MLT ASCP CAT 2

Primary biliary cirrhosis - antimitochondrial antibodies CREST syndrome - anticentromere antibodies Wegener's granulomatosis - antineutrophilic ntibodies Rheunatic fever - antimyocardial antibodies

Match autoimmune diseases with corresponding serological markers: (antimitochondrial antibodies, anticentromere antibodies, antineutrophilic ntibodies, antimyocardial antibodies) 1. Rheunatic fever 2. CREST syndrome 3. Wegener's granulomatosis 4. Primary biliary cirrhosis

L-arginine

Nitric oxide is associated with the prevention of vaso-occlusion by decreasing cellular adherence to endothelium. Which amino acid is DECREASED in patients with sickle cell disease and is needed as a substrate to produce nitric oxide?

B. Factor VIII concentrate

A severe hemophiliac, with a Factor VIII activity of less than 1%, is actively bleeding due to a serious accident. The blood product of choice is: A. Single-donor plasma B. Factor VIII concentrate C. Factor IX concentrate D. Cryoprecipitate

A. glycoproteins Most of them are produced in the liver by hepatocytes in response to tissue damage or inflammation.

Acute phase proteins generally fall into which category? A. glycoproteins B. immunoglobulins C. lipoproteins D. microglobulins

7 days

After transfusion, a red cell sample from the donor unit, and the recipient's blood sample, must be kept for:

A. indole production B. fragilis is R to penicillin, will grow in 20% bile and hydrolyzes esculin. Prevotella (saccharolytic) pr Porphyromonas (asaccharolytic) are S to penicillin, will not grow in 20% bile and do not hydrolyze esculin.

Each of the following lab characteristic can be used to separate Bacteroides frgilis from the closely related Prevotella/Porphyromonas group except: A. indole production B. R to penicillin C. growth in 20% bile D. esculin hydrolysis

No separation of bound and free antigen is required

Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay technique (EMIT) differ from all types of enzyme immunoassays in that:

B. Lymphocyte cytotoxicity

HLA-A and HLA-B antigens can be detected using which of the following techniques? A. Standard crossmatch B. Lymphocyte cytotoxicity C. Immunofluorescent staining D. Mixed lymphocyte cultures

report the isolate as Beta strep group B

If a CAMP test has a arrowhead appearance, the bacitracin disk had a zone of 6 mm with a 6 mm disk, and the SXT disk had a zone of 6 mm with a 6 mm disk, the action you should take would be:

A. Variability of RBC volume

RDW is an indication of which of the following: A. Variability of RBC volume B. Poikilocytosis C. Macrocytosis D. Mirocytosis

A. Hemoglobin B disease B. Hemoglobin SD disease C. Hb D/beta-thalassemia Hemoglobin D is an inherited autosomal recessive variation of HbA that occues in the beta-globin protein chain of Hb A.

In which of the following conditions i Hgb D elevated? A. Hemoglobin B disease B. Hemoglobin SD disease C. Hb D/beta-thalassemia D. Hemoglobin CD disease E. Alpha-thalassrmia

A. decreased The life span of an RBC containing Hemoglobin H bodies is decreased because the RBC membrane is compromised when macrophages attempt to remove this unstable hemoglobin, which is precipitated just inside the membrane.

The life span of RBCs containing Hemoglobin H is typically: A. decreased B. increased C. unchanged

Basophils

The mediator cells that bind MOST to IgE antibodies are: (one of the WBC)

Flow cytometry

The most accurate and reliable for determining the volume of fetal whole blood or red cells in the maternal circulation in order to evaluate fetomaternal hemorrhage is?

Barnyard

The odor produced by colonies of Clostridium difficile

Bleach

The odor produced by colonies of Eikenella corrodens

Popcorn

The odor produced by colonies of Eugonic Fermenter (EF4)

Peeled apples

The odor produced by colonies of Flavobacterium odoratum

Mothballs

The odor produced by colonies of Pasteurella multocida

Burned chocolate

The odor produced by colonies of Proteus

Grape

The odor produced by colonies of Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Glucuronic acid

Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated in the liver with which of the following substances to become water soluble? A. Glycogen B. Glucose oxidase C. Glucuronic acid D. Glycine

Anti-K

What antibody has been implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn?

D. metanphrines The most reliable screening test for diagnosis of pheochromocytoma is measurement of plasma-free fractionated metanephrines and urinary fractionaed metanephrines.

Which assay, using 24-hour urine, is considered the BEST single screening test for phrochromocytoma? A. catecholamines B. vanillymandelic acid (VMA) C. homovallic acid (HVA) D. metanphrines

D. Polarized light

Which is the best method for examination of synovial crystals: A. Phase contrast B. Darkfield microscopy C. Brightfield microscopy D. Polarized light

B. changes distal tubule water permeability

Which of the following action describes the MAJOR property of antidiuretic hormone? A. acts on proximal tubules. B. changes distal tubule water permeability C. Acts on Na/K/(H') pump D. cannot be affected by diuretics E. controls thirst

D. metamyelocyte

Which of the following cells is the most common nucleated cells in normal adult bone marrow? A. myloblast B. promyelocyte C. myelocyte D. metamyelocyte

C. multiple sclerosis Other conditions that may show oligoclonal bands in CSF electrophoresis include inflammatory conditions, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bacterial meningitis, viral encephalitis, neurosyphilis, and subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.

Which of the following conditions is most likely when a oligoclonal band is seen in CSF electrophoresis without a corresponding serumpeak? A. lymphoproliferative disorder B. viral meningitis C. multiple sclerosis D. traumatic lumbar puncture

Insulin

Which of the following hormones is mainly responsible for the entry of glucose into the cell for energy production?

B. Serum ickness C. Arthus reaction E. Tuberculin reaction

Which of the following is/are not associated with immediate hypersensitivity? A. Hay fever B. Serum ickness C. Arthus reaction D. Anaphylactic shock E. Tuberculin reaction

Triglyceride

Which of the following lipid results would be expected to be falsely elevated on a serum specimen from a nonfasting patient?

Microsporum audouinii

Which of the following organisms has been known to cause epidemic tinea capitis in children but almost never affects adults?

A. neonates less than 4 months of age B. recipients of donor units known to be from a blood relative D. patient receiving chemotherapy who are immunocompromised

Which of the following patients are at risk for T-GVHD and require irradiated cellular blood products? A. neonates less than 4 months of age B. recipients of donor units known to be from a blood relative C. patients with chronic anemia D. patient receiving chemotherapy who are immunocompromised E. patients with a history of allergic reactions

A. patient's antibody strength may initially decrease B. patient may develop a positive DAT with mixed-field agglutination C. patient's antibody becomes undetectable D. patient's antibody increases in titer weeks later

Which of the following serological test results may occur in a patient experiencing a hemolytic transfusion reaction due to antibodies such as anti-c and anti-k? A. patient's antibody strength may initially decrease B. patient may develop a positive DAT with mixed-field agglutination C. patient's antibody becomes undetectable D. patient's antibody increases in titer weeks later

A ratio of 2:1 or greater usually indicates adequate pulmonary surfactant to prevent respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

Which of the following statements regarding the L/S ratio is true?

A. ASO B. DNAase

Which of the following two are useful serological tests to document antecedent Streptococcal infections: A. ASO B. DNAase C. M-antigen D. Hemolysin

B. Non-motility Enterococci are all catalase negative. Growth on bile esculin agar and in 6.5% salt broth are two characteristics that have commonly been used to identify Enterococcus genus. A positive esculin in combination with a positive PYR reaction is another approach.

Whih one of these characteristic distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus speceis? A. PYR positive B. Non-motility C. Calatase negative D.Growth on bile esculin agar

D. carcinoid tumor Lead poisoning does not produce increased levels of 5-HIAA Pheochromocytomas are catecholamine-producing tumors that derive from chromaffin cells within the adrenal glands and do not increase 5-HIAA levels. Porpyrias are a group of diseases caused by deficiencies in heme synthesis.

A markedly elevated 5-hydroxyindole acetic acid (5-HIAA) determination is presumptive evidence for: A. lead poisoning B. pheochromocytoma C. porphyria D. carcinoid tumor