Module 19: Sexuality
The nurse is providing client teaching on combination oral contraceptives. The nurse should emphasize to the client to immediately report which symptom to the primary care provider? 1.Hirsutism 2.Chest pain 3.Weight gain 4.Nervousness
2.Chest pain Rationale: Clients taking combination oral contraceptives (COCs) are at risk for developing thrombophlebitis. Chest pain can indicate a pulmonary embolism and must be reported to the primary care physician immediately. Hirsutism, weight gain, and nervousness are common adverse effects of COCs which need to be addressed, but do not warrant immediate medical attention.
A client has an obstruction between the uterus and the fallopian tube. In obtaining a health history, the nurse collects data about which of the following that may have caused the problem? 1.Rubella infection prior to adolescence 2.Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) caused by gonorrhea 3.Smoking 2 packs of cigarettes a day 4.Ingestion of 2 ounces of alcohol per day
2.Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) caused by gonorrhea Rationale: Infectious diseases of the reproductive tract, such as PID, can cause scarring and tubal blockage. Rubella infection during childhood results in immunity to the disease. Smoking and alcohol present health risks to the woman, but do not obstruct the fallopian tubes.
The nurse is talking with a 15-year-old client experiencing dysmenorrhea who asks whether there are any remedies for the pain. The nurse responds with which advice? 1.Pain lasts only a few days and does not need treatment. 2.The recommended medication is an NSAID. 3.Antibiotics will help the symptoms to subside. 4.Increase the intake of sodium.
2.The recommended medication is an NSAID. Rationale: An NSAID is effective for pain and the reduction of inflammation that may be causing pain. The client is helped to be free of pain, not to endure it. Antibiotics are not effective against pain and increasing sodium intake will increase edema and possibly the discomfort.
The nurse concludes that a client has understood teaching about menopause when the client states: 1."I am depressed about having this disease." 2."I have missed two periods now and am grateful I will have no more." 3."I know I have begun menopause and it will take a while to finish." 4."I will experience symptoms of menopause for 2 weeks."
3."I know I have begun menopause and it will take a while to finish." Rationale: Menopause is a lengthy process since estrogen levels decrease gradually. The process may take years. Menopause is not a disease, but a normal physiological process. The client may miss several menstrual periods only to have one at a later time. Symptoms of menopause can last years, but do gradually decline with time.
The nurse is providing teaching to a client who is experiencing menopause. Which safety-related information associated with long-term estrogen deprivation should the nurse emphasize? 1.Headaches 2.Hot flashes 3.Bone fractures 4.Urinary incontinence
3.Bone fractures Rationale: Long-term estrogen deprivation results in an imbalance in bone remodeling, which can lead to bone fractures. Headaches and hot flashes result from the vasomotor instability that occurs, but are temporary effects of estrogen imbalance and do not pose a safety issue. Urinary incontinence is a body-image/self-concept issue, not a safety issue.
A client with dysfunctional uterine bleeding (DUB) tells the nurse that she is having problems with sexual performance. The nurse selects Sexual Dysfunction as a nursing diagnosis and suspects that the dysfunction is related to: 1.Obesity. 2.Edema. 3.Fatigue. 4.Sweating.
3.Fatigue. Rationale: The woman who is bleeding heavily is losing hemoglobin and is usually fatigued, which affects interest in sex. The nurse plans interventions aimed at conserving energy in this client. Obesity, edema, and sweating are not usually associated with the lack of sexual desire in the client with DUB.
A client with three children has come to the family planning clinic asking about a birth control method that is sanctioned by the Roman Catholic Church. The nurse's best recommendation is: 1.Billings or cervical mucus method. 2.Ovulation testing kit. 3.Symptothermal method. 4.Basal body temperature (BBT) method.
3.Symptothermal method. Rationale: The symptothermal method combines cervical mucus and BBT measurements and results in a lower failure rate than single assessments of the fertile period. Ovulation testing kits do not give enough warning of ovulation to prevent pregnancy.
A 16-year-old who has recently become sexually active comes to the clinic to ask about spermicides as a method of birth control and what their advantages and disadvantages are. The nurse's best response is: 1."If you want an effective method, you should choose something else." 2."It is a very convenient method, and you will be able to insert the spermicide up to 4 hours before intercourse." 3."Spermicides cause very few problems, and they are almost 100% effective." 4."Skin irritation and allergic reaction are the primary disadvantages."
4."Skin irritation and allergic reaction are the primary disadvantages." Rationale: Spermacides must be used within 30 minutes of intercourse. Spermacides do not offer protection against HIV. There may be increased risk because spermacides irritate vaginal tissue. The tissue is more suseptible to invasion by organisms. Telling the client to choose another method does not answer the client's question and offers unsolicited advice.
A 22-year-old nulligravid client tells the nurse that she and her husband have been considering using condoms for family planning. Which of the following instructions would the nurse include about the use of condoms as a method for family planning? A) Using a spermicide with the condom offers added protection against pregnancy. B) Natural skin condoms protect against sexually transmitted diseases. C) The typical failure rate for couples using condoms is about 25%. D) Condom users frequently report penile gland sensitivity
A) Using a spermicide with the condom offers added protection against pregnancy. The typical failure rate of a condom is approximately 12% to 14%. Adding a spermicide can decrease this potential failure rate because it offers additional protection against pregnancy. Natural skin condoms do not offer the same protection against sexually transmitted diseases caused by viruses as latex condoms do. Unlike latex condoms, natural skin (membrane) condoms do not prevent the passage of viruses. Most condom users report decreased penile gland sensitivity. However, some users do report an increased sensitivity or allergic reaction (such as a rash) to latex, necessitating the use of another method of family planning or a switch to a natural skin condom.
The nurse is caring for a client newly diagnosed with ED. Which items are appropriate for the nurse to include in the assessment process? (Select all that apply) A. Client's current sexual practices B. Client's socioeconomic status C. Client's risk factors for ED D. Client's religious affilation E. Client's history of sexual dysfunction
A, C, E In order to assist a client in coping with ED, the nurse should assess risk factors for ED, sexual dysfunction, and the client's current sexual practices.
The client diagnosed with angina is prescribed nitroglycerin (Nitrobid) and tells the nurse, "I don't understand why I can't take my Viagra. I need to take it so that I can make love to my wife." Which statement is the nurse's best response? A. "If you take the medications together, you may get very low blood pressure." B. "You are worried your wife will be concerned if you cannot make love." C. "If you wait at least 8 hours after taking you nitroglycerin (NTG), you can take your Viagra." D. "You should get clarification with your HCP about your taking Viagra."
A. "If you take the medications together, you may get very low blood pressure."
Which of the following would the nurse include in the teaching plan for a 32-year-old female client requesting information about using a diaphragm for family planning? A) Douching with an acidic solution after intercourse is recommended. B) Diaphragms should not be used if the client develops acute cervicitis. C) The diaphragm should be washed in a weak solution of bleach and water. D) The diaphragm should be left in place for 2 hours after intercourse.
B) Diaphragms should not be used if the client develops acute cervicitis. The teaching plan should include a caution that diaphragms should not be used if the client develops acute cervicitis, possibly aggravated by contact with the rubber of the diaphragm. Some studies have also associated diaphragm use with increased incidence of urinary tract infections. Douching after use of a diaphragm and intercourse is not recommended because pregnancy could occur. The diaphragm should be inspected and washed with mild soap and water after each use. A diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours but no longer than 24 hours after intercourse. More spermicidal jelly or cream should be used if intercourse is repeated during this period.
Before advising a 24-year-old client desiring oral contraceptives for family planning, the nurse would assess the client for signs and symptoms of which of the following? A) Anemia. B) Hypertension. C) Dysmenorrhea. D) Acne vulgaris.
B) Hypertension. Before advising a client about oral contraceptives, the nurse needs to assess the client for signs and symptoms of hypertension. Clients who have hypertension, thrombophlebitis, obesity, or a family history of cerebral or cardiovascular accident are poor candidates for oral contraceptives. In addition, women who smoke, are older than 40 years of age, or have a history of pulmonary disease should be advised to use a different method. Iron-deficiency anemia, dysmenorrhea, and acne are not contraindications for the use of oral contraceptives. Iron-deficiency anemia is a common disorder in young women. Oral contraceptives decrease the amount of menstrual flow and thus decrease the amount of iron lost through menses, thereby providing a beneficial effect when used by clients with anemia. Low-dose oral contraceptives to prevent ovulation may be effective in decreasing the severity of dysmenorrhea (painful menstruation). Dysmenorrhea is thought to be caused by the release of prostaglandins in response to tissue destruction during the ischemic phase of the menstrual cycle. Use of oral contraceptives often improves facial acne
A 23-year-old nulliparous client visiting the clinic for a routine examination tells the nurse that she desires to use the basal body temperature method for family planning. The nurse should instruct the client to do which of the following? A) Check the cervical mucus to see if it is thick and sparse. B) Take her temperature at the same time every morning. C) Document ovulation when the temperature decreases at least 1°F. D) Avoid coitus for 10 days after a slight rise in temperature.
B) Take her temperature at the same time every morning. The basal body temperature method requires that the client take her temperature each morning before arising, preferably at the same time each day before eating or any other activity. Just before the day of ovulation, the temperature falls by 0.5°F. At the time of ovulation, the temperature rises 0.4° to 0.8°F because of increased progesterone secretion in response to the luteinizing hormone. The temperature remains higher for the rest of the menstrual cycle. The client should keep a diary of about 6 months of menstrual cycles to calculate "safe" days. There is no mucus for the first 3 or 4 days after menses, and then thick, sticky mucus begins to appear. As estrogen increases, the mucus changes to clear, slippery, and stretchy. This condition, termed spinnbarkeit, is present during ovulation. After ovulation, the mucus decreases in amount and becomes thick and sticky again until menses. Because the ovum typically survives about 24 hours and sperm can survive up to 72 hours, couples must avoid coitus when the cervical mucus is copious and for about 3 to 4 days before and after ovulation to avoid a pregnancy.
What best describes the pattern of genetic transmission known as autosomal recessive inheritance? A. Disorders in which the abnormal gene for the trait is expressed even when the other member of the pair is normal B. Disorders in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed C. Disorders in which a single gene controls the particular trait D. Disorders in which the abnormal gene is carried on the X chromosome
B. Disorders in which both genes of a pair must be abnormal for the disorder to be expressed Autosomal dominant inheritance occurs when the abnormal gene for the trait is expressed, even when the other member of the pair is normal, such as Huntington disease or Marfan syndrome. An autosomal recessive inheritance disorder occurs when both genes of the pair are abnormal, such as phenylketonuria or sickle cell anemia. Disorders in which a single gene controls the particular trait describe the unifactorial inheritance. X-linked recessive inheritance occurs when the abnormal gene is carried on the X chromosome, such as hemophilia or Duchenne muscular dystrophy.
The nurse is caring for a client who presents with an exacerbation of hypertension. While obtaining the nursing admission history, the nurse learns that he recently stopped taking his blood pressure medication. When asked why, he is initially reluctant to answer but eventually states that it made him 'have problems in the bedroom.' What is the cause of this client's erectile dysfunction? A. Lifestyle choices B. Latrogenic C. Hormonal D. Psychological
B. Latrogenic Latrogenic causes of ED are side effects of medication and surgical procedures.
A 65-year-old male client with erectile dysfunction asks the nurse, "Is all this just in my head? Am I crazy?" The best response by the nurse is based on the knowledge that: A. ED is believed to be psychogenic in most cases B. More than 50% of the cases are attributed to organic causes C. Evaluation of nocturnal erection does not help differentiate psychogenic or organic causes D. ED is an uncommon problem among men older than age 65
B. More than 50% of the cases are attributed to organic causes
The nurse is teaching a client about treatment options for ED. Which explanation regarding pharmacological treatment is the most appropriate? A. They allow a man to relax enough to reduce the psychological stress of ED in order to achieve an erection B. They help a man achieve an erection during sexual stimulation by enhancing the effects of nitrous oxide to relax the smooth muscle of the penis and increase blood flow C. They dilate blood vessels all over the body except in the penis, to allow the man to achieve an erection D. They constrict blood flow to other parts of the body in order to shunt it to the penis during sexual stimulation
B. They help a man achieve an erection during sexual stimulation by enhancing the effects of nitrous oxide to relax the smooth muscle of the penis and increase blood flow
The nurse is caring for a client who is newly diagnosed with ED. The client asks why his diabetes caused this to happen. The nurse bases the response on which rationale? A. ED is a normal part of aging that happens to all men at some point B. Vascular disease often associated with diabetes contributes to ED C. The medications he is on for diabetes are latrogenic causes of ED D. The psychological stress of having a chronic disease brought on the ED
B. Vascular disease often associated with diabetes contributes to ED
The nurse is explaining to a student nurse that lifestyle choices often can be both a risk factor for and a cause of ED. The nurse knows that the student understands the explanation when stating which lifestyle choices as causes of ED? A. Stress, anxiety, low self-esteem B. Injury to the penis, COPD, diabetes mellitus C. Smoking, alcohol use, being overweight, not exercising D. Low level of testosterone, hypothyroidism
C. Smoking, alcohol use, being overweight, not exercising
List some disorders with autosomal recessive inheritance:
Cystic fibrosis Phenylketonuria (PTK) Galactosemia Sickle cell disease Tay-Sachs disease Most metabolic disorders
After being examined and fitted for a diaphragm, a 24-year-old client receives instructions about its use. Which of the following client statements indicates a need for further teaching? A) "I can continue to use the diaphragm for about 2 to 3 years if I keep it protected in the case." B) "If I get pregnant, I will have to be refitted for another diaphragm after the delivery." C) "Before inserting the diaphragm I should coat the rim with contraceptive jelly." D) "If I gain or lose 20 pounds, I can still use the same diaphragm."
D) "If I gain or lose 20 pounds, I can still use the same diaphragm." A client would need additional instructions when she says that she can still use the same diaphragm if she gains or loses 20 pounds. Gaining or losing more than 15 pounds can change the pelvic and vaginal contours to such a degree that the diaphragm will no longer protect the client against pregnancy. The diaphragm can be used for 2 to 3 years if it is cared for and well protected in its case. The client should be refitted for another diaphragm after pregnancy and delivery of a newborn because weight changes and physiologic changes of pregnancy can alter the pelvic and vaginal contours, thus affecting the effectiveness of the diaphragm. The client should use a spermicidal jelly or cream before inserting the diaphragm.
Sexual dysfunction is more prevalent in __________ a. Women b. Men
a. Women
A nurse is assessing a woman with vaginal discharge. The nurse suspects bacterial vaginosis when the client states which of the following? a) "The discharge is yellowish but thin." b) "I noticed a strange fishy odor during my period." c) "The discharge looks almost like cottage cheese." d) "I've been experiencing some really intense itching."
b) "I noticed a strange fishy odor during my period."
The nurse is teaching a couple about fertility during the female reproductive cycle. The coupleasks the nurse, "When is the most fertile time for intercourse?" What is the best response by thenurse? a. During the luteal phase. b. 3-4 days before and after ovulation. c. During the follicular phase. d. 12-24 hours before and after ovulation.
b. 3-4 days before and after ovulation. Rationale: Based on serial BBT charts, the clinician might recommend sexual intercourse everyother day beginning 3-4 days prior to and continuing until 2-3 days after the expected time of ovulation.
A central part of a person's sense of self, and it is constantly changing. Pregnancy, aging, trauma, disease, and therapies can all alter an individual's appearance and function, affecting this. a. Sexual self concept b. Body image c. Gender identity e. Gender-role behavior
b. Body image
Which of the following drugs is the recommended first line of treatment for gonorrhea? a. Doxycycline b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin c. Penicillin d. Metronidazole e. Fluconozole
b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin
A client in the family planning clinic asks the nurse about the most likely time for her to conceive. The nurse explains that conception is most likely to occur when: a. Estrogen levels are low b. Luteinizing hormone is high c. The endometrial lining is thin d. The progesterone level is low
b. Luteinizing hormone is high
An increase in muscle tension during the sexual response cycle a. Vasocongestion b. Myotonia
b. Myotonia
Light or infrequent menstruation that occurs when cycles are longer than 6-7 weeks a. Amenorrhea b. Oligomenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia e. Menometrorrhagia
b. Oligomenorrhea
During this phase, vasocongestion and myotonia intensify and individuals experience strong, prolonged sexual arousal. It is typically maintained by physical stimulation. a. Excitement phase b. Plateau phase c. Orgasmic phase d. Resolution phase
b. Plateau phase
A client in the secondary syphilis may be exhibiting which of the following symptoms: a. Genital chancre b. Rash on palms and soles, sore throat c. No symptoms d. Infiltrating tumors in skin, bones, and liver
b. Rash on palms and soles, sore throat
____________ sex characteristics involve bodily traits that develop over time and are influenced by a person's sex but not directly involved in reproduction a. Primary b. Secondary
b. Secondary
The primary male sex hormone a. Thelarche b. Testosterone c. Estrogen d. Tanner stages e. Menarche
b. Testosterone
Which of the following drugs is the recommended first line of treatment for syphilis? a. Doxycycline b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin c. Penicillin d. Metronidazole e. Fluconozole
c. Penicillin
A client tells the nurse that she plans to use the rhythm method of birth control. The nurse is aware that the success of the rhythm method depends on the: a. Age of the client b. Frequency of intercourse c. Regularity of the menses d. Range of the client's temperature
c. Regularity of the menses
Duavee and Osphema belong to which drug classification? a. Benzodiazepines b. Estrogen-receptor blockers c. Selective estrogen receptor modifiers d. Opioid analgesics
c. Selective estrogen receptor modifiers
These drugs represent a new form of HRT intended to lwoer the risk of adverse side effects previously demonstrated, but they come with warnings about increased risks of endometrial cencer and deep vein thrombosis. a. Benzodiazepines b. Estrogen-receptor blockers c. Selective estrogen receptor modifiers d. Opioid analgesics
c. Selective estrogen receptor modifiers
A state of physical, emotional, mental, and social well-being in relation to sexuality; it is not merely the absence of disease, dysfunction or infirmity. Requires a positive and respectful approach to sexuality and sexual relationships, as well as the possibility of having pleasurable and safe sexual experiences, free of coercion, discrimination and violence. For this to be attained and maintained, the sexual rights of all individuals must be respected, protected, and fulfilled. a. Sexual self-concept b. Sexuality c. Sexual health d. Sexual orientation
c. Sexual health (as defined by WHO Pearson pg. 1446)
A 50-year-old client confides to the nurse that she is experiencing dyspareunia during sexual intercourse. The nurse recommends which of the following for the client? a. Consume alcohol to reduce inhibitions. b. Tell the partner that sex is no longer desired. c. Use a vaginal lubricant. d. Reduce sexual contact to once a month.
c. Use a vaginal lubricant. Older women and those experiencing menopause may have decreased vaginal secretions, causing a dry entry that can be painful and irritating to the vagina. The nurse could suggest using a lubricant to replace normal secretions. Before assessing for the problem, it is not appropriate to advise the client to tell the partner that sex is not desired. Advising the client to reduce sexual contact or use alcohol does not address the client's problem.
A client with diabetes asks the nurse for advice regarding methods of birth control. Which method of birth control is most suitable for the client with diabetes? a. Intrauterine device b. Oral contraceptives c. Contraceptive sponge d. Diaphragm
d. Diaphragm The best method of birth control for the client with diabetes is the diaphragm. A permanent intrauterine device can cause a continuing inflammatory response in diabetics that should be avoided. oral contraceptives tend to elevate blood glucose levels. and contraceptive sponges are not good at preventing pregnancy.
Which of the following drugs is the recommended first line of treatment for trichomoniasis? a. Doxycycline b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin c. Penicillin d. Metronidazole e. Fluconozole
d. Metronidazole
Bleeding of variable amount between menstrual periods a. Amenorrhea b. Oligomenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia e. Menometrorrhagia
d. Metrorrhagia
Period of return to the unaroused state, may last 10-15 minutes after orgasm. a. Excitement phase b. Plateau phase c. Orgasmic phase d. Resolution phase
d. Resolution phase
A system used to rate sexual maturity defined by physical growth of the breasts and pubic hair in girls and the genitalia and pubic hair in boys. a. Thelarche b. Testosterone c. Estrogen d. Tanner stages e. Menarche
d. Tanner stages
The nurse is preparing a presentation for a local community group about sexually transmitted infections (STIs). Which of the following would the nurse expect to include as the most common STI in the United States? a) Chlamydia b) Syphilis c) Genital herpes d) Gonorrhea
a) Chlamydia
The absence of menses a. Amenorrhea b. Oligomenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia e. Menometrorrhagia
a. Amenorrhea
A nurse is teaching a health class to a group of clients likely to be at highest risk for gonorrhea. What is the age range of the clients? a) 60 to 70 years b) 15 to 24 years c) 25 to 29 years d) 30 to 45 years
b) 15 to 24 years
A client is being treated for gonorrhea. Which agent would the nurse expect the physician to prescribe? a) Tetracycline b) Ceftriaxone c) Penicillin d) Levofloxacin
b) Ceftriaxone
A client who is menopausal asks the nurse about the use of herbal therapy to treat hot flashes. Which of the following should the nurse recommend? a. ginger root b. black cohosh c. saw palmetto d. Kava
b. black cohosh
With regard to the estimation and interpretation of the recurrence of risks for genetic disorders, nurses should be aware that: A. With a dominant disorder, the likelihood of the second child also having the condition is 100%. B. An autosomal recessive disease carries a one in eight risk of the second child also having the disorder. C. Disorders involving maternal ingestion of drugs carry a one in four chance of being repeated in the second child. D. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family.
D. The risk factor remains the same no matter how many affected children are already in the family.
A nurse is teaching a client with a diagnosis of infertility secondary to endometriosis. Whichmedications should the nurse anticipate the physician ordering for the treatment ofendometriosis? Select all that apply. a. Danazol (Danocrine). b. Progesterone. c. Menotropins. d. Oral hypoglycemia agents (metformin). e. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists.
Danazol (Danocrine). Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists. Rationale: Pharmacologic treatments for endometriosis-related infertility use danazol(Danocrine); oral contraceptives or oral medroxyprogesterone acetate; and gonadotropinreleasing hormone (GnRH) agonists. Treatment of luteal phase defects may include the use of progesterone to augment luteal phase progesterone levels. Ovulation-induction agents, such as clomiphene citrate or menotropins, may be used to augment proliferative phase FSH production in the developing follicle, as women with luteal phase defects have been found to have decreased FSH production in the proliferative phase.
What is the most common cause of secondary dysmenorrhea?
Endometriosis
TRUE/FALSE: There are normal, universal sexual behaviors
False, there are no normal sexual behaviors Pearson pg. 1444
List some disorders with x-linked recessive inheritance:
Hemophilia Duchenne muscular dystrophy Color blindness
List some disorders with autosomal dominant inheritance:
Huntington disease Polycystic kidney disease Neurofibromatosis Achondroplastic dwarfism
A lack of conception despite unprotected sexual intercourse for at least 12 months
Infertility
How is male fertility assessed?
Sperm analysis
A nurse is working with four clients desiring in vitro fertilization (IVF). Which clients wouldbe good candidates for IVF? Select all that apply. a. The client with tubal blockage. b. The client whose husband has a very low sperm count. c. The client with immunological infertility. d. The client with absence of a uterus.
The client with tubal blockage. The client whose husband has a very low sperm count. Rationale: The in vitro fertilization (IVF) procedure is selectively used in cases in whichinfertility has resulted from tubal factors; mucus abnormalities; male infertility; unexplainedinfertility; male and female immunologic infertility; and cervical factors. In IVF, a woman'seggs are collected from her ovaries, fertilized in the laboratory, and placed into her uterus afternormal embryo development has begun
A nurse is teaching a client with infertility about the medication Clomid (clomiphene citrate).The nurse should instruct the client to report which side effect of Clomid to her health careprovider? A. Hot flashes. b. Abdominal distention. c. Visual disturbances. d. Headaches.
Visual disturbances. Rationale: The woman should be knowledgeable about side effects, and should call her healthcare provider if they occur. When visual disturbances (flashes, blurring, or spots) occur, bright lighting should be avoided. This side effect disappears within a few days or weeks afterdiscontinuation of therapy. Hot flashes can be due to the antiestrogenic properties of clomiphenecitrate. The woman can obtain some relief by increasing intake of fluids and using fans.
List some disorders with x-linked dominant inheritance:
Vitamin D-resistant rickets Fragile X-syndrome
A nurse is reviewing a basal body temperature chart with a couple. Which change would indicate probable ovulation? a) A decrease in temperature followed by an increase for several days b) An increase in temperature followed by a decrease for several days c) A decrease in temperature that remains until menses begins d) A steadily increasing temperature over seven days
a) A decrease in temperature followed by an increase for several days
An instructor is teaching a group of students about the incidence of sexually transmitted infections (STIs) and those that must be reported by law. The instructor determines that the students have understood the information when they state that which STI must be reported? a) Syphilis b) Condylomata acuminata c) Genital herpes d) Hepatitis B
a) Syphilis
The nurse is teaching older women about health risks for the postmenopausal period and would include which of the following as health risks? (Select all that apply.) a. Breast cancer b. Macular degeneration c. Cognitive changes d. Gout e. Joint degeneration
a. Breast cancer b. Macular degeneration c. Cognitive changes Due to hormonal changes, postmenopausal women have a greater risk for macular degeneration, breast cancer, and cognitive changes than do premenopausal women. Joint degeneration and gout are not associated with menopause.
Which of the following drugs is the recommended first line of treatment for chlamydia? a. Doxycycline b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin c. Penicillin d. Metronidazole e. Fluconozole
a. Doxycycline
This phase of the sexual response cycle involves two primary physiologic changes: vasocongestion, and myotonia a. Excitement phase b. Plateau phase c. Orgasmic phase d. Resolution phase
a. Excitement phase
Jessa, 17 years old, is bleeding between periods of less than two weeks. This condition is an abnormality in the menstrual cycle known as: a. Metrorrhagia b. Menorrhagia c. Amenorrhea d. Dysmenorrhea
a. Metrorrhagia Abnormalities of Menstruation 1. Amenorrhea - absence of menstrual flow 2. Dysmenorrhea - painful menstruation 3. Oligomenorrhea - scanty menstruation 4. Menorrhagia -excessive menstrual bleeding 5. Metrorrhagia - bleeding between periods of less than 2 weeks
____________ sex characteristics involve the reproductive organs themselves a. Primary b. Secondary
a. Primary
A client who is perimenopausal is questioning the nurse regarding self-care during this process. The nurse plans to focus teaching for this client on which priority of care? a. Reducing the risks associated with menopause b. Recommending hormonal therapy c. Referring the client to a support group d. Stressing the importance of foot care
a. Reducing the risks associated with menopause The priority of care is teaching the client lifestyle changes that can help reduce the risks associated with menopause. Referring the client to a support group may be a consideration, but is not the priority. The nurse can offer information regarding hormonal therapy, but it is the physician who makes the recommendation. Foot care is important to the woman who has diabetes.
How an individual values themself as a sexual being. Determines the gender and kinds of individuals to whom the person is attracted. a. Sexual self concept b. Body image c. Gender identity e. Gender-role behavior
a. Sexual self concept
Breast buds a. Thelarche b. Testosterone c. Estrogen d. Tanner stages e. Menarche
a. Thelarche
An increase in blood flow to various parts of the body, resulting in erection of the penis and clitoris and swelling of the labia, testes, and breasts. Stimulates sensory receptors within these body parts, which in turn transmit messages to the conscious brain, where they are usually interpreted as pleasurable a. Vasocongestion b. Myotonia
a. Vasocongestion
A nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with a chlamydia infection. The nurse teaches the client about disease transmission and advises the client to inform his sexual partners of the infection. The client refuses, stating, "This is my business and I'm not telling anyone. Beside, chlamydia doesn't cause any harm like the other STDs." How should the nurse proceed? a) Do nothing because the client's sexual habits place him at risk for contracting other STDs. b) Educate the client about why it's important to inform sexual contacts so they can receive treatment. c) Inform the health department that this client contracted an STD. d) Inform the client's sexual contacts of their possible exposure to chlamydia.
b) Educate the client about why it's important to inform sexual contacts so they can receive treatment.
A male patient comes to the clinic and is diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which symptom most likely prompted him to seek medical attention? a) Painful red papules on the shaft of the penis b) Foul-smelling discharge from the penis c) Rashes on the palms of the hands and soles of the feet d) Cauliflower-like warts on the penis
b) Foul-smelling discharge from the penis
A patient has herpes simplex 2 viral infection (HSV-2). The nurse recognizes that which of the following should be included in teaching the patient? a) The virus causes "cold sores" of the lips. b) Treatment is focused on relieving symptoms. c) The virus may be cured with antibiotics. d) The virus when active may not be contracted during intercourse.
b) Treatment is focused on relieving symptoms.
Which of the following instructions should be included in the nurse's teaching regarding oral contraceptives? a. Weight gain should be reported to the physician. b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics. c. If the client misses one or more pills, two pills should be taken per day for 1 week. d. Changes in the menstrual flow should be reported to the physician.
b. An alternate method of birth control is needed when taking antibiotics.
During the examination portion of her annual checkup, a 55-year-old client has several new complaints. Which subjective symptoms of menopause would the nurse expect to find during data collection? a. Decreased skin elasticity b. Night sweats c. Hair growth on the upper lip d. Rise in vaginal pH
b. night sweats Night sweats is the only symptom that is subjective, reported by the client. Facial hair, decreased skin elasticity, and a rise in vaginal pH are all objective signs that can be observed by the nurse.
A multigravid client will be using medroxyprogesterone acetate (Depo-Provera) as a family planning method. After the nurse instructs the client about this method, which of the following client statements indicates effective teaching? a) "This method of family planning requires monthly injections." b) "I should have my first injection during my menstrual cycle." c) "One possible side effect is absence of a menstrual period." d) "This drug will be given by subcutaneous injections."
c) "One possible side effect is absence of a menstrual period." With medroxyprogesterone acetate, irregular menstrual cycles and amenorrhea are common side effects. Other side effects include weight gain, breakthrough bleeding, headaches, and depression. This method requires deep intramuscular injections every 3 months. The first injection should occur within 5 days after menses.
A female college student is distressed at the recent appearance of genital warts, an assessment finding that her care provider has confirmed as attributable to human papillomavirus (HPV) infection. Which of the following information should the nurse give the patient? a) "It's important to start treatment soon, so you will be prescribed pills today." b) "I'd like to give you an HPV vaccination if that's okay with you." c) "There is a chance that these will clear up on their own without any treatment." d) "Unfortunately, this is going to greatly increase your chance of developing pelvic inflammatory disease."
c) "There is a chance that these will clear up on their own without any treatment."
A 19-year-old nulligravid client visiting the clinic for a routine examination asks the nurse about cervical mucus changes that occur during the menstrual cycle. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect to include in the client's teaching plan? a) About midway through the menstrual cycle, cervical mucus is thick and sticky. b) During ovulation, the cervix remains dry without any mucus production. c) As ovulation approaches, cervical mucus is abundant and clear. d) Cervical mucus disappears immediately after ovulation, resuming with menses.
c) As ovulation approaches, cervical mucus is abundant and clear. As ovulation approaches, cervical mucus is abundant and clear, resembling raw egg white. Ovulation generally occurs 14 days (plus or minus 2 days) before the beginning of menses. During the luteal phase of the cycle, which occurs after ovulation, the cervical mucus is thick and sticky, making it difficult for sperm to pass. Changes in the cervical mucus are related to the influences of estrogen and progesterone. Cervical mucus is always present.
A nurse is teaching a community health class of women and explains that a sexually transmitted infection (STI) is associated with an increased risk of infertility in women. Which of the following STIs would the nurse identify? a) Herpes simplex b) Syphilis c) Chlamydia d) Gonorrhea
c) Chlamydia
The primary female sex hormone a. Thelarche b. Testosterone c. Estrogen d. Tanner stages e. Menarche
c. Estrogen
A 53-year-old woman asks the nurse if there are any definitive laboratory tests that would show that she has entered menopause. The nurse responds that which test is done to clarify the diagnosis? a. Blood, urea, nitrogen (BUN) levels b. Estrogen levels c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level d. Complete blood count
c. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) level FSH blood testing can be done after the woman has gone one year without a menstrual cycle. If the FSH is high, a diagnosis of menopause can be made. Complete blood count, estrogen levels, and BUN blood tests are not diagnostic for menopause.
Refers to an individual's self-image as a female, male, or transgender person. Involves not only a biological component but also social and cultural norms. It is the result of a long series of developmental events that may or may not conform to an individual's biological sex. a. Sexual self concept b. Body image c. Gender identity e. Gender-role behavior
c. Gender identity
Excessive or prolonged menstruation that occurs at regular intervals a. Amenorrhea b. Oligomenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia e. Menometrorrhagia
c. Menorrhagia
The involuntary climax of sexual tension, accompanied by physiologic and psychologic release. This phase is considered the measurable peak of the sexual experience. a. Excitement phase b. Plateau phase c. Orgasmic phase d. Resolution phase
c. Orgasmic phase
A client is diagnosed as being in the primary stage of syphilis? Which of the following would the nurse expect as a finding? a) Palmar rash b) Development of gummas c) Development of central nervous system lesions d) Genital chancres
d) Genital chancres
After teaching a group of students about sexually transmitted infections (STIs), the instructor determines that additional teaching is necessary when the students identify which STI as curable with treatment? a) Syphillis b) Gonorrhea c) Chlamydia d) Genital herpes
d) Genital herpes
A 16-year-old patient comes to the free clinic and is diagnosed with primary syphilis. The patient states that she contracted this disease by holding hands with someone who has syphilis. What is the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient? a) Alteration in comfort related to impaired skin integrity b) Fear related to complications c) Noncompliance with treatment regimen related to age d) Knowledge deficit related to modes of transmission
d) Knowledge deficit related to modes of transmission
Which of the following clients would most likely benefit from a Metformin prescription? a. A 15 year old male with cystic fibrosis b. A 54 year old male with erectile dysfunction c. A 51 year old female experiencing menopause d. A 26 year old female with polycystic ovarian syndrome attempting to get pregnant
d. A 26 year old female with polycystic ovarian syndrome attempting to get pregnant
Which of the following clients would most likely benefit from a clomiphene citrate (Clomid) prescription? a. A 15 year old male with cystic fibrosis b. A 54 year old male with erectile dysfunction c. A 51 year old female experiencing menopause d. A 26 year old female with polycystic ovarian syndrome attempting to get pregnant
d. A 26 year old female with polycystic ovarian syndrome attempting to get pregnant
Which of the following drugs is the recommended first line of treatment for bacterial vaginosis? a. Doxycycline b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin c. Penicillin d. Metronidazole e. Fluconozole
d. Metronidazole
Which of the following drugs is the recommended first line of treatment for candidiasis? a. Doxycycline b. Ceftriaxone and azithromycin c. Penicillin d. Metronidazole e. Fluconozole
e. Fluconozole
The outward expression of an individual's sense of maleness or femaleness, as well as the expression of what is perceived as gender-appropriate behavior. a. Sexual self concept b. Body image c. Gender identity e. Gender-role behavior
e. Gender-role behavior
First menses (menstrual period) a. Thelarche b. Testosterone c. Estrogen d. Tanner stages e. Menarche
e. Menarche
Irregular, excessive, prolonged menstruation that is typically the result of conditions such as endometriosis, uterine fibroids, or cancers. a. Amenorrhea b. Oligomenorrhea c. Menorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia e. Menometrorrhagia
e. Menometrorrhagia
