Microbiology Final Exam Prep
Steps That Occur in Indirect ELISA (capture assay sandwich)
(1) Patient sample is added and the antigen of interest is captured (2) Antibody to detect antigen is added (3) Enzyme conjugated antibody can detect the previous antibody (4) The development of color identifies a positive reaction
Steps of Wastewater Treatment
(1) Removal of Debris (2) Sedimentation of Insoluble Particles (3) Microbial Digestion (4) Chemical Transfers
Basic Steps of How Epidemiological Practices Identify the Cause of Shigellosis
(1) Ten infants scattered throughout a city develop bloody diarrhea (2) The clinical labratory identifies the same strain of Shigella sonnei (3) Officals question parents and learn that all the children attend the same day-care center (4) by testing the other children and workers in that center, officals can stop the infection from spreading
Which of the following is/are considered to be sterile in healthy individuals? Choose one or more: Sputum Tissues from internal organs Cerebrospinal fluid Blood
-Tissues from internal organs -Cerebrospinal fluid -Blood
Pathogenicity islands are segments of a pathogen's chromosome acquired by horizontal gene transfers, such as which of the following? Choose one or more: Translation Transformation Transduction Conjugation
-Transformation -Transduction -Conjugation
A Hike, a Tick, and a Telltale Rash Case Study Through which of the following methods did Emma contract the bacteria that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Choose one: Insect vector Vehicle transmission Skin-to-skin contact Vertical transmission
Insect vector
Why does fermentation help preserve foods? Choose one: Lactobacilli are able to out-compete other organisms It decreases oxygen concentrations It produces antibiotics It produces acids.
It produces acids.
How does CO2 in the atmosphere affect the planet's temperature? Choose one: It releases solar radiation, heating the planet It traps solar radiation, heating the planet It releases solar radiation, cooling the planet It traps solar radiation, cooling the planet.
It traps solar radiation, heating the planet
Which of the following microbes is/are used for wastewater treatment? Choose one or more: Vibrio Nocardia Pseudomonas Escherichia
Nocardia Pseudomonas
Staphylococcus aureus has a cell wall protein called protein A that binds to the Fc region of antibodies, hiding the bacteria from which type of immune cell? Choose one: Phagocytes Helper T cells Epithelial cells B cells
Phagocytes
Which of the following is a main difference in real-time PCR and traditional PCR? Choose one: Real-time PCR is quantitative, and traditional PCR is not quantitative Real-time PCR is commonly used for sequencing, and traditional PCR is commonly used for pathogen detection Real-time PCR does not use the enzyme Taq polymerase Real-time PCR measures accumulated PCR product at the end of all the cycles, and traditional PCR measures amplification as it occurs.
Real-time PCR is quantitative, and traditional PCR is not quantitative
Real-time quantitative PCR (qPCR) is used routinely for the high-throughput diagnosis of viral pathogens such as West Nile virus. Because the genome of West Nile virus is made of single-stranded RNA, its genome must first be converted to DNA by which of the following enzymes? Choose one: Reverse transcriptase Ligase Taq polymerase DNA polymerase
Reverse transcriptase
A Hike, a Tick, and a Telltale Rash Case Study Which organism is directly responsible for causing Rocky Mountain spotted fever? Choose one: Deer tick Rickettsia rickettsii Borrelia burgdorferi Flea
Rickettsia rickettsii
Which of the following organisms would be considered the most virulent, based on their infectious dose (ID50)? Choose one: Mycoplasma tuberculosis, ID50 = 10 Rickettsia rickettsii, ID50 = 1 Vibrio cholerae, ID50 = 1,000,000,000
Rickettsia rickettsii, ID50 = 1
Global carbon levels are doing which of the following? Choose one: Staying relatively constant Dropping more slowly than they should be Dropping faster than they should be Rising more slowly than they should be Rising faster than they should be
Rising faster than they should be
When is chlorine added to wastewater during the treatment process?
Tertiary treatment
Which of the following is required in all immunological methods of pathogen identification?
antibodies
Which of the following is a chemical process for preservation?
brining
How does the general secretion pathway mechanism in bacteria move proteins? Choose one: from the cytoplasm across the cell membrane from the periplasm across the extracellular membrane from the cell membrane into the extracellular space from the extracellular space across the cell membrane
from the cytoplasm across the cell membrane
The ability of different strains of bacteria to acquire new genes outside of the mechanism of cell division is called Choose one: horizontal gene transfer vertical gene transfer pathogenicity evolution
horizontal gene transfer
Latent herpes virus DNA produces microRNAs. The purpose of these microRNAs is to
inhibit viral gene expression
Sex, Warts, and Cancer Case Study Even after the initial infection resolves (90% resolve within 2 years), the virus may remain ____ in tissues and can cause damage years later if the immune system becomes impaired.
latent
What is the diagnostic test for SARS-CoV-2 designed to detect? Choose one: spike protein RNA nucleocapsid protein antibodies to the spike protein nucleocapsid RNA antibodies to the nucleocapsid
nucleocapsid RNA
A ____ is an organism (e.g., bird, rat, horse, insect, human) or an environment (e.g., soil, water) that normally harbors a pathogen.
reservoir
The major part of the biosphere containing significant amounts of an element needed for life is called a ____ of that element.
resevoir
The region of soil surrounding plant roots is called the ____
rhizosphere
Specimens from sites containing normal microbiota must be processed on ____ media to find the potential bacterial pathogen.
selective
With a single reaction, multiplex PCR can be used to do which of the following? Choose one: detect the presence and quantity of RNA viruses in a sample rapidly identify organisms or antigens present in tissues detect two or more pathogens in a sample identify different strains of a pathogen and trace an outbreak of a disease to its source
detect two or more pathogens in a sample
Beta hemolysis is a microbe's ability to do what? Choose one: produce a lytic zone produce a green zone around colonies directly lyse red blood cells produce large amounts of hydrogen peroxide that oxidize the heme iron
directly lyse red blood cells
Sex, Warts, and Cancer Case Study Human papillomavirus (HPV) is a common DNA virus that infects skin cells. What does it cause cells to do? Choose one: undergo apoptosis repair damage slough off from the dermal layer divide excessively
divide excessively
The ____ precisely and rapidly cycles the temperature during a polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
thermocycler
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of point-of-care tests over conventional diagnosis?
they are more specific
The process of ____ moves water from plants to the atmosphere.
transpiration
Which group of microbes are best adapted to hypoxic conditions? Choose one: Aerobes Anaerobes Producers Decomposers
Anaerobes
Consider that someone is exposed to an infectious dose of the HIV virus, but this person's T cells lack the chemokine receptor CCR5. What would most likely describe the exposed individual? Choose one: expected to have an unusually severe viral load in the bloodstream HIV positive and having difficulty developing antibodies toward the virus expected to have other autoimmune diseases considered to be "HIV-exposed uninfected"
considered to be "HIV-exposed uninfected"
An ebola virus infection leads to disease that kills a 34 year-old male patient. Which infection type best describes this?
Acute Infection
Symptoms develop rapidly in which type of infection? Choose one: Disseminated infection Latent infection Acute infection Chronic infection
Acute infection
What is the primary purpose of pili?
Adhesion
If you became sick with influenza after a co-worker sneezed next to you in an elevator, which of the following types of transmission would apply? Choose one: Vehicle transmission Transovarial transmission Aerosol transmission Vector transmission
Aerosol transmission
One way to measure virulence is to calculate the lethal dose 50% (LD50): the number of pathogens required to kill 50% of an experimental group of animal hosts. Which agent in the figure below is more virulent?
Agent 1
Which of the following intestinal microbes require adhesion molecules? Pathogens Parasites Commensal Bacteria All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following surfaces do biofilms form? Skin Bladder Lungs Implants All of the above
All of the above
Which of the following is a direct mode of horizontal transmission?
Animal Bite
Why does endocytosis, followed by formation of the phagosome, allow temporary safe harbor for pathogens? Choose one: Antibodies and phagocytic cells will not penetrate live host cells Fusion of the phagosome with the lysosome can then immediately be induced They are able to move through the cytoplasm by forming actin tails They are able to immediately gain access to a macrophage.
Antibodies and phagocytic cells will not penetrate live host cells
Which of the following is a hairlike appendage whose tips contain receptors for mammalian cell surface structures? Choose one: Pili/fimbriae M-protein surface fibrils Toll-like receptors (TLRs) Protein F
Pili/fimbriae
What is an infection in a previously healthy individual called? Choose one: Mixed infection Primary infection Iatrogenic infection Secondary infection
Primary infection
What are pathogenic microbes like Shigella flexneri, which causes bacillary dysentery in healthy people, called? Choose one: Primary pathogens Opportunistic pathogens Viruses Microbiota
Primary pathogens
Which of the following describes the effects that immunopathology causes during infectious disease?
Sequale
Organisms that spread directly from person to person, such as the rhinovirus that causes the common cold or the Shigella bacterium that causes bacillary dysentery, have which type of infection cycle? Choose one: Indirect contact Simple Complex Direct contact
Simple
Which of the following would a veterinarian have the most difficult time assessing in a dog suffering from infectious disease?
Symptoms
In what way do symptoms of disease differ from signs of disease? Choose one: Symptoms always occur as part of a syndrome Symptoms are changes observed by the physician Symptoms are changes felt by the patient Symptoms are quantitative (numerically measurable)
Symptoms are changes felt by the patient
Which of the following describes the convalescence phase of an infection? Choose one: Signs and symptoms are apparent, and the immune system is fighting the disease. Vague symptoms are present The organism begins to grow, but symptoms have not yet developed Symptoms are gone and the patient is recovering
Symptoms are gone and the patient is recovering
A Threatened Fetus Case Study Listeria monocytogenes initially seeks refuge in a host cell and enters by endocytosis, ending up in a phagosome. Once inside the phagosome, intracellular pathogens have three options to avoid being killed by a phagolysosome. Which of the following is NOT one of these options? Choose one: The bacteria can lyse the phagolysosome. The bacteria can escape the phagosome. The bacteria can prevent phagosome-lysosome fusion The bacteria can survive in a phagolysosome
The bacteria can lyse the phagolysosome.
In 2014 a(n) ____ of Ebola occured in West Africa, infecting many people in a short period of time.
epidemic
All of the following are used for microbial attachment EXCEPT________. Choose one: pili capsids fimbriae flagella
flagella
The ____ of an organism is its ability to cause disease.
pathogenicity
Herpes simplex type-1 is a latent virus which is able to escape immune action in an infected cell. Which of the following mechanisms might potentially provide a cure for herpes? Choose one: provide bacteriophages that target the herpes simplex virus provide immune-suppressing drugs so that the virus will also be suppressed provide drugs to the patient to induce a permanent latent state of the virus provide a way to switch the virus from a latent state into an active state
provide a way to switch the virus from a latent state into an active state
Consider the image shown below. A strain of Listeria monocytogenes that has lost the ability to polymerize actin (perhaps through a mutation in the responsible gene, ActA) would most likely be unable to do which? Choose one: survive passage through the stomach spread from the initial site of infection attach to and invade host enterocytes escape from host vacuoles be cultured outside of host cells
spread from the initial site of infection
Which of the following is assessed when identifying a pure culture via mass spectrometry?
A pathogen's protein signature
Consider the following graph illustrating the influence of storage temperature on population growth of aerobic bacteria in ground beef. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from these data? Choose one: At normal refrigeration temperatures, it takes about 10 days for the bacterial population to double A 4ºC drop in storage temperature can double the amount of time that food stays fresh People who consume ground beef containing more than 108 CFU/g will get food poisoning If kept on ice, ground beef can be prevented from spoiling Ground beef stored at temperatures higher than 4ºC is unsafe after a few days.
A 4ºC drop in storage temperature can double the amount of time that food stays fresh
Which of the following describes a secondary infection?
A 65-year-old man suffers from a bacterial pneumonia after recovering from influenza infection.
Food Chain
A = Decomposer B = Grazer C = Predator D = Primary Producer
Steps in an Antigen-Capture Assay
A = Ebola antigen from patient serum will be captured by antibody on plate B = Enzyme-conjugated anti-Ebola antibody is added C = If Ebola antigen is present, the conjugated antibody will be captures by the complex. Adding substrate will yield a colored product D = Anti-Ebola monoclonal antibody is attached to the plate surface
Conversion of mRNA to cDNA by Reverse Transciptase
A = R copies first cDNA strand B = Oligo dT primer is bound to viral RNA C = Double stranded cDNA D = RT digests and displaces mRNA and copies second strand of cDNA
Steps of Real-time PCR
A = The reporter probe contains a fluorescent dye and quencing dye so no fluorescene is emitted B = Temperature is raised to 72 degrees C. Taq polymerase extends upstream DNA and degrades reporter. Fluorescence is released C = Temperature is lowered to 55 degrees C. The reporter probe anneals downstream of a DNA primer D = Target DNA is denatured at 95 degrees C
Steps of Antibody-Capture Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay (ELISA)
A = Wash off unbound conjugated antibody and add substrate B = Wash off unbound serum and add conjugated antibody C = Rinse off excess and add patient serum
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) in a lake?
A low BOD is associated with a high dissolved oxygen content.
Which type of symbiosis harms one partner nonspecifically, without harming the other? Choose one: Amensalism Commensalism Parasitism Synergism Mutualism
Amensalism
Biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a measure of oxygen removed from water via which of the following? Choose one: Fermentation Aerobic respiration Nitrogen fixation Anaerobic respiration
Aerobic respiration
Diagnostic Test for Syphilis
Direct fluorescent antibody staining from tissue samples
Which carbon reservoir cycles most rapidly through living bodies? Choose one: Ocean Earth's crust Fossil fuels Atmosphere
Atmosphere
Which of the following can fix nitrogen? Choose one or more: Archaea Bacteria Algae Plants Fungi
Archaea Bacteria
Micobacterium tuberculosis often leads to disease lasting for months in the absence of treatment. Which type of infection best describes this?
Chronic Infection
Which of the following consumes the majority of all biomass in the soil?
Decomposers
Diagnostic Test for HIV
Detection of antibody to virus in patient's blood
Diagnostic Test for Rotovirus
ELISA of diarrheal stool for virus
Why is barley germinated prior to fermentation? Choose one: The added biomass produces a higher ethanol content The young leaves are the main source of sugars for fermentation Enzymes from the grain digest the starch into maltose Germination removes the husk on the outside of the seed.
Enzymes from the grain digest the starch into maltose
What ecological concern is depicted in the image below? Choose one: Fisheries distributing potentially contaminated fish to consumers in the highlighted region Excess nitrates flowing down the rivers to the Gulf Contaminated fish swimming upstream and poisoning animals in the highlighted region Heavy metals flowing down the rivers to the Gulf
Excess nitrates flowing down the rivers to the Gulf
Why must human and agricultural waste water be treated before being released into the environment?
Excess organic carbon and nitrates can cause dead zones
Which of these is least likely to be found in a dead zone? Algae / Cyanobacteria Fish Heterotrophic Microbes Producers
Fish
In regions where Malaria and HIV coexist, what is the most likely relationship between these two infections?
HIV infection causes an increased risk for malaria
Which organisms can grow in high salt concentrations? Choose one: Halophiles Autotrophs Lithotrophs Thermophiles
Halophiles
What threat has emerged due to the Haber Process?
Increased dead zones
Why might cheese be less susceptible than milk to spoilage?
Lactic acid in cheese prevents microbial growth
A lake that is eutrophic has which of the following characteristics? Choose one or more: High oxygen concentration Low oxygen concentration Low nitrogen concentration High nitrogen concentration
Low oxygen concentration High nitrogen concentration
Which of these is NOT a benefit associated with food fermentation?
Lower cost
What is the difference between mutualism and synergism? Choose one: Mutualism is beneficial for both organisms; synergism is beneficial for only one Mutualism is obligatory for both organisms; synergism is obligatory for only one Mutualism is beneficial for both organisms; synergism is not beneficial for either Mutualism is obligatory for both organisms; synergism is not obligatory for either.
Mutualism is obligatory for both organisms; synergism is not obligatory for either.
Diagnostic Test for Influenza
Nasal secretions used for rapid antigen detection
Löwenstein-Jensen (LJ) medium contains antibiotics to prevent fast-growing organisms from overgrowing the slow-growing Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacterium. LJ medium is therefore...
Selective
Which of the following describes actively replicating bacteria in the blood?
Septicemia
This ecosystem has the densest population of microbes.
Soil
A microbiologist inoculates a culture medium with Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What can be concluded from the information provided? Choose one: The incubation temperature was incorrect The culture medium is differential Not enough inoculum was used to grow S. epidermidis The culture medium is selective.
The culture medium is selective
True or False All microbes that cause disease are parasites.
True
Which of the following body sites was once considered sterile but is now recognized as containing normal microbiota? Blood Vessels Meningies Pleural Cavity Urinary Bladder
Urinary Bladder
The catalase test examines the Gram-positive cocci recovered from a patient to distinguish Staphylococcus catalase ____ organisms from Streptococcus catalase ____ organisms.
positive, negative
In a direct ELISA, the antigen is bound to the ____ ____ ____
primary conjugate antibody
Root nodule symbionts such as Bradyrhizobium japonicum benefit their hosts by supporting increased rates of ____ production.
protein
The Modes of Action for Bacterial Exotoxins
A = Cell cycle disruption B = Cell-cell adhesion disruption C = Vesicular trafficking D = Plasma membrane disruption E = Exoxytosis F = Protein synthesis inhibition
Type I Pili Assembly
A = Cytoplasm B = Periplasm C = PapD D = Subunits synthesized through SecA
Structures of the Membrane
A = Inner Membrane B = Cytoplasm C = Periplasm D = LPS E = Outer Membrane
A mature biofilm is most likely indicative of
Colonization
HIV Acute Phase Case Study Malaria and HIV often coexist in patients due to geographic overlap. Which of the following would be true regarding these co-existing infections? Choose one: HIV infection causes an increased risk for malaria Malaria causes HIV supression HIV causes malaria supression Malaria causes an increased risk for HIV transmission.
HIV infection causes an increased risk for malaria
Agents transmitted by mosquitoes or other insects enter their human hosts via what portal of entry? Choose one: Parenteral route Fecal-oral route Urogenital route Respiratory route Oral route
Parenteral route
Random mutations caused by the error-prone viral RNA polymerase of the influenza virus can cause minor changes in hemagglutinin antigen structure, in a process called ____ ____
antigenic drift
Which of the following most contributes to the need for annual influenza vaccines?
antigenic drirft
HIV binds which receptor on its host cell?
CD4
The Stages of Infectious Disease
(1) Incubation Period (2) Prodomal Phase (3) Illness Phase (4) Decline Phase (5) Convalescent
A Threatened Fetus Case Study Listeria monocytogenes grows at which temperatures? Choose one or more: 90ºC 45ºC 4ºC 37ºC
4ºC 37ºC
A Threatened Fetus Case Study Which of the following methods is/are helpful in prevention of Listeria monocytogenes infection in pregnant women? Choose one or more: Avoiding cheese made with unpasteurized milk Avoiding deli foods unless they are heated Avoiding grilled meats Avoiding all seafood products
-Avoiding cheese made with unpasteurized milk -Avoiding deli foods unless they are heated
Which of the following represent(s) unique characteristics of biofilms? Choose one or more: Biofilms are communities of unorganized, loose collections of bacterial cells Bacteria in biofilms coordinate their behavior through cell-cell communication using secreted chemical signals, which is called quorum sensing Biofilms allow microorganisms to adhere only to nonliving surfaces, which hinders the ability of bacteria to survive in hostile environments Within a single biofilm, we can find localized differences in the expression of surface molecules, antibiotic resistance, nutrient use, and virulence factors.
-Bacteria in biofilms coordinate their behavior through cell-cell communication using secreted chemical signals, which is called quorum sensing -Within a single biofilm, we can find localized differences in the expression of surface molecules, antibiotic resistance, nutrient use, and virulence factors.
Which of the following statements are true about the COVID-19 pandemic? Choose one or more: COVID-19 is spread as an aerosol COVID-19 enters the body through a parenteral route The COVID-19 reservoir is thought to be a bat COVID-19 enters the body through a respiratory route COVID-19 can be transmitted through direct contact The COVID-19 outbreak is endemic.
-COVID-19 is spread as an aerosol -The COVID-19 reservoir is thought to be a bat -COVID-19 enters the body through a respiratory route -COVID-19 can be transmitted through direct contact
Which of the following are factors that can change the environment in a way that exposes humans to new agents of infectious disease? Choose one or more: Climate change Deforestation Rainforest destruction Global travel
-Climate change -Deforestation -Rainforest destruction
What are emerging infectious diseases? Choose one or more: Diseases that may be the result of recently evolved organisms Diseases that have not previously been recognized Diseases that may be the result of organisms that have successfully made the "leap" from animal to human hosts Diseases that have previously been recognized but are exhibiting a recent increase in incidence or geographic location
-Diseases that may be the result of recently evolved organisms -Diseases that have not previously been recognized -Diseases that may be the result of organisms that have successfully made the "leap" from animal to human hosts
Which Are Considered Signs? Fever Soreness High Blood Pressure Pain Toxemia Nausea Jaundice Fatigue Cough Stomach Ache Lymphadeonpathy
-Fever -High Blood Pressure -Toxemia -Jaundice -Cough -Lymphadenopathy
Genomic islands have which of the following features? Choose one or more: Genomic islands encode clusters of genes that contribute to the fitness of the organism while in a host, such as protein export systems that secrete toxins Genomic islands are typically flanked by genes with homology to phage or plasmid genes The ratio of nucleobases (GC/AT) of a genomic island is the same as that of the chromosome Genomic islands encode proteins that enhance the disease-causing ability of the organism.
-Genomic islands encode clusters of genes that contribute to the fitness of the organism while in a host, such as protein export systems that secrete toxins -Genomic islands are typically flanked by genes with homology to phage or plasmid genes
Which of the following factors can influence whether hosts will contract an infectious disease? Choose one or more: Gender Host genetic makeup Nutrition and exercise Income level Age
-Host genetic makeup -Nutrition and exercise -Age
Which of the following are influenza virus proteins that are prone to mutations, leading to antigenic drift? Choose one or more: Neuraminidase CCR-5 ICAM-1 Hemagglutinin
-Neuraminidase -Hemagglutinin
Which Are Considered Symptoms? Fever Soreness High Blood Pressure Pain Toxemia Nausea Jaundice Fatigue Cough Stomach Ache Lymphadeonpathy
-Soreness -Pain -Nausea -Fatigue -Stomach Ache
A Hike, a Tick, and a Telltale Rash Case Study Saliva from the tick may enter human skin during its feeding process. If the tick contains the infectious agent responsible for Rocky Mountain Fever, it may be transmitted to the skin in this manner. What is the best way to prevent ticks from entering your skin? Select all that apply. Choose one or more: Use insect repellents Be extra vigilant in the winter months Walk near the edges of trails Wear long pants and long sleeves to cover skin when hiking Avoid wooded or busy areas where ticks may live.
-Use insect repellents -Wear long pants and long sleeves to cover skin when hiking -Avoid wooded or busy areas where ticks may live.
HIV Acute Phase Case Study How would Helen and the clinic be able to better distinguish that she was suffering from an HIV infection rather than a malarial infection? Choose one or more: by performing an HIV blood test by examining her recent sexual history by performing a blood smear by determining if her antimalarial drugs were effective
-by performing an HIV blood test -by examining her recent sexual history
The Fates of Pathogens As They Try To Survive in a Host Cell
A = The pathogen induces phagocytosis B = A bacterial pathogen attaches to a host cell memebrane C = Fate 3: The pathogen can break out of the phagolysosome and then move throughout the cytoplasm into adjacent cells by forming actin tails D = Fate 1: The pathogen can allow phagosome lysosome fusion and differentiate into a form able to replicate in the phagolysosome, resulting in inclusion bodies E = Fate 2: Pathogens can remain inside a phagosome and prevent fusion with the lysosome. It will move to the host membrane and get expelled into the extracellular space, where it will be engulfed by a macrophage F = Once inside the phagosome, the pathogen has one of three fates depending on the pathogen
Infection Cycles & Terminology
A = Vertical Transmission B = Indirect Transmission C = DirectTransmission D = Vehicle Transmission E = Accidental Transmission
The spike protein in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) binds which host cell protein and receptor combination? Choose one: CD4 T cell and CCR5 receptor Macrophage cell and ICAM1 receptor CD8 T cell and Nef receptor Natural killer cell and CXCR3 receptor
CD4 T cell and CCR5 receptor
In which of the following infections do symptoms develop gradually, over weeks or months, and then resolve slowly, taking three months or more? Choose one: Chronic infection Acute infection Disseminated infection Latent infection
Chronic infection
Invading pathogens need attachment mechanisms to stay put. Which of the following is NOT a method that the human body uses to expel pathogens? Choose one: The intestine uses peristaltic action to ensure that its contents are constantly flowing The lungs use a mucociliary escalator to rid themselves of pathogens Blood is continuously circulated through the body to remove pathogens from sensitive tissues The bladder uses contraction to propel urine through the urethra with great force.
Blood is continuously circulated through the body to remove pathogens from sensitive tissues
Toleration of the phagolysosome fusion can be accomplished by which species of bacteria? Choose one: Listeria Salmonella Shigella Coxiella
Coxiella
During what stage of infectious disease will the immune response overwhelm the microbe?
Decline Phase
Which of the following is NOT a cellular target for bacterial toxins? Choose one: Protein synthesis disruption Cytoskeleton alterations Signal transduction disruption Destruction of the Golgi apparatus Cell cycle disruption
Destruction of the Golgi apparatus
Sex, Warts, and Cancer Case Study Which of the following is a true statement regarding human papillomavirus? Choose one: One strain of HPV is responsible for the expression of warts on the feet, hands, vocal cords, mouth, and genital organs There is no effective vaccine for HPV Genital HPV is one of the most common sexually transmitted diseases among college students HPV is unable to make host cells divide, limiting its ability in disease progression.
Genital HPV is one of the most common sexually transmitted diseases among college students
Lyme disease and the common cold are examples of what type of disease? Choose one: Endemic Epidemic Pandemic Cross-cultural
Endemic
Which of the following is part of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that forms the outer leaflet of the Gram-negative outer membrane? Choose one: TNF-α Exotoxin Interferon Endotoxin
Endotoxin
Which processes are required for microbial colonization?
Entry Attachment Replication
Because they can live either inside host cells or free from them, Salmonella and Shigella are each considered to be which type of pathogen? Choose one: Anaerobic Obligate intracellular Facultative intracellular Extracellular
Facultative intracellular
True or False. Endotoxin is a component of gram-positive bacteria that causes host immunopathology when cells are lysed.
False
Among a population of people exposed to influenza virus, those who frequently wash their hands or use hand sanitizers are less likely to contract the flu. This is an example of which factor that plays a role in whether a host will contract an infectious disease? Choose one: Occupation Nutrition and exercise Age Host hygiene Immune status
Host hygiene
Salmonella enterica, the bacteria that causes typhoid fever, can infect only humans. Therefore, which quality of Salmonella enterica is very limited? Choose one: Virulence Host range Invasiveness LD50
Host range
Some microbes use tiny molecular syringes, called type ___ secretion systems, embedded in their membranes to inject proteins directly into the host cytoplasm.
III
What is an infection transmitted from a health care worker to a patient called? Choose one: Focal infection Iatrogenic infection Community-acquired infection Mixed infection
Iatrogenic infection
Damage to the body caused by the host's response to infection is called ____
Immunopathology
Which of the following is NOT a required step of pathogenesis?
Immunopathology
Which of the following occurs when a pathogen or parasite enters or begins to grow on a host? Choose one: Pathogenicity Infection Disease Virulence
Infection
Which of the following statements is true about bacterial attachment? Choose one: Inhibiting adhesion can make a pathogenic organism nonvirulent Type IV pili are static structures, which bind to their receptors Type I pili are dynamic structures with twitching motility Capsids and viral envelopes are both examples of attachment appendages used by bacteria.
Inhibiting adhesion can make a pathogenic organism nonvirulent
Sex, Warts, and Cancer Case Study What is the primary reason why HPV vaccination at a young age helps reduce cervical cancer in women? Choose one: It will produce a stronger and more robust immune response when the child is younger It is easier for parents to get younger children vaccinated HPV is easily spread through casual interactions in public schools It is best for young children to become vaccinated before they become sexually active.
It is best for young children to become vaccinated before they become sexually active.
Biosafety Ranking and Procedures From Level 1 - Level 4
Level 1 (1) organisms have little to no pathogenic potential. Standard sterile techniques and laboratory procedures are sufficient (2)Agents have a greater pathogenic potential, but vaccines and/or therapeutic treatments are available. The laminar flow cabinets are used if aerosolization is possible (3) Pathogens produce a serious or lethal human disease, but vaccines or therapeutic agents may be available. Organisms are kept in negative-pressure rooms (4) Practices here dictate that lab personnel wear positive-pressure lab suits connected to a separate air supply Level 4
This component of endotoxin directly induces immunopathology
Lipid A
The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) publishes a weekly report that discusses current outbreaks, statistics, and other health topics. If you wanted to know how many people died from the influenza virus in the past week, which section of this report would provide this information? Choose one: Morbidity Severity Mortality Infection rate
Mortality
Which of the following HIV proteins protects the infected cell from being killed by CD8 cytotoxic T cells by downregulating CD4 and MHC class I proteins? Choose one: Vpu (viral protein U) Tat (transcriptional trans-activator) Vpr (viral protein R) Nef (negative factor) Vif (virion infectivity factor)
Nef (negative factor)
Pseudomonas bacteria colonized the bile ducts of a patient following his liver transplant surgery and then soon travelled systemically. The systemic infection is an example of what? Choose one: Nosocomial infection Latent infection Focal infection Primary infection Metastatic lesion
Nosocomial infection
Why are very young children (under the age of 3) highly susceptible to infection? Choose one: They are continually exposed to infectious agents Their exercise levels are low Their immune systems are still developing Their immune systems are waning
Their immune systems are still developing
Which of the following is true of all exotoxins?
They must be secreted
True or False Both normal microbiota and pathogens express adhesions to attach to body surfaces.
True
Which type of pili is most effective for environments with excess nutrients?
Type I
Which of the following specialized secretion systems is most functionally similar to the general secretion pathway?
Type II
Which of the following appendages are thin and flexible and repeatedly extend and retract, giving their bacterial owners a spastic movement called twitching motility? Choose one: Type I pili Type IV pili Non-pilus adhesions Cilia
Type IV pili
A patient presents with high fever, rash, and neck pain. Lab results show the presence of a Gram-negative diplococcus. The indicated microbe produces an endotoxin that causes internal bleeding (most prominently displayed as small pinpoint hemorrhages); the microbe uses an adhesion mechanism that produces twitching motility, giving the organism the appearance of twitching forward. Based on this information, which of the following adhesion mechanisms is being used by the causative agent? Choose one: Type IV pilus attaches to mucosal epithelial cells Membrane protein attaches to sialic acid on respiratory epithelium Type I fimbriae (pili) attach to species-specific carbohydrate(s) on intestinal epithelium Protein F attaches to the terminus of fibronectin on pharyngeal epithelium.
Type IV pilus attaches to mucosal epithelial cells
The flu vaccine is typically a cocktail providing protection against several strains of the flu. Which of the following factors related to the flu vaccine may provide some protection against antigenic drift but not antigenic shift? Choose one: Vaccines for viruses that have undergone antigenic shift are likely to impact only animals like pigs and birds Influenza type B is the only type of virus that will undergo antigenic drift, and it is not a component of the annual flu vaccine Vaccines for viruses that have undergone antigenic drift may provide some cross-protective antibody response The flu vaccine is only recommended for elderly individuals, who may already have been exposed to different influenza viruses during their lifetime
Vaccines for viruses that have undergone antigenic drift may provide some cross-protective antibody response
Fleas that live on rats can carry Yersinia pestis. What type of transmission would apply if you were bitten by a flea carrying this bacteria? Choose one: Vector transmission Direct contact Reservoir transmission Vehicle transmission
Vector transmission
Which of the following distinguish pathogens from non-pathogens and help establish the pathogen in the host? Choose one: Plasmids Virulence factors Phage genomes Pathogenicity islands
Virulence factors
Biofilms are clinically relevant because Choose one: they are organized, high-density communities of cells bacteria in biofilms are more resistant to antimicrobial drugs they interfere with cytokine production they coordinate their behavior through cell-cell communication.
bacteria in biofilms are more resistant to antimicrobial drugs
