MODULE 6 (Microbiology)
This is a period between conceptions through complete delivery of the product of conception: A) Pregnancy B) Fertilization C) Implantation D) Cleavage E) None
A) Pregnancy
The sexual cycle is the: A) Sporogony B) Schizogony C) Either B or C D) Neither B nor C
A) Sporogony
This is a specific staining method for spirochetes A. Giemsa's stain B. Ziehl-neilsen stain C. Acid-fast stain D. Gram's stain
A. Giemsa's stain
An example of an inflammatory mediator that stimulates vasodilation is. A. Histamine B. Collagen C. Complement C5a D. interferon
A. Histamine
Causative agent genital warts. A. Human papilloma virus B. Molluscum contagiosum virus C. Phthirus pubis D. Herpes simplex virus E. Trichomonas vaginalis
A. Human papilloma virus
The most reactive of the four toxic forms of oxygen is the A. Hydroxyl radical B. Peroxide anion C. Superoxide radical D. Singlet oxygen
A. Hydroxyl radical
Long, branching, intertwining, cytoplasmic filaments of molds: A. Hyphae B. Conidia C. Spore D. Mycelium
A. Hyphae
Humans acquire Salmonella typhimurium by A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water B. Tick bites C. Mosquito bites D. Aerosols
A. Ingestion of contaminated food and water
Strongyloides stercoralis is an example of: A. Intestinal nematode B. Extra intestinal nematode C. Trematode D. Anthropods E. NOTA
A. Intestinal nematode
An acute generalized viral infection occurring in school-age children manifested by swelling of the parotid salivary glands: A. Mumps B. Measles C. Colds D. Influenza
A. Mumps
In which type of symbiosis do both members benefit from their interaction? A. Mutualism B. Parasitism C. Commensalism D. Pathogenesis
A. Mutualism
A fungal colony, composed of a mass of intertwined hyphae: A. Mycelium B. Spore C. Conidia D. Fimbriae
A. Mycelium
Study of fungi A. Mycology B. Phycology C. Virology D. Microbiology
A. Mycology
A natural soil aggregate, formed partly through bacterial and fungal growth in the soil: A. Ped B. Pseudopodium C. Peplomer D. Peptidoglycan
A. Ped
A spinal fluid specimen from a 28 year old man shows N. meningitides. The DOC is A. Pen G B. Amikacin C. Kanamycin D. Ethambutol
A. Pen G
Which of the following is most closely associated with a B-lactam ring? A. Penicillin B. Vancomycin C. Bacitracin D. Isoniazid
A. Penicillin
Bacterial genes that may code for drug resistance: A. R factors B. F factors C. Plasmid-encoded toxins D. Dissimilation plasmids E. Bacteriocins
A. R factors
Exotoxins can lead to the following diseases except A. Rabies B. Tetanus C. Diphtheria D. Botulism E. Cholera
A. Rabies
Carrageenan is found in the cell walls of which group of algae? A. Red algae B. Green algae C. Dinoflagellates D. Yellow-green algae
A. Red algae
It is an indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce pathologic changes or disease in the host: A) Virulence B) Pathogenicity C) Attenuation D) In vitro growth rates
B) Pathogenicity
Which of the following neither lay eggs nor deposits larvae in the intestinal canal? A) Hookworm B) Pinworm C) Trichinella spiralis D) Trichuris trichiura
B) Pinworm
The eggs of this organism has a rudimentary lateral spine: A) Schistosoma hematobium B) Schistosoma mansoni C) Schistosoma japonicum D) Fasciola hepatica
B) Schistosoma mansoni
Which of the following is also known as the Old world hookworm? A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Necator americanus D. Wuchereria bancrofti E. Brugia malayi
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
Cytotoxic T cells are best characterized by the following cell-surface marker A. CD4 B. CD8 C. CD3 D. CD2
B. CD8
Disease that is prevalent in the usual number in a given population and there is no increase in the number of cases A. Prevalent B. Endemic C. Pandemic D. Sporadic
B. Endemic
Strain of E. coli that can produce a Shigella-like dysentery. A. Enterotoxigenic B. Enteroinvasive C. Enterohemmorhagic D. Enterohemolytic E. Enteropathogenic
B. Enteroinvasive
These bacteria differ from most other enterobacteriaceae by being mainly associated with plants A. Proteus B. Erwinia C. Shigella D. Serratia E. Yersinia
B. Erwinia
This is anti-TB drug that inhibits and does not kill mycobacterium tuberculosis. It usually presents an important toxic side effects such as optic neuritis A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Pyridoxine D. Pyrazinamide
B. Ethambutol
Which of the following is used as a gaseous chemosterilizer? A. Phenol B. Ethylene oxide C. Ethanol D. Ammonia E. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Ethylene oxide
The following are involved in the increase in abnormally high body temperature or fever except: A. Endotoxins B. Exotoxins C. Lipopolysaccharides D. Interleukin-1 E. TNF-α
B. Exotoxins
A small segment of DNA that carries genes for sex pili synthesis A. R plasmids B. F plasmids C. S plasmids D. L plasmids E. RF plasmids
B. F plasmids
In the laboratory diagnosis of the enteric pathogens Salmonella and Shigella, the screening procedure includes testing their inability to A. Ferment glucose B. Ferment lactose C. Reduce nitrates D. Produce oxidase
B. Ferment lactose
Methenamine is used as urinary tract antiseptic/s. Methenamine is hydrolysed into which compound to provide its antibacterial effect in the urinary tract? A. Ethylene B. Formaldehyde C. Ammonia D. Acetic acid
B. Formaldehyde
A process whereby an endospore returns to its vegetative state is known as A. Sporulation B. Germination C. Sporogenesis D. Lysis E. Transformation
B. Germination
Which of the following species can be found in the small intestine A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lmablia C. Trichuris trichuria D. Enterobius vermicularis
B. Giardia lmablia
Effective given orally in Microsporum-induced disease of hair A. Metronidazole B. Griseofulvin C. Nystatin D. Polymyxin
B. Griseofulvin
The most common causative agent of genital herpes A. HSV-1 B. HSV-2 C. HSV-3 D. HSV-4 E. HSV-6
B. HSV-2
Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the cause of pneumonia in an immunocompetent patient? A) Nocardia asteroides B) Serratia marcescens C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae D) Legionella pneumophila
C) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Porins are: A) Cytoplasmic membrane proteins B) Periplasmic proteins C) Outer membrane proteins D) Inclusion bodies
C) Outer membrane proteins
A vitamin that serves as intracellular antioxidants: A) Vit. A B) Vit. D C) Vit. E D) Vit. K E) None of the above
C) Vit. E
Superoxide ion is to toxic to strict anaerobes because they lack A. Catalase B. Peroxidase C. Dismutase D. Oxidase
C. Dismutase
This is/are example/s of flukes which inhibit/s the liver if vertebrates I. Fasciola hepatica II. Clonorchis sinensis III. Paragonimus westermani A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
Which of the following scientists hypothesized that a bactericidal colony arises from a single bacterial cell? A. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek B. Louis Pasteur C. Robert Koch D. Richard Petri
C. Robert Koch
The microbial death rate is used to measure A. The efficiency of a detergent B. The efficiency of antiseptic C. The efficiency of sanitization techniques D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Penicillin is effective for this spirochete organism causing syphilis. A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Treponema pallidum E) Leptospira interrogans
D) Treponema pallidum
A halophilic coma shaped, gram negative bacteria. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella typhi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Vibrio cholerae E) Camphylobacter jejuni
D) Vibrio cholerae
Trimethoprim is an inhibitor of which enzyme: A. Dihydropteroate synthase B. Dihydrofolate synthase C. Dihydropteroate reductase D. Dihydrofolate reductase E. None of the above
D. Dihydrofolate reductase
Backyard gardening, community project and putting of herbal plants are among the major activities under this program: A) Araw ng Sangkap Pinoy B) Nutrition Program C) National Drug Policy Program D) WHO E) None of the above
D) WHO
Its main objective is attainment by all people of the highest possible level of health: A) Philhealth B) DOH Hospitals C) UNICEF D) WHO E) None of the above
D) WHO
Effective sterilization of a dental instrument used in a patient reported to be infected with AIDS, requires which of the ff. conditions: A. Open flame B. 100 °C for 10 mins. C. 70% alcohol solution D. 3% H2O2 solution
D. 3% H2O2 solution
The maximal reaction time for tuberculin reaction is A. 2-5 hours B. 6-10 hours C. 12-20 hours D. 48-72 hours
D. 48-72 hours
A raised epidermal lesion with horny surface caused by an infection by a human papilloma virus A. Verruca B. Wart C. Variola D. A or B
D. A or B
An in vitro technique used to synthesize large quantities of specific nucleotide sequences from small amounts of DNA: A. PCR B. Polymerase chain reaction C. HPLC D. A or B
D. A or B
Which of the following items functions most like an autoclave? A. A boiling pan B. An incinerator C. A dessicator D. A pressure cooker
D. A pressure cooker
The motile feeding stage of protozoan is called A. An apicomplexa B. A gametocyte C. A cyst D. A trophozoite
D. A trophozoite
Which of the following enzymes neutralize/s various toxic forms of oxygen? A. Superoxide dismuthase B. Catalase C. Peroxidase D. A, B and C E. None of the above
D. A, B and C
The most recently discovered sexually transmitted disease is A. Trichomoniasis B. Condyloma acuminate (warts) C. Hepatitis D. AIDS
D. AIDS
The process by which microorganisms attach themselves to cells is A. Infection B. Contamination C. Disease D. Adhesion
D. Adhesion
An acute, contagious viral disease that destroys the nerve cells that control the muscles, and sometimes causing paralysis: A. Poliomyelitis B. Infantile paralysis C. Polio D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Endospores A. Can remain alive for decades B. Can remain alive in boiling water C. Live in a state of suspended animation D. All of the above
D. All of the above
In which habitat would you most likely find archaea? A. Acidic hot springs B. Swamp mud C. Great salt lake D. All of the above
D. All of the above
An enzyme produced by virulent bacteria to promote the spread of the bacteria to the host and otherwise known as the spreading factor A. Collagenase B. Streptokinase C. Protease D. Hyaluronidase E. Hemolysin
D. Hyaluronidase
Defined as " what we as a society do to assure the conditions in which people can be healthy". A. Sustainability B. Social marketing C. Intersectoral participation D. Public health E. Community involvement
D. Public health
Which of the following terms best describes the disinfecting of cafeteria plates? A. Pasteurization B. Antisepsis C. Sterilization D. Sanitization
D. Sanitization
One of the most useful index to measure the risk of transfer of infection in a community is A. Survival rate B. Case fatality rate C. Cause specific death rate D. Secondary attack rate
D. Secondary attack rate
In the Health Belief Model, this refers to individual's level of confidence that he/she can successfully carry out a particular behavior. A. Perceived susceptibility B. Cues action C. Perceived barriers D. Self-efficacy E. Contemplation
D. Self-efficacy
Term for the characteristic of the disease that can be observed by examining the patient A. Symptom B. Syndrome C. Observation D. Sequelae E. Sign
D. Sequelae
Protozoa are single-celled eukaryotic organisms. They may be classified according to their organ for locomotion. Which of the following protozoan has no definite organ for motility A. Sarcodina B. Mastigophora C. Ciliaphora D. Sporozoa
D. Sporozoa
Which of the following is an example of an aerobic organisms? A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Histoplasma capsulatum C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE) is caused by A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Staphylococcus saprophyticus D. Streptococcus viridans
D. Streptococcus viridans
Which type of media is used to grow obligate anaerobes? A. Complex media B. Enrichment media C. Differential media D. Selective media E. Reducing media
E. Reducing media
In the Ottawa charter, it is an action area that must lead to a change of attitude and organization of health services which refocuses on the total needs of the individual as a whole person. A. Create supportive environment B. Strengthen community actions C. Develop personal skills D. Build healthy public policy E. Reorient health services
E. Reorient health services
The first chemotherapeutic agent effective against syphilis A. Penicillin B. Streptomycin C. Chloramphenicol D. Sulfonamide E. Salvarsan
E. Salvarsan
Refers to those that result from living in a society where one experiences noise, lack of privacy and overcrowding. A. Chemical hazards B. Ergonomic hazards C. Biologic hazards D. Physical hazards E. Sociologic hazards
E. Sociologic hazards
In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the A. Gametocyte B. Merozoite C. Oocyst D. Trophozoite E. Sporozoite
E. Sporozoite
Hemolysins can lyse red blood cells. Which of the following is not correct? A. α- hemolysin produces greenish ring around bacterial colonies on blood agar plate B. β- hemolysin produces clear ring around colonies on blood agar plate C. γ- hemolysin produces no visible change around colonies on blood agar plate D. Streptococcus pyogenes has β- hemolysin E. Staphylococcus aureus has γ- hemolysin
E. Staphylococcus aureus has γ- hemolysin
The five components of DOTS are the following except: A. Sustained financial and political commitment B. Diagnosis by quality-ensured sputum smear microscopy C. Standardized short course anti-TB drugs given to patients as supervised by treatment partners D. Regular uninterrupted supply of quality anti-TB drugs E. Supervision by DOH
E. Supervision by DOH
Gene transfer between bacteria by means of a virus A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transposon insertion D. Gene therapy E. Transduction
E. Transduction
Which of the following is not a tickborne disease? A. Babesiosis B. Ehrlichiosis C. Lyme disease D. Relapsing fever E. Tularemia
E. Tularemia
It refers to water suitable for drinking: A) Potable B) Edible C) Bacteria-free D) Odor-free
A) Potable
Under ideal conditions, the fermentation of one glucose by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP molecules? A. 2 B. 4 C. 38 D. 0
A. 2
Duration of immunity of rabies vaccine is A. 2 years B. 5 years C. 10 years D. 6 years E. 20 years
A. 2 years
Immune response that defends the body against fungi, parasites, cancer and transplants. A. Cell-mediated B. Humoral C. Antibody-mediated D. B cell-mediated E. Memory B-cell mediated
A. Cell-mediated
The major function of interferon-gamma is to A. Induce the activation of resident macrophages B. Inhibit migration of macrophages from reaction sites C. Promote and maintain the proliferation of T cells D. Promote B and T cell growth
A. Induce the activation of resident macrophages
An organism that can synthesize all its required organic components from carbon dioxide using energy from the sun is a A. Photoautotroph B. Photoheterotroph C. Chemoautotroph D. Chemoheterotroph
A. Photoautotroph
There are different species of Schistosoma and common in them is they lay eggs in the feces. Which of the following Schistosoma deposits eggs in the urine? A. Schistosoma heamatobium B. Schistosoma Israeli C. Schistosoma mansoni D. Schistosoma japonicum
A. Schistosoma heamatobium
Term for the characteristic of the disease that can be observed or felt only by the patient A. Symptom B. Syndrome C. Observation D. Sequelae E. Sign
A. Symptom
Characterized with marked hypotension, and scarlatiniform rash followed by desquamation A. Toxic shock syndrome B. Botulism C. Cholera D. Tetanus
A. Toxic shock syndrome
Vaccine for Tetanus A. Toxoid B. Toxin C. Living attenuated microorganisms D. Killed attenuated microorganisms
A. Toxoid
The synthesis of an mRNA molecule from a DNA template: A. Transcription B. Translation C. Transformation D. Transduction
A. Transcription
A process of gene transfer which involves bacteriophages in the transfer of DNA material from one bacterium to another A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Conjugation D. Transposition
A. Transduction
It is an important cause of pneumonia in immunocompromised patients. A) Hepatitis C virus B) Cytomegalovirus C) Human papilloma virus D) Dengue virus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
B) Cytomegalovirus
The capsule of Bacillus anthracis is composed of: A) L-glutamic acid B) D-glutamic acid C) Polysaccharide D) Nucleic acid
B) D-glutamic acid
Human papillomavirus A) DNA enveloped virus B) DNA non-enveloped virus C) RNA enveloped virus D) RNA non-enveloped virus E) Viriod
B) DNA non-enveloped virus
It refers to the killing of many, but not all microorganisms: A) Sterilization B) Disinfection C) Antisepsis D) Asepsis
B) Disinfection
Ribosomes of Candida albicans are referred to as: A) 70s B) 80s C) 90s D) 100s
B) 80s
Dengue virus vector: A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Aedes aegypti C) Anopheles mosquito D) None of the above
B) Aedes aegypti
The source of the antibiotic streptomycin is A. Streptomyces aureofaciens B. Streptomyces griseus C. Streptococcus lactis D. Streptococcus faecalis
B. Streptomyces griseus
The following are milk-borne pathogens, except: A) Mycobaterium bovis B) Salmonella C) Streptococcus D) Clostridium
D) Clostridium
A patient's stool examination was found to have a small structures resembling rice grains( proglottids) which of the following organisms is the most likely present in the patient's stool? A. Enterobius vermicularis B. Ascaris lumbricoides C. Taenia saginata D. Trichuris trichuria
C. Taenia saginata
Cestodes are A. Roundworms B. Flukes C. Tapeworms D. Trypanosome
C. Tapeworms
A synthetic antifungal agent which inhibits squalene epoxidase: A. Griseofulvin B. Amphotericin B C. Terbinafine D. Fluconazole E. Caspofungin
C. Terbinafine
Secondary syphilis is characterized by all of the following, except: A) Cutaneous lesions B) Mucous membrane lesions C) Onset is 4 weeks or more after chancre D) Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
D) Absence of spirochetes in the lesions
In which of the following the eggs of parasitic worms can be found: A) Stool B) Urine C) Sputum D) All of the above E) None of the above
D) All of the above
A health behavior model that suggests that people make changes in their behaviors on the basis of their belief that the intended outcome of a behavior change is positive or negative. A. Health belief model B. Social cognitive theory C. Transtheoretical model D. Theory of reasoned action E. Ecologic model
D. Theory of reasoned action
The ability of the T cells to discriminate between self and non-self is learned in the A. Liver B. Spleen C. Lymph nodes D. Thymus
D. Thymus
This type of ringworm infection is also referred to as onychomycosis. A. Tinea capitis B. Tinea cruris C. Tinea pedis D. Tinea unguium E. Tinea versicolor
D. Tinea unguium
Which of the following condition is a "systemic disease" caused by Staphylococcus? A. Impetigo B. Folliculitis C. Carbuncle D. Toxic shock syndrome
D. Toxic shock syndrome
An effective membrane pore size necessary to filter out most rigid bacteria is approximately A. 25 μm B. 10 μm C. 1 μm D. 0.02 μm E. 0.20 μm
E. 0.20 μm
The peptidoglycan of gram-negative bacteria probably is: A) 20 layers thick B) 40 layers thick C) 10 layers thick D) 80 layers thick E) 1 layer thick
E) 1 layer thick
Compounds that combine with atmospheric moisture to produce highly acidic rain, snow, hair or fog: A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulfur dioxide C) Nitrogen oxide D) A and B E) B and C
E) B and C
Filariform larva that can penetrate through the skin: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Strongyloides stercoralis C) Hookworm D) A and B E) B and C
E) B and C
Which of the following techniques is used in quantitative estimations of infections with parasitic worms? A) Formalin-ether B) Kato thick smear C) Stool dilution D) A and B E) B and C
E) B and C
A gram negative, coma shaped microaerophilic rod that causes enterocolitis and can be cultured in Skirrow's agar. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella typhi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Vibrio cholerae E) Camphylobacter jejuni
E) Camphylobacter jejuni
Stimulates the production of cyclic AMP by adding ADP-ribose to a G protein A) Diphtheria toxin B) Tetanus toxin C) Botulinum toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin E) Cholera toxin
E) Cholera toxin
A 3-year-old girl was admitted to the hospital with severe emaciation and anemia secondary to a long term bloody diarrhea. While hospitalized, she experienced several episodes of rectal prolapse. Numerous white worms were seen attached to the surface of the prolapsed rectal mucosa. The patient was successfully treated with mebendazole without further complications. What was the diagnosis? A. Dwarf tapeworm B. Hookworm C. Pinworm D. Visceral larva migrans E. Whipworm
E. Whipworm
Influenza develops rapidly and lasts only for a short time. This is described as: A) Acute B) Subacute C) Chronic D) Latent
A) Acute
Unicellular prokaryotic organism that divides by binary fission: A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Protozoa D) Helminths
A) Bacteria
Deficiency of thiamine leads to: A) Beri-beri B) Pellagra C) Stomatitis D) A and B E) B and C
A) Beri-beri
Food processing technique that protects food from oxidative deterioration and growth of aerobic microorganism: A) Canning B) Pasteurization C) Irradiation D) Drying E) None of the above
A) Canning
The posterior part of this parasite has a twisted appearance: A) Chilomastix mesnili B) Giardia lamblia C) Trichomonas hominis D) Retortamonas
A) Chilomastix mesnili
The causative agent of gas gangrene. A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium tetani C) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Clostridium dificile
A) Clostridium perfringens
The following organisms are recognized causes of diarrhea, except: A) Clostridium perfringens B) Streptococcus fecalis C) Escherichia coli D) Vibrio cholerae
A) Clostridium perfringens
A trace mineral necessary for heme synthesis, electron transport and wound healing: A) Copper B) Manganese C) Chromium D) Zinc E) None
A) Copper
The following viruses possess double-stranded DNA as its genome, except: A) Coxsackie virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Rotavirus D) Adenovirus
A) Coxsackie virus
Herpes simplex virus A) DNA enveloped virus B) DNA non-enveloped virus C) RNA enveloped virus D) RNA non-enveloped virus E) Viriod
A) DNA enveloped virus
Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the local executive or local legislative on health related matters: A) DOH B) WHO C) QUERT D) Sentrong Sigla E) None of the above
A) DOH
The "four o'clock habit" promoted by the Department of Health is designed to prevent the spread of: A) Dengue fever B) Tuberculosis C) Malnutrition D) Malaria
A) Dengue fever
An algae group responsible for red tide poisoning: A) Dinoflagellate B) Diatom C) Euglenoid D) None of the above
A) Dinoflagellate
Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking elongation factor-2 A) Diphtheria toxin B) Tetanus toxin C) Botulinum toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin E) Cholera toxin
A) Diphtheria toxin
Trophozoite with nucleus seen without difficulty in fresh, unstained preparation: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis
A) Entamoeba coli
The eggs of this organism are most likely to be found through anal swabs or cellophane tape: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis
A) Enterobius vermicularis
Dermatophytes that infect special keratinized areas of the body, skin and nails only are likely to belong to genus: A) Epidermophyton B) Trichophyton C) Microsporum D) Trichosporum
A) Epidermophyton
The bacterium that produces a toxin that activates adenylate cyclase, resulting in accumulation of cyclic AMP in the epithelial cells of the mucosal lining, is: A) Escherichia coli B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Staphylococcus aureus
A) Escherichia coli
Urinary tract infection (UTI), sepsis neonatal meningitis and "travelers diarrhea" are the most common diseases caused by this gram negative, non-lactose fermenting bacilli. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella typhi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Vibrio cholerae E) Camphylobacter jejuni
A) Escherichia coli
This chemical agent is used extensively in hospitals for the sterilization of heat sensitive materials. It kills by alkylating both proteins and nucleic acids: A) Ethylene oxide B) Formaldehyde C) Acids and alkalis D) Hydrogen peroxide
A) Ethylene oxide
The bacterial organelle that is used for motility: A) Flagella B) Pili C) Cilia D) Pseudopods
A) Flagella
Donated blood containing antibody to this RNA virus should not be used for transfusion. A) Hepatitis C virus B) Cytomegalovirus C) Human papilloma virus D) Dengue virus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
A) Hepatitis C virus
The causative agent of herpes labialis (fever blisters or cold sores), keratitis and encephalitis. A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 B) Varicella-Zoster virus C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2 D) Cytomegalovirus E) Epstein-Barr virus
A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1
Bacteria that derive their energy from oxidation of organic molecules are known as: A) Heterotrophs B) Autotrophs C) Chemoautotrophs D) Photoautotrophs
A) Heterotrophs
Nosocomial infections are: A) Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital B) Infections of the nasal area C) Infections where pathogens enters the body through the nose D) Infections among animals
A) Infections developed while the patient is in the hospital
The ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, reproduce and spread throughout its body is known as: A) Invasiveness B) Pathogenicity C) Toxigenicity D) Virulence
A) Invasiveness
The two major components of virulence include: A) Invasiveness and toxigenicity B) Intracellular and extracellular survival C) Adherence factors and antiphagocytic mechanisms D) Capsules and spreading factors
A) Invasiveness and toxigenicity
Listeria monocytogenes has all of the following characteristics, except: A) It is a spore-former. B) It is a short, gram-positive rod C) It can live inside phagocytic cells. D) It is actively motile
A) It is a spore-former.
A gram negative, non-motile rod that produces a large mucoid colony on agar medium was isolated from a chronically ill patient who died of pneumonia. This organism probably belongs to the genus: A) Klebsiella B) Pseudomonas C) Proteus D) Serratia
A) Klebsiella
Lesions in the oral cavity caused by measles virus are known as: A) Koplik spot B) Peyer's pathches C) Rose spots D) Rashes
A) Koplik spot
This causes visceral leishmaniasis: A) Leishmania donovani B) Leishmania tropica C) Leishmania braziliensis D) Trypanosoma cruzi
A) Leishmania donovani
The most important anti-phagocytic structure of the Group A streptococci: A) M protein B) Group A carbohydrate C) Hyaluronic acid capsule D) Protein A
A) M protein
A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci, oxidase positive with large polysaccharide capsule referred to as glycocalyx. A) Meningococcus B) Gonococcus C) Bacillus antracis D) Clostridium tetani E) Listeria monocytogenes
A) Meningococcus
A rod-like bacterium that grows optimally at mammalian body temperature and is killed by the presence of oxygen is best described as: A) Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli B) Mesophilic, obligate aerobic bacilli C) Psychrophilic, facultative anaerobic streptobacillus D) Psychrophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
A) Mesophilic, obligate anaerobic bacilli
An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible population during a specific period: A) Morbidity rate B) Prevalence rate C) Mortality rate D) All of the above
A) Morbidity rate
The following are zoonotic diseases, except: A) Mumps B) Leptospirosis C) Anthrax D) Brucellosis
A) Mumps
An acid-fast bacillus that have mycolic acid in its cell wall, which can be seen in a palisade arrangement. A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Treponema pallidum E) Leptospira interrogans
A) Mycobacterium leprae
Hansen's disease is caused by: A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Myoplasma leprae D) None of the above
A) Mycobacterium leprae
The organism with atypical cell walls: A) Mycoplasmas B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Viruses
A) Mycoplasmas
The following can be sterilized in an autoclave, except: A) Olive oil B) Culture media C) Water D) Glassware
A) Olive oil
The sudden unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population: A) Outbreak B) Zoonotic C) Endemic D) Sporadic
A) Outbreak
Which of the following forms of immunity to viruses would be least likely to be lifelong? A) Passive immunity B) Passive-active immunity C) Active immunity D) Cell-mediated immunity
A) Passive immunity
Eosinophilic stippling of erythrocytes (Schauffer.s dots) is often seen in infections with: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
A) Plasmodium vivax
The malarial parasite that enlarges red blood cells: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
A) Plasmodium vivax
This organism has lemon-shaped cysts: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
A) Plasmodium vivax
A gram-negative rod was isolated from the urine of a patient suspected of having a UTI. The organism is lactose negative, urease positive and motile. It most likely belongs to the genus: A) Proteus B) Escherichia C) Serratia D) Klebsiella
A) Proteus
It describes the amounts of energy, protein, minerals and vitamins needed by normal healthy individual: A) RDA B) REA C) RAD D) RAE E) None
A) RDA
This causes Egyptian hematuria: A) Schistosoma hematobium B) Schistosoma mansoni C) Schistosoma japonicum D) Fasciola hepatica
A) Schistosoma hematobium
The causative agent of food poisoning, TSS and skin boils. A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Staphylococcus epidermidis E) Streptococcus agalactiae
A) Staphylococcus aureus
Lymphocytes that have a high affinity for HIV: A) T-helper lymphocytes B) B-lymphocytes C) Phagocytes D) T-cytotoxic lymphocytes
A) T-helper lymphocytes
In clinical cases of malaria, the most favorable time to find parasites in the blood is: A) The period just before a paroxysm B) At the beginning of a paroxysm C) During the late paroxysmal stage D) The period just following a paroxysm
A) The period just before a paroxysm
Koch's postulates include the following, except: A) The suspected organism should be present in health individuals B) The organism must be isolated and grown as pure culture in the laboratory C) The organism must initiate the symptoms of the disease in healthy animals D) The organism must be re-isolated from the animal and be cultured again in the laboratory
A) The suspected organism should be present in health individuals
The following statements concerning human rabies vaccine are correct, except: A) The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus. B) If the patient was bitten by a wild animal such as skunk, the rabies vaccine must be given. C) When the vaccine is used for post-exposure prophylaxis, rabies immune globulin must also be given. D) The virus in the vaccine is grown in human cell cultures thus decreasing the risk of allergic encephalomyelitis.
A) The vaccine contains live, attenuated rabies virus.
A theory that states that life originates from non-life: A) Theory of Spontaneous Generation B) Koch's Postulates C) Germ Theory D) None of the above
A) Theory of Spontaneous Generation
The following statements regarding bacterial exotoxins are correct, except: A) They are integral parts of the cell wall. B) They are produced by both Staphylococcus aureus and Escherichia coli. C) They are polypeptides consisting of two functional regions, the one that binds to cell receptors and one that ha the toxic activity. D) Treatment of some exotoxins with formaldehyde yields a toxoid, which is used as the immunogen in certain vaccines.
A) They are integral parts of the cell wall.
A process of gene transfer where the carrier of DNA is a virus: A) Transduction B) Conjugation C) Transformation D) Both A and C
A) Transduction
This statement is true about viral infection: A) Viral infections are self-limiting B) Viral infections confer lifetime immunity C) Viral infections are treated by antibiotics D) All statements are correct
A) Viral infections are self-limiting
A structurally mature infections viral particle: A) Virion B) Capsid C) Capsule D) Spore
A) Virion
The following statements about lysogeny are correct, except: A) Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes. B) Viral genes responsible for lysis are repressed. C) Viral DNA is integrated into bacterial DNA. D) Some lysogenic bactriophage encode toxins that cause human diseases.
A) Viruses replicate independently of bacterial genes.
An example of ionizing radiation: A) X-ray B) UV C) Sunlight D) All of the above
A) X-ray
The first drug available for HIV: A) ZDU B) RMP C) TMP D) CMC
A) ZDU
A 22 year-old nurse who had been in excellent health complained of fatigue and diarrhea. Then he developed pneumonia that was caused by Pneumocystis carinii. Blood tests repeated showed depletion of CD4 T-lymphocutes. The patient must be managed with A. 3'-azidothymidine B. Chloroquine C. Acyclovir D. Enviroxime
A. 3'-azidothymidine
The difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic is that: A. A disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while an antiseptic is used on skin surface B. A disinfectant kills bacterial spores, while an antiseptic does not C. A disinfectant does not achieve sterilization, and an antiseptic does D. Disinfectants are chemical substances, while antiseptics are not chemical substances
A. A disinfectant is used on lifeless objects only, while an antiseptic is used on skin surface
Opportunistic infections in immunocompromised patients may include all of the following except A. Acanthamebic keratitis B. Chronic granulomatous acanthamebic C. Disseminated strongylodiasis D. Protracted cryptosporidiosis E. Reactivation Encephalitis
A. Acanthamebic keratitis
A cell may allow a large or charged chemical to move across the cytoplasmic membrane, down the chemical's electrochemical gradient, in a process called A. Active transport B. Facilitated diffusion C. Endocytosis D. Pinocytosis
A. Active transport
A synthetic purine nucleoside derivative with antiviral activity against the herpes simplex virus A. Acyclovir B. Amantadine C. Acetaminophen D. Adenovirus
A. Acyclovir
Fungal metabolite found in peanuts that can cause cancer: A. Aflatoxin B. Tetradotoxin C. Hydrocyanic acid D. Endotoxin
A. Aflatoxin
The thick-walled reproductive spores produced in the middle of cyanobacterial filaments are called A. Akinetes B. Terminal enospores C. Metachromatic granules D. Myxospores
A. Akinetes
An antiviral compound used to prevent type A influenza infections: A. Amantadine B. Tetradotoxin C. Aflatoxin D. Endotoxin
A. Amantadine
The quick response of the immune system due to recall by memory cells is known as A. Anamnestic response B. Primary response C. Memorable response D. Immunologic response E. Humoral response '
A. Anamnestic response
Extreme hypersensitivity to a given protein is manifested by A. Anaphylactic shock reaction B. Immunity C. Urticaria D. Itching
A. Anaphylactic shock reaction
A biological vector A. Anopheles mosquito B. Cockroach C. Housefly D. Aedes aegypti E. Termite
A. Anopheles mosquito
Which of the ff. statements about Pneumocystis carinii is true? A. Antibodies are found only in infected immunocompromised hosts B. It is a ricketssia C. It can cause pulmonary tuberculosis D. Pathogenic for patients with AIDS with CD4 counts of > 800 cells/ml E. Diagnosis is through sputum smear microscopy
A. Antibodies are found only in infected immunocompromised hosts
This refers to the complete change in the antigenic structure of an organism leading to the synthesis of new antigenic substances that have never been exposed to the human immune system . This may result to a pandemic A. Antigenic shift B. Antigenic drift C. Tolerance D. Immunity
A. Antigenic shift
Which of the following is not matched? A. Antihelminthic - inhibition of cell wall synthesis B. Antibacterial - inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis C. Antiviral - inhibition of DNA synthesis D. Antifungal - inhibition of mitosis E. Antifungal - injury to plasma membrane
A. Antihelminthic - inhibition of cell wall synthesis
It means programmed cell death: A. Apoptosis B. Angiogenesis C. Hayflick effect D. None of the above
A. Apoptosis
Which of the following is n example of bioremediation? A. Application of oil-degrading bacteria to an oil spill B. Application of bacteria to a crop to prevent frost damage C. Fixation of gaseous nitrogen into usable nitrogen D. Production by bacteria of a human protein like interferon E. All of the above.
A. Application of oil-degrading bacteria to an oil spill
A virus that is transmitted by an anthropod: A. Arbovirus B. Retrovirus C. Adenovirus D. None of the above
A. Arbovirus
It is true to say that natural killer cells A. Arise in the bone marrow B. Rearrange their Ig genes C. Express their TCR genes D. Have IgG molecules on their cell surface
A. Arise in the bone marrow
Of the following scientists, who defended the theory of abio-genesis? A. Aristotle B. Pasteur C. Needham D. Spallanzani
A. Aristotle
Aspergillosis is caused by A. Aspergillus flavus B. Aspergilloma dictus C. Filobasidiella sp D. Respiratory syncytial virus E. Adenovirus
A. Aspergillus flavus
The moist heat of sterilization employing 15 lbs of pressure psi in a temperature of steam at 121°C is called: A. Autoclaving B. Fractional sterilization C. Membrane-filter method D. Any of the above
A. Autoclaving
Enterobiasis, strongylodiasis and hymenolepiasis have which of the following in common A. Autoinfection B. Filariform larvae C. Nematodes D. Nonpathogenic E. Zoonoses
A. Autoinfection
The following is a macrolide antibiotic A. Azithromycin B. Streptomycin C. Kanamaycin D. Gentamycin E. Neomycin
A. Azithromycin
A goat farmer presents with a fever of unknown origin, which of the following organism is responsible for this? A. B. melitensis B. B. abortus C. B. suis D. Bacillus cereus
A. B. melitensis
An index of the amount of microbially oxidizable organic matter present: A. BOD B. COD C. CBD D. DOA
A. BOD
This is a measure of the biologically degradable organic matter in water A. BOD B. BER C. BID D. GIR E. GOD
A. BOD
The spores of which organisms are used as biological indicator of sterilization? A. Bacillus staerothermophilus B. Salmonella typhi C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Staphylococcus aureus
A. Bacillus staerothermophilus
Which of the following organisms are not eukaryotic? A. Bacteria B. Yeasts C. Molds D. Protozoa
A. Bacteria
Which genus is the most common anaerobic human pathogen? A. Bacteriodes B. Spirochetes C. Chlamydias D. Methanopyrus
A. Bacteriodes
A virus that infects a bacterium; known simply as a phage A. Bacteriophage B. Arbovirus C. Retrovirus D. Adenovirus
A. Bacteriophage
When pathogenic bacterial cells lose the ability to make adhesins, they A. Become virulent B. Produce endotoxin C. Absorb endotoxin D. Increase in virulence
A. Become virulent
The use of biological processes to remedy problems, particularly those caused by pollution: A. Bioremediation B. Biotransformation C. Biotechnology D. Biomagnifications
A. Bioremediation
fungal infection, also known as tinea nigra, that forms hard black nodules on the hairs of the scalp A. Black piedra B. Tinea capitis C. Tinea corporis D. Black nodules
A. Black piedra
67. Cause of Lyme disease A. Borrelia burgdorferi B. Candida albicans C. Salmonella typhi D. Limulus polyphemus E. Treponema pallidum
A. Borrelia burgdorferi
Causative agent of undulant fever A. Brucella B. Listeria C. Legionella D. Chlamydia
A. Brucella
A vegetative outgrowth of yeast and some bacteria as a means of asexual reproduction A. Budding B. Spore C. Hypha D. Conidium
A. Budding
Refers to the number of phages released by a host cell during the lytic life cycle; A. Burst size B. Generation time C. Translation D. Transduction
A. Burst size
Human immunodeficiency virus targets which cell in the immune system? A. CD4+ T helper cell B. B cell C. CD8+B helper cell D. CD4+ T cytotoxic cell' E. Natural killer cell
A. CD4+ T helper cell
Barophiles A. Cannot cause diseases in humans B. Live at normal barometric pressure C. Die if put under high pressure D. Thrive in warm air
A. Cannot cause diseases in humans
The external protein coat or covering of a virion: A. Capsid B. Capsule C. Flagella D. Pilus
A. Capsid
A structural component of the cell that may enhance virulence of bacterium include A. Capsule B. Hyaluronidase C. Flagella D. Lecithinase
A. Capsule
group of beta-lactam antibiotics derived from a fungus A. Cephalosporin B. Penicillin C. Amikacin D. Nystatin
A. Cephalosporin
Results from mismanagement or misuse of chemicals resulting in an unacceptable risk to human health. A. Chemical hazards B. Ergonomic hazards C. Biologic hazards D. Physical hazards E. Sociologic hazards
A. Chemical hazards
A recombinant plasmid containing foreign DNA, which is used as a cloning vector in genetic engineering: A. Chimera B. Chitin C. Camera D. Chameleon
A. Chimera
A polysaccharide found in fungal cell walls: A. Chitin B. Cellulose C. Murein D. Heparin
A. Chitin
The bodies that have most or all of the cell's DNA and contain most of its genetic information A. Chromosomes B. Genes C. Nuclei D. None of the above
A. Chromosomes
these drugs are contraindicated in children due to the possible toxic effects on cartilage development A. Ciprofloxacin B. Rifampicin C. Metronidazole D. Clindamycin
A. Ciprofloxacin
Emerging infectious diseases can be due to A. Climatic changes B. Too many vaccines C. Inefficient case reporting D. Rational antibiotic use E. Surveillance of DOH
A. Climatic changes
A group of genetically identical cells or organisms derived by asexual reproduction from a single parent A. Clone B. Gene C. Chromosomes D. DNA
A. Clone
This is an example of an anaerobic spore-forming bacilli. A. Clostridium B. Bacillus C. Listeria D. Mycobacteria
A. Clostridium
A sequence of three nucleotides in mRNA that directs the incorporation of an amino acid during translation; A. Codon B. Apoenzyme C. Chitin D. Antigen
A. Codon
A type of relationship in which one species of organism uses the body of a larger species as its physical environment and makes use of that environment to acquire nutrients. A. Commensalism B. Mutualism C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis
A. Commensalism
The best descriptive term for the resident flora is A. Commensals B. Parasites C. Pathogens D. Mutualists
A. Commensals
An example of an acute infectious disease A. Common cold B. Leprosy C. Tuberculosis D. Diphtheria E. Gingivitis
A. Common cold
A group of serum proteins that act in a cascade manner resulting in microbial cell lysis, inflammation and opsonisation. A. Complement system B. Phagocytes C. Lymphatic system D. Interferons E. Natural killer cells
A. Complement system
Streptococci are incubated in a blood agar plate overnight. Which of the following reactions show beta-hemolytic streptocci? A. Completely lyse the RBC B. Partially lyse the RBC C. Unable to hemolyse the RBC D. Leave a greenish discoloration
A. Completely lyse the RBC
A lymph node contains the following anatomic regions A. Cortex and medulla B. No primary follicles C. Regions of red and white pulp D. No germinal centers
A. Cortex and medulla
In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that health promotion should generate living and working conditions that are safe, stimulating, satisfying and enjoyable. A. Create supportive environments B. Strengthen community actions C. Develop personal skills D. Build healthy public policy E. Reorient health services
A. Create supportive environments
This refers to inflammation of the urinary bladder. A. Cystitis B. Urethritis C. Ureteritis D. Pyelonephritis E. Nephritis
A. Cystitis
This is the ingested infective form of protozoan parasites in humans A. Cysts B. Merozoites C. Trophozoites D. Cytostome
A. Cysts
A macromolecule containing the genetic code in the form of genes: A. DNA B. RNA C. genome D. None of the above
A. DNA
Malnutrition in the Philippines is more of A. Deficiency of food intake B. Improper utilization of food C. Defective absorption of food D. Excessive food intake E. Improper distribution of food
A. Deficiency of food intake
In the host-parasite relationship, the mosquito vector of Plasmodium sp acts as the A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Parasitic host D. Insect host E. Pathogen
A. Definitive host
Antigen presenter A. Dendritic macrophages B. NK cells C. Eosinophils D. Pre-B cells
A. Dendritic macrophages
This is also known as the "break bone fever" A. Dengue fever B. Yellow fever C. Hay fever D. Relapsing fever
A. Dengue fever
Fungi that causes superficial mycoses of the skin, hair and nails: A. Dermatophytes B. Conidia C. Prions D. Virions
A. Dermatophytes
Which of the following factors does not contribute to antibiotic resistance? A. Destruction of the plasma membrane B. Enzymatic destruction or inactivation C. Prevention of penetration to the target site D. Alteration of the target site E. Rapid efflux of the antibiotic
A. Destruction of the plasma membrane
Algal protists with siliceous cell walls called frustules: A. Diatoms B. Phytoplankton C. Bloom D. None of the above
A. Diatoms
This drug is given as the drug of choice for the bancroftian filariasis A. Diethylcarbamazine B. Ivermectin C. Mebendazole D. Praziquantel
A. Diethylcarbamazine
Rabies virus is transmitted to humans through A. Direct contact transmission B. Indirect contact transmission C. Droplet transmission D. Vehicle transmission E. Mechanical ventilator transmission
A. Direct contact transmission
Ionizing radiation inactivates vegetative bacteria by: A. Driving away electrons & splitting the molecules into atoms or groups B. Inducing thymine dimmers C. Denaturing nucleoproteins D. Cross-linking sugar groups E. Inducing double-stranded breaks in DNA
A. Driving away electrons & splitting the molecules into atoms or groups
Virus which is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma A. EMV B. CMV C. Varicella-Zoster D. HSV-1
A. EMV
During the first 10 minutes or so after injection of phage DNA, no phage can be recovered by disrupting the infected bacterium. This is termed as: A. Eclipse period B. Latent period C. Rise period D. Burst size E. Replication cycle
A. Eclipse period
Refers to the science of fitting the job to the worker. A. Ergonomics B. Occupational health C. Occupational hazards D. Safety E. Occupations
A. Ergonomics
A fungal alkaloid that have been associated with witchcraft and lycanthrophy: A. Ergot B. Aflatoxin C. Penicillin D. Saxitoxin
A. Ergot
The dried sclerotium of Claviceps purpurea: A. Ergot B. Strychnine C. Aflatoxin D. penicillin
A. Ergot
Dapsone is given for A. Erythema nodosum leprosum B. Bone marrow depression C. Discoloration of the teeth D. Vestibular damage
A. Erythema nodosum leprosum
This is the most common drug used as alternative for patients allergic to penicillins A. Erythromycin B. Doxycycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Vancomycin
A. Erythromycin
The gas that is used in gas sterilization is: A. Ethylene oxide B. Carbon dioxide C. Oygen D. None of the above
A. Ethylene oxide
This is a specific stain used for staining nuclei A. Feulgen stain B. Carbofuchsin C. Nigrosin
A. Feulgen stain
The source of H antigen A. Flagella B. Cell wall C. Pilus D. Plasmid
A. Flagella
A method used to identify bacteria in a sample without culturing the bacteria A. Flow cytometry B. Phage typing C. Immunofluorescence D. Fluorescent in situ Hybridization E. ELISA
A. Flow cytometry
Microorganisms that survive in moisture-free environments do so because they A. Form spores B. Metabolize glucose molecules only C. Have no cell membranes D. Have no chromosomes
A. Form spores
This is an agent used for the control of bacterial growth, and is classified as an alkylating agent A. Formaldehyde B. Alcohols C. Detergents D. Heavy metals ions
A. Formaldehyde
The bacteria that are mixed-acid fermenters generally produce gas because they elaborate this enzyme which splits formic acid to produce CO2 and H2O. A. Formic hydrogenylase B. Nitrate reductase C. Formicase D. Catalase E. NOTA
A. Formic hydrogenylase
A change in the DNA which results in an insertion or deletion of one or more bases A. Frameshift mutation B. Point mutation C. Nonsense mutation D. Spontaneous mutation E. Induced mutation
A. Frameshift mutation
Lyophilization is best described as A. Freeze-drying B. Deep-freezing C. Refrigeration D. Pickling
A. Freeze-drying
Eukaryotic, nonphotosynthetic microoorganisms that are saprophytic or parasitic: A. Fungi B. Algae C. Virus D. Bacteria
A. Fungi
Liquid wastes conducted from residence together with ground surface or rain water is known as A. Garbage B. Sewage C. Refuse D. Rubbish
A. Garbage
Which of the following diseases is caused by an exotoxin release of Staphylococcus aureus A. Gastroenteritis B. Osteomyelitis C. Meningitis D. Pneumonia
A. Gastroenteritis
A functional unit of heredity that occupies a specific space on the chromosomes: A. Gene B. Genome C. DNA D. RNA
A. Gene
A biotechnological technique used to treat disorders where a missing gene is inserted or a defective one is replaced in human cells A. Gene therapy B. Proteomics C. Gene transfer D. Genomics E. Monoclonal antibody
A. Gene therapy
The process of deliberate modification of an organism's genetic information by directly changing its nucleic acid genome: A. Genetic engineering B. Biomagnifications C. Biotechnology D. None of the above
A. Genetic engineering
The full set of genes present in a cell or virus: A. Genome B. Genomics C. Proteomics D. Biotechnology
A. Genome
This sexually transmitted protozoan is common among male homosexuals. A. Giardiasis B. Amoebiasis C. Leishmaniasis D. Trypanosomiasis
A. Giardiasis
Thyroid enlargement due to iodine deficiency. A. Goiter B. Anemia C. Cretinism D. Parasitism E. Xerophthalmia
A. Goiter
A nonmotile, oxidase-positive, gram-negative coccus, usually in pairs, that is a facultative anaerobe with urethral epithelium in the male A. Gonococcus B. Meningococcus C. Pneumococcus D. Staphylococcus
A. Gonococcus
An antibiotic from a species of Penicillium given orally to treat chronic dermatophyte infections of skin and nail: A. Griseofulvin B. Penicillin C. Cephalosporin D. Ampicillin
A. Griseofulvin
An antifungal that inhibits nucleic acid synthesis and has anti-mitotic activity by inhibiting microtubule assembly A. Griseofulvin B. Miconazole C. Flucytosine D. Amphotericin
A. Griseofulvin
The cause of avian influenza A is A. H5N1 virus B. H1N1 virus C. H1N3 virus D. H3N1 virus E. HIV
A. H5N1 virus
The following are DNA viruses except A. HAV B. Shingles virus C. HBV D. Herpes simplex type 2 virus E. Herpes simplex type 1 virus
A. HAV
Which of the following is transmitted via the fecal-oral route? A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HDV E. Both A and B
A. HAV
Motility is observed best with a A. Hanging drop preparation B. Negative stain C. Streak plate D. Flagellar stain
A. Hanging drop preparation
A small molecule that can react with preformed antibodies but cannot, by itself, induce their formation is referred to as A. Hapten B. Epitope C. Complete antigen D. Cofactor
A. Hapten
A reduced molecule A. Has gained electrons B. Has become more positive in charge C. Has lost electrons D. Is an electron donor
A. Has gained electrons
A health behavior model that examines perceptions of the benefits of avoiding the health threat and factors influencing the decision to act on it. A. Health belief model B. Social cognitive theory C. Transtheoretical model D. Theory of reasoned action E. Ecologic model
A. Health belief model
Refers to the aggregate of all purposeful activities designed to improve personal and public health through a combination of strategies. A. Health promotion B. Health education C. Health perception D. Health behavior E. Health beliefs
A. Health promotion
The most common physical health hazard in most industries A. Heat B. Noise C. Humidity D. Ionizing radiation
A. Heat
Acute infection of trypanosoma cruzi affects the skin foaming ' chagoma'. Chronic stage of disease will form lesions on which organs. I. Heart and digestive tract II. Spleen and pancreas III. Liver and spleen A. I B. II C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
A. I
A person with boil prepared a snack with mayonnaise for their school field trip. Three of his friends whom he shared his food became violently ill 2 h after eating the food. What is the most likely cause? I. Staphylococcus aureus enterotoxin II. Staphylococcus aureus coagulase III. Staphylococcus aureus leukocidin A. I only B. III only C. II and III only D. I and III only E. I,II, and III
A. I only
The maturation of T-cells in the thymus is accompanied by changes in the I. Cell surface markers II. Cell size III. Surface immunoglobulin class A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I and III
A. I only
This is/ are examples of nematode that can cause infection by penetrating intact skin I. Necator americanus II. Trichuris trichura III. Enterobius vermacularis A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
A. I only
This is/are aminoglycoside antibiotics derived from Streptomyces species I. Streptomycin II. Gentamicin III. Azithromycin A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
A. I only
This is/are example/s of tapeworms which require/s a vertebrate as intermediate host I. Taenia solium II. Hymenolepsis nana III. Dipylidium caninum A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
A. I only
Which of the following statement(s) about plasmids is/are true I. Carry resistance genes for antibiotics called R plasmids II. Don't control genes regulating enzymes capable of destroying antimicrobial drugs III. Can't be transferred by conjugation due to their size and shape A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
A. I only
Which of the following statements will differentiate Mycoplasmas from Chlamydiae I. Ability to grow in artificial media II. Ability to cause urinary tract infections III. Susceptibility to penicillins A. I only B. II inly C. III only D. I and III only E. I,II and III
A. I only
Which of the following will identify chlamydia trachomatis from chlamydia psittaci? I. C. trachomatis is sensitive to sulphonamides II. C. trachomatis has a different lipopolysaccharide antigen III. C. trachomatis can be stained A. I only B. II inly C. III only D. I and III only E. I,II and III
A. I only
Of the important cytokines in the body which is an endogenous pyrogen A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-4 E. IL-5
A. IL-1
Test use to differentiate E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes A. IMVIC test B. Schick test C. Weil-Felix test D. Coagulase test
A. IMVIC test
Class of antibody which is present in mucous membranes and in body secretions A. IgA B. IgD C. IgE D. IgG
A. IgA
The primary B cell receptor is A. IgD B. IgA C. IgE D. IgG
A. IgD
Asthma A. Immediate hypersensitivity B. Cytotoxic antibody C. Immune-complex disease D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity E. NOTA
A. Immediate hypersensitivity
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in infectious diseases? A. Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence B. Incubation, decline, prodromal period, illness, convalescence C. Prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline, convalescence D. Convalescence, prodromal period, incubation, illness, decline
A. Incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence
this is the most common form of botulism A. Infant botulism B. Foodborne botulism C. Wound botulism D. Endemic botulism
A. Infant botulism
Which of the influenza viruses is isolated in both man and animals A. Influenza A B. Influenza B C. Influenza C D. Influenza D
A. Influenza A
The first line of defense against viruses is A. Interferon B. IgM directed to internal viral antigens C. IgG directed to external viral antigens D. All of the above
A. Interferon
The most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice A. Iodine B. Chlorine C. Hydrogen peroxide D. Gentian violet
A. Iodine
The alternate pathway A. Is also called the Properdin pathway B. Involves the cleavage of C5 to form C9 C. Is more efficient than the classical pathway D. Involves recognition of antigens bound to specific antibodies
A. Is also called the Properdin pathway
Activation energy A. Is the amount of energy required during an activity such as flagellar motion B. Requires the addition of nutrients in the presence of water C. Is usually lowered by the action of organic catalysts D. Results from the movement of molecules.
A. Is the amount of energy required during an activity such as flagellar motion
Which of the following is not a function of aglycocalyx? A. It forms pseudopodia for faster mobility of an organism. B. It can protect a bacterial cell from drying out. C. It hides the bacterial cell from other cells. D. It allows a bacterium to stick to a host.
A. It forms pseudopodia for faster mobility of an organism.
Human rotavirus is best described by which of the following statements A. It is often associated with infantile diarrhea B. It I an example of viral STD C. It is associated with conjunctivitis D. All of the above
A. It is often associated with infantile diarrhea
Lesions of the oral cavity caused by the measles virus that are characterized by bluish white speck in the center of each: A. Koplik's spots B. Pustules C. Chancre D. Pox
A. Koplik's spots
This is the causative agent of Espundia or Mucocutaneous leishmaniasis A. L.braziliensis B. L.donovani C. L.tropica D. L.cruzi
A. L.braziliensis
This is the portion in the bacterial growth curve representing the period at which the newly inoculated cells are adapting to their new environment. Enzymes and intermediates are formed and accumulated until they are present inn concentrations that permit growth to resume. A. Lag time B. Exponential phase C. Maximum stationary phase D. Death phase
A. Lag time
The spirochete that is tightly coiled, thin, and has a hook at its end is A. Leptospira B. Borrelia C. Treponema D. Vibrio
A. Leptospira
An organism composed of a fungus and an alga in a symbolic relationship: A. Lichen B. Hyphae C. Aerial plant D. Mycelium
A. Lichen
Endotoxins are usually found in garam-neagative organism. Which of the is the only gram-positive organism which produces an endotoxin A. Listeria monocytogenes B. Bacillus anthracis C. Clostridium sp D. Nocardia
A. Listeria monocytogenes
Cigarette smoking increases the risk of acquiring cancers of all of the following except A. Liver B. Larynx C. Esophagus D. Pancreas
A. Liver
These are organisms that possess a tuft of flagella at one end A. Lopotrichous B. Atrichous C. Peritrichous D. Amphitrichous
A. Lopotrichous
Memory cells A. Lymphocytes B. Macrophages C. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes D. Basophils
A. Lymphocytes
A stain specifically used to stain spores A. Malachite green B. Carbolfuchsin C. Nigrosin D. Methylene blue
A. Malachite green
The Filovidae are a newly recognized family of negative-sense, single-stranded RNA viruses. Which of the following viruses belongs to this family and causes hemorrhagic fever? A. Marburg virus B. Yellow fever virus C. Dengue virus D. Parvovirus
A. Marburg virus
Which of the following drugs is most resistant to the action of penicillinase? A. Methicillin B. Amoxicillin C. Benzathine penicillin D. Ticarcillin E. Mezlocillin
A. Methicillin
Candidiasis is also knows as: A. Moniliasis B. Filariasis C. Schistosomiasis D. Stomatitis
A. Moniliasis
A mass of viruses or unassembled viral subunit found within the brain neurons of rabies-infected animals: A. Negri bodies B. Koplik's spots C. Chancre D. Pox
A. Negri bodies
An endotoxin producing bacterium A. Neisseria meningitidis B. Escherichia coli C. Clostridium perfringens D. Vibrio cholera E. Clostridium tetani
A. Neisseria meningitidis
There is currently no approved drug for the treatment of American sleeping disease, although there are two drugs currently used for acute cases only. Which of the following drugs is used for acute cases of American sleeping disease? A. Nifrutimox B. Stibogluconate C. Sulfadiazine D. Suramin
A. Nifrutimox
Treatment of choice for American trypanosomiasis or Chaga's disease: A. Nifurtimox and Benzidazole B. Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine C. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole D. Metronidazole E. Iodoquinol
A. Nifurtimox and Benzidazole
Infectious diseases acquired during a hospital stay are known as: A. Nosocomial infections B. Systemic infections C. Superficial infections D. Any of the above
A. Nosocomial infections
A polyene antibiotic from Streptomyces noursei that is used un the treatment of candida infections of the skin, vagina, and alimentary tract: A. Nystatin B. Cephalosporin C. Chloramphenicol D. Griseofulvin
A. Nystatin
Which of the following terms best describes an organism that cannot exist in the presence of oxygen? A. Obligate aerobe B. Facultative aerobe C. Obligate anaerobe D. Facultative anaerobe
A. Obligate aerobe
This specie of Plasmodium causes the most dangerous form of malaria. A. P. falciparum B. P. ovale C. P. vivax D. P. malariae E. None of the above
A. P. falciparum
This adult parasites are usually in the parenchyma of the human lungs A. Paragonimus westermanii B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Taenia solium
A. Paragonimus westermanii
The causative agent of lung fluke disease or pulmonary distomiasism or endemic hemoptysis or parasitic hemoptysis. A. Paragonimus westrmani B. Fasciola hepatica C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Clonorchis sinensis E. Fasciolopsis buski
A. Paragonimus westrmani
Coined the term "chemotherapy" and was among the first scientists who searched for the "magic bullet". A. Paul Ehrlich B. Alexander Fleming C. Selman Waksman D. George Domagk E. Heide Schulz
A. Paul Ehrlich
A group of antibiotics containing a beta-lactam ring, which are active against gram-positive bacteria: A. Penicillins B. Cephalosporins C. Griseofulvins D. Chloramphenicol
A. Penicillins
This type of microscopy does not require fixing or staining of the specimen, and also gives a detailed examination of internal structures in living microorganisms by using slight variations in refractive index. A. Phase-contrast microscopy B. Compound light microscopy C. Darkfield microscopy D. Fluorescence microscopy E. Both A and C
A. Phase-contrast microscopy
An extrachromosomal genetic element: A. Plasmid B. RNA C. DNA D. Gene
A. Plasmid
These are self-replicating circular molecules of DNA carrying genes A. Plasmids B. Genome C. Nucleotides D. Transposons E. Bacteriocins
A. Plasmids
The following Plasmodium spp. cause/s malignant tertian malaria. A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae E. Both B and C
A. Plasmodium falciparum
Which of the following viral organicm is characteristically associated with Peyer's patchesof the intestines A. Poliovirus B. Rubella C. Coronavirus D. Adenovirus
A. Poliovirus
Refers to water suitable for drinking: A. Potable B. Edible C. Tap D. Mineral
A. Potable
This refers to the number (usually expressed as percentage) of individuals in a population estimated to be infected with a particular parasite species at a given time. A. Prevalence B. Incidence C. Cumulative prevalence D. Morbidity E. NOTA
A. Prevalence
Refers to the total number of individuals infected at any one time in a given population regardless of when the disease began: A. Prevalence rate B. Incidence rate C. Epidemiologic rate D. Dominance rate
A. Prevalence rate
This is the drug coined used as the "radical cure" of malaria A. Primaquine B. Chloroquine C. Mefloquine D. Doxycycline
A. Primaquine
Which of the following drugs is given for the exo-erythrocytic form of malaria? A. Primaquine B. Chloroquine C. Mefloquine D. Doxycycline
A. Primaquine
Constitute health promotion and specific protection A. Primary prevention B. Tertiary prevention C. Secondary prevention D. None
A. Primary prevention
An infectious agent consisting of at least one protein, but no demonstrable nucleic acids A. Prion B. Virion C. Phage D. Virus
A. Prion
A relatively short period of occurrence of disease characterized by early mild symptoms of the disease, such as, body ache, headache and malaise. A. Prodromal period B. Infection period C. Incubation period D. Period of illness E. Period of convalescence
A. Prodromal period
The following are true about immunosuppressants except: A. Promotes immune response to protect the transplant B. Suppress normal immune response against transplant C. Include monoclonal antibodies D. Include cyclosporine E. Blocks secretion of interleukin 2 to disrupt cell-mediated immune response.
A. Promotes immune response to protect the transplant
This pathogen is a commen cause of nosocomial infections A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Bacillus subtilis C. Salmonella cerevisiae D. Clostridium tetani E. Rabies virus
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
a poultry farmer has symptoms of chills, fever and headache. Two weeks ago he lost a large number of his livestock to an undiagnosed disease. What is the most likely condition of the farmer. A. Psittacosis B. Q-fever C. Anthrax D. Ornithosis
A. Psittacosis
These microorganisms have an optimal growth between -5°C and 20°C and which can be found in the supercooled waters of the arctic and Antarctic. A. Psychrophiles B. Mesophiles C. Thermophiles D. Hyperthermophiles E. NOTA
A. Psychrophiles
These are organisms responsible for low temperature food spoilage. A. Psychrotrophs B. Psychrophiles C. Thermophiles D. Mesophiles E. Both A and C
A. Psychrotrophs
Most oxidation reactions in bacteria involve the A. Removal of hydrogen ions and electrons B. Addition of hydrogen ions and electrons C. Removal of oxygen D. Addition of hydrogen ions
A. Removal of hydrogen ions and electrons
The process in which an exact copy of parental DNA or RNA is made with the parental molecule serving as template: A. Replication B. Translation C. Transduction D. Conjugation
A. Replication
A site, alternative host, or carrier that normally harbors pathogenic organisms and serves as a source from which other individuals can be infected: A. Reservoir B. Intermediate C. Passive D. Secondary
A. Reservoir
The humoral immune response A. Results in the production of antibody by differentiated B cells B. Involves T cell only C. Requires macrophages to present antigen to B cells D. Is part of natural/innate immune system
A. Results in the production of antibody by differentiated B cells
Most of the RNA viruses replicate in the cytoplasm. Which of the following RNA viruses replicate in the nucleus A. Retrovirus B. Togavirus C. Picorvirus D. Paramyxovirus
A. Retrovirus
A group of viruses with RNA genomes that carry the enzyme reverse transcriptase and from a DNA copy of their genome during their reproductive cycle: A. Retroviruses B. Adenoviruses C. Arboviruses D. None of the above
A. Retroviruses
Which of the following is an intracellular parasite? A. Rickettsia B. Mycobacterium C. Bacillus D. Staphylococcus E. Streptococcus
A. Rickettsia
Tinea infection are also known as: A. Ringworm B. Threadworm C. Filariasis D. Whipworm
A. Ringworm
German measles is also known as: A. Rubella B. Rubeola C. Varicella D. Variola
A. Rubella
The species of shigella responsible for the most severe form of shigellosis A. S. dysenteriae B. S. sonnei C. S. boydii D. S. flexneri
A. S. dysenteriae
An organism that lives on dead or decaying organic matter: A. Saprophyte B. Dermatophyte C. Lithotroph D. Virus
A. Saprophyte
Hemolytic disease of the newborn will occur in this condition: A. Second or higher pregnancy of sensitized Rh(-) Mother, Rh (+) baby with an Rh(+) father B. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(+) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(-) father C. Second or higher pregnancy of sensitized Rh(+) Mother, Rh (+) baby with an Rh(-) father D. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(+) father E. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(-) father
A. Second or higher pregnancy of sensitized Rh(-) Mother, Rh (+) baby with an Rh(+) father
The key to successful chemotherapy is A. Selective toxicity B. The diffusion test C. The minimum inhibitory concentration D. The spectrum of action
A. Selective toxicity
Branched, tubular filaments with crosswalls found in large fungi are A. Septate hyphae B. Aseptate hyphae C. Aseptate haustoria Dimorphic mycelia
A. Septate hyphae
A tank used to process small quantities of domestic waste: A. Septic tank B. Hydrogen tank C. Gas collector D. LPG tank
A. Septic tank
The use of physical and biological processes to remove particulate and dissolved material from sewage: A. Sewage treatment B. Flocculation C. Bioremediation D. Effluent treatment
A. Sewage treatment
A reactivated form of chickenpox caused by the herpes zoster virus A. Shingles B. Herpes zoster C. Varicella D. Rubeola
A. Shingles
Recently discovered antimicrobial peptides produced by humans include the following except: A. Sideophores B. Dermicidins C. Defensins D. Thrombocidins E. Cathelicidins
A. Sideophores
Which of the following metals has the strongest oligodynamic action? A. Silver B. Mercury C. Iron D. Copper E. Zinc
A. Silver
Bence Jones proteins are produced by: A. Some patients with multiple myeloma B. Majority of patients with Bruton's agammaglobulinemia C. Patients with AIDS D. Patients with SCID
A. Some patients with multiple myeloma
This is an experimental drug given for AIDS patients suffering from Cryptosporidiosis A. Spiramycin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Albendazole D. Amphotericin B
A. Spiramycin
Malaria infection is initiated by the bite of a mosquito, which injects this form of the protozoan into the bloodstream. A. Sporozoite B. Merozoite C. Trophozoite D. Gametocyte E. Promastigote
A. Sporozoite
A bacterium associated with bacteremia, meningitis, and pneumonia in newborns is A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermitis C. Streptococci pyogenes D. Streptococcus agalactiae
A. Staphylococcus aureus
Which of the following is typically observed as microscopic grapelike clusters and yellow-pigmented colonies? A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pneumonia C. Clostridium botulinum D. Neisseria gonorrhea E. Both A and B
A. Staphylococcus aureus
An inoculum, consisting of a mixture of carefully selected microorganisms, used to start a commercial fermentation A. Starter culture B. Spread plate C. Pour plate D. Pour plate
A. Starter culture
The following are the characteristics of inflammation except: A. Stomach ache B. Pain at the injured site C. Redness D. Increase in temperature E. Swelling
A. Stomach ache
The Viridans streptococci group includes the following except: A. Streptococcus mutans B. Streptococcus mitis C. Streptococcus pneumonia D. Streptococcus salivarius E. Streptococcus pyogenes
A. Streptococcus mutans
The following are genera of fungi, except: A. Streptomyces B. Candidiasis C. Trichophyton D. Epidermophyton
A. Streptomyces
Drugs that inhibit the 50s portion of the bacterial ribosome, except: A. Streptomycin B. Erythromycin C. Chloramphenicol D. Quinupristin E. Clindamycin
A. Streptomycin
These are structural analogues of PABA that competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA into dihydropteroic acid. A. Sulfonamides B. Nalidixic acid C. Cephalosporins D. B and C E. A and C
A. Sulfonamides
A strand of DNA or RNA that specifies the base sequence of a newly synthesized complementary strand of DNA or RNA: A. Template B. Temperate C. Any of the above D. None of the above
A. Template
A sequence that marks the end of a gene and stops transcription; A. Terminator B. Predator C. Scavenger D. Carnivore
A. Terminator
A type of body that is devoid of root, stem or leaf, characteristic of some algae, many fungi and lichens: A. Thallus B. Hypha C. Spore D. Mycelium
A. Thallus
In Kirby-Bauer susceptibility test, the presence of a zone of inhibition around disks containing antimicrobial agents indicates A. That the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents B. That the microbe grows well in the presence of the agents C. The smallest amount of the agent that will inhibit the growth of the microbe D. The minimum amount of an agent that kills the microbe in question
A. That the microbe does not grow in the presence of the agents
Quorum sensing is A. The ability to respond to changes in population density B. A characteristic of most bacteria C. They are located in the cytosol D. They are associated in linear pairs
A. The ability to respond to changes in population density
Which of the following statements is true? A. The cell walls of bacteria are composed of peptidoglycan. B. Peptidoglycan is a fatty acid. C. Gram-positive cell walls have relatively thin layer of peptidoglycan anchored to the cytoplasmic membrane by teichoic acids. D. Peptidoglycan is found mainly in the cell walls of fungi, algae and plants.
A. The cell walls of bacteria are composed of peptidoglycan.
In a defined medium A. The exact composition of the medium is known B. Agar is available for microbial nutrition C. Blood may be included D. Organic chemicals are excluded
A. The exact composition of the medium is known
The major difference between a spirochete and spirillum is A. The presence of flagella B. A cell with coils C. The nature of motility D. Size
A. The presence of flagella
The most frequent portal of entry of pathogens is A. The respiratory tract B. The skin C. The conjunctiva D. A cut or wound
A. The respiratory tract
Which of the following is not a correct statement concerning neutrophils A. They can be differentiated into B cells on activation B. They constitute the first line of nonspecific host defense mechanism C. Principal phagocytic cells together with monocytes and macrophages D. They cannot present antigens
A. They can be differentiated into B cells on activation
Drug of choice for patients suffering from strongyloides sterecularis infection A. Thiabendazole B. Ivemectin C. Mebendazole D. Praziquantel
A. Thiabendazole
This refers to ringworm infection of the scalp. A. Tinea capitis B. Tinea cruris C. Tinea pedis D. Tinea unguium E. Tinea versicolor
A. Tinea capitis
Also known as jock itch: A. Tinea cruris B. Tinea barbae C. Tinea capitis D. Tinea pedis
A. Tinea cruris
Also known as athlete's foot: A. Tinea pedis B. Tinea ungulum C. Tinea corporis D. Tinea cruris
A. Tinea pedis
Athletes foot is also known as: A. Tinea pedis B. Tinea corporis C. Tinea capitis D. None of the above
A. Tinea pedis
A fungal infection caused by the yeast Malassezia furfur, that forms brownish-red scales on the skin of the trunk, neck, face and arms: A. Tinea versicolor B. Tinea cruris C. Tinea manuum D. Tinea pedis
A. Tinea versicolor
In the clinical situation, silver nitrate is sometimes used: A. To prevent gonorrhea in the eyes of newborns B. To prevent passage of streptococci into the blood after a strep throat C. To sterilize the intestine before surgery D. To flush out the respiratory tract of tubercle bacilli
A. To prevent gonorrhea in the eyes of newborns
Referred to an animal that has gained new genetic information from the insertion of foreign DNA A. Transgenic B. Transient C. Transduced D. Transformed
A. Transgenic
It refers to protein synthesis: A. Translation B. Transcription C. Transduction D. Transformation
A. Translation
Etiologic agent of Chaga's disease. A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense D. Wuchereria bancrofti E. Brugia malayi
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
Which of the following is an indirect method of estimating bacterial number? A. Turbidity method B. Serial dilution C. Most probable number D. Filtration E. Direct microscopic count
A. Turbidity method
Which of the following does not affect the function of enzymes? A. Ubiquinone B. Substrate concentration C. Temperature D. Competitive inhibitors
A. Ubiquinone
It inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by binding D-alanyl-D-alanine group on the peptide side chain of one of the membrane-bound intermediates. A. Vancomycin B. Bacitracin C. Methicillin D. Chlortetracycline E. Cycloserine
A. Vancomycin
Chickenpox is also known as: A. Varicella B. Variola C. Warts D. Parotitis
A. Varicella
Small membrane-bound bodies which are swollen areas in the colonizing hyphae: A. Vesicles B. Wart C. Verruca D. Rashes
A. Vesicles
A complete, infectious viral particle: A. Virion B. Viroid C. Virus D. Prion
A. Virion
An infectious agent that consists of nucleic acid, but no protein: A. Viroid B. Virion C. Prion D. Virus
A. Viroid
Hepatitis A is caused by: A. Virus B. Fungus C. Bacterium D. Algae
A. Virus
Acellular microorganisms that are smaller than bacteria: A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Fungi D. Algae
A. Viruses
Warts are caused by: A. Viruses B. Bacteria C. Algae D. Fungi
A. Viruses
An epidermal tumor of viral origin A. Wart B. Vesicles C. Rash D. Pustule
A. Wart
A complement fixation diagnostic rest for syphilis is A. Wassermann test B. Widal test C. Schick test D. Direct ELISA E. Indirect ELISA
A. Wassermann test
Results from inappropriate weight- for-height A. Wasting B. Edema C. Emaciation D. Stunting E. None of the above
A. Wasting
A unicellular fungus that has a single nucleus and reproduces either asexually by budding or fission, or sexually through spore formation: A. Yeast B. Mold C. Mushroom D. None of the above
A. Yeast
An immediate hypersensitivity reaction following exposure of a sensitized individual to the appropriate antigen: A) Hay fever B) Anaphylaxis C) Asthma D) Desensitization
B) Anaphylaxis
"Old world" hookworm: A) Necator americanus B) Ancylostoma duodenale C) Ancylostoma caninum D) Toxocara canis
B) Ancylostoma duodenale
Definitive host of human malarial parasites: A) Any domestic animal B) Anopheles mosquito C) Man D) B and C
B) Anopheles mosquito
A drug for treatment of alcoholism, which acts to diminish the pleasurable effects of alcohol: A) Naltrexone B) Antabuse C) Tranquilizers D) All E) None
B) Antabuse
The most important antibody that plays a role in the pathogenesis of systemic lupus erythematosus is: A) Antibody thyroglobuin B) Antibody to DNA C) Antibody to mitochondria D) Antibody to smooth muscle
B) Antibody to DNA
The Coomb's test is the most important laboratory method in the diagnosis of: A) Myasthenia gravis B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C) Waldenstrom's macroglubilemia D) Rheumatoid arthritis
B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
Plastics that can be decomposed by microorganism are said to be: A) Recyclable B) Biodegradable C) Earth-friendly D) Reversible
B) Biodegradable
Air contaminants causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration: A) Sulfur dioxide B) CO C) CO2 D) Lead E) None of the above
B) CO
The primary natural nutrients of bacteria are: A) Carbohydrates/Nucleic acids/Steroids B) Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids C) Nucleic acids/Chitin/Peptidoglycans D) Lipids/Polysaccharides/Lactoferrin
B) Carbohydrates/Amino acids/Lipids
Man may acquire Toxoplasma from: A) Mice B) Cats C) Dogs D) Pigs
B) Cats
The following are true about moist heat sterilization, except: A) Makes use of an autoclave B) Causes oxidation of cell components C) Makes use of steam under pressure D) Can kill both vegetative cells and spores
B) Causes oxidation of cell components
Aplastic anemia is a rare but usually fatal side effect associated with the use of this antibiotic: A) Gentamicin B) Chloramphenicol C) Bacitracin D) Polymixin
B) Chloramphenicol
The disinfectant of choice for municipal water supplies: A) Lysol B) Chlorine C) Ozone D) Reverse osmosis
B) Chlorine
The presence of cryoglobulins in the serum of a patient may indicate that the patient has: A) Anemia B) Circulating immune complexes C) Hashimotos's thyroiditis D) Pernicious anemia
B) Circulating immune complexes
The bacterial toxin that attaches to the presynaptic terminals of cholinergic nerves, where it blocks the release of acetycholine, is produced by: A) Bacillus anthracis B) Clostridium botulinum C) Clostridium tetani D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
B) Clostridium botulinum
Characterized physiologically by a "sardonic smile." A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium tetani C) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Clostridium dificile
B) Clostridium tetani
chemical agent that kills the vegetative forms of pathogenic microorganisms but not necessarily the spores is known as: A) Antiseptic B) Disinfectant C) Sanitizer D) Germicide
B) Disinfectant
A hapten is a substance that: A) Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule C) Induces tolerance when given alone D) When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes
B) Does not induce any immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule
Regarding the nature of medicinally important viruses, which one of the following statements is least accurate? A) Poliovirus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome. B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome. C) Hepatitis B is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome. D) Influenza virus is an enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
B) Epstein-Barr virus is a non-enveloped virus with RNA as its genome.
The following statements about the normal flora are correct, except: A) The most common organism found on the skin is Staphylococcus epidermidis. B) Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat. C) Colon is the major site where Bacteroides fragilis can be found. D) Nose is one of the most common sites where Staphylococcus aureus can be found.
B) Escherichia coli is a prominent member of the normal flora of the throat.
Phylogenetic classifications are based on: A) Shared morphologic attributes B) Evolutionary relationships C) Shape D) Unusual growth characteristics
B) Evolutionary relationships
Man is often infected by peeling water chestnuts with his teeth, which contain this organism: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
B) Fasciolopsis buski
The Boracay water was declared unsafe due to: A) Industrial wastes B) Fecal coliforms C) Red tide D) Oil spills
B) Fecal coliforms
It is the method of choice in sterilizing heat sensitive solutions: A) Autoclave B) Filtration C) Radiation D) Pasteurization
B) Filtration
This mediates the attachment of bacteria to specific receptors on human cell surfaces, which is the necessary step in the initiation of infection for some organisms: A) Flagella B) Fimbriae C) Capsule D) Endospores
B) Fimbriae
An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms: A) Mite B) Fomite C) Arthropod D) Vector
B) Fomite
The following are contributions of Louis Pasteur in microbiology, except: A) Terms "aerobic" and "anaerobic" B) Fractional sterilization C) Pasteur flask D) Fermentation
B) Fractional sterilization
An intracytoplasmic granule may contain: A) Nucleic cids B) Glycogen C) Steroids D) Spindle fibers
B) Glycogen
A gram negative, kidney bean shaped diplococci causing gonorrhea. A) Meningococcus B) Gonococcus C) Bacillus antracis D) Clostridium tetani E) Listeria monocytogenes
B) Gonococcus
The following pathogens are likely to establish chronic or latent infections, except: A) Cytomegalovirus B) Hepatitis A virus C) Hepatitis B virus D) Herpes simples virus
B) Hepatitis A virus
Bacteria that ferment substrates to single end products are called: A) Heterofermenters B) Homofermenters C) Glyoxalate shunt fermenters D) Oxidative fermenters
B) Homofermenters
Eggs in the 2-8 cell stage of development often appear in the stool in infections with A) Whipworm B) Hookworm C) Pinworm D) Large intestinal roundworm
B) Hookworm
The main host defense against bacterial exotoxins is: A) Activated macrophages secreting proteases B) IgG and IgM antibodies C) Helper-T cells D) Modulation of host cell receptors in response to the toxin
B) IgG and IgM antibodies
Artificially acquired passive immunity is developed after vaccination with: A) Attenuated microorganism B) Immunoglobulin preparations C) Toxoids D) Cyanobacteria
B) Immunoglobulin preparations
Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by: A) Bite of the vector insect B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst C) In the body of the parasitic nematode D) Ingestion of infected food
B) Ingestion of a resistant oocyst
The use of nitrite as preservative for food is discouraged because: A) It can discolor the meat B) It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines C) It decomposed to nitric acid which can react with heme pigments D) It is not readily available
B) It can react with amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines
Which of the following statements best describe a viriod? A) It is a defective virus that is missing the DNA coding for the matrix protein. B) It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat. C) It causes tumor in experimental animals. D) It requires RNA polymerase in the particle for replication to occur.
B) It consists of RNA without a protein or lipoprotein outer coat.
Which of the following statements is true about bacterial conjugation? A) It requires the F factor B) It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili C) It is mediated by a bacterial virus D) It is found only in gram-negative bacteria
B) It is controlled by F plasmid and sex pili
Gram-negative bacterial cell wall contains the following components, except: A) Lipoproteins B) Lipotechoic acid C) Lipopolysacchatide D) Phospholipid
B) Lipotechoic acid
Stage of alcoholism wherein the person experiences blackouts: A) Initial stage B) Middle stage C) Third stage D) final stage E) None
B) Middle stage
An acid-fast, catalase negative bacillus that can be grown in Lowenstein-Jensen medium and is capable of producing Niacin. It can be treated with Rifampicin, Pyrazinamide and INH. A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Treponema pallidum E) Leptospira interrogans
B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis
The smallest known free-living microorganism is: A) Viruses B) Mycoplasma species C) Rickettsia D) Chlamydiae
B) Mycoplasma species
Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes partnership and shared responsibility for health among various sectors: A) Health Sector Reform Agenda B) National Health Objectives C) Sentrong Sigla D) Health Passport Initiative E) None of the above
B) National Health Objectives
An outbreak of sepsis causes by Staphylococcus aureus has occured in the newborn nursery. You are called to investigate. According to your knowledge of the norma flora , what is the most likely source of the bacteria? A) Colon B) Nose C) Throat D) Vagina
B) Nose
The following viruses possess an outer envelope of lipoprotein, except: A) Varicell-zoster virus B) Papillomavirus C) Influenza virus D) HIV virus
B) Papillomavirus
Trophozoite that resembles "old man's eyeglasses": A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
B) Plasmodium malariae
This period is characterized by mild aches, malaise and it follows the period of incubation of the disease: A) Decline phase B) Prodormal stage C) Illness stage D) Convalescence stage
B) Prodormal stage
Microbial decomposition of proteins with the production of H2S and amines is known as: A) Fermentation B) Putrefaction C) Dentrification D) Transpeptidation
B) Putrefaction
Group of microorganisms that can be transmitted to humans by animal vectors like insects: A) Protozoa B) Rickettias C) Chlamydias D) Myoplasmas
B) Rickettias
Which of the following organisms principally infects vascular endothelial cells? A) Salmonella typhi B) Rickettsia typhi C) Haemophilus influenzae D) Coxiella burnetii
B) Rickettsia typhi
Ceftriaxone is the most effective drug used to treat this facultative, non-lactose fermenting, gram negative rod which is capable of producing H2S. A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella typhi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Vibrio cholerae E) Camphylobacter jejuni
B) Salmonella typhi
A type of malnutrition associated with inadequate mastication, digestion, absorption, transport and excretion of nutrients: A) Primary malnutrition B) Secondary malnutrition C) Undernutrition D) Overnutrition E) None
B) Secondary malnutrition
This mediates the firm adherence of bacteria to various structures such as skin, heart valves, teeth and even catheters: A) Capsule B) Slime layer C) Pili D) Flagella
B) Slime layer
The following viruses possess RNA polymerase in the virion, except: A) Hepatitis A virus B) Smallpox virus C) Mumps virus D) Rotavirus
B) Smallpox virus
Vancomycin is produced naturally from: A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep. orientalis C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. orchidaceous
B) Strep. orientalis
Nystatin is produced naturally from: A) Strep. nodosus B) Strep.noursei C) Strep. griseus D) Strep. natalensis
B) Strep.noursei
A group B Streptococcus that causes neonatal meningitis and sepsis. A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Staphylococcus epidermidis E) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
Acute glomerulonephritis is a nonsuppurative complication that follows infection by which of the following organisms? A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
The causative agent of suppurative diseases like pharyngitis and cellulites and nonsuppurative diseases like rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis. A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Staphylococcus epidermidis E) Streptococcus agalactiae
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
Inhibits the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters causing muscle spasms A) Diphtheria toxin B) Tetanus toxin C) Botulinum toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin E) Cholera toxin
B) Tetanus toxin
Which of the following statements is true about whooping cough? A) Infants under the age of 3 months are not susceptible. B) The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract. C) Immunity is conferred by killer T cells that recognize cell wall M antigen. D) All of the above
B) The causative organism adheres to ciliated epithelial cells of the upper respiratory tract.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the "positive strand" RNA virus? A) The polymeranse contained in the virion is necessary in the replication. B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA. C) The virion RNA cannot be extracted in an infectious form. D) Viral messenger RNA is complementary to the virion RNA.
B) The virion RNA can act as its own messenger RNA.
The following statements about measles virus and rubella virus are correct, except: A) They are enveloped RNA viruses. B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase. C) They each have a single antigenic type. D) They are transmitted by respiratory aerosol.
B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
Specific process of reproduction among prokaryotes: A) Sporulation B) Transverse binary fission C) Germination D) None of the above
B) Transverse binary fission
A viviparous organism: A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Trichenella spiralis C) Hookworm D) Pinworm
B) Trichenella spiralis
The adult form of this organism has a whip-like anterior portion: A) Enterobius vermicularis B) Trichuris trichiura C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Trichinella spiralis
B) Trichuris trichiura
The growing stage of a protozoan parasite is: A) Sporozoite B) Trophozoite C) Merozoite D) Cysts
B) Trophozoite
The causative agent of Varicella (chicken pox) in children and Zoster (shingles) in adults. A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 B) Varicella-Zoster virus C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2 D) Cytomegalovirus E) Epstein-Barr virus
B) Varicella-Zoster virus
An employee liability law that provides financial supports for workers unemployed because of work related injuries: A) OSH Act B) Workers Compensation Law C) Civilian Rehabilitation D) Coal Mine Health and Safety Act E) None of the above
B) Workers Compensation Law
Blastocyctis hominis is a: A) Zooparasite B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst C) New name for Enatamoeba coli D) Bacteria
B) Yeast resembling a protozoan cyst
The amount of residual chlorine to ensure bacteriological safety of water is A. O.5 ppm B. 0.1 ppm C. 1 ppm D. 0.5 ppm
B. 0.1 ppm
Permissible limit of fluorine in drinking water is A. 0.5g - 1g/liter B. 0.5 mg - 1mg/liter C. 0.5ug - 1 ug/liter
B. 0.5 mg - 1mg/liter
Which of the following would be found growing in a Petri plate? A. An anaerobe B. A colony on an agar surface C. Viruses on an agar surface D. barophiles
B. A colony on an agar surface
Which of the following statements concerning growth and reproduction is not true? A. Growth and reproduction may occur simultaneously in living organisms. B. A living organism must reproduce to be considered alive. C. Living things may stop growing and reproducing, yet still alive. D. Normally, living organisms have the ability to grow and reproduce themselves.
B. A living organism must reproduce to be considered alive.
An autoantigen is A. An antigen from bacteria B. A normal body component C. An artificial agent D. Any carbohydrate antigen E. A nucleic acid
B. A normal body component
A patient presents with an abscess. The pus was examined containing yellow granules. The sample was tested negative to acid-fast bacilli. The patient most likely has A. Nocardiosis B. Actinomycosis C. Streptococcal infection D. Staphylococcal infection
B. Actinomycosis
A laboratory medium for bacteria can be enriched by: A. Adding ATP C. Including salt in the medium B. Adding blood C. Including salt in the medium D. Increasing the level of potassium
B. Adding blood
The phase of pre-pathogenesis in the natural history of disease starts when A. When the disease agent enters human host B. Agent, host, environment interact C. When signs and symptoms appear D. When host recover from the disease
B. Agent, host, environment interact
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of Amphotecin B as an antifungal agent/ A. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis B. Alteration of cell membrane function C. Inhibition of protein synthesis D. Inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
B. Alteration of cell membrane function
A phycologist study which of the following? A. Classification of eukaryotes B. Alternation of generations in algae C. Rusts, smuts and yeasts D. Parasitic worms
B. Alternation of generations in algae
This antiviral agent specifically acts by inhibiting the penetration and uncoating of viral organism A. Acyclovir B. Amantadine C. Ribavirin D. Interferons
B. Amantadine
A laboratory method used to show induced mutation A. Plate replication' B. Ames test C. Replica plating D. Velvet disk replication E. Plaque assay
B. Ames test
All of the following are modified penicillins resistant to destruction by staphylococcal beta-lactamase except A. Naficillin B. Ampicillin C. Oxacillin D. Cloxacillin E. Methicillin
B. Ampicillin
Which of the following is also known as the cat hookworm? A. Ancylostoma ceylanicum B. Ancylostoma braziliense C. Ancylostoma caninum D. Ancylostoma duodenale E. Necator americanus
B. Ancylostoma braziliense
The presence of this in the serum patients indicates immunity to Hepatitis B virus. A. HBsAg B. Anti HBsAg C. Anti HBcAg D. Anti HBeAg
B. Anti HBsAg
The relative amount of antibody in the serum is known as A. Antigen B. Antibody titer C. Immunoglobulin level D. Memory level E. Antibody concentration
B. Antibody titer
This is a condition where there are small changes in the antigenic structure of an organism which mat later result to an epidemic A. Antigenic shift B. Antigenic drift C. Tolerance D. Immunity
B. Antigenic drift
An amateur scientist who saw "animalcules" in his single-lens microscope A. Robert Hooke B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek C. Louis Pasteur D. Robert Koch E. Joseph Lister
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
Term for programmed cell death A. Perforin B. Apoptosis C. Cytolysis D. Inflammation E. Antigen presentation
B. Apoptosis
These are organisms that possess no flagella A. Lopotrichous B. Atrichous C. Peritrichous D. Amphitrichous
B. Atrichous
In theory of planned behavior, this refers to the individual's perception that he/she is likely to perform the behavior. A. Public policy B. Behavioral intention C. Precontemplation D. Perceived benefits E. Preparation
B. Behavioral intention
Drugs that prevent the formation of cell wall are A. Quinolones B. Beta-lactams C. Tetracyclines D. Aminoglycosides
B. Beta-lactams
The spleen contains A. Hassall's corpuscles B. Bursa of Fabricus cells C. Islet of Langerhans cells D. Regions derived embryogically from the third pharyngeal pouch
B. Bursa of Fabricus cells
Microaerophiles that grow best with a high concentration of carbon dioxide in addition to a low level of oxygen are called A. Aerotolerant B. Capnophiles C. Facultative anaerobes D. Fastidious
B. Capnophiles
Protein coat that protects the nucleic acid of a virus A. Plasmid B. Capsid C. Capsomere D. Envelope E. Spike
B. Capsid
Expressed as a percentage or the number of persons diagnosed as having a specified disease who died as a result of that disease: A. Mortality rate B. Case fatality rate C. Morbidity rate D. Incidence rate
B. Case fatality rate
Corona virus are recognized by club-shaped surface projections that are 20 nm long and resemble solar coronas. These viruses are characterized by their ability to A. Infect infants more frequently than adults B. Cause common colds C. Grow well in the usual cultures cell line D. Agglutinate human red blood cells
B. Cause common colds
Cell membrane damage causes death because. A. The cell undergoes osmotic lysis B. Cell contents leak out C. The cell plasmolyzes D. The cell lacks a wall E. None of the above
B. Cell contents leak out
Which cellular structure is important in classifying a bacterial species as Gram-positive or Gram-negative? A. Flagella B. Cell wall C. Cilia D. Glycocalyx
B. Cell wall
These are organisms that use an inorganic substrate as hydrogen or thiosulfate as reductant and carbon monoxide as carbon source. A. Heterotrophs B. Chemolithotrophs C. Autotrophs D. Psychotrophs
B. Chemolithotrophs
Metals that have been associated with an increase incidence of lung cancer in occupationally exposed workers include: A. Copper B. Chromium C. Iron D. Silver
B. Chromium
According to severity, TB may be classified as A. Subacute and latent B. Chronic and latent C. Sporadic and latent D. Chronic E. Latent
B. Chronic and latent
Transplant rejection that occurs months to years after transplantation and the damage is irreversible A. Acute rejection B. Chronic rejection C. Hyperacute rejection D. Superacute rejection
B. Chronic rejection
This is the organism which cause the Chinese liver fluke infection A. Fasciola hepatica B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Fasciolopsis buski D. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Clonorchis sinensis
Multiple nuclear divisions without cytoplasmic divisions result in cells called A. Myoses B. Coenocytes C. Haustoria D. Pseudohypa
B. Coenocytes
These are indicator bacteria which are found in the intestines of humans and warm-blooded animals, ferment lactose to produce acid and gas, and its presence in water suggests the potential for disease. Examples of such organisms are E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes. A. Enterics B. Coliforms C. Colony forming units D. Enterococcus E. NOTA
B. Coliforms
Polypeptide antibiotic inhibiting pseudomonas A. Amphotericin B B. Colistin C. Carbenicillin D. Methicillin
B. Colistin
Eukaryotes differ from prokaryotes in that eukaryotes A. Generally lack sterols in their cell membrane B. Contain more than one chromosome C. Lack 80's ribosome D. Have peptidoglycan
B. Contain more than one chromosome
This drug is given both as a prophylactic and symptomatic treatment of PCP in AIDS patients. A. Spiramycin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Albendazole D. Amphotericin B
B. Cotrimoxazole
This is the drug of choice in AIDS patients suffering from Isospora belli infection A. Spiramycin B. Cotrimoxazole C. Albendazole D. Amphotericin B
B. Cotrimoxazole
Which of the following dust is responsible for Byssinosis A. Silica dust B. Cotton fiber dust C. House dust D. Mine dust
B. Cotton fiber dust
In the Health Belief Model, these are the messages or triggers that will activate the individual to take action. A. Perceived susceptibility B. Cues action C. Perceived barriers D. Self-efficacy E. Contemplation
B. Cues action
This is a protein product separated from the whey by the action of rennin enzyme in certain bacteria. A. Cheese B. Curd C. Butter D. Cream E. Casein
B. Curd
Autoimmune haemolytic anemia and Goodpasteur's syndrome A. Immediate hypersensitivity B. Cytotoxic antibody C. Immune-complex disease D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity E. NOTA
B. Cytotoxic antibody
Classification of diphtheria toxin A. Neurotoxin B. Cytotoxin C. Enterotoxin D. Endotoxin E. Oxytoxin
B. Cytotoxin
Excess of fluorine in drinking water give rise to A. Osteoporosis B. Dental fluorosis C. Dental carries D. Ketoacidosis
B. Dental fluorosis
Superoxide dismutase A. Causes hydrogen peroxide to become toxic B. Detoxifies superoxide radicals C. Neutralizes singlet oxygen D. Is missing in aerobes
B. Detoxifies superoxide radicals
The drug of choice for Bancroftian filariasis. A. Pyrimethamine B. Diethycarbamazine citrate C. Mebendazole D. Ivermectin E. Praziquantel
B. Diethycarbamazine citrate
The internationally recommended strategy for the control of tuberculosis is DOTS, which stands for: A. Directly Observed Short-Term Strategy B. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course C. Directly Observed Therapy Short Course D. Directly Observable Standard Treatment Duration of Observed Treatment Short Course
B. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course
This is defined as a permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection caused by a specific agent, as a result of deliberate efforts. A. Disease elimination B. Disease eradication C. Disease prevention D. Disease reduction E. NOTA
B. Disease eradication
Which of the following substances or processes kills microorganisms on laboratory surfaces? A. Antiseptics B. Disinfectants C. Degermers D. Paseurization
B. Disinfectants
Which of the following inflammatory signs specifies pain? A. Tumor B. Dolor C. Calor D. Rubor
B. Dolor
Which of the following is true? A. Pasteurization is a form of sterilization B. Dry heat destroys cells by oxidation C. Filtration cannot be used for sterilization D. Lyophilization involves desiccation in high temperature E. NOTA
B. Dry heat destroys cells by oxidation
Term for new or changing diseases that are increasing or have the potential to increase in incidence in the near future A. Neglected Diseases B. Emerging infectious diseases C. Non-emerging infectious diseases D. Rare diseases E. Degenerative diseases
B. Emerging infectious diseases
Developed the method of producing immunity by using antitoxin against diphtheria A. Joseph Lister B. Emil von Behring C. Robert Koch D. Paul Ehrlich
B. Emil von Behring
Refers to the addition of a nutrient to a food vehicle commonly consumed by the population to prevent or correct micronutrient deficiencies. A. Home, School and Community Food Production B. Food Fortification C. Nutrition Information, Communication and Education D. Micronutrient Supplementation E. Food assistance
B. Food Fortification
Ionizing radiation acts by A. Thymine dimerization B. Formation of highly reactive radicals C. Oxidation D. Protein denaturation
B. Formation of highly reactive radicals
This is a steroid-like compound that inhibit protein synthesis by forming a atable complex with elongation factor EF-G , guanosine diphosphate and the ribosome. It is given for gram-positive cocci but not used alone due to the development of rapid resistance to the drug. A. Erythromycin C. sulfonamides B. Fusidic acid D. lincomycin
B. Fusidic acid
The following are intestinal protozoans except A. E. histolytica B. G.lamblia C. E. nana D. I. Butschii
B. G.lamblia
The following are emerging infectious diseases starting year 2000 except: A. H1N1 influenza B. HIV-AIDS C. Anthrax D. Chagas disease E. Whooping cough
B. HIV-AIDS
Refers to a continuum of learning which enables people, as individuals and as members of social structures, to voluntarily make decisions, modify behaviors and change social conditions in ways which are health financing. A. Health promotion B. Health education C. Health perception D. Health behavior E. Health beliefs
B. Health education
A campylobacter-like bacteria that is commonly associated with gastric ulcers A. Campylobacter jejuni B. Helicobacter pylori C. Clostridium difficile D. Helicobacter fenneliae
B. Helicobacter pylori
Lipopolysaccharides are correctly described as I. Found in both Gram(-) and Gram(+) bacteria II. Contains lipid A as part of its structure III. Infection of which are treated by antitoxin A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II, and III
B. II only
The distinctive characteristic of Mycoplasmas from other bacteria is their lack of I. Lipopolysaccharide II. A cell wall III. ATP synthesis A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and III only E. I,II and III
B. II only
This is/are example of organisms that can cross the placenta I. Rubeola II. Cytomegalovirus III. Leprosy A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and
B. II only
Toxic activities of endotoxin reside in the I. Muramic acid component of peptidoglycan II. Lipid A moiety of lipopolysaccharide III. Capsular polysaccharide A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I and III
B. II only
Treatment of staph. aureus infection with penicillin is often complicated by I. Inability of penicillin to penetrate the membrane of stap. Aureus II. Production of beta-lactamase by Staph. aureus III. Lack of penicillin binding sites in Staph. aureus A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and III only E. I,II and III
B. II only
Which of the following statements best describes an antigen I. Is always an immunogen II. Has one or more epitopes III. Molecular weight may be less than 10,000 are potently immunogenic A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I and III
B. II only
Which of the following will grow in the presence of optochin I. Streptococcus pyogenes II. Streptococcus viridans III. Streptococcus pneumonia A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and III only E. II and III only
B. II only
Which statement(s) explain why beef tapeworm is less serious than pork tapeworm infection? I. Acute intestinal stoppage is less common in beef tapeworm infection II. Larval invasion does is not occur in beef tapeworm infection III. The adult beef tapeworm are smaller A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I,II and III
B. II only
An anaerobic infection with B. fragilis is characterized by I. Black discoloration of food containing exudates II. Susceptibility to penicillins III. Foul-smelling discharge A. I only B. III only C. II and III only D. I and III only E. I,II, II and III
B. III only
This is/are true statements regarding malaria I. Schizogeny or the asexual cycle of malaria occurs in mosquito II. Sporogeny or the sexual cycle of malaria occurs in man III. Mosquitoes are the definitive hosts for malaria A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
B. III only
this is/are true statement/s regarding Schistosoma I. They are the number one worldwide water-borne protozoal infection II. They multiply in humans III. Eggs must reach freshwater to hatch A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
B. III only
Refers to the observed trend that the majority of children have mild malnutrition, far fewer have moderate malnutrition and only few have severe malnutrition. A. Epidemiologic transition B. Iceberg phenomenon C. Wasting D. Global malnutrition E. Double burden
B. Iceberg phenomenon
Antibody present in breastmilk A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE
B. IgA
A male patient suffering from bacterial infection received a penicillin injection and he almost immediately had respiratory distress. This reaction is most likely to be mediated by A. T cells B. IgE C. IgG and IgM D. IgG and Complement
B. IgE
Molecules are present on the surface of B cells but not on T cells include A. A receptor for sheep RBCs and another for pokeweed mitogen B. IgM and IgD plus receptors for the C3 component of complement C. CD4 + and CD8+ D. TCR receptor and CD28
B. IgM and IgD plus receptors for the C3 component of complement
What is the Millennium Development Goal #5? A. Promote gender equality B. Improve maternal heath C. Achieve universal primary education D. Eradicate extreme poverty E. Reduce child mortality
B. Improve maternal heath
The time interval between the infection of a susceptible person and the appearance of symptoms of the disease A. Prodromal period B. Incubation period C. Period of illness D. Convalescence period
B. Incubation period
Refers to the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of pregnancy, irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy, from any cause related to or aggravated by the pregnancy or its management, but not from accidental causes. A. Morbidity rate B. Infant mortality C. Maternal death D. Mortality rate E. Population pyramid
B. Infant mortality
A type of host which harbors the asexual or larval stage of the parasite. A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Final host D. Paratenic host E. Both A and C
B. Intermediate host
Type I hypersensitivity A. Is also known as delayed-type hypersensitivity B. Involves IgE response to an allergen C. Is independent of inflammatory mediators D. Involved degranulation of eosinophils
B. Involves IgE response to an allergen
Treatment of herpetic conjunctivitis A. Streptomycin B. Iododeoxyuridine C. Rifampin D. Nalidixic acid
B. Iododeoxyuridine
An axenic environment is one that A. Exist in the human mouth B. Is free of microbes C. Exist in the human colon D. Both a and b
B. Is free of microbes
The role of cilastatin sodium when combined with imipenem is: A. It protects against the action of beta-lactamase B. It prevents degradation of imipenem in the kidneys C. It exerts antimicrobial action to broaden the spectrum of activity D. It potentiates the antimicrobial action imipenem E. It facilitates the absorption of imipenem
B. It prevents degradation of imipenem in the kidneys
This is the drug of choice for patients having filriasis A. Thiabendazole B. Ivemectin C. Mebendazole D. Praziquantel
B. Ivemectin
A sequence of experimental steps that help identify the specific microbe that caused a specific disease. A. Germ Theory of Disease B. Koch's postulates C. Theory of Spontaneous Generation D. Theory of Immunity E. Transformation of Postulates
B. Koch's postulates
This is the organism which causes kala-azar or Viscerla Leishmaniasis A. L.braziliensis B. L.donovani C. L.tropica D. L.cruzi
B. L.donovani
Mycoplasma are pleomorphic gram-negative bacteria that A. Are sensitive to penicillin B. Lack cell walls in all stages of growth C. Cannot divide by binary fission D. Do not produce "fried egg" colonies
B. Lack cell walls in all stages of growth
All of the following are transmitted to man by ingestion of undercooked meat. Which of the following is vector transmitted? A. Trichinella B. Leishmania C. Clonorchis D. Diphyllobothrium
B. Leishmania
Fasciola hepatica and F. gigantica are what type of flukes? A. Lung flukes B. Liver flukes C. Blood flukes D. Heterophyid flukes E. Intestinal flukes
B. Liver flukes
A cell exposed to a hypertonic environment will _________ by osmosis A. Gain water B. Lose water C. Neither gain nor lose water D. Burst
B. Lose water
The primary action of nonionizing radiation is to A. Produce superoxide ions B. Make pyrimidine dimers C. Denature proteins D. Break disulfide bonds
B. Make pyrimidine dimers
This stems from an inadequate calorie intake due to insufficient diet, improper feeding habits, metabolic abnormalities or congenital malformations that result to gain weight, followed by loss of weight until emaciation occurs. A. Iodine deficiency disorders B. Marasmus C. Protein energy malnutrition D. Kwashiorkor E. Xerophthalmia
B. Marasmus
The release of this from of the malarial parasite triggers the fever, chills and sweats of malaria A. Sporozoites B. Merozoites C. Trophozoites D. Gametocytes
B. Merozoites
In Reductase Test using milk, the time it takes for methylene blue to become colorless is the: A. Methylene blue oxidation time B. Methylene blue reaction time C. Methylene blue catalysis time D. Methylene blue reduction time E. Methylene blue disappearance time
B. Methylene blue reaction time
This is an antifungal that acts by inhibiting lanosterol C14-demethylase, an important enzyme in sterol synthesis A. Griseofulvin B. Miconazole C. Flucytosine D. Amphotericin
B. Miconazole
A viral organism well known to involve infection of the parotid gland and testes in males. A. Measles B. Mumps C. Herpes virus D. Respiratory syncyitial virus
B. Mumps
A relationship that manifests reciprocity of benefits between the organisms involved A. Commensalism B. Mutualism C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis
B. Mutualism
Cause of tuberculosis A. Mycoplasma tuberculosis B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis C. Pseudomonas tuberculosis D. Mycobacterium leprae E. Mycoplasma pneumonia
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Inclusion bodies produced by rabies virus A. Syncytial bodies B. Negri bodies C. Black bodies D. Interferons E. Cytopathic areas
B. Negri bodies
Which of the following is not a characteristic of the genus Neisseria? A. Diplococcic B. Obligate anaerobe C. Some members cause meningitis D. Some members causes gonorrhea E. NOTA
B. Obligate anaerobe
Refers to the promotion and maintenance of the highest degree of physical, mental and social well-being of workers in all occupations by preventing departures from health, controlling risks and the adaptation of work to people, and people for their jobs. A. Ergonomics B. Occupational health C. Occupational hazards D. Safety E. Occupations
B. Occupational health
Antigenic cross-reactivity is shown by tumors induced by: A. Smoking B. Oncogenic DNA viruses C. UV radiation D. Carcinogens
B. Oncogenic DNA viruses
Which is true about major histocompatibility complex (MHC)? A. Twins do not have the same MHCs B. Only identical twins have the same MHCs C. Tissues that produce self-antigens D. Not present in humans E. Rejects T cell
B. Only identical twins have the same MHCs
The first oral cholera vaccine A. Vivotif B. Orochol-E C. Orofar-L D. Tetramune
B. Orochol-E
A 5 year old child presents with symptoms of low-grade fever, coryza, conjunctivitis and Koplik's spots. The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of viruses? A. Adenovirus B. Paramyxovirus C. Piconavirus D. Herpesvirus
B. Paramyxovirus
The organism is the causative agent of erythema infectionism in children A. Adenovirus B. Parvovirus C. Polymavirus D. Cytomegalovirus
B. Parvovirus
A process widely used in the dairy industry that destroys a very high percentage of undesirable microbial population by heating at a certain temperature is known as: A. Tyndallization B. Pasteurization C. Dry-heat sterilization D. Moist-heat sterilization
B. Pasteurization
A disease producing organism is termed as: A. Vector B. Pathogen C. Antigen D. Antibody
B. Pathogen
Which of the following is NOT a macro-level public health activity? A. Community diagnosis B. Patient-directed services C. Policy development D. Health planning E. Partnership establishment
B. Patient-directed services
A healthy medical student clearing in Lyme, Connecticut, was bitten by ticks. One week later complains of fever, stiff neck, stiff joints and arrhythmias. An expanding skin lesion known as erythema chronicum migrans was found on her leg with sharply formed borders. DOC for this condition is A. Metronidazole B. Pen V C. Flucytosine D. Chloramphenicol
B. Pen V
The original source of penicillin discovered by Fleming was a mold known as A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae B. Penicillium notatum C. Penicillium chrysogenum D. Penicillium flavus E. Aspergillus flavus
B. Penicillium notatum
Which is included in GALT? A. Thymus B. Peyer's patches C. Tonsils D. Breast lymph nodes
B. Peyer's patches
A malarial organism producing ringlike and crescentlike forms within red blood cells A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium falciparum
Because of the primary exoerythrocytic cycle of schizogony cannot be repeated, I is necessary to treat the infection with only an erythrocytic schizonticidal drug in which of the following? A. Leishmania donovani B. Plasmodium falciparum C. Plasmodium vivax D. Plasmodium malariae E. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
B. Plasmodium falciparum
First white blood cells to be involved in acute inflammation by pyogenic cocci A. Macrophages B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes C. Basophils D. Lymphocytes
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes
This is characterized as the most complex DNA virus A. Herpesviridae B. Poxviridae C. Adenoviridae D. Parvoviridae
B. Poxviridae
Immature B lymphocytes A. Have both IgM and IgD on their surface B. Produce L chains and u H chains to form surface IgM C. Produce only u H chains intracellularly with no surface Ig D. Have not yet begun cutting and splicing of their immunoglobulin genes
B. Produce L chains and u H chains to form surface IgM
The following are steps in the occurrence of inflammation except: A. Tissue response B. Production of interferon C. Phagocyte migration D. Tissue repair E. Vasodilation
B. Production of interferon
The following organisms are good recipients of R factor from E. coli donor, except: A. Enterobacter B. Proteus C. Klebsiella D. Salmonella E. Shigella
B. Proteus
This gram negative bacteria produces a water-soluble blue pigment, pyocyanin, and a water- soluble fluorescent pigment, pyoverdin A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. Pseudomonas mallei C. Pseudomonas pseudomallei D. Pseudomonas syringae E. Pseudomonas fluorescens
B. Pseudomonas mallei
An ill patient denied being bitten by insects. Which of the following Rickettsial infection is most likely the cause of the illness? A. rickettsial pox B. Q-fever C. Scrub typhus D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
B. Q-fever
Brill-Zinsser disease is caused by A. Rickettsia rickettsia B. R. prowazekii C. R. typi D. R. tsutsugamushi
B. R. prowazekii
This is the only viral disease where post-exposure vaccination is successful due to its long incubation period A. Polio B. Rabies C. Hepa B D. Measles
B. Rabies
Which viral organism has a characteristic bullet-shaped, enveloped, helical nucleocapsid? A. Poliovirus B. Rabies virus C. Coronavirus D. Adenovirus
B. Rabies virus
What is included in the indicator system of a complement fixation test? A. Specific antibody & complement B. Red blood cells & hemolysin C. Heat-inactivated patient's serum D. Guinea pig serum E. Rat red blood cells
B. Red blood cells & hemolysin
Restoration of the disabled to useful place in society with maximum use of his remaining capabilities A. Public health B. Rehabilitation C. Primary care D. Senior citizen
B. Rehabilitation
A continuous source of the diseases organism is known as the A. Carrier B. Reservoir of infection C. Deep wells D. Hospital E. Secondary use
B. Reservoir of infection
Which of the following antiviral agent is purine nucleoside analogue that has shown promise with lassa fever, influenza A and B and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)? A. Amantadine B. Ribavirin C. Acyclovir D. Gancyclovir
B. Ribavirin
This drug acts by inhibiting the synthesis of mRNA A. Ciprofloxacin B. Rifampicin C. Metronidazole D. Clindamycin
B. Rifampicin
This drug is currently given as the drug of choice for the prophylaxis of close contacts of meningococcal and Haemophilus meningitis A. Ciprofloxacin B. Rifampicin C. Metronidazole D. Clindamycin
B. Rifampicin
Refers to likelihood that a particular hazard will occur. A. Accident B. Risk C. Danger D. Hazard E. Safety
B. Risk
A national project that involves the voluntary fortification of processed foods. A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN) B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal C. Maternal and Child Health D. Early Childhood Development project E. Safe Motherhood
B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
This is an example of trematode which inhibit/s the portal blood stream of vertebrates A. Fasciola hepatica B. Schistosoma japonicum C. Fasciolopsis buski D. Clonorchis sinensis
B. Schistosoma japonicum
Property of an ideal antimicrobial agent A. Production of drug resistance B. Selective toxicity C. Toxic to the host cell D. Broad spectrum of activity E. Produces hypersensitivity
B. Selective toxicity
This refers to the uncontrolled proliferation of microbes in the blood. A. Sepsis B. Septicemia C. Septic shock D. Anaphylaxis E. Bacteremia
B. Septicemia
Majority of coagulase-negative staphylococcal infection cases involving prosthetic heart valve endocarditis are caused by A. Staph aureus B. Staph spidermidis C. Staph saprophyticus D. Staph hemolyticus
B. Staph spidermidis
A nosocomial pathogen that normally inhabits the skin and commonly contaminates prosthetic devices such as, catheters and heart valves, leading to symptomatic microbemia A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Staphylococcus epidermis C. Streptococcus aureus D. Streptococcus pyogenes E. Streptococcus mutans
B. Staphylococcus epidermis
This is the drug of choice for all forms of leishmaniasis A. Primaquine B. Stibogluconate C. Pentamidine D. Suramin
B. Stibogluconate
In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that community development draws an existing human and material resources in the community to enhance self-help and social support, and to develop flexible systems for strengthening public participation in and direction of health matters. A. Create supportive environments B. Strengthen community actions C. Develop personal skills D. Build healthy public policy E. Reorient health services
B. Strengthen community actions
Streptomyces griseus is the source of this antibiotic. A. Griseofulvin B. Streptomycin C. Erythromycin D. Kanamycin E. Chlorampenicol
B. Streptomycin
Which antibiotic acts on the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria and interferes with the binding of tRNA to ribosomes? A. Chloramphenicol B. Streptomycin C. Clindamycin D. Erythromycin E. Lincosamide
B. Streptomycin
Aerobes contain this enzyme which converts superoxide to oxygen and hydrogen peroxide. A. Catalase B. Superoxide dismutase C. Peroxidase D. Both B and C E. NOTA
B. Superoxide dismutase
Term for the combination of signs and symptoms that occur together and indicate a particular disease A. Symptom B. Syndrome C. Observation D. Sequelae E. Sign
B. Syndrome
The cellular immune response is mediated by A. B cells B. T cells C. both B and T cells D. endothelial cells
B. T cells
This is the causative agent of the West African sleeping disease A. Trypanosome brucei rhodesiense B. T.brucei gambiense C. T.cruzi D. L.donovani
B. T.brucei gambiense
Generally infects human eating raw beef A. Taenia solium B. Taenia saginata C. Trichinella spiralis D. Necator americanus
B. Taenia saginata
Human may serve as both a definitive host and an intermediate host of this type of cestode, therefore both intestinal and tissue infections occur in man. A. Taenia saginata B. Taenia solium C. Dipylidium caninum D. Hymenolepsis nana E. Hymenolepsis diminuta
B. Taenia solium
Humans are both the intermediate and definitive hosts of which parasite? A. Diphyllobothrium latum B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Trichuris trichuria
B. Taenia solium
This drug is member of the allylamine class of antimycotics and inhibits the enzyme squalene epoxidase in fungal ergosterol biosynthesis. A. Clotrimazole B. Terbinafine C. Linezolid D. Flucytosine E. Nalidixic acid
B. Terbinafine
Which of the following is a true statement concerning prokaryotic chromosomes? A. They typically have two or three origins of replications B. The contain single-stranded DNA C. They are located in the cytosol D. They are associated in linear pairs
B. The contain single-stranded DNA
Active transport of a substance across the membrane requires A. A gradient B. The expenditure of ATP C. Water D. Diffusion
B. The expenditure of ATP
This is the time required to kill a suspension of cells or spores at a given temperature. A. Thermal death point B. Thermal death time C. Burst size D. Incubation period E. Triple death point
B. Thermal death time
A 28 year-old menstruating woman appeared in the emergency room with the following signs and symptoms; fever, hypotension, a Scarletiniform rash on her trunk, palms, and soles, extreme fatigue and diarrhea. The patient above most likely has A. Sacalded skin syndrome B. Toxic shock syndrome C. Scarletina D. Chickenpox
B. Toxic shock syndrome
The process in which DNA is released by lysis of one bacterium, leading to a change in phenotype of that another bacterium is called A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Conjugation D. Transposition
B. Transformation
Most macroparasites are extracellular organisms. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite? A. Enterobius B. Trichinella C. Strongloides D. Ascaris
B. Trichinella
The infection from this nematode will cause a rise in the levels of serum muscle enzymes such as creatinine phosphokinase A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichinella spiralis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichura
B. Trichinella spiralis
A stop codon that signals the end of protein synthesis is A. UUA B. UAG C. UGG D. GAG E. AUG
B. UAG
Amantadine used for influenza A infection has been shown to be effective preventing which step in the viral replication process? A. Penetration B. Uncoating C. Assembly D. Release
B. Uncoating
The main virulence factor of Yersinia pestis is/are the A. Endotoxin B. V and W antigens C. Erythrogenic toxins D. Lecithinase
B. V and W antigens
Chickenpox is a common disease of children. It is caused by A. Pox viridae B. Varicella C. Zoster D. CMV
B. Varicella
These are generally benign skin growths caused by viruses A. Bullae B. Warts C. Boils D. Acne E. Papules
B. Warts
Which of the following is not a growth factor for various microbes? A. Cholesterol B. Water C. Vitamins D. Heme
B. Water
The causative agent of plague, which was known in the middle ages as the Black Death. A. Sarcoptes scabiei B. Yersinia pestis C. Francisella tularensis D. Trypanosoma cruzi E. Bacillus anthracis
B. Yersinia pestis
The group A streptococci serotype most commonly associated with acute glomerulonephritis: A) 2 B) 7 C) 12 D) 19
C) 12
Leprosy may manifest itself as: A) Lepromatous leprosy B) Tuberculoid leprosy C) A and B D) B and C
C) A and B
Thioglycollate agar is an example of: A) Enriched media B) Selective media C) Anaerobic media D) Differential media
C) Anaerobic media
The most important mechanism of transmission of Pasteurella multicoda from animals to humans: A) Blood-sucking arthropods B) Contact with contaminated feces C) Animal bites and scratches D) Contact with contaminated urine E) Handling of infected tissues
C) Animal bites and scratches
Administration of a toxoid confers: A) Naturally acquired active immunity B) Naturally acquired passive immunity C) Artificially acquired active immunity D) Artificially acquired passive immunity
C) Artificially acquired active immunity
The presence of mammillated eggs or the large adult worm in the stool identifies this organism: A) Trichuris trichiura B) Enterobius vermicularis C) Ascaris lumbricoides D) Strongyloides stercoralis
C) Ascaris lumbricoides
Large, spore-forming rod, whose capsule is composed of poly-D-glutamate and may cause Wool Sorter's disease. A) Meningococcus B) Gonococcus C) Bacillus antracis D) Clostridium tetani E) Listeria monocytogenes
C) Bacillus antracis
Five hours after eating fried rice at a restaurant, you and your friends developed nausea, vomiting and diarrhea. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent? A) Clostridium perfringens B) Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli C) Bacillus cereus D) Salmonella typhi
C) Bacillus cereus
Polymixin is produced from: A) Bacillus subtilis B) Bacillus cereus C) Bacillus polymyxa D) Bacillus anthracis
C) Bacillus polymyxa
A biological sterilization indicator used to test autoclave efficiency: A) Virus B) Bacillus thuringiensis C) Bacillus stearothermophilus D) Clostridium botulinum
C) Bacillus stearothermophilus
Which of the following organisms is a predatory bacterium? A) Salmonella thypinurium B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C) Bdellovibrio bacteriovirus
Spirochete, which is the causative agent of Lyme disease and can be treated by Doxycycline for early stage and Pen G for late stages. A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Treponema pallidum E) Leptospira interrogans
C) Borrelia burgdorferi
Regarding the prevention of bacterial diseases by vaccines, which one of the following is least accurate? A) Tetanus toxoid is produced by treating tetanus toxin with formalin, which inactivates its ability to cause disease but leaves its antigenicity intact. B) Diphtheria vaccine contains diphtheria toxoid and produces few side effects when given to children. C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children. D) The pneumococcal vaccine contains the capsular polysaccharide of many serotypes and is recommended primarily for older people.
C) Both the pertussis vaccine and Haemophilus influenza vaccine contain inactivated whole bacteria and produce significant side effects in children
Causes paralysis by blocking release of acetylcholine A) Diphtheria toxin B) Tetanus toxin C) Botulinum toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin E) Cholera toxin
C) Botulinum toxin
The following structures normally contain indigenous microbial flora, except: A) Teeth B) Urethra C) Bronchi D) Skin
C) Bronchi
Which of the following zoonotic diseases has no arthropod vector? A) Plague B) Lyme disease C) Brucellosis D) Epidemic typhus
C) Brucellosis
Certain bacterial strains are resistant to the bactericidal activity of the Penicillins and the Cephalosporins, although the growth of the organism is inhibited. This phenomenon (tolerance) is related to a defect or a deficiency of: A) Plasmid that codes for penicillinase B) Autolytic enzymes C) Cellular growth rates D) Certain cytochromes
C) Cellular growth rates
The causative agent of food poisoning from canned good foods. A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium tetani C) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Clostridium dificile
C) Clostridium botulinum
The single differentiation test between Staphylococcus epidermidis and Staphylococcus aureus: A) Gram staining B) Catalase test C) Coagulase test D) Hemolysis test
C) Coagulase test
The DTP vaccine is composed of which of the following: A) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis B) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis D) Diphtheria toxin, tetanus toxin, heat-killed Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C) Diphtheria toxoid, tetanus toxoid, heat-killed Bordetella pertussis
The substance responsible for the heat resistance of endospores: A) Polymerized d-glutamic acid B) Flagellin C) Dipicolinic acid D) Techoic acid
C) Dipicolinic acid
The dog tapeworm that can be accidentally transmitted to humans: A) Hymenolepsis nana B) Hymenolepsis diminuta C) Dipylidium caninum D) Taenia solium
C) Dipylidium caninum
The eggs of this worm are operculated: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
The fish tapeworm that can be acquired by eating insufficiently cooked, infected fish: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum E) Echinococcus granulosus
C) Dipyllobotrium latum
Visceral larva migrans is acquired by ingesting eggs of a nematode parasite of: A) Pig B) Monkey C) Dog D) Cat
C) Dog
Actively motile trophozoite with directional motility and contains ingested red blood cells: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Entamoeba histolytica
Cysts of this organism contains 1-4 nuclei: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Entamoeba histolytica
The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Entamoeba histolytica
The findings of ingested red blood cells in a trophozoite practically identifies: A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis
C) Entamoeba histolytica
Which of the following statements is the most important function of antibody in host defenses against bacteria? A) Activation of the lysozyme that degrades the cell wall B) Acceleration of proteolysis of exotoxins C) Facilitation of phagocytosis D) Inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis
C) Facilitation of phagocytosis
The irreversible stage of alcohol damage characterized by liver enlargement: A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholic hepatitis C) Fatty liver D) All E) None
C) Fatty liver
Toxoplasmosis can be diagnosed by: A) Stool examination B) Thin blood film C) Flourescent antibody tests D) Intradermal test
C) Flourescent antibody tests
The time required for a cell to divide or a population to double is known as: A) Thermal death time B) Growth rate constant C) Generation time D) Thermal death point
C) Generation time
Which of the following does not influence the virulence of Neisseria gonorrhea? A) Polysaccharide capsule B) Lipopolysaccharide endotoxin C) Genus-specific protein D) Production of IgA protease
C) Genus-specific protein
A process by which bacterial endospore returns to its vegetative state: A) Polymorphism B) Mutagenicity C) Germination D) Sporulation
C) Germination
A short-term expression of alcohol toxicity: A) Cirrhosis B) Alcoholism C) Hang-over D) A and B E) B and C
C) Hang-over
The causative agent of herpes genitalis, which can then be treated with Acyclovir. A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 B) Varicella-Zoster virus C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2 D) Cytomegalovirus E) Epstein-Barr virus
C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2
It is implicated as the cause of carcinoma of the cervix. A) Hepatitis C virus B) Cytomegalovirus C) Human papilloma virus D) Dengue virus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
C) Human papilloma virus
In the syndrome of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis: A) Streptococcal nucleases and streptolysin accumulate in the glomerular basement membrane. B) Streptococcal capsular antigen (hyaluronic acid) and glucoronic acid subunits precipitate with antibody and are deposited in the glomeruli in lumpy patterns. C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane. D) Hematuria is due to the action of streptolysin O.
C) Immunoglobulin and complement localize in the glomerular basement membrane.
It refers to the invasion or colonization of the body by pathogenic bacteria: A) Disease B) Infestation C) Infection D) Syndromes
C) Infection
The following statements about Hepatitis A are correct, except: A) The initial site of viral replication is the gastrointestinal tract. B) Hepatitis A virus commonly causes asymptomatic infection in children. C) Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A. D) Gamma globulin is used to prevent the disease in exposed persons.
C) Isolating the virus in a cell culture usually makes diagnosis of hepatitis A.
The stage in the growth cycle of bacteria that reflects the period during which vigorous metabolic activity occurs but cells do not divide is the: A) Stationary phase B) Log phase C) Lag phase D) Death phase
C) Lag phase
In group A beta hemolytic streptococci, the types are determined by the antigenic specificity of: A) Capsule B) Mucopeptide layer C) M and/or T proteins D) Extracellular products such as streptolysin O, which is produced only by group A streptococci
C) M and/or T proteins
Which of the following statements is true about drug-resistant plasmids? A) Found only in gram-negative bacteria B) Usually confer resistance to a single antibiotic C) May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant D) Two of the above
C) May be divided into two distinct genetic components: the RTF and r determinant
This is a saclike invagination of the cytoplasmic membrane that is associated with the DNA of bacterial cells. It functions as the origin of the transverse septum that divides the cell and the binding site of the DNA. A) Nucleoid B) Plasmids C) Mesosomes D) Transposons
C) Mesosomes
Anaerobic bacteria that derive energy by converting formates, acetates and other compounds to methane: A) Microaerophilic B) Metanochromic C) Methanogenic D) Cyanobactreria
C) Methanogenic
The following clinical syndromes are associated with infection by picornavirus, except: A) Myocarditis/Pericarditis B) Hepatitis C) Mononucleosis D) Meningitis
C) Mononucleosis
A patient has subacute bacterial endocarditis, which is caused by a member of the viridans group of Streptococcus. Which one of the following sites is most likely to be the source of the organism? A) Skin B) Colon C) Oropharynx D) Urethra
C) Oropharynx
The number of cases of Filipinos with AIDS has increased tremendously over the past few years. This is described as: A) Endemic B) Epidemic C) Pandemic D) Acute
C) Pandemic
This is also known as the Oriental ling fluke: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
C) Paragonimus weatermani
Penicillin is a very effective antibacterial drug but their use is limited by allergic reactions. In these allergies, Penicillin acts as a hapten. Which of the following is the most accurate? A) Penicillin is a T-dependent antigens, which bind to receptors on B cells and stimulate an antibody response. B) Penicillin interacts with T cell receptors on CD4-positive T cells and activates them. C) Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper-T cell. D) Penicillin interacts with the early complements (C1, C4, C2 and C3) to release inflammatory mediators.
C) Penicillin binds to carrier proteins, then interacts with the B cell receptor and carrier proteins. The carrier protein epitope is presented to the helper-T cell.
A type of industrial hazard, which includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration: A) Biological B) Chemical C) Physical D) Ergonomic E) None of the above
C) Physical
The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection: A) Dog B) Cat C) Pig D) Cattle
C) Pig
An axostyle is present in this organism: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
C) Plasmodium falciparum
As a rule, only rings and crescent-shaped gametocytes are observed in peripheral blood, which includes: A) Plasmodium vivax B) Plasmodium malariae C) Plasmodium falciparum D) Plasmodium ovale
C) Plasmodium falciparum
A phenomenon wherein an organism exhibits plasticity: A) Dimorphism B) Polymorphism C) Pleomorphism D) Fleximorphism
C) Pleomorphism
Human Tcell leukemia virus A) DNA enveloped virus B) DNA non-enveloped virus C) RNA enveloped virus D) RNA non-enveloped virus E) Viriod
C) RNA enveloped virus
The first chemotherapeutic agent scientifically discovered and evaluated: A) Sulfonamide B) Penicillin C) Salvarsan D) None of the above
C) Salvarsan
A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting availability of quality services in health centers and hospitals: A) Health Sector Reform Agenda B) National Health Objectives C) Sentrong Sigla D) Health Passport Initiative E) None of the above
C) Sentrong Sigla
Facultative gram negative rods, non-lactose fermenting and may cause enterocolitis (dysentery). A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella typhi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Vibrio cholerae E) Camphylobacter jejuni
C) Shigella dysenteriae
The coagulase test, wherein the bacteria causes plasma to clot is used to distinguish: A) Streptococcus pyogenes from Streptococcus faecalis B) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus C) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis D) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
C) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
Phase in the bacterial growth curve wherein the culture is in the period of balanced growth: A) Log phase B) Lag phase C) Stationary phase D) Death phase
C) Stationary phase
The causative agent of pneumonia and meningitis in adults, and otitis media and sinusitis in children. A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Staphylococcus epidermidis E) Streptococcus agalactiae
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
It is the relationship between the host and the normal microbiota: A) Disease B) Infection C) Symbiosis D) Parasitism
C) Symbiosis
The following statements about poliovirus and rhinovirus are correct, except: A) They are non-enveloped RNA viruses. B) They each have multiple antigenic types. C) Their virions contain RNA polymerase. D) They do not integrate their genome into the DNA of the host cell.
C) Their virions contain RNA polymerase.
The following statements concerning endotoxins are correct, except: A) They are less potent (ie., less active on weight basis) than exotoxins. B) They are more heat stable than exotoxins. C) They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not. D) They are part of the bacterial cell wall, whereas exotoxins are not.
C) They bind to specific cell receptors, whereas exotoxins do not.
The capacity of an organism to produce a toxin is known as: A) Pathogenicity B) Virulence C) Toxigenicity D) Toxicity
C) Toxigenicity
The Streptococcus most commonly associated with subacute bacterial endocarditis: A) Streptococcus pyogenes B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) Viridans streptococci D) Streptococcus pneumoniae
C) Viridans streptococci
Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites. The following statements concerning this fact are correct, except: A) Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell. B) Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside the cell. C) Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides. D) Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes.
C) Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides.
Vitamin B deficiency caused by alcoholism produces a neurological disorder called: A) Steven Johnson's Syndrome B) Down Syndrome C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome D) A and B E) None
C) Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome
The following statements regarding Coccidiodes immitis are correct, except: A) It is a dimorphic fungus that grows as a mold in the soil and as spherules in the body. B) Infection usually results from the inhalation of asexual spores (anthroconida), hence the primary site of infection is the lungs. C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts. D) The most important host defense against this organism is cell-mediated immunity.
C) When cultured in the laboratory, the organism forms budding yeasts.
This organism causes tropical elephantiasis: A) Loa loa B) Onchocerca volvulus C) Wucheria bancrofti D) Dracunculus medinensis
C) Wucheria bancrofti
Net yield of ATP molecules arising from the complete oxidation of glucose in fungal cells A. 2 mols ATP/ glucose mol B. 24 mols ATP/ glucose mol C. 36 mols ATP/ glucose mol D. 38 mols ATP/ glucose mol E. 4 mols ATP/ glucose mol
C. 36 mols ATP/ glucose mol
Under ideal conditions, the complete aerobic oxidation of one molecule of glucose by a bacterium allows a net gain of how many ATP molecules? A. 2 B. 4 C. 38 D. 0
C. 38
Communicable diseases are transmitted by: A. Direct contact with an infected person B. Indirect contact with contaminated substances/materials C. A & B D. A only
C. A & B
Which of the following vaccine types is commonly given with an adjuvant? A. Attenuated vaccine B. A modified live vaccine C. A chemically killed vaccine D. An immunoglobulin E. An agglutinating antigen
C. A chemically killed vaccine
A Coulter counter is A. A statistical estimation using five dilution tubes and a table of numbers to estimate the number of bacteria per milliliter. B. An indirect method of counting microorganisms. C. A device that directly counts microbes as they pass through a tube in front of an electronic detector. D. A device that directly counts microbes that are differentially stained with fluorescent dyes.
C. A device that directly counts microbes as they pass through a tube in front of an electronic detector.
As compared to primary response, a typical amnestic response yields A. About the same antibody level but the level persists longer B. More antibody level but the level is slower to develop C. A much higher antibody level that also persists longer D. A higher antibody level that, however declines much more rapidly
C. A much higher antibody level that also persists longer
An antibiotic that disrupts the normal flora can cause A. The teeth to turn down B. Aplastic anemia C. A superinfection D. Hepatotoxicity
C. A superinfection
What is/are the staining method/s used to identify all bacteria in the genus Mycobacterium and the disease producing strains of Nocardia. A. Simple staining B. Gram staining C. Acid-fast bacilli D. Negative staining E. Both B and C
C. Acid-fast bacilli
Also known as Ziehl-Neelsen Method: A. Gram staining B. Simple staining C. Acid-fast staining D. Negative staining E. Capsular staining
C. Acid-fast staining
This group of anaerobes can grow in the presence of oxygen and are not usually harmed by its presence in the environment. A. Strict anaerobes B. Obligate anaerobes C. Aerotolerant anaerobes D. Facultative aerobes E. Both A and B
C. Aerotolerant anaerobes
The cross-linkage of antigens by antibodies is known as: A. Opsonization B. A Cross-reaction C. Agglutination D. Complement fixation
C. Agglutination
Eukaryotic, photosynthetic organisms that range in size from unicellular to multicellular. A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Algae D. Virus
C. Algae
Which microorganisms are used to make microbiological growth media? A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Algae D. Protozoa
C. Algae
The host's first line of defense mechanisms are: A. Skin and tears B. Cilia on mucous membranes C. All of the above D. A only
C. All of the above
When a patient's immune system becomes reactive to a drug, this is an example of: A. Superinfection B. Drug resistance C. Allergy D. Toxicity
C. Allergy
This is the only form of the blood-borne flagellates which is non-flagellated A. Promastigote B. Epimastigote C. Amastigote D. Trypomastigote
C. Amastigote
Protozoa with "false feet" A. Ciliates B. Flagellates C. Amoeba D. Sporozoites
C. Amoeba
A large protein molecules evoked in response to an antigen that interacts specifically with that antigen is called: A. An antitoxin B. An antiserum C. An antibody D. Any of the above
C. An antibody
Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions that occur immediately upon re-exposure of a sensitized individual to an antigen A. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions B. Cytotoxic reactions C. Anaphylactic reactions D. Immune complex reactions E. Cell-mediated reactions
C. Anaphylactic reactions
An acute, viral, infectious disease of the CNS, which affects all warm-blooded animals, including humans: A. Rabies B. Hydrophobia C. Any of the above D. None of the above
C. Any of the above
Infection of the oral mucosa membrane by a fungus; A. Thrush B. Oral candidiasis C. Any of the above D. None of the above
C. Any of the above
The techniques used in carrying out genetic engineering: A. Recombinant DNA technology B. Biotechnology C. Any of the above D. None of the above
C. Any of the above
T-cell epitopes are those regions of an immunogen that A. Bind specifically to IgM and IgD on the surface of B cells B. Bind to Fc receptors on macrophages C. Are bound by MHC antigens, presented to T cells and for which specific T-cell receptors are present D. Bind to receptor on polymorphonuclear leukocytes and aid in the subsequent opsonization of the immunogen
C. Are bound by MHC antigens, presented to T cells and for which specific T-cell receptors are present
The simplest and most efficient method of providing specific protection against a communicable disease A. Disinfection B. Vaccination C. Artificial active immunization D. Passive immunization
C. Artificial active immunization
Psychrophilic bacteria are those that grow best A. In oxygen-free environments B. At pH levels of 8 or above C. At cold temperatures D. Only in the presence of viruses
C. At cold temperatures
A toxoid is A. Endotoxin B. Exotoxin C. Attenuated toxin D. Poison
C. Attenuated toxin
In theory of planned behavior, this refers to individual's evaluation of a behavior. A. Subjective norm B. Behavioral control C. Attitude D. Action E. Contemplation
C. Attitude
These organisms do not require organic nutrients for growth. A. Heterotrophs B. Chemolithotrophs C. Autotrophs D. Psychotrophs
C. Autotrophs
Any mutant microorganism with a nutritional requirement that is absent in the parent microorganism is known as A. Mesotroph B. Phototroph C. Auxotroph D. Psychrotroph E. Halotroph
C. Auxotroph
The presence of a new bacteria in the blood is termed A. Septicemia B. Toxemia C. Bacteremia D. a secondary infection
C. Bacteremia
The process of binary fission proceeds most frequently in A. Viruses B. Protozo C. Bacteria D. Fungi
C. Bacteria
Penicillin is the DOC for the following infections caused by EXCEPT A. Treponema pallidum B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Bacteriodes fragilis D. Clostridium perfringens
C. Bacteriodes fragilis
Refers to those arising from microbial decomposition of various substrates associated with particular occupations. A. Chemical hazards B. Ergonomic hazards C. Biologic hazards D. Physical hazards E. Sociologic hazards
C. Biologic hazards
An insect vector which harbor part of the life cycle of the infective agent A. Mechanical B. Artificial C. Biological D. None
C. Biological
Deals with the data and laws of human mortality, morbidity and natality A. Statistics B. Epidemiology C. Biostatistics D. Ecology
C. Biostatistics
Anti-infective agents should only be used when: A. A significant infection has been diagnosed or is strongly suspected B. An established indication for prophylactic therapy exists C. Both A & B D. A only
C. Both A & B
Causative agent for Undulant fever. A. Bartonella henselae B. Borrelia burgdorferi C. Brucella melitensis D. Bacillus anthracis E. Bordetella pertussis
C. Brucella melitensis
In human, the primary lymphatic organ include A. Thymus and liver B. Spleen and kidney C. Bursa-equivalent regions and the thymus D. Stomach and the lung
C. Bursa-equivalent regions and the thymus
This is made by churning cream until the fatty globules separate. A. Cheese B. Curd C. Butter D. Cream E. Whey
C. Butter
AIDS patients infected with TB are likely to react less vigorously to tuberculin test because of the deficiency of A. Platelets B. CD8 C. CD4 D. B cells
C. CD4
Reactions involved in the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis constitute the A. Krebs cycle B. Entner-Duodoroff pathway C. Calvin-Benson cycle D. Pentose phosphate pathway
C. Calvin-Benson cycle
This organism is usually acquired by fishermen eating raw small brackfish water fish called "bagsit" ( Hypseleotris bipartite ) A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichinella spiralis C. Capillaria philippinensis D. Trichuris trichura
C. Capillaria philippinensis
Pending the results of cultures, meningitis in children 8-10 months of age should be treated with A. Ampicillin B. Pen G C. Cefortaxime D. Tetracycline
C. Cefortaxime
A 27 year old white man returning from a 2 - month active duty in Panama was hospitalized with chills and fever, and a unilateral conjunctivitis with facial edema and regional lymphagitis. Stained thin blood smears revealed extracellular trypomastigotes. What is the most probable diagnosis? A. African trypanosoniasis B. Babesiosis C. Chaga's disease D. Malaria E. Lymphatic filariasis
C. Chaga's disease
This antibacterial agent claimed its glory by being the first broad spectrum antibiotic introduced. It contains a nitrobenzene nucleus, which is responsible for some of its toxic side effects. It blocks the action of peptidyl transferase, thereby preventing peptide bond synthesis. Currently its main indication is for infections of Salmonella typi A. Erythromycin B. Doxycycline C. Chloramphenicol D. Vancomycin
C. Chloramphenicol
This expensive drug is given for dapsone-resistant M.leprae A. Thalidomide B. Para-aminosalicylic acid C. Clofazime D. Rifampicin
C. Clofazime
Workers associated with occupational exposure to lead include all of the following except A. Battery makers B. Painters C. Coal miners D. Gasoline station attendant
C. Coal miners
A group of serum proteins involved in phagocytosis & lysis of bacteria A. Neutrophils B. Opsonins C. Complement system D. Immunoglobulins E. Major histocompatibility complex
C. Complement system
Transfer of genetic materials which involves sex pilus A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Conjugation D. Transposition
C. Conjugation
A common preventable lifelong mental and physical retardation in the fetus and infant brought about by iodine deficiency. A. Goiter B. Anemia C. Cretinism D. Parasitism E. Xerophthalmia
C. Cretinism
In an acute inflammatory reaction: A. Kallikrein and bradykinin are not formed B. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are not released C. Cross-reactive protein appears, binds to bacterial cell walls and begins the complement cascade. D. The Hageman factor is not involved
C. Cross-reactive protein appears, binds to bacterial cell walls and begins the complement cascade.
The following are fungal infections of the skin and nails, except: A. Tinea pedis B. Tinea capitis C. Cryptococcus neoformans D. Tinea corporis E. Malassezia furfur
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
Vector-borne diseases, except: A. Trypanosomiasis B. Lyme disease C. Cryptosporidiosis D. Yellow fever E. Plague
C. Cryptosporidiosis
Algicide used in swimming pools A. Crystal violet B. Gentian violet C. Cupric sulfate D. Methylene blue E. Ferric oxide
C. Cupric sulfate
Inhibits the mucopeptide synthesis by affecting alanine racemase A. Amphotericin B B. Colistin C. Cycloserine D. Methicillin
C. Cycloserine
The following is a streptogramin, a unique group of antibiotics A. Streptomycin B. Amikacin C. Dalfopristin D. Azithromycin E. Clarithromycin
C. Dalfopristin
A sample of E. coli has been subjected to heat for a specified time and 90% of the cells have been destroyed. Which of the following terms best describes this event? A. Thermal death point B. Thermal death time C. Decimal reduction time D. None of the above
C. Decimal reduction time
In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that health promotion should support personal and social development through providing information, education for health, and enhancing life skills. A. Create supportive environments B. Strengthen community actions C. Develop personal skills D. Build healthy public policy E. Reorient health services
C. Develop personal skills
It is true to say that the lymphatic system A. Is the richest source of secretory IgA B. Is primarily involved in the innate response to infection C. Drain into the left subclavian vein near the heart D. Is very rich in platelets
C. Drain into the left subclavian vein near the heart
Natural resistance to malaria caused by Plasmodium vivax has been demonstrated in populations who are A. Duffy blood group antigen-positive B. G6PD deficient C. Duffy blood group antigen-negative D. All of the above
C. Duffy blood group antigen-negative
A 5 year old girl spent a year attending schoolon West Africa. She returnes to the US because of poor sleeping and intense itching in her anal area. Anal swab samples of the patient would most likely contain the larvae of which organism? A. Wuchereria bancorft B. Trichinella spiralis C. Enterobius vermicularis D. Schistosoma japponicum
C. Enterobius vermicularis
Helminth infections will cause an increase in A. NK cells B. Dendritic macrophages C. Eosinophils D. Pre-B cells
C. Eosinophils
According to the frequency of occurrence, a disease that is acquired by many in a given area in a short time is A. Sporadic B. Endemic C. Epidemic D. Pandemic
C. Epidemic
The body louse is the bector for A. Leptospirosis B. Pinta C. Epidemic relapsing fever D. Meningitis
C. Epidemic relapsing fever
This is also known as the Giant intestinal fluke A. Fasciola hepatica B. Clonorchis sinensis C. Fasciolopsis buski D. Schistosoma japonicum
C. Fasciolopsis buski
Which of the following is the preferred method of sterilizing liquids containing toxins, vaccines and enzymes? A. Pasteurization B. Autoclaving C. Filtration D. Refrigeration E. NOTA
C. Filtration
These are straight filaments arising from the bacterial cell wall, making the bacterium look like porcupine A. Capsules B. Endospores C. Fimbriae D. Flagella
C. Fimbriae
Hepatitis C virus belongs to this family A. Picornaviridae B. Hepadnaviridae C. Flaviviridae D. Deltaviridae E. Caliciviridae
C. Flaviviridae
This is the ARBOvirus family from which the dengue fever and yellow fever virus are classified A. Bunyaviridae B. Togaviridae C. Flaviviridae D. Caliciviridae
C. Flaviviridae
Vector of Hymenolepiasis. A. Chigger mite B. Tick C. Flea D. Fly E. Crab
C. Flea
This is an important antifungal agent which inhibits DNA synthesis and is active only on yeasts (candida and Cryptococcus ) A. Griseofulvin B. Miconazole C. Flucytosine D. Amphotericin
C. Flucytosine
The type of interferon present late in an infection is A. Alpha-interferon B. Beta-interferon C. Gamma-interferon D. Delta-interferon
C. Gamma-interferon
Which type of anthrax is more common in animals than humans? A. Cutaneous anthrax B. Inhalation anthrax C. Gastrointestinal anthrax D. Mucoid anthrax
C. Gastrointestinal anthrax
The time required for a cell to undergo binary fission is called the A. Exponential growth rate B. Growth curve C. Generation time D. Lag period
C. Generation time
This is the average time required for the population , or the biomass of an organism to double A. Lag time B. Growth rate constant C. Generation time D. Priming time
C. Generation time
The following aminoglycosides are derived from Streptomyces, except: A. Streptomycin B. Tobramycin C. Gentamicin D. Neomycin E. Spectinomycin
C. Gentamicin
A protozoan which has high incidence of infection among campers and backpackers after drinking from "clear" mountain streams. A. Entamoeba B. Trychomonas C. Giardia D. Toxoplasma
C. Giardia
This is the causative agent of the so called"Leningrad's curse" A. Entamoeba B. Trychomonas C. Giardia D. Toxoplasma
C. Giardia
The differential stain which provides for grouping of all true bacteria as either stain-positive or stain-negative; A. Simple stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Gram-stain D. Any of the above
C. Gram-stain
The presence of theis antigen indicates high infectivity and active disease of Hepa B virus A. HBsAg B. HBeAg C. HBcAg D. Anti HBeAg
C. HBcAg
Causative agent of chancroid, or the painful genital ulcers which are accompanied by inguinal swelling or "bubo". A. Molluscum contagiosum virus B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Trichomonas vaginalis E. Klebsiella granulomatis
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
A man with blood group phenotype AB A. May donate blood to individuals with blood type O B. Has anti-A and anti-B in his serum C. Has A and B antigen in his RBC D. May be given blood type AB, A, or B but not Type O
C. Has A and B antigen in his RBC
An AIDS patient who received a tuberculin test 48 hours after showed a weak erythematous skin reaction (6mm in diameter) at the site of injection. What is the proper interpretation for the observation? The patient, A. Has never been exposed to TB bacilli B. Has active TB C. Has been exposed to TB bacilli D. Is infected with multidrug-resistant TB bacilli
C. Has been exposed to TB bacilli
Helper T cells A. Have CD8 on their cell surface B. Have IgM on their cell surface C. Have CD4 on their cell surface D. Have IgD on their cell surface
C. Have CD4 on their cell surface
The most likely cells to be lysed when treated with anti-CD4 antibody and complement are A. Cytotoxic t cells B. Macrophages C. Helper T cells D. B cells
C. Helper T cells
This was the first vaccine in human used to be made by recombinant DNA technology A. Polio vaccine B. Rabies vaccine C. Hepa B D. Measles vaccine
C. Hepa B
Varicella is a member of which of the following viral families A. Pox virus B. Adenovirus C. Herpes virus D. Paramyxovirus
C. Herpes virus
Tetracycline may be the DOC for all EXCEPT A. LGV B. Inclusion conjunctivitis C. Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella D. Psittacosis
C. Hospital-acquired PNX due to Klebsiella
The smallest tapeworm infecting humans. A. Taenia saginata B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Hymenolepsis nana D. Hymenolepsis diminuta E. Dipylidium caninum
C. Hymenolepsis nana
this is the smallest tapeworm that infects humans A. Taenia solium B. Taenia saginata C. Hymenolepsis nana D. Echinococcus granulosus
C. Hymenolepsis nana
The active antimicrobial agent in bleach is: A. Phenol B. Hydrochloride C. Hypochlorite D. Iodine E. Bromide
C. Hypochlorite
Which of the following organisms are correctly paired with their microbial organelles or components known to enhance their virulence or invasiveness? I. M protein of Strep. pyogenes II. Pili of N. gonorrhoeae III. Mesosome of Staph. aureus A. I only B. II only C. I and II D. I and III E. I, II and III
C. I and II
Member(s) of the phylum Apicomplexa with motile zygote I. Cryptosporidium II. Plasmodium III. Toxoplasma A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
One important generalization for RNA viruses is that they are usually enveloped. Among the RNA viruses there are three which are naked. Which of the following is/are naked RNA viruses? I. Picornavirus II. Reovirus III. Retrovirus A. I B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I,II and III
C. I and II only
There are generally two types of stain ,a n Acidic and Basic stain. Which is/are true statement/s about Basic stains I. They are composed of colored cation with a colorless anion II. They combine with negatively charged phosphate present in bacterial cells III. They are used in negative staining A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
This is/ are examples of nematodes which is/are acquired thru the ingestion of eggs I. Ascaris lumbricoides II. Trichuris trichura III. Strongyloides stercoralis A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
This is/are example/s of antihelminthic drugs which produce/s their effects by inducing paralysis of the worm I. Praziquantel II. Mebendazole III. Diethylcarbamazine A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
This is/are possible ways in which bacteria may gain resistance to antibacterial agents I. Alteration of the target site II. Synthesis of enzymes that modify or destroy the antibacterial agent III. Presence of capsule inn a bacteria A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
This is/are statement(s) pertaining to the rabies virus I. Brain cells of infected animals and humans contain virions in the cytoplasm called Negri bodies II. Bitten individual should receive human rabies immune globulin(passive immunization) III. Killed rabies virus vaccine (active immunization) is given only as prophylaxis for rabies. A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
This/ These is/are the common viral organism/s I. Rhinovirus II. Coronavirus III. Flavivirus A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
This/ These statement/s is/are true for HSV-1 I. Causes gingivostomatitis II. Causes herpetic keratitis III. An STD A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
Which of the following Hepavirus is/are example of RNA virus I. Hepa A II. Hepa B III.Hepa C A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
Which of the following belong/s to the group of the ARBOvirus? I. Bunyaviridae II. Falviviridae Coronaviridae A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
Which of the following is/are transmitted via fecal oral route? I. Hepa A II. Hepa B III.Hepa C A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for Natural-Killer cells I. Recognize and destroy certain tumor cells II. Lyse virus-infected cells III. Involve in delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
C. I and II only
This is/are forces or bonds involved in the interaction between an antigen and an antibody I. Covalent bonds II. Van der waals III. H-bonds A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I, II and III
C. II and III only
In staphylococci, antibiotic resistance genes can exist on plasmids or chromosomes. The genes are carried by I. Prophage II. Free DNA III. Transposons A. I only B. II inly C. III only D. I and III only E. I,II and III
C. III only
Opsonin-treated bacteria are more readily engulfed by phagocytes than are untreated bacteria because I. The capsule is removed by opsonin II. Opsonin digests wall component III. The surgace of phagocytes contains receptors for opsonins A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I and III
C. III only
This is/are clinical manifestations of C. trachomatis I. Lymphogranuloma venereum II. Perinatal conjunctivitis III. Otitis-media in young children A. I only B. II inly C. III only D. I and III only E. I,II and III
C. III only
Which statement is true for passive immunization I. Provides long lasting protection II. Provides protection without hypersensitivity III. Provides immediate protection A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and III only E. II and III only
C. III only
A patient contracted athlete's foot after long-term use of a medication. His physician explained that the malady was directly related to the medication. Such infections are termed: A. Nosocomial infections B. Exogenous infection C. Iatrogenic infections D. Endogenous infections
C. Iatrogenic infections
This antibody optimizes bacteria, fixes complement, neutralizes bacterial toxins and viruses and it is the only bacteria that crosses the placenta. A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgE E. IgD
C. IgG
The presence of this in the serum of the patient with hepatitis will ascertain that the patient have an old Hepatitis B infection A. Anti HBsAg B. IgM-Anti HBcAg C. IgG-Anti HBcAg D. Anti HBeAg
C. IgG-Anti HBcAg
Antibody that is produced first in response to a primary infection A. IgG B. IgA C. IgM D. IgD E. IgE
C. IgM
An acquired resistance to an infectious agent due to prior contact with that agent is known as : A. Vaccination B. Immunization C. Immunity D. Any of the above
C. Immunity
Diagnostic lab techniques most frequently employed for the visual microscopic detection of antigens in tissue sections, in cells suspensions, or on cell monolayers include A. Agglutination B. Radioimmunoassay C. Immunofluorescence D. Precipitation
C. Immunofluorescence
The interval between initial infection and the first appearance of any signs or symptoms is known as A. Prodromal period B. Infection period C. Incubation period D. Period if illness E. Period of convalescence
C. Incubation period
The first person to become sick in an epidemic A. Contact B. Primary case C. Index case D. Secondary case
C. Index case
Botulism is brought by A. Invasion of the gut epithelium by the organism B. Secretion of an enterotoxin C. Ingestion of neurotoxin D. Activation of cyclic AMP
C. Ingestion of neurotoxin
Quinolones are bactericidal agents which act by A. Inhibition of beta-lactamase B. Inhibition of revered transcriptase C. Inhibition of chromosome supercoiling D. Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibition of chromosome supercoiling
In a broth dilution method of antimicrobial susceptibility testing, the tube with the lowest concentration of antimicrobial in which there is no visible growth is the minimal: A. Antimicrobial concentration B. Bactericidal concentration C. Inhibitory concentration D. Lethal concentration
C. Inhibitory concentration
A graft from twin brother to sister A. Allograft B. Xenograft C. Isograft D. Autograft E. Transgraft
C. Isograft
Which of the following drugs cannot be used to treat cases of multidrug- resistant (MDR) tuberculosis? A. Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide B. Rifampicin and Ethambutol C. Isoniazid and Rifampicin D. Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide E. Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide
C. Isoniazid and Rifampicin
This organism is one of the important cause of severe darrhea in immunocompromised individuals such as patients with AIDS A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Giardia lamblia C. Isospora belli D. Strongyloides stercolis
C. Isospora belli
Fixed macrophages that protect and reside in the liver A. Osteoclast B. Alveolar macrophages C. Kupffer cells D. Histocytes E. Sinusoids
C. Kupffer cells
The part of the bacterial growth curve that reflects an adjustment to the media and a replenishment of the pools of metabolic intermediates is the: A. Stationary phase B. Exponential phase C. Lag phase D. Death phase E. Interphase
C. Lag phase
Vaccine for Rubeola A. Toxoid B. Toxin C. Living attenuated microorganisms D. Killed attenuated microorganisms
C. Living attenuated microorganisms
His experiments on aseptic techniques disapproved the Theory of Spontaneous Generation A. Robert Hooke B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek C. Louis Pasteur D. Robert Koch E. Joseph Lister
C. Louis Pasteur
Finding intraerythrocytic trophozoite, schizont and gametocyte stages in stained thin blood smears during febrile periods is the usual means of diagnosis of A. African trypanosomiasis B. American trypanosomiasis C. Malaria D. Toxoplasmacosis E. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Malaria
This phase in the bacterial growth curve represents the time where exhaustion of nutrients or the accumulation of toxic products causes growth to cease completely. There is slow loss of cells through death, which is just balanced by the formation of new cells through growth and division. This is a period where the total count slowly increases although the variable count stays constant. A. Lag time B. Exponential phase C. Maximum stationary phase D. Death phase
C. Maximum stationary phase
The drug of choice for the treatment of trichuriasis. A. Albendazole B. Praziquantel C. Mebendazole D. Metronidazole E. Both A and B
C. Mebendazole
This is the drug of choice for patients having Ascariasis A. Pyrantel pamoate B. Invermectin C. Mebendazole D. Praziquantel
C. Mebendazole
A/an___is a passive animal transporter of pathogens. A. Zoonosis B. Biological vector C. Mechanical vector D. Asymptomatic carrier
C. Mechanical vector
This is also known as Mixed-Acid Fermentation. A. Voges-Proskauer test B. Citrate test C. Methyl red test D. 2,3 - Butanediol Fermentation test E. Both A and D
C. Methyl red test
This drug is important in the management of parasites and anaerobic bacteria A. Rifabutin B. Rifampicin C. Metronidazole D. Nitrofrantoin
C. Metronidazole
Consider the ff. case, an animal was infected with a virus. A mosquito bit the animal, was contaminated with the virus, and proceeded to bite and infect a person. Which was the vector? A. Animal B. Virus C. Mosquito D. Person
C. Mosquito
Koplik's spots seen among patients with measles are usually localized in the A. Upper Extremities B. Lower Extremities C. Mouth D. Scalp
C. Mouth
This is probably the only bacterium that grows in the peripheral nervous system. A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium botulinum C. Mycobacterium leprae D. Listeria monocytogenes E. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Mycobacterium leprae
These antibacterial agents prevent the supercoiling of the bacterial chromosomes A. Macrolides B. Rifampicin C. Nalidixic acid D. Clindamycin
C. Nalidixic acid
Which of the following is also known as the New world hookworm? A. Trypanosoma cruzi B. Ancylostoma duodenale C. Necator americanus D. Wuchereria bancrofti E. Brugia malayi
C. Necator americanus
Botulinum toxin is classified as a A. Cytotoxin B. Enterotoxin C. Neurotoxin D. Endotoxin E. Phytotoxin
C. Neurotoxin
Collective term for microbes on and inside human bodies A. Microbial count B. Too numerous to count C. Normal microbiota D. Microbiofilm E. Biological flora
C. Normal microbiota
The primary effect of ultraviolet radiations is on microbial A. Carbohydrates B. Enzymes C. Nucleic acids D. Cell walls
C. Nucleic acids
Characteristics of the causative agent of tetanus, except: A. Gram positive B. Produces endospores C. Obligate aerobe D. Transmitted through contaminated soil E. Produces a potent neurotoxin
C. Obligate aerobe
Metronidazole is active against A. Aerobic bacteria B. Facultatively anaerobic bacteria C. Obligately anaerobic bacteria D. Neisseria meningitidis E. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Obligately anaerobic bacteria
Dry heat is often used to sterilize: A. Saline solutions B. Bacterial media C. Oily materials D. Hospital blankets
C. Oily materials
this is the malarial species that causes the called "Quartan malaria" A. P.ovale C. P.malariae B. P.vivax D. P.falciparum
C. P.malariae
sulphonamides are drugs acting as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors by competing this substrate A. Aminoacyl C. PABA B. ATP D. Peptidyl tRNA
C. PABA
A symbiotic relationship where one organism lives in or on another, depending on the latter for its survival and usually at the expense of the host. A. Commensalism B. Mutualism C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis E. NOTA
C. Parasitism
A type of relationship that involve one-sided beneficial relationship which usually ending up in a harmful relationship for one organism. A. Commensalism B. Mutualism C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis
C. Parasitism
The term defined as the ability of a microorganism to cause disease is: A. Pathogenesis B. Virulence C. Pathogenicity D. All of the above
C. Pathogenicity
A diagnostic technique used to recover eggs of Enterobius vermicularis and Taenia spp. A. Scotch tape method B. Kato katz method C. Perianal swab D. Direct fecal smear E. Kato tick method
C. Perianal swab
These are organisms characterized to have flagella all over the cell body A. Lopotrichous B. Atrichous C. Peritrichous D. Amphitrichous
C. Peritrichous
It is the country's first blueprint for achieving nutritional adequacy for all Filipinos which is coordinated by the National Nutrition Council. A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN) B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal C. Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (PPAN) D. Early Childhood Development project E. Safe Motherhood
C. Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (PPAN)
Causative agent for the public lice infestation, which are commonly called "crabs". A. Human papilloma virus B. Molluscum contagiosum virus C. Phthirus pubis D. Herpes simplex virus E. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Phthirus pubis
Common term for Enterobius vermicularis. A. Threadworm B. Fluke C. Pinworm D. Flatworm E. Hookworm
C. Pinworm
Which type of cell actually secretes antibodies? A. T cells B. Macrophages C. Plasma cells D. Monocytes
C. Plasma cells
The most common and deadliest plasmodia A. Plasmodium vivax B. Plasmodium ovale C. Plasmodium falciparum D. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium falciparum
fungus formely classified as a parasitic Sporozoan affecting patients with immune deficiency. A. Microsporidium B. Cryptosporidium C. Pneumocystis D. Blastomyces
C. Pneumocystis
Progressive dyspnea resulting from the alveolocapillary blockage caused by asexually reproducing trophozoites that fail to evoke a tissue macrophage response describe the pathogenicity of A. Cystecercosis B. Paragonimiasis C. Pneumocystosis D. Pulmonary ascariasis E. Pulmonary schistosomiasis
C. Pneumocystosis
This is the most common opportunistic infection among AIDS patients A. Cryptosporidiosis B. Isosporosis C. Pneumonia D. Toxoplasmosis
C. Pneumonia
A technique where a small samples of DNA can be quickly amplified for analysis A. Hybridoma B. Recombinant DNA C. Polymerase Chain Reaction D. Cloning E. Fluorescence
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
Which of the following may be used as preventive method in the prevention of botulinum spore germination in food? A. Maintaining food in basic pH B. Storing food at cool temp(8-15 C) C. Preheat food at 80C for 30 mins D. Administration of polyvalent antitoxin
C. Preheat food at 80C for 30 mins
Proportion of population suffering from a disease at a given time: A. Incidence rate B. Morbidity rate C. Prevalence rate D. None
C. Prevalence rate
Which of the following modes of action would be most selectively toxic? A. Interrupting ribosomal function B. Dissolving the cell membrane C. Preventing cell wall synthesis D. Inhibiting DNA replication
C. Preventing cell wall synthesis
A spectrum of diseases arising from a diet that is poor in protein and calories, especially in children under five. A. Iodine deficiency disorders B. Marasmus C. Protein energy malnutrition D. Kwashiorkor E. Xerophthalmia
C. Protein energy malnutrition
This is given together with isoniazid for patients with TB to prevent its neurologic side effects A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Pyridoxine D. Pyrazinamide
C. Pyridoxine
Which organism will be most affected by a drug that will inhibit ATP synthesis? A. Mycoplasma pneumonia B. Ureaplasma urealyticum C. R. rickettsia D. N. gonorrhoeae
C. R. rickettsia
The mechanisms of antibiotic resistance include the following except: A. Preventing the entry of the drug to the target site within the microbial cell B. Alteration of the drug's target site C. Rapid entry of the antibiotic to the cell D. Inactivation of the drug by microbial enzymes E. Mutation of the bacteria due to antibiotic misuse
C. Rapid entry of the antibiotic to the cell
Sparganosis, cysticercosis, trichinosis and toxoplasmosis have this in common A. Immunodeficiency B. Neuropathy C. Raw meat D. Transplacental E. Tapeworms
C. Raw meat
Vector of Trypanosoma cruzi A. Sand Fly (Phlebotomus) B. Tsetse Fly (Glossina) C. Reduviid (Kissing Bug) D. Black Fly (Simulium)
C. Reduviid (Kissing Bug)
Generally RNA viruses are single stranded viral organism. Which of the following is the only double-stranded RNA virus A. Rhinovirus B. Coronavirus C. Reovirus D. Orthomyxovirus
C. Reovirus
Extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis is defined as: A. Resistance to both the first line drugs B. Resistance to both first line drugs and at least one of the six main classes of second-line drugs C. Resistance to both the first line drugs and at least three of the six main classes of second-line drugs D. Resistance to both first line drugs and at least four of the six main classes of second-line drugs E. Resistance to both the first line and all of the six main classes of second-line drugs
C. Resistance to both the first line drugs and at least three of the six main classes of second-line drugs
The following statements about resistance to antimicrobial drugs are true except: A. Resistance to chloramphenicol is due to enzyme that acetylates the drug B. Resistance to penicillin is due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases C. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage of β- lactamase D. Resistance to tetracycline is due to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester linkages E. Resistance to anti-TB drugs is due to mutation of the bacteria
C. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage of β- lactamase
This condition that results when children with influenza or varicella are given Aspirin A. Herxheimer reaction B. Salicylism C. Reye syndrome D. Asthma
C. Reye syndrome
A severe complication of chickenpox, influenza, and other viral diseases which affects children and is aggravated by the use of aspirin A. Raynaud's phenomenon B. Q fever C. Reye's syndrome D. Rocky mountain spotted fever E. Gray baby syndrome
C. Reye's syndrome
Theses are common bread molds which cause much food spoilage and grow on bread, vegetables, fruits and other food products. A. Mucor B. Saccharomyces C. Rhizopus D. Schizosaccharomyces E. Agaricus
C. Rhizopus
A German physician given credit for developing pure-culture techniques A. Joseph Lister B. Emil von Behring C. Robert Koch D. Paul Ehrlich
C. Robert Koch
Waste materials such as bottles, broken glass, tin cans, are called A. Refuse B. Sewage C. Rubbish D. Garbage E. Night soil
C. Rubbish
First proposed the theory of Biogenesis, which states that life must arise from pre-existing life A. Louis Pasteur B. John Tyndall C. Rudolf Virchow D. Lazaro Spallanzani
C. Rudolf Virchow
An obligate halophile requires high A. pH B. Temperature C. Salt D. Pressure
C. Salt
Also known as Oriental blood fluke. A. Paragonimus westermanii B. Fasciola hepatica C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Clonorchis sinensis E. Fasciolopsis buski
C. Schistosoma japonicum
This infection requires Oncomelania snails as intermediate hosts. A. Paragonimus westrmani B. Fasciola hepatica C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Clonorchis sinensis E. Fasciolopsis buski
C. Schistosoma japonicum
The event that correlates with the presence of fever paroxysm in Plasmodium vivax malaria is A. Invasion of hepatocytes by sporozoites B. Invasion of new RBC by merozoites C. Schizont rupture D. Gametocytes
C. Schizont rupture
This is a diagnostic test for the presence of Enterobius vermicularis A. Kato thick method B. Kato-katz method C. Scotch tape swab method D. Brine flotation technique
C. Scotch tape swab method
Important index of measuring the communicability of a disease A. Primary attack rate B. Incidence rate C. Secondary attack rate D. Crude birth rate
C. Secondary attack rate
This type of media suppresses growth of unwanted microbes and encourage growth of desired microbes. A. Enrichment media B. Differential media C. Selective media D. Reducing media E. Chemically defined media
C. Selective media
A life-threatening decrease in blood pressure caused by bacteria is referred to as A. Shock B. Technical knock-out C. Septic shock D. Hypotension E. Anemia
C. Septic shock
The systemic infection associated with microorganisms multiplying in circulating blood is: A. Bacteremia B. Viremia C.Septicemia D. None of the above
C. Septicemia
The MIC is the _____ of a drug that is required to inhibit growth of a microbe A. Largest concentration B. Standard dose C. Smallest concentration D. Lowest dilution
C. Smallest concentration
The type of reproduction in prokaryotes that results in a palisade of cells is called A. Pleomorphic division B. Endospore formation C. Snapping division D. Binary fission
C. Snapping division
The most important feature of immunologic tolerance is its A. Dependence on dosage B. Dependence on the nature of the tolerated substance C. Specificity D. Dependence on the generic makeup of the individual
C. Specificity
Which of the following terms best describes stiff, spiral-shaped prokaryotic cell? A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Spirilla D. Spirochetes
C. Spirilla
This is an example of a subcutaneous mycosis. A. Tinea infection B. Rubella C. Sporotrichosis D. Cryptococcosis E. Candidiasis
C. Sporotrichosis
The process of all elimination of all microbes from a material by physical means A. Sanitation B. Disinfection C. Sterilization D. Antisepsis
C. Sterilization
The stemlike portion of a seaweed is called its A. Thallus B. Holdfast C. Stipe D. Blade
C. Stipe
This statement, "In the laboratory, a sterile inoculating loop moved across the agar surface in a culture dish, thinning a sample and isolating individuals," describes which of the following? A. Broth culture B. Pour plate C. Streak plate D. Dilution plate
C. Streak plate
This is the commonest cause of pneumonia and still responds well to penicillin despitea global in isolates showing reduced susceptibility to this agent. A. Legionella pneumophila B. Mycoplasma pneumonia C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Haemophilus influenza E. Streptococcus pyogenes
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Quelling test is used to test for the presence of A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Staphlococcoss aureus C. Streptococos pneumoniae D. Mycoplasma pneumonia
C. Streptococos pneumoniae
Microbial source of tetracycline: A. Streptomyces erythreus B. Streptomyces griseus C. Streptomyces aureofaciens D. Streptomyces nodosus E. Streptomyces roseosporus
C. Streptomyces aureofaciens
Co-trimoxazole is a combination of: A. Sulfamethoxazole and clavulanic acid B. Sulfathiazole and trimethoprim C. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim D. Sulfathiazole and clavulanic acid E. None of the above
C. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
Secretory component is A. Synthesized by B cells B. Attached to secretory IgM C. Synthesized by epithelial cells D. Attached to IgG found in saliva
C. Synthesized by epithelial cells
This is the first known disease for which a chemotherapeutic agent was used. A. Mucormycosis B. Bubonic plague C. Syphilis D. HSV-1 E. Gonorrhea
C. Syphilis
DiGeorge's syndrome is a result of A. B-cell deficiency B. B and t-cell deficiency C. T-cell deficiency D. Phagocyte deficiency
C. T-cell deficiency
An adult patient with a history of severe penicillin allergy has a sore throat and low-grade fever. Results of a throat culture show a large number of beta-hemolytic streptococcal colonies. Of the following, which best suits the patient? A. Ampicillin B. Cephalothin C. Tetracycline D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin E. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline
Congenital syphilis can be best detected by the use of A. Dark-field examination B. Silver nitrate staining of the spirochetes C. The Wassermann Complement fixation test D. IgM-FTA-ABS test
C. The Wassermann Complement fixation test
For purposes of microbial control, the term sterilization implies: A. The removal of pathogenic forms of microorganisms B. The lowering of the microbial count C. The destruction of all forms of life D. The destruction of microorganisms only on body surface
C. The destruction of all forms of life
German measles virus is a member of which viral family A. Herpes B. Pox virus C. Togavirus D. Orthomyxovirus
C. Togavirus
Referred to as inactivated toxins that act as vaccines A. Exotoxins B. Endotoxins C. Toxoids D. Subunit vaccines E. Inactivated vaccines
C. Toxoids
Chlorampenicol binds to the 50s portion of a ribosome, which will interfere with: A. Transcription in prokaryotic cells B. Transcription in eukaryotic cells C. Translation in prokaryotic cells D. Translation in eukaryotic cells E. DNA synthesis
C. Translation in prokaryotic cells
Congenital infection, like rubella, occurs as a result of A. Viral toxins crossing the placenta B. Viral toxins impairing maternal nourishment of the fetus C. Transplacental spread of virus and growth in the fetus D. Autoimmune response of maternal cells against fetal tissue E. Child naturally has the infection
C. Transplacental spread of virus and growth in the fetus
A health behavior model that tackles individual's movement from one stage of behavior change to another as their cifidence in their ability to make this change increases. A. Health belief model B. Social cognitive theory C. Transtheoretical model D. Theory of reasoned action E. Ecologic model
C. Transtheoretical model
The toxin of E. coli that is very similar to the shiga toxin of Shigella dysenteriae is A. Heat-labile enterotoxin B. Heat-stable enterotoxin C. Verotoxin D. Exfoliative toxin
C. Verotoxin
Which of the following is not a spirochete? A. Treponema B. Leptospira C. Vibrio D. Borrelia E. None of the above
C. Vibrio
The human papilloma virus is the causative agent of A. Measles B. Chancre C. Warts D. Herpes
C. Warts
The effectiveness of a disinfectant is influenced by: A) Population size B) Duration of exposure C) Concentration of the disinfectant D) All of the above
D) All of the above
The intimate living together of members of two different species is known as: A) Mutualism B) Commensalism C) Symbiosis D) All of the above
D) All of the above
Specific nutrients transverse the cytoplasmic membrane of bacteria by: A) Activated transport B) Facilitated diffusion C) Carrier-mediated transport D) Any of the above
D) Any of the above
Bacterial genes responsible for drug resistance are known as: A) F plasmids B) R plasmids C) Transposons D) Both B and C
D) Both B and C
A cellular structure equated for drug resistance is the: A) Endospore B) Exospore C) Transposon D) Capsule
D) Capsule
Which of the following best describes the mode of action of endotoxin? A) Degrades lecithin in cell membranes B) Inactivates elongation factor-2 C) Blocks release of acetylcholine D) Causes the release of necrosis factor
D) Causes the release of necrosis factor
The following antibiotics interfere with the synthesis of proteins in microorganisms, except: A) Aminoglycosides B) Tetracyclines C) Lincomycin D) Cephalosporins
D) Cephalosporins
This organism is acquired by eating infected raw fish: A) Fasciola hepatica B) Fasciolopsis buski C) Paragonimus weatermani D) Chlonorchis sinensis
D) Chlonorchis sinensis
Anaerobic, gram positive with terminal spore affecting neutrotransmitters leading to excitatory neurons that are unopposed and extreme muscle spasm. A) Meningococcus B) Gonococcus C) Bacillus antracis D) Clostridium tetani E) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Clostridium tetani
The following events involve recombination of DNA, except: A) Transduction of a chromosomal gene B) Transposition of a mobile genetic element C) Integration of a temperate bacteriophage D) Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor
D) Conjugation, such as the transfer of a R (resistance) factor
In stained smear, it is usually seen in Chinese letter arrangement having metachromatic granules and may infect the respiratory system. A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium tetani C) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Clostridium dificile
D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
The bacterial toxin that causes cessation of mammalian protein synthesis by inactivating EF-2 of eukaryotic cells is produced by: A) Bacillus anthracis B) Clostridium botulinum C) Clostridium tetani D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae
The male ascaris is distinguished from the female because its tail is: A) Straight B) Slim C) Blunt D) Curved
D) Curved
This antibiotic has been found to be toxic, so its use has been limited only for the treatment of TB: A) Penicillin B) Bacitracin C) Vancomycin D) Cycloserine
D) Cycloserine
Gangcyclovir is beneficial in treating pneumonia and retinitis, while Acyclovir is ineffective. A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 B) Varicella-Zoster virus C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2 D) Cytomegalovirus E) Epstein-Barr virus
D) Cytomegalovirus
The diagnosis of early syphilis is best made by: A) Inoculating guinea pigs with lesion material and examining blood smears 3 days later B) Culture on chocolate agar and incubated with 10% carbon dioxide C) The VDRL test D) Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present
D) Dark-field microscopy of lesion scrapings if a chancre is present
Congenital rubella can be diagnosed in a week-old infant by: A) Demonstration of maternal IgM antibodies against rubella virus B) Testing for HI antibodies specific for the virus in the infant's serum C) Demonstration of circulating IgG antibodies against rubella virus D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant
D) Demonstration of rubella IgM antibodies in the infant
It causes hemorrhagic fever that can be life threatening. A) Hepatitis C virus B) Cytomegalovirus C) Human papilloma virus D) Dengue virus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
D) Dengue virus
The heat-stable lipopolysaccharide in the outer membrane of gram-negative cell wall that is toxic to the host is known as: A) Tetanospasmin B) Aflatoxin C) Enterotoxin D) Endotoxin
D) Endotoxin
A 55-year old man develops dysuria and hematuria. A gram stain of urine sample shows gram-negative rods. Culture of the urine on EMB agar reveals non-lactose fermenting colonies without evidence of swarming motility. Which of the following organisms is most likely to be the causative agent of his urinary tract infection? A) Streptococcus faecalis B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa C) Proteus vulgaris D) Escherichia coli
D) Escherichia coli
The intestinal tract is the only natural habitat of this lactose fermenting, facultative anaerobic, nosocomial pathogen: A) Pseudomonas aeruginosa B) Proteus vulgaris C) Klebsiella pneumoniae D) Escherichia coli
D) Escherichia coli
It is an aging process in the life cycle of lake, pond or slow moving river and stream brought about by the accumulation of nutrients needed to sustain aquatic plants and animals accompanied by an increase in the number of organisms: A) Acidification B) Alkalinification C) Nitrification D) Eutrophication E) None
D) Eutrophication
Which is the best method to sterilize Penicillin solution? A) Autoclaving B) Dry heat (oven) C) Ethylene oxide D) Filtration
D) Filtration
National Center for Disease Prevention and Control belongs to what function cluster: A) Internal Management B) Health Regulation C) External Affairs D) Health Regulation Development E) None of the above
D) Health Regulation Development
A causative agent of peptic ulcer: A) Escherichia coli B) Bordetella pertussi C) Shigella dysenteriae D) Helicobacter pylori
D) Helicobacter pylori
Caesarian section has been found to eliminate neonatal complications due to which of the following viruses? A) Varicella-zoster B) Cytomegalovirus C) Poliovirus D) Herpes simplex virus
D) Herpes simplex virus
Which one of the following statements is the most accurate comparison of human, bacterial and fungal cells? A) Human cells undergo mitosis, whereas neither bacteria nor fungi do. B) Human and fungal cells have similar cell wall, in contrast to bacteria whose cell wall contains peptidoglycan. C) Human and bacterial cells have plasmids, whereas fungal cells do not have. D) Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.
D) Human and fungal cells have similar ribosomes, whereas bacterial ribosomes are different.
The following statements concerning Interferon are correct, except: A) Interferon inhibits the growth of both DNA and RNA viruses. B) Interferon is induced by double-stranded DNA. C) Interferon of one species acts more effectively in the cells of that species. D) Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.
D) Interferon acts by preventing viruses from entering the cell.
Cysts of this organism are usually without glycogen vacuoles (Iodine cysts): A) Entamoeba coli B) Endolimax nana C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Iodamoeba butschlii E) Dientamoeba fragilis
D) Iodamoeba butschlii
It is the most effective skin antiseptic used in medical practice: A) Chlorine B) Merthiolate C) Hydrogen peroxide D) Iodine
D) Iodine
Bacillus anthracis possesses all of the following characteristic, except: A) It is a large, gram-positive rod B) It is a spore-former. C) It produces a potent exotoxin composed of three antigenically distinct thermolabile proteins. D) It can live inside phagocytic cells.
D) It can live inside phagocytic cells.
The following statements regarding the C3 component of the complement cascade are correct, except: A) It is involved in both the classic and the alternative pathways. B) Its C3a fragment can cause anaphylaxis by releasing histamines from mast cells. C) Its C3b fragment binds to both IgG and surface receptors on neutrophils. D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.
D) Its C3b fragment is part of the complex that causes lysis of gram-negative bacteria such as Neiserria.
In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrhea by: A) Its characteristic morphology and gram stain B) Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin medium C) The presence of pili D) Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
D) Its ability to ferment particular carbohydrate
The following are true for endospores, except: A) Highly resistant to disinfectants B) Can survive for many years, especially in soil C) Produced under condition of nutritional deprivation D) Killed by heating at 100oC
D) Killed by heating at 100oC
The causative agent of pneumonia acquired by inhalation from air-conditioners: A) Chlamydia pneumoniae B) Salmonella typhi C) Pneumocystis carinii D) Legionella pneumophila
D) Legionella pneumophila
It causes ringworm infection with whitish patches on human skin: A) Tinea capitis B) Tines corporis C) Trichophyton rubrum D) Malasseria furfur
D) Malasseria furfur
Organisms that can grow at body temperature: A) Thermophiles B) Psychrophiles C) Acidophiles D) Mesophiles
D) Mesophiles
The primary site of electron transport system in eukaryotes: A) Ribosomes B) Nucleus C) Cytoplasm D) Mitochondria
D) Mitochondria
The following statements concerning Chlamydia are correct, except: A) Chlamydia is a strict intracellular parasite because it cannot synthesize sufficient ATP. B) Chlamydia possesses both DNA and RNA and is bounded by a cell wall. C) Chlamydia trachomatis has multiple serotypes, whereas C. psittaci has only one serotype. D) Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods.
D) Most Chlamydias are transmitted by arthropods.
The following statements regarding the capsules of bacteria are correct, except: A) Most bacterial capsules are polysaccharides and serve to protect the bacteria by inhibiting phagocytosis. B) Bacterial capsules can vary antigenically, and as a result some bacteria have many serologic types. C) Bacterial capsules can be purified and used in vaccines against certain bacteria, example the Pneumococcus. D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.
D) Most gram-positive bacteria have capsules, whereas gram-negative bacteria rarely do.
The region of the body that contains the largest population of microbial flora: A) Skin B) Colon C) Vagina D) Mouth
D) Mouth
Several viruses infect the intestinal tract as their initial site of infection. Which one of the following is least likely to do this? A) Hepatitis A virus B) Poliovirus C) Rotavirus D) Mumps virus
D) Mumps virus
Which of the following strategies is most likely to induce lasting intestinal mucosal immunity to poliovirus? A) Parenteral (intramuscular) administration of inactivated vaccine B) Oral administration of poliovirus immunoglobulin C) Parenteral administration of live vaccine D) Oral administration of live vaccine
D) Oral administration of live vaccine
Neisseria are all: A) Gram positive B) Anaerobes C) Coagulase positive D) Oxidase positive
D) Oxidase positive
A thin proteinaceous appendage necessary for bacterial conjugation: A) Cilium B) Trichome C) Flagellum D) Pilus
D) Pilus
Rotavirus A) DNA enveloped virus B) DNA non-enveloped virus C) RNA enveloped virus D) RNA non-enveloped virus E) Viriod
D) RNA non-enveloped virus
An example of a streptococcal disease sequela: A) Scarlet fever B) Pharyngitis C) Puerperal sepsis D) Rheumatic fever
D) Rheumatic fever
The identification of bacteria by serologic test is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens? A) Capsule B) Flagella C) Cell wall D) Ribosomes
D) Ribosomes
This disinfectant is useful in preventing gonococcal ophthalmia neonatorum among infants whose patients have Gonorrhea: A) Merthiolate B) Mercurochrome C) Silver sulfadiazine D) Silver nitrate
D) Silver nitrate
A class in which only parasitic forms occur: A) Sarcodina B) Mastigophora C) Ciliata D) Sporozoa
D) Sporozoa
Norma flora of the skin but may cause "stitch abscess" and sepsis. A) Staphylococcus aureus B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Staphylococcus epidermidis E) Streptococcus agalactiae
D) Staphylococcus epidermidis
The following are communicable diseases, except: A) Measles B) Pneumonia C) Hepatitis D) Tetanus
D) Tetanus
The following are true about prokaryotes, except: A) They are relatively small. B) Their genes are dedicated to essential functions only. C) They lack autonomous organelles. D) Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.
D) Their genetic materials are enclosed in a nuclear membrane.
The following statements are true about endotoxins, except: A) They are also known as lipopolysaccharides. B) They are integral part of the cell walls of gram-negative bacteria. C) They are normally not as toxic as bacterial exotoxins. D) Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.
D) Their toxicity can be destroyed by autoclaving.
The following statements about influenza virus and rabies virus are correct, except: A) They are enveloped RNA viruses. B) Their virions contain RNA polymerase. C) Vaccines containing killed organisms are available for both viruses. D) They each have a single antigenic type.
D) They each have a single antigenic type.
Stimulates T cells to produce cytokines A) Diphtheria toxin B) Tetanus toxin C) Botulinum toxin D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin E) Cholera toxin
D) Toxic shock syndrome toxin
Rod-shaped bacteria curved to form commas are known as: A) Bacilli B) Cocci C) Spiral D) Vibrios
D) Vibrios
Net yield of ATP molecules in aerobic respiration of prokaryotes A. 2 mols ATP/glucose mol B. 24 mols ATP/glucose mol C. 36 mols ATP/glucose mol D. 38 mols ATP/glucose mol E. 4 mols ATP/glucose mol
D. 38 mols ATP/glucose mol
Gram-positive cells A. Have a thick cell wall, which retains crystal violet dye B. Contain teichoic acids in their cell walls C. Appear purple under magnification D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Interferons A. Do not protect the cell that secretes them B. Stimulate the activity of neutrophils C. Cause muscle aches, chills and fever D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Poor clinical results in antimicrobial chemotherapy may be due to: A. Choice of an effective antibiotic B. Giving an inadequate or excessive doses C. Continuing use after bacterial resistance has developed D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Virulence factors include: A. Toxins B. Enzymes C. Capsules D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Which of the following statements is true concerning the selection of an antimicrobial agent? A. An ideal antimicrobial agent is stable during storage B. An antimicrobial agent is fast acting C. Ideal microbial agents do not exist D. All of the above
D. All of the above
The ability of the immune system to deal with a tumor is influenced by the A. Location of the tumor B. Ability of the tumor to change its surface antigen C. Ability of the tumor to secrete blocking factors D. All of these
D. All of these
Drugs that act against protein synthesis include A. Beta-lactams B. Trimethoprim C. Polymyxin D. Aminoglycosides
D. Aminoglycosides
This is the most important agent used for severe systemic mycoses, but is toxic A. Ketoconazole B. Miconazole C. Flucytosine D. Amphotericin
D. Amphotericin
A lesion caused by the herpes simplex virus; A. Cold sore B. Fever blister C. Herpes labialis D. Any of the above
D. Any of the above
An acute, self-limiting, and highly contagious viral infection of the upper respiratory tract that produces inflammation, profuse discharge, and other symptoms: A. Common cold B. Coryza C. None of the above D. Any of the above
D. Any of the above
Heterogenetic antigens A. Are found in some members of a given species B. May show idiotypic variation C. Are specific to macrophages D. Are found in unrelated species
D. Are found in unrelated species
Redox reactions A. Transfer energy B. Transfer electrons C. Involve oxidation and reduction D. Are involved in all of the above
D. Are involved in all of the above
Coenzymes A. Are types of apoenzymes B. Are proteins C. Are inorganic cofactors D. Are organic cofactors
D. Are organic cofactors
Type of immunity resulting from vaccination A. Naturally acquired passive immunity B. Naturally acquired active immunity C. Artificially acquired passive immunity D. Artificially acquired active immunity E. Adaptive immunity
D. Artificially acquired active immunity
Which parasitic roundworm hatches in the upper small intestine and releases larves that penetrate the intestinal wall? A. Hymenolepis nana B. Diphyllobothrium latum C. Fasciola hepatica D. Ascaris lumbricoides
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
Which of the following adjectives best describes a surgical procedure that is free of microbial contaminants? A. Disinfected B. Sanitized C. Degermed D. Aseptic
D. Aseptic
Which of the following is the causative agent of Cat-scratch disease A. Chlamydia trachomatis B. Coxiella burnetii C. Rickettsia ricketssii D. Bartonella henselae
D. Bartonella henselae
A reference for taxonomic classification scheme for prokaryotes A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology C. Botanical taxonomy D. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology E. Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
D. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
Which of the following bacteria are spore formers? A. Bacillus B. Clostridium C. Salmonella D. Both A and B E. Both A and C
D. Both A and B
In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area for health promotion that combines diverse but complementary approaches including legislation, fiscal measures, taxation, and organizational change. A. Create supportive environments B. Strengthen community actions C. Develop personal skills D. Build healthy public policy E. Reorient health services
D. Build healthy public policy
What will be the transcribed sequence for the ff. DNA sequence of a gene - GACCTGCAT? A. CTGGACGTU B. CUGGUGCUA C. CTGGUCGTA D. CUGGACGUA E. CTGGUCGUA
D. CUGGACGUA
This is also known as the Welch method A. Gram stain B. Acid-fast stain C. Spore stain D. Capsule stain
D. Capsule stain
The endotoxin of gram-negative bacteria is associated with A. Mesosome B. Cytoplasmic membrane C. Capsule D. Cell wall
D. Cell wall
The following are RNA viruses except A. HIV B. Flu virus C. Rabies D. Chicken pox virus E. Ebola virus
D. Chicken pox virus
The following are found in the cell wall of certain bacteria. Which of the following is exclusively found among fungi? A. Teichoic acid B. Diaminopimelic acid C. Peptidoglycan D. Chitin
D. Chitin
Which of the following is not associated with prokaryotic organisms? A. Nucleoid B. Glycocalyx C. Cilia D. Circular DNA
D. Circular DNA
This is an example of a parasite of the bile duct and the gallbladder of humans and fish-eating mammals. A. Paragonimus westrmani B. Fasciola hepatica C. Schistosoma japonicum D. Clonorchis sinensis E. Fasciolopsis buski
D. Clonorchis sinensis
Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe? A. Micrococcus luteus B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Escherichia coli D. Clostridium perfringens E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Clostridium perfringens
Viruses that infect E. Coli A. Lytic B. Lysogenic C. DNA phages D. Coliphages E. Coliforms
D. Coliphages
The opaque whitish liquid secreted by mammary gland which gives infants certain degree of immunity to some infectious diseases. A. Colesterum B. Colostrom C. Colostomy D. Colostrum
D. Colostrum
Which of the following types of asexual spore is formed within a sac at the end of an aerial hypha? A. Blastospore B. Chlamydospore C. Endospore D. Conidiospore E. Arthrospore
D. Conidiospore
Vector of Paragonimiasis. A. Mosquito B. Fly C. Rat D. Crab E. Snail
D. Crab
Removal of transient microbes from the skin by mechanical cleansing or by the use of an antiseptic. A. Sterilization B. Antisepsis C. Sanitization D. Degerming E. Disinfection
D. Degerming
Contact dermatitis A. Immediate hypersensitivity B. Cytotoxic antibody C. Immune-complex disease D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity E. NOTA
D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity
Fixed phagocytes of the epidermis are called: A. Lysozymes B. Goblet cells C. Kupffer cells D. Dendritic cells
D. Dendritic cells
A cestode that competes with its host for dietary Vit. B12 A. Hymenolepsis nana B. Taenia solium C. Taenia saginata D. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
A routine method of stool examination primarily useful in the detection of motile protozoan trophozoites using 0.85% NSS. A. Scotch tape method B. Kato katz method C. Perianal swab D. Direct fecal smear E. Kato tick method
D. Direct fecal smear
This is the organism causing "Hydratid disease" A. Taenia solium B. Taenia saginata C. Hymenolepsis nana D. Echinococcus granulosus
D. Echinococcus granulosus
This disease is caused by the virus human parvovirus B19 and results in symptoms similar to a mild case of influenza and a "slapped cheek" facial rash. A. Exanthema subitum B. Roseola infantum C. Erythema multiforme D. Erythema infectiosum E. Shingles
D. Erythema infectiosum
This drug is thought to block the assembly of arabinogalactan polysaccharide by inhibition of an arabinotranferase enzyme. A. Rifampin B. Isoniazid C. Pyrazinamide D. Ethambutol E. Streptomycin
D. Ethambutol
Bacterial growth is expressed mathematically as ______, and this is a reflection of their growth by ________. A. Linear/budding B. Linear/binary fission C. Exponential fusion D. Exponential/binary fission
D. Exponential/binary fission
Lysol has a phenol coefficient of 5.0 against Staphylococcus aureus. On the other hand, Formalin has a 0.5 phenol coefficient. Which of the statements below is incorrect? A. Lysol is half as effective as Formalin B. Lysol is 4.5 times more effective than Formalin C. Formalin is twice more effective than phenol D. Formalin is half as effective as phenol E. Formalin is 5x better than Lysol
D. Formalin is half as effective as phenol
This is a form of the malarial parasite that is taken up ny the mosquito as it bites on human A. Sporozoites B. Merozoites C. Trophozoites D. Gametocytes
D. Gametocytes
Flagellated protozoa that cause gastroenteritis in humans include A. Entamoeba histolytca B. Trichomonas vaginalis C. Balantidium coli D. Giardia lamblia
D. Giardia lamblia
The first intestinal microorganism to be observed under a microscope is A. Entamoeba histolytica B. Cryptosporidium parvum C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Giardia lamblia
D. Giardia lamblia
Refers to both macronutrient deficiency and micronutrient deficiency. A. Epidemiologic transition B. Iceberg phenomenon C. Wasting D. Global malnutrition E. Double burden
D. Global malnutrition
The mucosal immune system includes the A. Popliteal lymph nodes B. Spleen C. Thymus D. Gut-associated lymphoid tissues
D. Gut-associated lymphoid tissues
A vaccine antigen that primarily induces opsonizing antibody is A. Hepatitis B virus vaccine B. MMR vaccine C. Rabies vaccine D. H. influenza Type B vaccine
D. H. influenza Type B vaccine
This is a parentallu transmitted(Blood-borne) hepatitis which can only replicate and cause infection with help of Hepatitis B virus A. HEV B. HAV C. HCV D. HDV
D. HDV
This type of hepatitis virus contains a single strand of RNA, which is not capable of causing an infection. It becomes infectious when an external envelope of HBsAG covers the protein core of the virus. A. HAV B. HBV C. HCV D. HDV E. HEV
D. HDV
According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, the single most important means of preventing the spread of nosocomial infection is A. Education on microbial control B. Disinfection of hospital instruments and devices C. Use of hand gel D. Handwashing E. Placing face masks on al infected patients
D. Handwashing
Refers to anything that has the potential to cause harm. A. Accident B. Risk C. Danger D. Hazard E. Safety
D. Hazard
This agent works by binding to sulfhydryl groups of bacteria A. Formaldehyde B. Alcohols C. Detergents D. Heavy metals ions2
D. Heavy metals ions2
A patient has all the gastrointestinal symptoms of infection with Hepatitis A virus (HAV), yet all tests for HAV-IgG and HAV-IgM are non-reactive A possible cause of this infection id A. Hepa B surface antigen B. Hepa C surface antigen C. Hepa D surface antigen D. Hepa E surface antigen
D. Hepa E surface antigen
Causative agent for genital herpes, or the anogenital vesicular lesions and ulcerations A. Human papilloma virus B. Molluscum contagiosum virus C. Phthirus pubis D. Herpes simplex virus E. Trichomonas vaginalis
D. Herpes simplex virus
Which of the following substances would most effectively inhibit anaerobes in a deep wound? A. Phenol B. Hexachlorophene C. Isopropanol D. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Hydrogen peroxide
This parasite is the only human tapeworm, which can complete its entire life cycle in a single host, indicating that it does not require an obligatory intermediate host. A. Taenia saginata B. Taenia solium C. Dipylidium caninum D. Hymenolepsis nana E. Hymenolepsis diminuta
D. Hymenolepsis nana
This is/are example/s of drugs that inhibit/s the cell wall synthesis I. Penicillins II. Cyclosporine III. Teicoplanin A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
D. I and III only
This is/are true statements about Colistin I. It is a polymyxin antibiotic acting on the cell membrane II. It is systemically given for systemic infections III. It is used topically for wound irrigation and bladder washout A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
D. I and III only
The following contribute(s) to the development of a compromised state of the host defense I. Radiation therapy II. Exposure to toxoid III. Malnutrition A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I and IIII only E. I, II and III only
D. I and IIII only
Foodborne diseases can be controlled by I. Proper disposal of sewage II. Purification of water for domestic use III. Proper hygiene and sanitation IV. Use of mask in crowded areas A. I only B. I and II only C. I,II,III and IV D. I,II and III only
D. I,II and III only
Cytotoxic T cells are involved in which of the following action(s) I. Antigen presentation II. Tumor destruction III. Cell lysis of virus infected cells A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
Microbial mutations are due to which of the following cause(s) I. Inversion II. Additions (insertions) III. Substitutions (transversions) A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
Tetracyclines are indicated for the treatment of bacterial infection from which organism/s I. Staphylococcus II. Mycoplasma III. Chlamydia A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
This intestinal protozoan/s cause/s severe diarrhea in individuals with defective immune system such as patients with AIDS I. Giardia II. Isospora III. Crystosporidium A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
This is/are examples of free-living pathogenic amoebae in man I. Entamoeba II. Naegleria III. Acanthamoeba A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
This is/are the species of malaria which are capable of forming dormant in the liver called the hypnozoites I. P. vivax II. P.falciparum III. P.ovale A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
This/these statement/s is/are regarding patients with measles during pregnancy I. may result to birth defects II. is associated with spontaneous abortions III. may also result to premature labor A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
Vaccines are prepared from which of the following I. Immunoglobulins II. Killed organism III. 'Subcellular fractions A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
Which of the following tepeworms will require an invertebrate as intermediate host? I. Taenia solium II. Hymenolepsis nana III. Dipylidium caninum A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
Which of thef following statement(s) is /are true regarding viruses I. Are cellular organisms, which require host to replicate II. Contain genetic materials required for production of new viruses III. Requires the hosts metabolic machinery to transcribe and translate genetic information A. I B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I,II and III
D. II and III only
this is/are examples of viruses classified under PAramyxoviridae family I. influenza virus II. Respiratory syncitial Virus III. Measles virus A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
D. II and III only
Which cytokine is secreted by helper T cells and stimulate production of IgE A. IL-1 B. IL-2 C. IL-3 D. IL-4 E. IL-5
D. IL-4
Which antibody mediates type 1 hypersensitivity and also mediates immunity to worm infections. A. IgM B. IgA C. IgG D. IgE E. IgD
D. IgE
Which scientist first hypothesized that medical personnel can infect patients with pathogens? A. Edward Jenner B. Joseph Lister C. John Snow D. Ignaz Semmelweis
D. Ignaz Semmelweis
This is an antiviral agent which is effective in preventing vial protein synthesis A. Acyclovir B. Amantadine C. Ribavirin D. Interferons
D. Interferons
ECHOviruses are cytopahogenic human viruses that mainly infects the A. Respiratory tract B. Central Nervous System C. Blood and lymphatic system D. Intestinal tract
D. Intestinal tract
Betadine is an antimicrobial product containing: A. Formaldehyde B. Hydrogen peroxide C. Calcium hydroxide D. Iodine
D. Iodine
Which of the following statements is the best definition of a pandemic disease? A. It normally occurs in a given geographic area B. It is a disease that occurs more frequently than usual for a geographical area/group/population C. It occurs infrequently at no predictable time scattered over a large area or population D. It is an epidemic that occurs on more than 1 continent at the same time
D. It is an epidemic that occurs on more than 1 continent at the same time
Vaccine for Whooping cough A. Toxoid B. Toxin C. Living attenuated microoganisms D. Killed attenuated microogranisms
D. Killed attenuated microogranisms
This is a multiple test medium that will detect the fermentation of glucose and lactose and the production of hydrogen sulphide resulting from the breakdown of the amino acid cysteine. A. SIM medium B. Litmus Milk C. Hydrogen sulfide D. Kligler's Iron Agar E. NOTA
D. Kligler's Iron Agar
Lesions of the oral cavity which manifest as tiny red patches with central white specks in patients infected with Rubeola virus A. Erythema infectiosum B. Macular rash C. Fever blisters D. Koplik's spots E. Negri bodies
D. Koplik's spots
Malnutrition type which is due to deprivation of sufficient quality protein foods, impaired absorption of protein, or abnormal losses of protein from the body, which also later results to fatty liver. A. Iodine deficiency disorders B. Marasmus C. Protein energy malnutrition D. Kwashiorkor E. Xerophthalmia
D. Kwashiorkor
A disease in which a pathogen remains inactive for a long period of time before becoming active is termed a(n) A. Subacute disease B. Acute disease C. Chronic disease D. Latent disease
D. Latent disease
The endotoxin or the lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide is called the A. Lipid C B. Lipid B C. Lipid O D. Lipid A E. Oligosaccharide
D. Lipid A
All are major causes of bacterial meningitis except: A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Hib D. Listeria monocytogenes E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Listeria monocytogenes
Chlamydia trachomatis infection may result to A. Brill's disease B. Ornithosis C. Undulant fever D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
D. Lymphogranuloma venerum
Mumps virus is biologically relates to the virus causing which of the following disease? A. Rabies B. Variola C. Vaccine D. Measles
D. Measles
Which of the following methods is best for counting fecal bacteria from a stream to determine the safety of the water for drinking? A. Dry weight B. Turbidity C. Viable plate counts D. Membrane filtration
D. Membrane filtration
The infective larval stage in fascioliasis, fasciolopsiasis, clonorchiasis and paragonimiasis that is encysted on certain plant and animal foods is called A. Cercaria B. Cesticercoid C. Filariform D. Metacercaria E. Plerocercoid
D. Metacercaria
Viral disease characterized by inflammation of the parotid glands, fever, and pain during swallowing. A. Tonsilitis B. Gingivitis C. Measles D. Mumps E. Typhoid fever
D. Mumps
Aside from Praziquantel, this drug is also given for tapeworms A. Diethylcarbamazine B. Ivermectin C. Mebendazole D. Niclosamide
D. Niclosamide
These antimicrobial drugs differ from the antibiotics in that they do not occur naturally. The prototype of these is furfural, an aldehyde derivative. A. Interferons B. Tetracyclines C. Sulfonamides D. Nitrofurans E. Anthramycin
D. Nitrofurans
Macrophages A. First appear in the blood as immature T cells B. Mature into plasma cells C. Are major source of specific immunoglobulin D. None of these
D. None of these
A major cause of blindness in tropical Africa is A. Ancylostoma duodenale B. Enterobius vermicularis C. Trichinella spiralis D. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Onchocerca volvulus
This is the organism causing the so called River blindness A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichinella spiralis C. Capillaria philippinensis D. Onchocerca volvulus
D. Onchocerca volvulus
The enhancement of phagocytosis through coating with a complement A. Lysis B. Complement activation C. Cytolysis D. Opsonization E. Inflammation
D. Opsonization
A burn patient developed a wound infection, and a bacteriologic culture of the site indicated a gram-negative rod that was oxidase-positive and produced a blue-green pigment. The organism was relatively resistant to antibiotics but susceptible to ticarcillin, gentamicin and tobramycin. This organism is likely A. E. coli B. K. pneumonia C. S. marcescens D. P. aeruginosa
D. P. aeruginosa
This is the malarial species that has a characteristic crescent or banana shaped gametocytes A. P.ovale B. P.vivax C. P.malariae D. P.falciparum
D. P.falciparum
A type of host in which the parasite does not develop further to later stages. However, the parasite remains alive and is able to infect another susceptible host. A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Final host D. Paratenic host E. Both A and C
D. Paratenic host
Which of the following virus family is characterized as a single stranded DNA, non-enveloped virus A. Herpesviridae B. Poxviridae C. Adenoviridae D. Parvoviridae
D. Parvoviridae
Disease-causing microorganisms are called: A. Vectors B. Bacteria C. Fomites D. Pathogens E. Toxins
D. Pathogens
The ___ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms. A. Prodronium B. Period of invasion C. Period of convalescence D. Period of incubation
D. Period of incubation
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fungi? A. Chemoheterotroph B. Unicellular C. Multicellular D. Photoautotroph E. Both B and D
D. Photoautotroph
Include airborne particles, humidity, equipment design and radiation. A. Chemical hazards B. Ergonomic hazards C. Biologic hazards D. Physical hazards E. Sociologic hazards
D. Physical hazards
Malignant tertian malaria is caused by: A. Plasmodium ovale B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium malariae D. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium falciparum
This is the drug of choice for flukes A. Thiabendazole B. Ivemectin C. Mebendazole D. Praziquantel
D. Praziquantel
The tolerance of facultative anaerobic bacteria to lethal superoxide when they are exposed to air is due to A. The lack of CYP C oxidase B. Presence of CYP C oxidase C. Inability to form the superoxide radical D. Presence of superoxide dismutase and catalase
D. Presence of superoxide dismutase and catalase
Which of the following sequences reflects the correct order of events in mitosis? A. Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, prophase B. Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase C. Telophase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase D. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
D. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
Organisms that may be found thriving in icy waters are described as A. Barophiles B. Thermophiles C. Mesophiles D. Psychrophiles
D. Psychrophiles
Immunologic memory refers to the ability of the immune system to A. Recognize millions of different antigens B. React with millions of different antigens C. Migrate from the blood vessels into the tissues D. Recall a previous immune response
D. Recall a previous immune response
RNA directed DNA polymerase is exclusively found only amiong A. Paramyxovirus B. Adenovirus C. Togavirus D. Retrovirus
D. Retrovirus
Which of the following statements best describes ribozymes? A. Ribozymes are proteins that aid in the production of ribosomes. B. Ribozymes are nucleic acids that produce ribose sugars. C. Ribozymes store enzymes in ribosomes. D. Ribozymes process RNA molecules in eukaryotes.
D. Ribozymes process RNA molecules in eukaryotes.
Discovered the microbial causes of bacterial infections such as, anthrax and tuberculosis A. Robert Hooke B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek C. Louis Pasteur D. Robert Koch E. Joseph Lister
D. Robert Koch
Founder of the five-kingdom system where the prokaryotes were placed in Kingdom Prokaryotae and eucaryotes compromised the other four kingdoms, A. Carolus Linnaeus B. Robert Murray C. Carl Woese D. Robert Whittaker E. Charles Darwin
D. Robert Whittaker
The following are vertically- transmitted infections,except: A. Toxoplasmosis B. Hepatitis B C. Herpes simplex D. Rubeola E. Cytomegalovirus
D. Rubeola
Which of the following dyes cannot be used in negative staining? A. Eosin B. Nigrosin C. India ink D. Safranin E. Both A and D
D. Safranin
A patient with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 5 hours after eating most likely has: A. Shigellosis B. Cholera C. E. coli gastroenteritis D. Salmonellosis E. Staphylococcus food poisoning
D. Salmonellosis
Rhabditiform larvae in unstained fecal smears is the usual diagnostic finding in A. Ascariasis B. Enterobiasi C. Hookworm D. Strongyloidiasis E. Trichuriasis
D. Strongyloidiasis
Results from inappropriate height-for- age. A. Wasting B. Edema C. Emaciation D. Stunting E. None of the above
D. Stunting
A secondary infection that results from destruction of normal microflora and often follows the use of broad- spectrum antibiotics A. Mixed infection B. Subclinical infection C. Inapparent infection D. Superinfection E. Co-morbid infection
D. Superinfection
this is the drug given for the treatment of African sleeping disease A. Nifrutimox B. Stibogluconate C. Sulfadiazine D. Suramin
D. Suramin
Relationship of animals living together in which one species lives in or on the body of another. A. Commensalism B. Mutualism C. Parasitism D. Symbiosis
D. Symbiosis
During the stationary phase of growth of microorganisms: A. The rate of cell division increases B. The rate of cell division decreases C. The population is at its most vigorous state D. The population is at its least vigorous state
D. The population is at its least vigorous state
A protozoan organism usually opportunistic among patients with AIDS. It is naturally harboured by cats A. Entamoeba B. Trychomonas C. Giardia D. Toxoplasma
D. Toxoplasma
Transfer of genetic materials involving the so called "jumping genes" A. Transduction B. Transformation C. Conjugation D. Transposition
D. Transposition
Small segments of DNA that can move from one region of a DNA molecule to another. A. Plasmids B. Genes C. F factors D. Transposons E. R factors
D. Transposons
The following are parasites isolated in the placenta, except: A. Toxoplasma B. Trypanosoma C. Malaria D. Trichinella E. NOTA
D. Trichinella
This nematode is acquired through the ingestion of encysted larvae present in pork meat. A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichuris trichura C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichinella spiralis
D. Trichinella spiralis
A helminth infection usually is accompanied by increase in the serum levels of eosinophils. This may be result of the tissue invasion of the helminth. Which of the following organisms listed has no tissue invasion, hence, will not manifest with elevated level of serum eosinophils. A. Ascaris lumbricoides B. Trichinella spiralis C. Strongyloides stercoralis D. Trichuris trichura
D. Trichuris trichura
A Mycoplasma which is a common cause of nongonococcal urethritis A. M. hominis B. M. pneumonia C. M. fermentans D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
D. Ureaplasma urealyticum
A highly contagious, often fatal disease caused by a povirus, manifested by the appearance of blisters and postules on the skin: A. Smallpox B. Variola C. Varicella D. Varicella
D. Varicella
Streptomycin is known for A. Erythema nodosum leprosum B. Bone marrow depression C. Discoloration of the teeth D. Vestibular damage
D. Vestibular damage
These are nucleic acid entities of relatively low molecular weight (1.1 to 1.3 x 105) and unique structure that cause several important diseases of cultivated plants. These are also the smallest known agents of infectious disease. A. Virion B. Bacteriophages C. Paschen bodies D. Viroids E. Oncogenes
D. Viroids
Referred to as "the borderline of life" A. Bacteria B. Fungi C. Algae D. Virus
D. Virus
In a young child with a history of recurrent febrile illness, transient pneumonitis, hypereosinophilia, and hepatomegaly, which of the folloing should always be included in the differential diagnosis: A. Amebic liver disease B. Clonorchiasis C. Hepatic schistosomiasis D. Visceral larva migrans E. Unilocular hydatid disease
D. Visceral larva migrans
Diphyllobotrium latum infection may lead to the deficiency of which vitamin? A. Vit A B. Vit B9 C. Vit B1 D. VitB12
D. VitB12
This is an example of a topical agent, which is derived from the combination of benzoic and salicylic acids. A. Haloprogin B. Tolnaftate C. Naftifine D. Whitfield's ointment
D. Whitfield's ointment
Anaerobic, gram positive, spore-forming rods, which is a normal flora of the intestine. It has enterotoxin that causes watery diarrhea and may lead to pseudomembranous colitis. A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium tetani C) Clostridium botulinum D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Clostridium dificile
E) Clostridium dificile
The adult form of this tapeworm has only four segments: A) Taenia solium B) Taenia saginata C) Dipyllobotrium latum D) Dipylidium caninum E) Echinococcus granulosus
E) Echinococcus granulosus
The causative agent of Infectious Mononucleosis (IM) and is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma in East African children. No drug is effective to treat the disease. A) Herpes Simplex virus Type 1 B) Varicella-Zoster virus C) Herpes simplex virus Type 2 D) Cytomegalovirus E) Epstein-Barr virus
E) Epstein-Barr virus
Spirochete, which is the causative agent of leptospirosis. A) Mycobacterium leprae B) Mycobactrium tuberculosis C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Treponema pallidum E) Leptospira interrogans
E) Leptospira interrogans
Aerobic, non-spore forming organism that exhibits tumbling motility and capable of causing meningitis and sepsis in newborn and immunocompromised patients A) Meningococcus B) Gonococcus C) Bacillus antracis D) Clostridium tetani E) Listeria monocytogenes
E) Listeria monocytogenes
The following are attributed to fetal alcohol syndrome, except: A) Smaller size B) Deformities of limb C) Heart defects D) Poor coordination E) None
E) None
A lung disease caused by cotton-mill dust: A) Mesothelioma B) Chemical hazards ` C) Physical hazards D) Ergonomic hazards E) None of the above
E) None of the above
The following are functions of Amiotic fluid, except: A) Allows the movement of fetus B) Protects against mechanical injury C) Provides stable temperature D) Allows the fetus to float E) None of the above
E) None of the above
Bacteria lack all of the following organelles, except: A) Mitochondria B) Nucleus C) Mitotic apparatus D) DNA E) Nuclear membrane
E) Nuclear membrane
Wild birds are important reservoirs of this virus. A) Hepatitis C virus B) Cytomegalovirus C) Human papilloma virus D) Dengue virus E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
E) St. Louis encephalitis virus
Finding the rhabditiform larva in the stool identifies this organism: A) Hookworm B) Whipworm C) Pinworm D) Ascaris lumbricoides E) Strongyloides stercoralis
E) Strongyloides stercoralis
Because it is a structural analog of pyridoxine, or Vitamin B6 and nicotinamide, it can block pyridoxine and nicotinamide-catalyzed reactions which may account for its antimicrobial activity. A. Isonicotinic Acid Hydrazide B. Nalidixic acid C. Isoniazid D. A and B E. A and C
E. A and C
Which of the following is/are true about moist heat sterilization? A. An autoclave can be used B. Kills vegetative cells, spores and viruses C. Works by coagulation of proteins D. A and C only E. A, B and C
E. A, B and C
A condition where antibodies cause antigens to clump together . A. Opsonisation B. Phagocytosis C. Complement fixation D. Neutralization E. Agglutination
E. Agglutination
This is a low-molecular weight compound which is very effective against influenza A virus but not against influenza B virus. The incidence of influenza A infections is greatly reduced by the use of this drug. A. Sibromycin B. Anthramycin C. Sulfaguanidine D. Acycloguanosine E. Amantadine
E. Amantadine
The following is the bacterium used in the Ames test: A. Salmonella typhi B. Escherichia coli C. Bacillus subtilis D. Staphylococcus aureus E. Auxotrophic Salmonella typhimurium
E. Auxotrophic Salmonella typhimurium
Fluoroquinolones exert their antimicrobial action by inhibiting: A. Topoisomerase I B. Topoisomerase II C. Topoisomerase IV D. A &B E. B &C
E. B &C
This is the only Bacillus species that is highly pathogenic for animals and humans and is the causative agent for anthrax A. B stearothermophilus B. B cereus C. B thuringiensis D. B subtilis E. B anthracis
E. B anthracis
The bacterium that can be used as an agricultural pest control A. Escherichia coli B. Balantidium coli C. Penicillin notatum D. Aspergillus flavus E. Bacillus thuringiensis
E. Bacillus thuringiensis
A reference for the identification of bacteria based on criteria, such as, morphology, cell wall composition, oxygen requirements etc. A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology C. Botanical Taxonomy D. Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology E. Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
E. Bergey's Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
Process of gene transfer responsible for antibiotic resistance A. Transformation B. Conjugation C. Transposon insertion D. Frameshift mutation E. Both A & C
E. Both A & C
A type of host wherein the parasite attains sexual maturity. A. Definitive host B. Intermediate host C. Final host D. Paratenic host E. Both A and C
E. Both A and C
Chemical used for microbial control by Joseph Lister. A. Iodine B. Phenol C. Carbolic acid D. Chlorinated Lime E. Both B and C
E. Both B and C
The following Plasmodium spp. cause/s benign tertian malaria. A. Plasmodium falciparum B. Plasmodium vivax C. Plasmodium ovale D. Plasmodium malariae E. Both B and C
E. Both B and C
Which of the following organisms can be identified using the answer in number 188? A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae B. Mycobacterium leprae C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis D. Both A and C E. Both B and C
E. Both B and C
Which of the following is/are an effective method of sterilization? A. Refrigeration B. Pasteurization C. Direct flaming D. Autoclaving E. Both C and D
E. Both C and D
Which of the ff. diseases is a primary zoonotic disease that is associated with ingestion of contaminated milk? A. Anthrax B. Leptospirosis C. Diphtheria D. Lyme disease E. Brucellosis
E. Brucellosis
The following are true about viruses except A. Has a single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA B. Multiply only inside living host cells C. Considered obligate intracellular parasites D. Contains a protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid E. Can be infected by bacteria
E. Can be infected by bacteria
A type of medium with known chemical composition used for microbiological assays. A. Selective media B. Differential media C. Complex media D. Anaerobic Media E. Chemically defined media
E. Chemically defined media
The movement of eukaryotic cytoplasm from one part of the cell to another which helps distribute nutrients is A. Brownian movement B. True motility C. Pseudo motility D. Cellular motility E. Cytoplasmic streaming
E. Cytoplasmic streaming
Process of destroying vegetative pathogens but not necessarily endospores or viruses, usually or inanimate objects. A. Sterilization B. Antisepsis C. Sanitization D. Degerming E. Disinfection
E. Disinfection
The health behavior model that explains that health behavior affects and is affected by multiple levels of influence of individual, interpersonal, institutional, community and public policy factors, and that health behavior shapes and is shaped by the social environment. A. Health belief model B. Social cognitive theory C. Transtheoretical model D. Theory of reasoned action E. Ecologic model
E. Ecologic model
Involves center-based complementary feeding for wasted and stunted pregnant women with record of delivering low birthweight infants, and for young children aged 6- 72 months old. A. Home, School and Community Food Production B. Food Fortification C. Nutrition Information, Communication and Education D. Micronutrient Supplementation E. Food assistance
E. Food assistance
Which of the following is true of staphylococcus epidermidis I. Catalase-positive II. Coagulase-positive III. Facultative A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I and III
E. I and III
Which statement(s) describes a monocyte I. They can become macrophages II. They only populate the lymph nodes III. They are actively phagocytic A. I only B. II only C. III only D. I and II E. I and III
E. I and III
Endospores have a multi-layered protective coat consisting of I. Cell membrane II. Peptidoglycan mesh III. Exosporium A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
Immunologic suppression for transplantation may be induced by I. Lymphoid radiation II. Cyclosporine III. Steroids A. I only B. I and II only C. III only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
T-helper cells are important in augmentation of which of the following I. Antibody production II. Mixed lymphocyte reaction III. Delayed-type hypersensitivity reactions A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This is/ are example/s of filarial nematodes I. Wuchereria bancrofti II. Brugia malayi III. Loa loa A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This is/are agents given for Chloroquine-resistant P. falxiparum I. Quinine II. Fansidar III. Mefloquine A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This is/are example of antiviral agent/s that act in the viral DNA or RNA synthesis I. Idoxuridine II. Acyclovir III. Zidovudine A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This is/are example(s) of nematode which is/are transmitted usually by an arthropod vector. I. Onchocerca volvulus II. Wuchereria bancrofti III. Brugia malayi A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This is/are example/s of drugs that cause/s the destruction of bacterial DNA I. Ionizing radiation II. Alkylating agents III. UV light A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This is/are example/s of drugs which are structural analogues of the aminohyroxypyrimidine amoiety of folic acid prevent/s its synthesis to THFS. I. Trimethoprim II. Pyrimethamine III. Methotrexate A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This is/are examples of enveloped DNA viruses I. Herpes II.Hepadna III.Pox A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This/ These statement/s is/are true about the glycopeptide antibiotics I. Given only parentally as it is not absorbed from the GIT II. Given only for gram-positive organism III. Potentially ototoxic and nephrotoxic A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. I and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
This/These statement/s is/are true concerning the polio vaccine I. Salk vaccine is made of killed-polio viruses II. Sabin vaccine is made of attenuated polio virus III. The vaccine can pick up virulence and cause paralysis A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I, II and III
E. I, II and III
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct I. Toxoides are used as immunogen II. Exotoxins are highly toxic at very low doses III. Some G(-) bacteria exotoxins IV. Some G(+) bacteria produce endotoxins A. I only B. I and II only C. II and III only D. I and IV only E. I, II and III only
E. I, II and III only
This is/are examples of naked DNA viruses I. papova II Adeno III. Parvo A. I only B. II only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. I,II and III
E. I,II and III
A confirmatory test for HIV infection A. ELISA B. Southern Blot Technique C. Western Blot Technique D. Immunophoresis E. Immunofluorescence
E. Immunofluorescence
A monoclonal antibody used to treat inflammatory conditions, such as, rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn's disease A. Trastuzumab B. Rituximab C. Abciximab D. Muromonab CD3 E. Infliximab
E. Infliximab
Technique used in detecting eggs with tick shells such as Ascaris and Trichuris, using a mixture of glycerine and malachite green solution. A. Scotch tape method B. Kato katz method C. Perianal swab D. Direct fecal smear E. Kato tick method
E. Kato tick method
Causative agent of Granuloma inguinale, or Donovanosis. A. Molluscum contagiosum virus B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Haemophilus ducreyi D. Trichomonas vaginalis E. Klebsiella granulomatis
E. Klebsiella granulomatis
Tetanus, botulism and diphteria A. Immediate hypersensitivity B. Cytotoxic antibody C. Immune-complex disease D. Delayed-type hypersensitivity E. NOTA
E. NOTA
Which of the following is not a gram negative facultatively anaerobic rod- shaped bacteria? A. Escherichia B. Salmonella C. Shigella D. Enterobacter E. NOTA
E. NOTA
Which is not part of the Full Package in Reproductive Health? A. Family planning B. Diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer C. Antenatal care D. Support for exclusive breastfeeding E. None of the above
E. None of the above
Which of the following elements is/are NOT needed by microbes for the synthesis of cellular materials? A. Nitrogen B. Carbon C. Sulfur D. Phosphorus E. None of the above
E. None of the above
Which of the following is not an emergency neonatal care given in a Comprehensive Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (CEMONC) facility? A. Newborn resuscitation B. Oxygen support C. Antenatal administration of (maternal) steroids for threatened premature delivery D. Treatment of neonatal sepsis infection E. None of the above
E. None of the above
Which of the following viruses is a DNA virus? A. Bunyaviridae B. Adenoviridae C. Reoviridae D. Togaviridae E. Orthomyxoviridae
E. Orthomyxoviridae
Time period that the person regains strength from infection and the body returns to its pre-diseased state A. Prodromal period B. Infection period C. Incubation period D. Period of illness E. Period of convalescence
E. Period of convalescence
The following RNA viruses are helical in shape, except: A. Rhabdoviridae B. Arenaviridae C. Bunyaviridae D. Orthomyxoviridae E. Picornaviridae
E. Picornaviridae
Which of the following is not part of the services of the Basic Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (BEMONC) facility? A. Performance of assisted deliveries in imminent breech B. Newborn resuscitation C. Manual removal of retained placenta D. Administration of parenteral oxytocic drugs E. Provision of surgical delivery (caesarian section)
E. Provision of surgical delivery (caesarian section)
What is the Millennium Development Goal #4? A. Promote gender equality B. Improve maternal health C. Achieve universal primary education D. Eradicate extreme poverty E. Reduce child mortality
E. Reduce child mortality
The term that describes all the eye signs of Vitamin A deficiency if it reaches a critically low level. A. Iodine deficiency disorders B. Marasmus C. Protein energy malnutrition D. Kwashiorkor E. Xerophthalmia
E. Xerophthalmia
