which of the following statements is true of viral conjunctivitis? A. It is caused by adenoviruses. B. It is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae. C. It has a mucopurulent discharge. D. It must be treated with both topical and oral antibiotics.
It is caused by adenoviruses.
Which of the following statements about measles is incorrect? A. Dry cough, sore throat, fever, and conjunctivitis are symptoms. B. Humans are the only reservoir for the pathogen. C. It may involve a fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE). D. Secondary bacterial otitis media and sinusitis can occur. E. It is transmitted by direct contact with the rash.
It is transmitted by direct contact with the rash.
Which material in skin provides protection from abrasions, water damage, and microorganism entry? A. Salt B. Lysozyme C. Keratin D. Sweat E. Sebum
Keratin
Which of the following statements concerning rubella immunization is correct? A. A child born with congenital rubella may be immunized to prevent recurrence of the disease. B. A pregnant woman who contracts rubella should be immunized to protect her unborn child. C. Administration of the rubella vaccine at 12 to 15 months of age is good protection against congenital rubella. D. The rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future.
The rubella vaccine given in childhood can protect both the child and any children that she may bear in the future
Which of the following is not true of staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS)? A. It predominantly affects newborns and babies. B. It is an exotoxin-mediated disease. C. The toxins cause bullous lesions. D. The skin splits between the dermis and epidermis. E. The skin splits within the epidermis.
The skin splits between the dermis and epidermis
Which of the following statement is incorrect about warts? A. Topical salicylic acid can be used for removal. B. They are frequently cancerous. C. They are transmitted by direct contact or fomites. D. They include deep plantar warts on the soles of the feet. E. They are caused by human papillomaviruses (HPV).
They are frequently cancerous.
Which of the following is mismatched? A. Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard B. Tinea cruis - ringworm of the groin C. Tinea unguium - ringworm of the nails D. Tinea corporis - ringworm of the body E. Tinea pedis - ringworm of the foot
Tinea capitis - ringworm of the beard
Which eye disease is characterized by a pannus forming over the cornea? A. Trachoma B. Keratitis C. Stye D. River blindness E. Simple conjunctivitis
Trachoma
River blindness is A. endemic in Australia, New Zealand, and South Pacific islands. B. preventable by a vaccine administered to travelers. C. transmitted by mosquito vector. D. a disease caused by helminths invading the eyes.
a disease caused by helminths invading the eyes.
If a person who has never been infected with human herpesvirus 3 comes in contact with the fluid of shingles lesions, they will come down with ______. A. chickenpox B. herpes keratitis C. herpes labialis D. infectious mononucleosis E. shingles
chickenpox
Infections caused by Staphylococcus aureus include all of the following except ______. A. carbuncles B. scalded skin syndrome C. chickenpox D. meningitis E. impetigo
chickenpox
The enzyme that clots plasma is ______. A. catalase B. staphylokinase C. hyaluronidase D. kinase E. coagulase
coagulase
The two tissues of the eye with exposed surfaces susceptible to contamination are the ______ and the______. A. conjunctiva; cornea B. conjunctiva; lens C. cornea; lens D. conjunctiva; iris E. cornea; iris
conjunctiva; cornea
In the skin, blood vessels are found in the ______. A. dermis and subcutaneous layers B. dermis C. stratum corneum D. subcutaneous layer E. stratum basale
dermis and subcutaneous layers