More MLT BoC Review questions

Once Fresh Frozen Plasma (FFP) has been thawed, it should be stored at what temp?

1 - 6 C

What is the half-life of IgG? Why is the duration of the half-life significant?

18 to 23 days. & It binds with neonatal FC receptors.

When transporting donated platelet units, what is the maximum amount of time that agitation of platelets can be stopped for?

24 Hrs

A 300 ug dose of RhIg (Rh immunoglobulin aka Rhogam) can suppress immunization to how many mL of D-positive whole blood?

30 mL

What is the lower reference limit for progressive motility of sperm when performing a semen analysis?

32%

Whole blood is composed of approximately ___ % formed elements & ___ % plasma.

45% formed elements and 55% plasma

What percentage of dietary iron is normally absorbed daily?

5% to 15%

The radioactive method used to measure red cell survival uses which of the following isotopes?

51C.r

Which one of the Lewis blood group system phenotypes usually produces anti-L.e.a.?

Anti L.e.a. occurs almost exclusively in serum of of individuals who are Lewis a negative & Lewis B negative. [ Le(a-b-) ]

Of the following blood group antibodies, which has been most frequently associated with severe cases of HDFN: Anti-A,B, Anti-Le(a), Anti-K, Anti-M.

Anti-K

Which test is used to determine if a person has had a recent infection with Strep pyogenes?

Anti-streptolysin O (ASO)

Which of the following assays should be performed after a specimen is shown to contain HIV antibodies when tested with a 4th generation HIV-1/HIV-2 antibody immunoassay?

Antibody immunoassay to differentiate HIV-1 and HIV-2

What three tests are currently used as a screen for retroviruses in donated blood?

Antibody to HIV type 1 & 2, Nucleic acid testing to detect H.I.V-1 R.N.A

An increased reticulocyte count MAY be found in all of the following conditions, EXCEPT? (Hemolytic anemias, Following acute hemorrhage, Aplastic anemia or Satisfactory response to therapy for pernicious anemia)

Aplastic anemia

Why do Corneal tissue transplantation procedures have an extremely high success rate?

Avascularity, Reasonably low concentration of class I antigens & an essential absence of class II antigens.

Which type of nasopharyngeal swab cannot be used when collecting a specimen for a suspected case of Bordetella pertussis for P.C.R. testing?

Calcium-alginate swabs should be avoided for cultures because it can inhibit growth of the specimen.

The purpose of C3a and C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to:

Cause an increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle & release of histamine from basophils

Which complement pathway and related initiator can activate complement?

Classical pathway & Antigen-IgG antibody complexes

What disease type (acquired/congenital) and what cell (B cells/T cells) is involved in Thymic Hypoplasia?

Congenital T-Cell disorder

The following media contains specific nutrients that encourage the growth of a pathogen over the growth of other bacteria from a specimen. It is useful in the isolation of stool pathogens such as Salmonella and Shigella, the isolation of anaerobes, and the selective isolation of group B streptococci.

Enrichment

Which test method is a direct nucleic acid test?

F.I.S.H. or Fluorescence in Situ Hybridization

A fibrin clot begins to form when fibrinogen is cleaved resulting in a fibrin monomer, fibrinopeptide A and fibrinopeptide B fragments. The fibrin monomers spontaneously polymerize due to hydrogen bonding & then are covalently linked into fibrin polymers by which factor?

Factor 13 (XIII)

A patient with a history of frequent mild bleeding episodes has the following results: Normal P.T. & Prolonged aPTT. Which of the following could possibly cause the initial aPTT to be prolonged?: (Deficiency of - Factor 7, Factor 9, Factor 10 or a circulating inhibitor present)

Factor 9 deficiency

When filling a blood culture specimen, what can happen to the test result if insufficient blood is collected?

False negative culture may result

Which urinalysis findings would correlate with the presence of a yeast infection?

Glucose positive, WBC's and cellular elements present, and a turbid appearance.

An antibody to which platelet antige is most commonly encountered in blood bank?

H.P.A.-1.a.

What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage?

H.b.s A.g.

A small portion of HIV-infected individuals are termed 'elite controllers' due to only mildly depressed CD4 T cell counts and low viral loads. The presence of which of the following genetic factors is thought to contribute to this (low viral load and mildly depressed CD4 T cell counts)?

HLA-B57-01 and HLA-B27-05

In which disorder do neonates demonstrate the presence of Bart's hemoglobin that changes to beta chain tetramers in adults?

Hemoglobin H disease

Specimens for blood gas determination should be drawn into a syringe containg what?

Heparin

What three diseases are associated with an increased level of alpha-fetoprotein?

Hepatocellular carcinoma, Viral hepatitis & Testicular tumors.

Which of the following would be true of the myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio in a case of Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia (CML)? (Normal 2: - 4:1, High > 4:1, Low < 2:1 or Variable)

High > 4:1

What three biochemical tests will differentiate between Listeria monocytogenes and Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae?

Hydrolysis of esculine, motility & catalase reaction.

Rocky mountain spotted fever, caused by rickettsia rickettsii, is most reliably diagnosed by which lab technique?

I.F.A. testing

What kind of immunoglobulins are predominantly found in Rh Immune globulin or Rhogam?

I.g.G class anti-D

What are Coombs Control check cells (used to verify negative reactions at the anti-globulin or I.A.T. phase) coated with?

I.g.G. antibodies

Which of the following D variants has the best likelihood to receive D-positive RBC's without any adverse effects?

Translocation of C & D

Which fungal organism, obtained from a hairless area of the scalp would produce yellow to buff colored colony with a suede like consistency and rugose appearane & a microscopic appearance of large teardrop or club shaped microconidia perpendicularly on each side of hyaline hyphae?

Trichophyton tonsurans

Nephelometry is based on what principle?

Turbidity resulting from specific antigen-coated latex particles agglutinated by corresponding antibodies

Which amino acid is the precursor for catecholamines as well as thyroid hormones?

Tyrosine

Which specimen types can be used to detect ketones using the Acetest?

Urine, Serum & Whole blood

Which test included on a urine chemical reagent strip would never be reported as negative?

Urobilinogen

What is the methodology involved in F.I.S.H. testing?

Uses directly labeled fluorescent nucleotides or probes with receptor molecules that are indirectly detected by fluorescent antibodies or affinity molecules.

What is the first step to be taken when a transfusion reaction is suspected?

top the transfusion, but keep the IV line open with saline.

Which electrophoresis gel has the greatest resolution or separation of solutes?

Polyacrylamide gels

Which tests are features of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)?

Positive ANA, Circuating immune complexes & Elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate or ESR

What type of normal gene induces DNA synthesis, promotes cell division & inhibits cell death?

Proto-oncogenes

Which media type is used for the cultivation of mycobacteria and actinomycetes?

Lowenstein Jensen, robins egg blue media often in a slant.

Which cells are responsible for causing transfusion associated graft versus host disease?

Lymphocytes

Which electrolyte is not part of a routine electrolyte panel?

Magnesium

Name a cause of thrombocytopenia due to decreased production of platelets.

Malignant infiltration of the bone marrow.

When evaluating the patterns of fluorescent anti-nuclear antibody (F.A.N.A.) testing, cytoplasmic paterns:

May demonstrate anti-mitochondrial antibodies seen primarily in biliary cirrhosis.

Which of the following antigen groups is closely related to the ABO antigens on the red cell membrane?: (Rh, Kell, I/i or Duffy)

big I and little i

Which types of leukemia cannot be ruled out if Auer rods are seen in blasts on the peripheral smear?

Acute Myelomonocytic, Acute Myeloid without maturation and Acute promyelocytic Leukemias.

In a standard electrophoretic seperation, what zone appears first (anodal end) on the densitometric pattern?

Albumin

Which enzyme is associated with conditions affecting skeletal muscles?

Aldolase is associated with muscles and is currently used to monitor patients with muscular dystrophy.

Alder-Reilly inclusions may be found in which cell type(s)?

All types of mature white blood cells

When preparing platelet concentrates from whole blood, after the second spin and excess plasma has been expressed from the platelets, what is the next step in platelet preparation?

Allow the platelets to rest for 1 - 2 hours at 20 to 24 Celsius

What is the term for the product made during the amplification process?

Amplicon

A cytokine can be described as:

A soluble protein that regulates the immune response

Which apolipoprotein contributes the greatest mass to the structure of high-density lipoprotein or H.D.L?

A.P.O. A

What should a normal De Ritis ration of A.S.T to A.L.T. be?

A.S.T. to A.L.T. should be equal to or less than 1

Which bacteria species will produce spreading, grey-white, beta-hemolytic colonies with a "frosted glass" appearance?

Bacillus cereus

Which of the following protozoa has the largest Trophozoite? (Entomoeba histolytica, Endolimax nana, Iodamoeba butschlii or Balantidium coli)

Balantidium coli trophozoite

Why is serum ferritin used in tests to detect anemias?

Because ferritin is a sensitive indicator of iron deficiency

Which of the dimorphic molds produces spherical or oval conidia, each supported by an individual conidiophore like a lollipop?

Blastomyces dermatitidis

Serum alkaline phosphatase or A.L.P. activity is derived from which three organs?

Bone, Intestine & Placenta

Which media type is used for the selective culturing of Bordetella pertussis and Bordetella parapertussis?

Bordet-Gengou media

What characteristics are common to both D.N.A. and R.N.A.?

Both consist of sugar, phosphate residue, and a purine or pyrimidine base.

What is the activation unit in the classical complement pathway?

C4, C2 & C3 which makeup C4b2a3b or C5 convertase

The modified acid-fast stain is primarily used to identify: (Bacteria, Mycobacteria, Malarial parasites or Cryptosporidium oocysts)

Cryptosporidium oocysts

The most highly specific indicator for rheumatoid arthritis is:

Cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies or CCP antibodies

Which type of media would you use to isolate Francisella tularensis?

Cystine-heart agar

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia and Burkholderia cepacia share each of the following characteristics EXCEPT: (Decarboxylation of Lysine, Cytochrome oxidase activity, Production of colonies with a yellow pigment or Good growth on Mac agar.

Cytochrome oxidase activity

When evaluating a patient for a suspected Wilson's Disease diagnosis, decreased concentrations of ceruloplasmin would be expected along with:

Decreased serum copper

In which of the following conditions would an increased serum osmo be an expected finding? (Increased arginine vasopressin hormone AVP aka ADH) secretion, Diabetes insipidus, Hyponatremia or Acute myocardial infarction).

Diabetes insipidus

Oxidase negative GNR which caused hemorrhagic diarrhea grew as lactose fermenters on the Mac plate and clear colonies grew on the SMAC plate. They are lysine decarboxylase positive and did not produce H2S indicates which organism?

E. coli, possibly O157-H7

A representative congenital monocyte-macrophage functional disorder is:

Gaucher's disease

A positive RPR test and a negative FTA-ABS test is most likely the result of: (Primary syphilis, Secondary syphilis, latent syphilis or false-positive reaction)

False-positive reaction

In hemoglobin synthesis, which enzyme is responsible for adding iron in the last step?

Ferrochelatase

When operating a centrifuge, which of the following statements is correct?

Following centrifugation, seurm or plasma should be immediately removed from contact with cells.

What is the ultimate goal of secondary hemostasis?

Formation of a fibrin clot

Regarding hemoglobin synthesis, which of the following constitutes the alpha globin chain coding?

Four globin loci, two each on chromosome 16

A 56-year old female was taken to the emergency room in a coma by her employer's nurse. She had lost 35 pounds in 3 months; she was always thirsty; drinking a lot of water and running to the bathroom. The following are her laboratory results: P.H. 7.11, P.CO2: 21mm/Hg, Glucose: 950 mg/dL Urine Ketones strong positive, Uringe glucose strong positive.

Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus

What is the mechanism that causes megaloblastic anemia?

Interruption of DNA synthesis

A direct antiglobulin test or D.A.T. can be used to detect all of the following except?

It cannot be used to detect IgG antibodies in the patient's serum.

Which test method is most beneficial in detecting sulfer granules related to Nocardia & Actinomycetes infections?

K.O.H. mount

MacConkey agar without crystal violet is a culture media useful in presumtpive I.D. of which organism?

Mycobacterium fortuitum

How does the formula for O.F. Glucose media differ from carbohydrate fermentation media?

O.F. Glucose Media differs by relative increase in the salt concentration.

Phagocytosis by cells of the mononuclear phagocytic system is greatly enhanced by which of the following?

Opsonin's

Two biologically functional charcteristics of immunoglobulin G are:

Opsonization of antigens for phagocytosis by macrophages & neutrophils. Neonatal immunity by transfer of maternal antibodies across the placenta and gut of the fetus.

The bacterial species producing the set of reactions seen in the oxidative/fermentative (OF) glucose tubes illustrated in this photograph at the right is a (an): Oil overlay (anaerobic) = Green, Aerobic = yellow

Oxidized

Vitamin D is controlled by which hormone in a negative feedback loop?

P.T.H (parathyroid hormone)

Which site should be accepted for a rapid strep screen?

Peritonsillar fossae

Components of the second line of defense in the human body are:

Phagocytic cells & Complement

What term refers to the study of drug disposition in the body, how and when drugs enter the circulation, how long they stay there & how they are eliminated?

Pharmacokinetics

Which plasmodium species has a 72 hour cycle & tends to infect older RBC's, which will remain normal sized once infected?

Plasmodium malariae

What does the Michaelis-Menton kinetics theory imply for reactions performed in zero-order kinetics?

The substrate concentration is in excess & the reaction rate is dependent on the enzyme concentration.

What is the classification for the nigrogen base pairs which make up D.N.A.?

Pyrimidines = cytosine & Thymine, and Purines = adenine & guanine

Which test method is appropriate for identifying specific allergens?

Radioallergosorbent Tests or R.A.S.T.

What type of hepatitis infection is indicated by the disappearance of H.B.s.A.g. and H.B.e.A.g., the persistance of total anti-H.B.c, the appearance of anti-H.B.s. and often the presence of anti-H.B.e.?

Recovery phase of H.B.V. infection

What happens to patient samples when the centrifuge time is reduced and the speed is increased?

Residual separator gel particles may be present in the serum.

Aerobic actinomycetes can cause different types of infections, what are a few acceptable sites for recovery of this organism?

Respiratory, Cutaneous & C.N.S.

Which streptococcus species exhibits a positive bile solubility test?

S. pneumoniae

What type of specimen or sample might a mixture of Gram positive and gram negative bacteria not be see in the same field on a slide?

Sterile cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is characterized by all of the following:

T-cell reduction or dysfunction, B-cell reduction or dysfunction & NK cell reduction or dysfunction

The lymphocyte subtipe that controls autoimmnity in the peripheral blood is:

T-regulator or T-reg cells

HLA antibodies are responsible for which transfusion reaction?

T.R.A.L.I. aka Transfusion related acute lung injury

When considering therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM), what is the definition of bioavailability?

The fraction of the administered dose eventually reaches the site of action

Who should a technician contact if an organism is isolated and cannot be ruled out as a potential agent of bioterrorisim?

The laboratory response network (LRN) reference laboratory.

The ultimate end product of both epinephrine and norepinephrine metabolism is: (metanephrine, Vanillylmandellic acid or VMA, Homovanillic Acid or HVA, Cortisol)

Vanillylmandellic Acid (VMA)

The term pharmokinetics BEST describes:

What the body does to the drug

Which steps must be followed to prepare a platelet concentration?

Whole blood centrifuged @ low speed, plasma separated, then centrifuged at high speed.

Pappenheimer bodies or siderotic granules in erythrocytes can be detected using which of the following stains: Wrights stain only, Wrights stain & Prussian blue stain, Prussian blue only, Sudan black B stain.

Wrights stain & Prussian Blue stain

What is considered the best technique of choice for isolating the oocysts of Cystoisospora belli and Cryptosporidium parvum?

Zinc Sulfate - Flotation