Mybrady to the rescue

Which statement made by the EMT indicates a safe understanding of the administration of nitroglycerin in the prehospital​ setting?

"A total of three nitroglycerin tablets may be administered in the prehospital​ setting, and this includes what the patient takes prior to EMS​ arrival."

The EMT understands the EKG when he​ states:

"An EKG represents the electrical activity of the​ heart."

You are interviewing a patient you suspect to be suffering from acute coronary syndrome. Which of the following questions is most​ appropriate?

"Are you having any chest discomfort or​ pain?"

Which of the following statements would be considered detrimental to establishing rapport and therapeutic relationship with a returning combat veteran in need of your assistance?

"Did you have to kill anyone while you were deployed?"

A​ 72-year-old male with an extensive COPD and other lung history is in cardiac arrest. What instruction would you provide to the EMT ventilating the patient with the​ bag-valve mask?

"Have someone monitor for breath sounds in both lungs as we​ ventilate."

The EMT shows that is performing the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen (LAPSS) correctly when he asks which one of the following questions?

"How old are you?

A 71-year-old female is complaining of the sudden onset of shortness of breath and rapid breathing. She also states that she is experiencing some chest pain that seems to worsen when she takes a deep breath. The primary assessment shows her to be alert and oriented with a patent airway and rapid breathing that is adequate. Her pulse rate is 92 per minute and her blood pressure is 116/68 mmHg. When obtaining a history, which statement made by the patient should raise your suspicion that the patient may be experiencing a pulmonary embolism?

"I had foot surgery five days ago."

Which one of the following statements should the EMT associate with the condition of congestive heart​ failure?

"I have a hard time breathing when I am in bed at​ night."

Which one of the following statements shows an accurate understanding of assessment findings related to stroke?

"If one arm is weak, a stroke should be suspected."

You are approached by an EMR who informs you that last​ week, he was on a call in which a patient with chest pain and a known history of coronary artery disease was not given oxygen by the EMTs. You would​ reply:

"Ironically, it has been shown that oxygen given to a patient with an acceptable pulse oximetry reading can be​ harmful."

Which statement shows that the EMT has an accurate understanding of altered mental status?

"It describes any change away from a normal state of mental function."

You are transporting a patient who had an episode of chest pain. On scene you assisted him in taking his​ nitroglycerin, which completely alleviated the chest pain. En route to the​ hospital, he asks you why the nitroglycerin takes the chest pain away. Your response would​ be:

"It dilates the blood​ vessels, which decreases the workload of the​ heart."

Backup batteries should always be on hand and should be charged to at least a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent

100 percent

how many breathes is normal for a child

15 to 30

0100 hours in​ 12-hour clock time​ is: A. ​1:00 pm. B. 1300 hours. C. 100 hours am. D. ​1:00 am.

1:00 am

How many breaths per minute is normal for an infant? Child?

25 to 50 for infant and 15 to 30 for child

According to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS), what blood glucose range excludes​ hypo/hyperglycemia as a possible pathology in the patient who is apparently suffering from a​ stroke?

60 to 400​ mg/dL

The​ "T" in​ AEIOU-TIPPSS stands​ for: A. trauma. B. thrombus. C. tension headache. D. transient ischemic attack.

A. trauma.

You transport a patient from a residence to the emergency department for care. Later in your​ shift, the emergency department calls to notify you that your patient had tuberculosis. How should you​ proceed? A. Complete your​ employer's incidental exposure form and follow the requirements of the employer and medical facility. B. Report the potential exposure to the family. C. Conduct additional disinfection of the ambulance. D. Add the potential exposure to all copies of the previously completed PCR.

A. complete your employer's incidental exposure form and follow the requirements of the employer and medical facility

Which one of the following is a leading root cause of ambulance​ crashes? A. Fatigue B. Other drivers C. Inclement weather D. Poor maintenance

A. fatigue

What helps the sender in a communication exchange understand how to improve​ communication? A. Feedback B. Message C. Channel D. Environment

A. feedback

Which section of the PCR does the​ patient's insurance and billing information belong​ in? A. Patient data and demographics B. Vital signs C. Administrative information D. Patient care narrative

A. patient data and demographics

According to the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians​ (NAEMT) security​ guidelines, vehicles that are​ off-premises for repairs or other reasons should​ be: A. properly secured. B. stripped of lights and sirens. C. unmarked. D. unmonitored.

A. properly secured

You are operating the emergency vehicle safely while en route to a​ high-priority call. Which phase of an EMS call does this fall​ under? A. Receiving and responding B. Preparation C. Patient transport D. ​On-scene care

A. receiving and responding

You proceed into a residence and wish to use a handshake as an acceptable gesture of touch but the patient withdraws. You feel this withdrawal is because you are wearing gloves. How can you BEST overcome this form of​ interference? A. Remove your glove and offer your hand again. B. Explain why you are wearing gloves. C. Withdraw your hand and place yourself at the​ patient's eye level. D. You cannot overcome​ it; gloves are required.

A. remove your glove and offer your hand again

What is the purpose of a​ repeater? A. Retransmit portable and mobile radio traffic at a higher power level. B. Monitor locations of vehicles using radios on the system. C. Retransmit radio traffic if a part of the transmission is missed. D. Forward radio transmissions to the dispatch recorder.

A. retransmit protable and mobiel radio traffic at a higher power level

You arrive at the scene of an automobile accident and discover that the fire department is on the scene and the driver of the vehicle is entrapped. How does this affect the dynamic of patient​ care? A. The Advanced EMT responsibilities are determined by system policies and protocols. B. The Advanced EMT becomes responsible for assuring that any needed additional resources are called for. C. The Advanced EMT is still only responsible for patient care. D. The Advanced EMT becomes responsible for both patient care and rescue.

A. the AEMT responsibilities are determined by system policies and protocols

Part of the minimum data set for patient information is the​ patient's: A. vital signs. B. current medications. C. past medical history. D. family history.

A. vital signs

Any provider in a vehicle in motion or stopped in traffic must​ be: A. wearing a seat belt. B. holding on to the hand grip above the stretcher. C. riding in the airway seat. D. riding on the bench seat.

A. wearing a seat belt

Which condition is characterized as a blockage in an artery of the​ lungs, often a blood clot that can cause a sudden onset of shortness of breath and​ non-radiating chest​ discomfort? A. Pulmonary embolism B. Pulmonary edema C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease D. Pneumonia

A.Pulmonary embolism

The site in the​ heart's conduction system where the electrical impulse is temporarily slowed down to allow the ventricles to fill with blood is​ the:

AV node

Which of the following is used for short-term hemodialysis?

AV shunt

60 to 400​ mg/dL

According to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS), what blood glucose range excludes​ hypo/hyperglycemia as a possible pathology in the patient who is apparently suffering from a​ stroke? A. 60 to 400​ mg/dL B. 25 to 100​ mg/dL C. 50 to 150​ mg/dL D. 20 to 120​ mg/dL

priority for transport to a hospital with a stroke center.

An alert and oriented 69dash-yeardash-old male has slight rightdash-arm weakness but exhibits no deficits to the right leg. The EMT should consider the patient​ a: A. nondash-priority since he is alert and oriented. B. priority for transport to a hospital with a stroke center. C. nondash-priority transport since no paralysis exists. D. priority only if the patient also has a low blood glucose level.

You are assessing a​ 73-year-old male complaining of altered mental status and shortness of breath. The patient is​ conscious, but confused. He is breathing at a rate of 20 breaths per minute. His pulse is rapid and​ weak, and his skin cool and diaphoretic. An Emergency Medical Responder provides you with the following vital​ signs: pulse​ 136, respirations​ 20, blood pressure​ 168/88, and SpO2 at​ 89%. Family states that he is diabetic and takes insulin. He also has a history of​ hypertension, colon​ cancer, irregular​ heartbeat, and transient ischemic attacks​ (TIA). Which one of the following should you do​ next?

Apply supplemental oxygen

Your patient is a middle-aged male who collapsed while shopping and now responds to verbal stimuli with confused speech. His pulse is 96, respirations 16, blood pressure 158/88, SpO2 at 96%, blood glucose level 80 mg/dl. Which one of the following should you do next?

Apply supplemental oxygen.

You are treating a victim of a fall with an altered mental status who is now having sonorous respirations. What should you​ do?

Apply the jaw thrust maneuver.

Regarding your actions at the landing zone for a medical helicopter, which of these actions is appropriate?

Approach the aircraft from the front, allowing the pilot to maintain visual contact

​"He has bad​ kidneys."

Assessment of a 56dash-yeardash-old male reveals him to be responsive to verbal stimuli with garbled speech. What statement made by the​ patient's wife suggests that the​ patient's problem may be toxicdash-​metabolic? A. ​"He has bad​ kidneys." B. ​"He fell and hit his head​ yesterday." C. ​"He was diagnosed last year with​ Alzheimer's." D. ​"He had a stroke two years​ ago."

highly suggestive that a stroke is occurring.

Assessment of a 63dash-yeardash-old female reveals a patent​ airway, adequate​ breathing, and strong radial pulse. She has no difficulty speaking and no facial​ droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. The EMT should interpret these findings​ as: A. not suggestive of a stroke. B. highly suggestive that a stroke is occurring. C. suggestive of a stroke if the blood pressure is increased and pupils are not equal. D. suggestive of a stroke if the blood pressure is also elevated.

suction the airway.

Assessment reveals a drooling 48dash-yeardash-old male to have gurgling speech and leftdash-arm paralysis. The​ EMT's immediate priority is​ to: A. suction the airway. B. protect the left arm. C. determine the time of onset. D. determine risk factors for stroke.

A confused and lethargic 50-year-old female is short of breath. You are told she has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The primary assessment reveals a breathing rate of eight times per minute and cool, clammy skin. Which one of the following should be your next action?

Assist respirations with positive pressure ventilation

What is a benefit of using​ closed-ended questions to gather a​ history? A. You can mislead the patient. B. You can still gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient. C. You can exercise control over the information that is sought. D. There is no benefit.

B. You can still gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient.

You are trying to talk with a patient who speaks a different language. This communication obstacle is known​ as: A. poor diction. B. interference. C. lost cues. D. feedback.

B. interference

All of the following are ways to reduce the risk of​ ambulance-related CO poisoning​ EXCEPT: A. ensure vehicle exhaust exits beyond the side of the​ ambulance, not beneath it. B. keep the ambulance windows and vents open when the ambulance is parked and the engine is running. C. keep the heater or air conditioner on at all times when operating the ambulance. D. ensure​ fuel-powered supplemental equipment is not used in close proximity to the ambulance.

B. keep the ambulance windows and vents open when the ambulance is parked and the engine is running

You are dispatched for a​ "possible stroke." Upon​ arrival, you find a​ 76-year-old male patient with facial droop and paralysis to the left side of his body. You load him into the ambulance​ and, by the time you reach the emergency department 18 minutes​ later, he has recovered fully. He MOST likely suffered​ a/an: A. intercranial iliac occurrence. B. minor hemorrhagic stroke. C. transient ischemic attack. D. reversible ischemic incident.

C. transient ischemic attack.

While driving an​ ambulance, how far down the road should you​ scan? A. 25 to 30 seconds B. Two vehicle lengths C. 12 to 15 seconds D. Four blocks

C. 12 to 15 seconds

In​ 24-hour clock​ time, 7:00 pm is​ _______ hours. A. 1700 B. 0700 C. 1900 D. 1300

C. 1900

In most​ states, under what conditions is an emergency vehicle allowed to take​ actions, such as exceeding the speed​ limit, traveling against the flow of​ traffic, or proceeding through an intersection on a red​ light? A. When the driver judges the situation to require these measures B. When exercising due​ regard, even if lights or sirens are not being used C. When using emergency​ lights, audible warning devices​ (sirens or​ horn), and exercising due regard for the safety of others D. Whenever either lights or sirens are used to warn the public

C. when using emergency lights, audible warning devices (sirens or horn), and exercising due regard for the safety of others

You should suspect respiratory difficulty in a patient with damage to the spinal cord at or above which level?

C3 to C5

Which of the following statements regarding the use of GPS by the ambulance operator while driving is​ TRUE? A. After a short training​ period, it is no longer a distraction. B. GPS voice commands are not a distraction. C. GPS helps determine the best route to the scene. D. The driver is the only person who should use GPS.

C. GPS helps determine the best route to the scene

The information in a PCR is protected​ under: A. EMTALA. B. the Ryan White Care Act. C. HIPAA. D. the Affordable Health Care Act.

C. HIPAA

Most​ responsive, noncritical medical patients should be transported positioned in​ __________ position. A. left lateral recumbent B. Trendelenburg C. ​Fowler's D. supine

C. fowlers

When being followed too​ closely, move over to allow the vehicle to pass​ or: A. speed up. B. flash your lights. C. slow down. D. immediately stop.

C. slow down

You are transporting the victim of a stabbing who is displaying signs of shock. In what position should this patient be​ transported? A. Prone B. Trendelenburg position C. Supine D. ​Semi-Fowler's position

C. supine

Which of the following statements about driving above the speed limit when responding to an emergency is​ TRUE? A. Evasive maneuvers are easier to accomplish as speed increases. B. Reaction distance increases exponentially as speed increases. C. The speed at which an ambulance is driven is directly proportional to the urgency of the emergency. D. Driving too fast for conditions is the primary factor in loss of control of vehicles.

C. the ambulance box is not tested by its manufacturer in a manner that predicts how it will perform in a collision

The left lateral recumbent position is also known​ as: A. the​ semi-recumbent position. B. ​Fowler's position. C. the recovery position. D. the prone position.

C. the recovery position

In accordance with the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians​ (NAEMT), shift security briefings should take the form of any of the following​ EXCEPT: A. meetings. B. information sheets. C. performance reviews. D. postings.

C. performance reviews

Which of these statements about accommodations should you anticipate is CORRECT in assessing and caring for an elderly​ patient? A. The​ patient's skin condition is a good indicator of dehydration. B. Fever in the geriatric patient will most always result in very warm skin. C. The acute onset of an irregular pulse is a normal occurrence in this age group. D. The elderly​ patient's diminished gag reflex makes him vulnerable to aspiration.

D. The elderly​ patient's diminished gag reflex makes him vulnerable to aspiration.

When the body is no longer able to maintain the blood pressure in the presence of a mechanism that causes​ shock, shock is said to​ be: A. irreversible. B. compensated. C. ischemic. D. decompensated.

D. decompensated.

In the geriatric​ patient, a small amount of blood loss will result​ in: A. dry skin. B. bradycardia. C. polyuria. D. shock.

D. shock.

Which of the following statements concerning nonverbal communications is​ CORRECT? A. Standing with your arms crossed is universally understood as conveying hostility. B. In Western society making eye contact is a sign of disrespect and aggression. C. All sick and injured patients welcome being touched on the​ hand, arm, or shoulder. D. A distance of less than 18 inches from someone else is threatening or uncomfortable for many people.

D. a distance of less than 18 inches from someone else is threatening or uncomfortable for many people

All of the following are potential benefits to air medical transport​ EXCEPT: A. flight crews have special training in techniques such as central line insertion and chest tube insertion. B. patients may be able to receive blood products during transport. C. patients can receive the advantage of equipment such as​ ventilators, IV​ pumps, and blood chemistry​ analyzers, prior to arrival at the hospital. D. air ambulances have fewer​ weather-related limitations than ground ambulances.

D. air ambulances have fewer weather-related limitations than ground ambulances

You are anticipating difficulty in communicating with a patient because you think it is likely that the patient does not know many words in​ English, and you​ don't speak the​ patient's native language of Spanish. You​ should: A. discuss the​ patient's condition with family first. B. have dispatch find out if the patient speaks English. C. ask family or friends if the patient can communicate. D. always communicate with the patient first.

D. always communicate with the patient first

What is the leading cause of ambulance​ accidents? A. Inclement weather B. Operators of other vehicles C. Vehicle failure D. Ambulance operator error

D. ambulance operator error

How many sets of vital signs should be included in the patient care​ report? A. No more than three B. None C. One D. At least two

D. at least two

One of the biggest mistakes an Advanced EMT can make at the scene is​ to: A. fail to wear gloves during a transfer. B. overdrive the ambulance headlights. C. back up at a scene without a spotter. D. fail to adequately​ size-up a scene.

D. fail to adequately size-up a scene

Which of the following neurosurgical is released during a stressful event?

Epinephrine

Which of these substances is involved in initiating and maintaining the stress response?

Epinephrine

Hypoglycemia

When assessing a patient with strokedash-like signs and​ symptoms, it is critical that the EMT also suspect and rule out what​ condition? A. Syncope B. Hypoglycemia C. Narcotic overdose D. Shock

bells palsy

Which of the following​ non-stroke disorders could result in a​ "probability of ischemic​ stroke" according to the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale? A. ​Guillain-Barre syndrome B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis​ (ALS) C. ​Bell's palsy D. ​Burke's encephalopathy

have you had a seizure

Which one of the following questions would the EMT ask when performing the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke​ Screen? A. ​"Is your hand grip​ weak?" B. ​"Do you smoke​ cigarettes?" C. ​"Have you ever had a​ seizure?" D. ​"Do you take blood​ thinners?"

Which letter in the mnemonic TRACEM refers to nuclear fuels and by-products of nuclear bombs?

R: Radiological (nuclear fuels and by products, nuclear bombs)

Maintaining an adequate airway

Your patient has been complaining of a severe headache. During​ transport, you notice that he is now developing an altered mental status. What is your primary​ concern? A. Maintaining an adequate airway B. Completing your history C. Checking his neurological status D.

​"We noticed him acting oddly about 7​ p.m."

Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the​ patient's family is most important to the EMT in relation to a possible​ stroke? A. ​"We noticed him acting oddly about 7​ p.m." .B. ​"He forgot to take his blood thinner last​ night." C. ​"He took some ibuprofen last night for a fever and​ cough." D. ​"We think that he had too much to drink last​ night."

Which one of the following statements about ventilation in a healthy patient is true? Select one: a. Inspiration is an active process that requires energy; expiration requires little to no energy b. Both inspiration and expiration require the same amount of energy. c. Inspiration and expiration require no energy in a healthy person. d. Inspiration requires little energy; expiration requires much energy.

a. Inspiration is an active process that requires energy; expiration requires little to no energy

You are transporting a four-year-old female who you found sitting in a chair with labored respirations, inspiratory stridor, and drooling. Which one of the following signs would warrant immediate reassessment? Select one: a. The stridor disappears. b. The patient remains dyspneic. c. The drooling continues. d. The patient's SpO2 remains at 96%.

a. The stridor disappears.

The MOST significant problem with a patient who loses the gag reflex would​ be: A. an inability to protect the airway. B. slurred speech. C. loss of uvular function. D. choking.

an inability to protect the airway.

The EMT would recognize which therapy as the best for definitively treating an ST elevation myocardial infarction​ (AMI)?

angioplasty

Communication equipment that operates on battery power should be checked a. hourly b. monthly c. daily d. weekly

daily

How often should the batteries in portable radios be​ changed? A. Weekly B. Twice each shift C. After they fail D. Daily

daily

The tricuspid valve prevents blood​ from:

flowing from the right ventricle into the right atrium.

To prompt a radio used to proceed with his message, the appropriate term would be a. come in b. go ahead c. stand by d. spell out

go ahead

As you complete your assessment, you place your hand on your elderly patient's shoulder. This is an example of: a. cultural relativism b. posture c. haptics d. gestures

haptics

6 year old won't keep non rebreather mask on face

have mom hold it near her face

A six-year-old female is in respiratory distress and will not keep the nonrebreather face mask on her face. In this situation, the EMT should:

have the mother hold it near her face

Your​ 26-year-old female patient has breathing difficulty and has been prescribed an MDI bronchodilator. If all the requirements to administer the medication have been​ met, the steps​ include: A. having the patient inhale​ fully, then place her lips around the mouthpiece. B. leaving the oxygen off the patient until you can assess whether the medication worked. C. placing the patient on a nasal cannula for convenience. D. instructing the patient to hold her breath for as long as is comfortable after inhaling the medication.

instructing the patient to hold her breath for as long as is comfortable after inhaling the medication.

a patient may think that you are NOT concerned with her issues if you a. seem empathetic b. ask closed-ended questions c. interrupt the patient d. reflect

interrupt the patient

A patient who suffers a silent MI will most​ likely:

not be awakened by a heart attack as he sleeps.

You are assisting a patient in taking her metered-dose inhaler for the first time. Which one of the following statements about the side effects of the medication would be most appropriate? Select one: a. "You may experience a runny nose and increase in saliva." b. "You may feel anxious and your heart rate may increase." c. "The medication may cause you to become very tired and fatigued." d. "You will probably not even remember taking the medication."

b. "You may feel anxious and your heart rate may increase.

Which one of the following is considered an early sign of inadequate breathing in children? Select one: a. Tremors to the hands b. Nasal flaring c. Barrel chest d. Blue-gray skin

b. Nasal flaring

Which one of the following is considered an early sign of inadequate breathing in children? Select one: a. Tremors to the hands b. Nasal flaring c. Barrel chest d. Blue-gray skin

b. Nasal flaring

When auscultating breath sounds, the EMT should recognize rhonchi when he hears which one of the following sounds? Select one: a. Crowing-like sounds that are accompanied by a high-pitched cough b. Rattling-like noises that decrease when the patient coughs c. Crackling-like noises that are heard in the upper portion of the lung d. High-pitched whistling-like noises heard more on expiration

b. Rattling-like noises that decrease when the patient coughs

A four-year-old female is having great difficulty breathing. She is responsive to verbal stimuli and has an open airway. Her respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute, and she has an SpO2 reading of 88% while receiving high-flow oxygen through a pediatric nonrebreather mask. Her pulse is rapid, and her skin cool to the touch. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize what condition? Select one: a. Respiratory arrest b. Respiratory failure c. Cardiopulmonary arrest d. Respiratory distress

b. Respiratory failure

Gestures, mannerisms, and postures by which a person communicates with others are known​ as: A. body language. B. summary. C. silence. D. facilitation.

body language

Which of the terms listed is used to afford a pause to allow another user, such as a hospital receiving a patient care report, to respond or interrupt if needed? a. break b. pause c. stand by d. clear

break

In treating the patient with a history of​ asthma, it is helpful to assist the patient​ with: A. ​bag-mask ventilation. B. bronchodilator medication. C. an epinephrine injection. D. four baby aspirins.

bronchodilator medication.

How can you exercise some control over a patient who talks too​ much? A. By summarizing B. By reflecting C. By asking​ open-ended questions D. By asking​ closed-ended questions

by asking closed ended questions

When assessing a three-year-old male in respiratory distress, the EMT should recognize "see-saw" breathing when he observes which one of the following signs? Select one: a. Retraction of the muscles between the ribs b. Alternate breathing through the nose and mouth c. Movement of the chest and abdomen in opposite directions d. Up-and-down motion of the head as the patient breathes

c. Movement of the chest and abdomen in opposite directions

The EMT indicates that he is properly assessing the patient's breath sounds when he gives which one of the following instructions to the patient? a. "Please take a deep breath and gently cough as I listen to your lungs." b. "I need to listen to your right lung first and then compare it to your left." c. "Please sit upright and take a deep breath through your nose as I listen to your lungs." d. "Please breathe slowly through your mouth as I listen to your lungs."

d. "Please breathe slowly through your mouth as I listen to your lungs."

How many breaths per minute would you recognize as normal for a child who is breathing adequately? Select one: a. 30 to 40 b. 40 to 45 c. 5 to 10 d. 15 to 30

d. 15 to 30

When assessing a patient complaining of shortness of breath in the prehospital setting, which one of the following actions should the EMT perform first? Select one: a. Determine the cause of the shortness of breath. b. Get the patient's SpO2 to 100%. c. Ascertain whether the patient has used an MDI. d. Assess the adequacy of a patient's breathing.

d. Assess the adequacy of a patient's breathing.

You have been called for a two-year-old male who is sick and having a difficult time breathing. On scene, you find the patient in his mother's arms. He appears to have labored breathing and skin that is warm to the touch. Which one of the additional assessment findings listed below should you recognize as the most serious? Select one: a. Respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute b. Continual crying accompanied by a fever of 99.4°F c. Slight abdominal movement with breathing d. Grunting noise heard as the child exhales

d. Grunting noise heard as the child exhales

What common lifting injury typically results in​ long-term disability? A. Knee injury B. Shoulder injury C. Ankle injury D. Back injury

d. back injury

An abnormal breath sound that is typically heard upon auscultation of the posterior thorax during inhalation​ is: A. stridor. B. rales. C. rhonchi. D. wheezing.

rales.

A patient has called 911 for chest pain that he describes as​ "tearing" and radiating between his shoulders. His airway is​ patent, breathing accelerated but​ adequate, and radial pulse intact. Your partner reports the following vital​ signs: pulse​ 120, respirations​ 22, blood pressure​ 88/64, and SpO2 at​ 96% on room air. At this​ time, you​ should:

recheck the blood pressure in the other arm.

When treating a patient with chest​ pain, the primary goal of the EMT is​ to:

recognize the possibility of cardiac compromise and provide proper care.

A patient who is chronically hypoxic because of anemia most likely has a problem with what component of the cardiovascular​ system?

red blood cells

You have been called for a​ 58-year-old male with an unknown medical emergency. On scene you find the alert and oriented patient to be complaining of headache as well as weakness and​ "tingling" to his right arm and leg. He is diabetic and suffers from high blood​ pressure, for which he takes the appropriate medications. When​ asked, he states that he thinks he may have passed out earlier in the​ day, immediately after taking his morning dose of insulin. His pulse is​ 96, respirations​ 16, and blood pressure​ 180/106 mmHg. Based on this​ presentation, you should treat the patient​ for:

stroke

When attempting to distinguish a spinal injury from a​ stroke, the EMT should remember​ that:

stroke typically results in weakness or paralysis to one side of the body.

You arrive on scene for a female patient who awoke from sleep at night with a mild headache and the inability to speak clearly. The patient has a history of​ hypertension, high​ cholesterol, and constipation. Given the​ findings, the EMT should initially​ suspect: A. hyperglycemia. B. drug overdose. C. stroke. D. silent MI.

stroke.

You are completing the prehospital care report and are documenting the fact that you assisted a patient in taking his nitroglycerin pill. How will you document the route of​ administration?

sublingual

While gathering a verbal history from a patient who is very​ distraught, you periodically rephrase what you believe the patient is​ saying, to ensure you are understanding correctly. This technique to improve communication is known​ as: A. clarification. B. explanation. C. confrontation. D. summary.

summary

When faced with a patient who is complaining of an​ abrupt-onset headache with severe pain that worsens with bending​ over, the EMT​ should: A. administer instant glucose. B. suspect a serious underlying condition. C. leave the area. D. assist ventilations.

suspect a serious underlying condition.

The patient who has pneumonia usually has all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. vomiting blood. B. fever. C. decreased appetite. D. malaise.

vomiting blood.

The EMT correctly asesses for accessory muscle use when he examines what part of body.

Chest

Which of the following is a​ toxic-metabolic cause of altered mental​ status? A. Stroke B. Shock C. Narcotics D. Liver failure

D. Liver failure

Which of the following should lead the EMT to consider hypothermia in the elderly​ patient? A. Hypertension B. Temperature of 34degrees°C C. Tachypnea D. Tachycardia

B. Temperature of 34degrees°C

Most body cells can survive for a period of time without glucose or can switch to alternative fuels EXCEPT​ __________ cells. A. bone B. skeletal muscle C. brain D. pancreas

C. brain

Which of the following should be included in a report to the receiving​ hospital? A. Whether the patient has health insurance B. What medications the patient takes C. The​ patient's address D. The​ patient's name

B. what medications the patient takes

If your partner told you that you started the oxygen therapy on your patient at​ 3:30 AM, what time would you document on your​ PCR? A. 1530 hours B. 0330 hours C. ​03:30 hours D. ​15:30 hours

0330 hours

Less than what percent of the American population are combat veterans?

1 percent

what power output do most portable radios have? a. 1 to 5 watts b. 25 to 35 watts c. 5 to 10 watts d. 0.5 to 3 watts

1 to 5 watts

How long does a TIA typically take to​ resolve?

2 hours.

A patient requires several doses of medication from her metered-dose inhaler. At a minimum, how long should the EMT should wait between administrations?

2 minutes

If you were on scene from 1345 hours to 1415 hours, how long were you there? a. 10 minutes b. 100 minutes c. 30 minutes d. 15 minutes

30 minutes

What time is 1900​ hours? A. ​7:00 P.M. B. ​9:00 P.M. C. ​5:00 P.M. D. ​9:00 A.M.

7pm

You are caring for a patient with penetrating abdominal trauma secondary to an industrial explosion. The patient has an altered mental status and is found to be​ hypotensive, tachycardic, and tachypneic. During your fluid​ administration, what minimum systolic blood pressure do you wish to​ maintain?

80 mmHg

More than _____ percent of Americans will live in poverty for at least one year.

90

Despite having an adequate respiratory rate and​ depth, your patient with altered mental status has an SpO2 of 82 percent and is displaying cyanosis of the nail beds and mouth. How should you address his oxygen level​ initially?

A nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm

aphasia.

A 49dash-yeardash-old male is unable to speak. You would document this​ as: A. aphasia. B. dysplegia. C. dysarthria. D. apnea.

A 54 year old female patient has a urinary catheter. She complains of blood-tinged urine and lower abdominal pain. You should suspect:

A urinary tract infection

Hypoglycemia= deficiency of glucose in the bloodstream.

A patient suffering from what other disorder can sometimes be confused with a patient experiencing a stroke. A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypoglycemia C. Congestive heart failure D. A transitional hemorrhage

Which feature of personnel identification badges is encouraged to deter impersonation of EMS personnel?

A photo of the employee on the identification badge

Which of the following should be done when operating an ambulance in inclement​ weather? A. Increase your front cushion. B. Decrease your lane change time. C. Increase your side cushion. D. Increase your rear cushion.

A. increase your front cushion

Hypoglycemia= Below 60​ mg/dL

According to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS), at what blood glucose level can hypoglycemia be a possible pathology in the patient who is apparently suffering from a​ stroke? A. Above 400​ mg/dL B. Above 125​ mg/dL C. Below 60​ mg/dL D. Below 25​ mg/dL

What is the term for placental detachment from the uterine wall that can occur from blunt abdominal trauma in the pregnant​ female?

Abruptio placentae

Which of the following can reduce the potential for abdominal​ injury?

All of the above

Which of these organs is the source of the substances that initiate and maintain the stress response?

Adrenal glands

A 58 year old male patient recently received an impaled ventricular assist device. He is complaining of issues with the machine. You should:

Allow the caregiver to guide your treatment

A 65 year old male patient has an implanted ventricular assist device. You notice that there is an alarm sounding. You should:

Allow the family to troubleshoot the device

Which of the following is the intended greatest benefit of home medical technology?

Allows increased independence and a more normal living situation

What is the definition of "hazardous material"?

Any material that poses a threat to life, health, or property.

At what point should your daily vehicle inspection checklist be performed?

At the beginning of your shift, before your first call.

Ambient air contains approximately​ _______ percent oxygen. A. 16 B. 21 C. 79 D. 100

B. 21

Which choice will be required for you to be able to ventilate a patient through a tracheostomy tube?

Bag-valve device without the mask

Auscultation of breath sounds in a patient complaining of shortness of breath reveals wheezing. Which one of the following conditions is responsible for this finding?

Bronchiole constriction

Auscultation reveals wheezing. What is responsible for this.

Bronchiole constriction

A patient with a vagus nerve stimulator is experiencing an aura and feels he is about to have a seizure. The stimulator can be activated:

By a special magnet

You and your partner respond to a medical emergency for an elderly patient. Your partner refers to the patient as​ "honey" and​ "sugar." What does addressing patients using terms of endearment potentially​ diminish? A. Barriers to understanding B. Cultural factors C. Patient dignity D. The difficulty of therapeutic communication

C. patient dignity

What is considered to be a valuable informational resource when dealing with hazardous materials incidents?

CHEMTREC

What is the 24-hour resource operated by the Chemical Manufacturers Association?

CHEMTREC

Pursed lip breathing is common on

COPD

67 year old male complains of shortneess of breath. Can't remember how many times he used inhaler.

Call medical direction for advisement

Which of the following is NOT part of the prehospital examination of the patient with suspected abdominal​ trauma?

Checking for blood in the urine

Dysarthria is when a patient:

Cannot pronounce words correctly

Which of the following statements regarding cardiac compromise or acute coronary syndrome should the EMT recognize as​ true?

Cardiac compromise should be suspected for any patient with chest discomfort.

Which class of garment is designed for traffic moving at less than 25 miles per hour?

Class 1

In which area at a hazmat incident are normal triage, stabilization, and treatment of patients who have been decontaminated performed?

Cold zone

Which of the following is a common initial complaint with an intraventricular shunt emergency?

Confusion

You are treating a child who you suspect is a victim of human trafficking. You are unable to transport the child due to hostility at the scene. You should:

Contact law enforcement

By which mechanism would a patient with radiation injury pose a risk of exposing the EMT?

Contamination particles that are still on the patient

For what purpose is a portable stretcher typically​ used? A. Rapid extrication B. Transporting bariatric patients C. Moving a patient down stairs D. Moving patients over difficult terrain

D. moving patients over difficult terrain

Your patient is an​ 18-year-old man who was slashed across the abdomen with a machete. He has a mass of omentum and small bowel protruding from the wound. Which of the following is your primary concern with this​ patient?

Covering the wound with a​ sterile, saline-moistened dressing covered by an occlusive dressing

What sign or symptom would the EMT typically associate with congestive heart​ failure?

Crackles in both lungs

You are assessing a patient in heart failure. Which of the following signs or symptoms seemingly indicates that the left ventricle is the cause of the heart​ failure?

Crackles in the bases of both lungs

Which of these conditions is NOT common among hospice patients?

Crohn's disease

Which of these devices should you anticipate when responding to a patient who is dependent on medical technology?

Dialysis shunts, vascular access devices, urinary catheters, ventilators, CPAP and feeding tubes

Bleeding around a vascular access device may indicate:

Dislodgment

Determination of the cause of altered mental status should​ begin:

During your scene size up.

Which of these statements BEST describes the reason why EMS providers should be knowledgeable about patients with special challenges?

EMS may be called when the chronic condition worsens or a medical device fails

The nervous systems response to trauma that has happened in the past can trigger what kind of response?

Fight or flight

To which level of training are MOST EMT's trained, as a minimum?

First Responder Awareness

The manufacture of butane hash oils is commonly associated with injuries from:

Explosions

Which one of the listed federal agencies is responsible for assigning radio frequencies and issuing​ licenses? A. FAA B. NHTSA C. DOT D. FCC

FCC

According to the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale, which of the following must be​ assessed?

Facial droop

Which of these behaviors is characteristic of PTSD?

Feeling of anger, fear, horror, and hopelessness

​_____ can cause a patient to become agitated and aggressive. A. Hyperventilation B. Decreased carbon dioxide C. Hypoxia D. Cyanosis

Hypoxia

Which accessory organ receives bile and stores it until it is needed during digestion of fatty​ food?

Gallbladder

An abnormal increase in intraocular pressure is:

Glaucoma

What additional assesment is most serious?

Grunting noise heard as child exhales.

What was the signature wound during the conflict in Vietnam?

Gunshot wound to the chest

You have been called for a patient who suddenly became confused. Which one of the following assessment findings should concern you most?

Heart rate of 180 but regular

Depending on the location of the nontraumatic brain​ injury, signs and symptoms may​ include:

Hemiplegia or hemiparesis.

You are having a hard time getting the past medical history of a patient who is short of breath. Which one of the following pieces of information would lead the EMT to believe that the patient has a history of chronic lung disease, such as emphysema or chronic bronchitis?

Her chest is "barrel" shaped.

A common risk factor for thrombotic stroke​ is:

High blood pressure.

Which of these is a philosophy of care aimed at relief of symptoms for patients and support for their families during late stages of a terminal condition?

Hospice care

How long does it usually take for symptoms of MOST hazardous material exposure-related illnesses to manifest following exposure?

Hours

When assessing the potential for danger when interacting with a returning combat veteran, which of these questions should you use?

How many weapons do you own?

Which of the following conditions can initially present with lethargy and​ confusion? A. Anoxia B. Hypoxia C. Dyspnea D. Hypercarbia

Hypercarbia

Which of these statements regarding the general nature of state laws that govern emergency ambulance operations is TRUE?

If you do not exercise due regard for the safety of others, you are liable for the consequences

Which of these actions should be taken to maintain control of the ambulance if you must enter an area of standing water?

If you need to brake, pump gently on the brakes to avoid sliding.

Toxic-metabolic causes

Into what category of causes of altered mental status would​ anoxia, hypoglycemia, and carbon monoxide poisoning​ fall? A. Shock B. ​Toxic-metabolic causes C. Central nervous system​ (CNS) depression D. Structural causes

Which of the following medications is prescribed to a patient for a respiratory​ disease? A. Hydrochlorothiazide B. Pravastatin C. Isoetharine D. Moban

Isoetharine

This prehospital stroke screen has been found to have a 97 percent success rate in determining which patients have actually suffered a stroke. A. LAPSS B. OCVAT C. CPSS D. USAST

LAPSS

This prehospital stroke screen has been found to have a 97 percent success rate in determining which patients have actually suffered a stroke. A. OCVAT B. LAPSS C. CPSS D. USAST

LAPSS (The Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen)

The EMT should most suspect a patient suffers from heart failure when he takes what​ medication

Lasix

How should the EMT listen to breath sounds over each​ lung? A. Listen on one side for a complete respiratory​ cycle, and then listen to the exact mirror location on the other side. B. Listen at the bottom of the lung first for a complete respiratory​ cycle, and then listen to the top of the lung on the same side. C. Listen to the anterior surface for a complete respiratory​ cycle, and then listen to the exact mirror location on the posterior surface. D. Listen at the top of the lung first for a complete respiratory​ cycle, and then listen to the bottom of the lung on the same side.

Listen on one side for a complete respiratory​ cycle, and then listen to the exact mirror location on the other side.

Which abdominal organ is responsible for detoxifying​ blood, producing​ bile, storing​ glycogen, producing proteins utilized in the clotting​ process, and assisting in osmotic fluid​ regulation?

Liver

Which of these measures is required to prevent unauthorized access to ambulances?

Maintain a key log to account for all keys to restricted areas and to vehicles

A 64 year old female patient complains of bleeding around the peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC) line in her left arm. How should you control the bleeding?

Maintain pressure over the site

When treating a patient with an intraventricular shunt emergency, you should first:

Manage the airway

Which is commonly encountered by emergency medical technicians (EMTs) in a clandestine drug laboratory?

Methamphetamine

What treatment is the MOST critical factor in the emergency care of a stroke​ patient? A. Determining the degree of deficit B. Maintaining an SpUpper O 2O2 of​ 100% C. Communicating the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale to the ED before arrival D. Minimizing the time between the stroke and definitive care

Minimizing the time between the stroke and definitive care

What treatment is the MOST critical factor in the emergency care of a stroke​ patient?

Minimizing the time between the stroke and definitive care.

Which of the following is a common problem that occurs with gastrointestinal and genitourinary devices?

Misplacement

After administering bronchodilator to patient through SVN what is alarming to EMT.

My chest feels heavy.

In assessing signs and symptoms what raises suspicion to heart failure and not COPD or asthma?

Pulmonary Crackles

What BEST describes the required contents of shipping papers associated with hazardous materials?

Name of the substance, quantity, origin, and destination

Early sign of inadequate breathing in children?

Nasal Flaring

Structural lesions

Neurologic disorders that display symptoms of unilateral hemispheric involvement are generally the result of which of the following​ mechanisms? A. Hypercarbia B. Anoxia C. Structural lesions D. Toxic metabolic states

Which of the following hormones is released in a stress reaction?

Norepinephrine

EMT understands adequate breathering when he states

Normal and adequate breathing is determined by assesment.

Which statement BEST explains the use of your senses to detect hazardous materials?

Not all hazardous materials give sensory clues to their presence

Which of these actions is taken first upon arriving at the receiving hospital facility?

Notify dispatch of your arrival and make an official transfer of care to an appropriate health care provider at the facility

The EMT responds to a call for an inhalation injury from pool chlorine chemicals. Which type of substance would this be considered?

Oxidizing

Which of the following organs is LEAST likely to be injured in penetrating trauma to the​ abdomen?

Pancreas

What condition would the EMT recognize as a neurological​ deficit?

Paralysis

Which one of the following conditions is a neurologic deficit?

Paralysis

After you administer MDI, it is important

Patient holds breath for several seconds

Family directs you to a bedroom where 62-year old male is in respiratory distress. What suggests chronic respiratory disease.

Patient in tripod position.

In the​ blood, what component is responsible for the formation of blood​ clots?

Platelets

PTSD stands for:

Post-traumatic stress disorder

Which develops following the extreme stress of combat?

Post-traumatic stress disorder

Many COPD or asthma patients use this to self-administer broncho-dilator

SVN

What should be established FIRST at a hazardous materials incident?

Safety zones

Which finding is most critical to the paramedic regarding a genital injury to a female from​ assault?

Preserving physical evidence

Passing a special magnet over a vagus nerve stimulator may:

Prevent a seizure

Which of these guidelines is helpful in assessing and communicating with a returning combat veteran in need of your assistance?

Providing structure and organization in your approach and you interaction with the patient

3 year old isn't breathing right. What is most concernign.

Prolonged and forced expiration

While on the scene of a suspected domestic abuse call, you should:

Protect your escape route

Which choice is considered one of the four essential features of PTSD?

Relives the event or events

Which of these predisposes a returning combat veteran to chronic traumatic encephalopathy?

Repeated traumatic brain injury

A stroke patient cannot move his left arm or leg. Based on this​ presentation, the EMT should strongly suspect that the stroke has occurred in what part of the central nervous​ system?

Right side of the brain

Which of these actions follows withdrawing a suction catheter after suctioning a tracheostomy tube or stoma?

Rinse the catheter with sterile water to clear it out before suctioning again

A vagus nerve stimulator is indicated in some patients who suffer from:

Seizures

In an injury to the abdominal​ wall, visible ecchymosis and swelling typically takes how long to​ develop?

Several hours

Prior to passing while driving an ambulance in an emergency, you should first:

Signal

Pelvic fractures can be​ life-threatening injuries due to what​ mechanism?

Significant blood loss

paralysis or weakness.

Signs and symptoms of neurologic deficit​ include: A. chest pain. B. paralysis or weakness. C. ​cool, clammy skin. D. ​deep, regular respirations.

How should you treat a patient who is homeless and unable to pay for services?

Similar to other patients with the same complaint

There are _____ core elements for advancing a culture of safety.

Six

While transporting an unresponsive stroke​ patient, you notice that the​ patient's respirations are becoming slow and irregular and that the pulse ox now reads 90 percent when it earlier read 98 percent. What should the EMT do to rectify​ this?

Start artificial ventilation.

4 year old in respiratory distress, patent airway and slow breathing. Diminshed breath sounds and SpO2 is low

Start positive pressure ventilation

Which scene clue best indicates the patient is experiencing problem in upper airway.

Stridor

You found 4 year old in chair with stridor and labored respirations. What warrants reasssemtn

Stridor dissapears

A patient has an altered mental status accompanied by loss of motor function on one side of the body. Which one of the following conditions is most likely to cause this presentation?

Stroke

What is temporary hypotension caused by the weight of the gravid​ uterus, which occurs in the third trimester of​ pregnancy?

Supine hypotensive syndrome

Which one of the validated​ stroke-screening evaluation tools screens for a patient who is aphasic or​ dysphasic?

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ (CPSS)

Why is it necessary to take the patient to the hospital if the symptoms of a stroke have subsided by the time you arrive on the​ scene?

The cause of the TIA needs to be explored by the hospital.

Which of the following is the LEAST likely reason why impoverished patients are at an increased risk of medical conditions?

The poor often choose to spend money on alcohol and drugs instead of medical care

How many compartments is the abdominal cavity divided​ into?

Three

Of the following factors that impact the survivability of a stoke​ patient, which one does the EMT have influence​ over?

Time to treatment.

Into which category of hazardous materials do weapons of mass destruction commonly fall?

Toxic and flammable gases

Which one of the following conditions would put the patient at most risk of an acute neurologic deficit?

Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

During a scene size-up, which one of the following observations most strongly suggests that the patient suffers from a chronic respiratory disease?

Tripod positioned by the patient

Which of the following best indicates the pathway of blood through the​ heart?

Vena​ cava, pulmonary​ artery, left​ ventricle, aorta

Which of the following is a possible complication of prematurely removing a patient from a dialysis machine?

Volume overload

An unconscious state in which the patient does not respond to painful stimuli is referred to​ as: A. a stroke. B. a coma. C. a seizure D. shock.

a coma.

When a patient presents with the chief complaint of​ dyspnea, the EMT should be sure​ to: A. lay the patient down. B. check the blood sugar. C. administer oxygen as appropriate. D. apply the AED.

administer oxygen as appropriate

A 49 year old male is unable to speak. You would document this​ as:

aphasia.

An obstruction of the pulmonary artery will​ cause:

backup of blood in the right side of the heart

The primary function of the heart is​ to

circulate blood

if you ask the patient, "Is your chest pain sharp?", what kind of question is this? a. open-ended b. variable-ended c. closed-ended d. narrative style

closed-ended

A person has been diagnosed with high blood pressure. A medication that can effectively serve to lower his blood pressure is one​ that:

dilates the artieries

Albuterol works by

dilating small airways

When a clot forms​ elsewhere, breaks​ free, then lodges in the​ brain, it is called​ a/n: A. neurologic stroke. B. embolic stroke. C. thrombotic stroke. D. hemorrhagic stroke.

embolic stroke.

A permanent disease process that is characterized by destruction of the alveolar walls and distention of the alveolar sacs is a type of COPD​ called: A. emphysema. B. chronic bronchitis. C. pneumonia. D. asthma.

emphysema.

A patient informs you that he has a history of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. To best assess the status of this​ condition, you​ should:

palpate the abdomen.

The injury in which abdominal organs protrude through a​ large, deep laceration of the abdominal wall is best described​ as:

evisceration.

The primary control or automaticity of the heart rate originates in​ the:

heart

You have assessed a patient and found a patent airway, adequate breathing, and strong radial pulses. She is having no difficulty speaking and no facial droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. The EMT should interpret these findings as:

highly suggestive that a stroke is occurring

A 36-year-old patient has overdosed on an unknown drug and is unresponsive. He is breathing shallowly at six times per minute. He has cyanosis around his lips and to his fingertips. His skin is cool to the touch, and his radial pulse is rapid. His breath sounds are diminished but clear. The EMT should recognize which one of the following respiratory conditions? Select one: a. Hypoxia b. Bronchospasm c. Tachypnea d. Apnea

hypoxia

What is the greatest disadvantage of relying too heavily on closed-ended questions? a. the patient will find these types of questions harder to answer b. they take longer to complete a patient interview c. if you do not ask the right question, you may not get the answer you need d. you will get too much useless information

if you do not ask the right question, you may not get the answer you need

You are treating a patient complaining of altered mental​ status, shortness of​ breath, and chest pain. A paramedic has just administered a medication that causes the sympathetic nervous system to increase its influence in the body. Which one of the following actions should you​ anticipate?

increased heart rate

An injury to the lower chest that lacerates the diaphragm is unlikely to also injure​ the:

kidneys.

Signs of respiratory failure in an infant or child​ include: A. loss of muscle tone. B. hypertension. C. inconsolability. D. tachycardia.

loss of muscle tone.

When transporting an alert but nonverbal stroke patient with a blood pressure of​ 210/110 mmHg, the EMT​ should:

make an effort to explain everything that is happening or being done.

To ensure timing accuracy and synchronicity among EMS​ personnel, MOST EMS and health care facilities​ use: A. military time. B. standardized radio codes. C. pagers. D. atomic clocks.

military time

See Saw breathing is

movement of chest and abdomens in oppsite direction

The major pulmonary dysfunction in a patient with cystic fibrosis is caused​ by: A. narrowing of the airways because of increased mucus production. B. narrowing of the airways because of decreased mucus production. C. blockage of the airways because of increased swelling. D. narrowing of the airways due to inflammation.

narrowing of the airways because of increased mucus production.

Approaching the patient with open​ arms, open​ hands, and relaxed shoulders is making good use​ of: A. distance. B. posture. C. haptics. D. gestures.

posture

After blood has entered the right​ ventricle, it is next moved into​ the:

pulmonary artery.

The primary pacemaking site of the heart is​ the:

sinoatrial node.

The chamber attached to a​ metered-dose inhaler​ (MDI) that contains the medication until it is inhaled is called​ a/n: A. small volume nebulizer. B. atomized medication. C. spacer. D. subatomized medication

spacer.

Closed-ended questions typically​ elicit: A. more subjective information. B. the most information for any given question. C. a​ long, detailed response in the​ patient's own words. D. specific pieces of information.

specific pieces of information

The suspicion of blunt abdominal trauma should be based primarily​ on:

the mechanism of injury.

Entering your patient's intimate zone may be interpreted as a. compassionate b. friendly c. stern d. threatening

threatening

A​ 56-year-old female with a smoking history and COPD complains of the sudden onset of shortness of breath and diaphoresis. History indicates no cardiac diagnosis but previous drug abuse 8 years ago. Vital signs are pulse​ 96, respiration 18 and mildly​ labored, blood pressure​ 168/102 mmHg, and SpO2​ 97% on home oxygen at 4​ lpm, which she has for COPD. Her lung sounds are clear but diminished bilaterally. You​ would:

turn down the oxygen to 2​ lpm, monitor, and transport.

The liver is injured​ ________ percent of the time with penetrating abdominal trauma.

40

Which patient would be most eligible to receive a fibrinolytic medication for stroke if no other contraindications are​ found?

48-year-old male whose symptoms started while watching the 6 p.m. news at which time he dialed 911

Who is most likely to suffer a silent​ MI?

55-year-old female with diabetes

An oxygen concentrator delivers oxygen at rates less than:

6 liters per minute

Left lateral recumbent position

A 73dash-yeardash-old female is responsive to painful stimuli and cannot move her left arm or leg. You suspect she is having a stroke. What is the best transport position for​ her? A. Supine with left arm and leg flexed B. Left lateral recumbent position C. Supine with head elevated 30 degrees D. Prone with left arm and leg flexed

what time did the signs start

A 82dash-yeardash-old male presents with rightdash-hand weakness and garbled speech. Which of the following questions should the EMT ask​ first? A. ​"What time did these signs​ start?" B. ​"Does he take any blood​ thinners?" C. ​"Does he have a history of high blood​ pressure?" D. ​"Is he allergic to​ anything?"

What is required on the exterior of a tanker truck carrying hazardous cargo?

A DOT hazard placard

Which one of the following best describes an ischemic stroke?

A blood clot obstructed a blood vessel in the brain

Why is collection of a thorough history important when assessing the victim of a severe​ headache?

A change in headache pattern indicates the need for immediate attention

What type of headache may respond to oxygen​ therapy?

A cluster headache.

An unconscious state in which the patient does not respond to painful stimuli is referred to​ as:

A coma.

high bp

A common risk factor for thrombotic stroke​ is: A. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD). B. high blood pressure. C. blunt force trauma to the head. D. high sodium intake.

You are assessing a patient who you feel is having a stroke. Her mental status is altered and you are NOT surprised to find she was complaining​ of:

A headache.

Structural

A male patient has altered mental status secondary from a brain tumor. The EMT would classify the brain tumor as what type of​ cause? A. Internal B. Metabolic C. Central .D. Structural

If your patient has taken an overdose of medication and displays respiratory​ depression, which of the following drugs did the patients MOST likely​ take? A. PCP B. A narcotic pain reliever C. Cocaine D. Amphetamines

A narcotic pain reliever

What is the basic mechanism by which air travels to the alveoli for gas​ exchange? A. A negative intrathoracic pressure created by the abdominal muscles B. A positive intrathoracic pressure created by the trachea C. A negative intrathoracic pressure created by the movement of the diaphragm D. A positive intrathoracic pressure created by the intercostal muscles

A negative intrathoracic pressure created by the movement of the diaphragm

Decorticate posturing

A sign of severely altered mental status that is commonly associated with trauma to the brainstem is flexion of the arms toward the trunk. What term is applied to this​ sign? A. ​Battle's sign B. Abnormal respiratory pattern C. Decorticate posturing D. Decerebrate posturing

Which of the following is TRUE of abdominal​ trauma?

A significant amount of blood can accumulate in the abdominal cavity before signs and symptoms of abdominal injury appear.

Right side of the brain

A stroke patient cannot move his left arm or leg. Based on this​ presentation, the EMT should strongly suspect that the stroke has occurred in what part of the central nervous​ system? A. Right and left side of the brain B. Left side of the spinal cord C. Right side of the brain D. Left side of the brain

dizziness

A symptom that is very common and is caused by a decreased or interruption to the blood supply to the brain​ is: A. tachypnea. B. tachycardia. C. hypertension. D. dizziness.

A patient who was injured in a MVC presents with​ pale, cool​ skin, a heart rate of 124 beats per​ minute, a blood pressure of​ 118/80 mmHg, and delayed capillary refill. Based on these​ findings, the estimated amount of blood loss is​ ___________ percent of the​ patient's blood volume. A. 15 to 30 B. 30 to 40 C. up to 15 D. 40 to 50

A. 15 to 30

At sea​ level, approximately​ _________ percent of the total atmospheric pressure is exerted by oxygen. A. 21 B. 16 C. 100 D. 79

A. 21

If an elderly​ patient's condition is​ unstable, what is the maximum time that should elapse between​ reassessments? A. 5 minutes B. 20 minutes C. 10 minutes D. 15 minutes

A. 5 minutes

How long is the heart in the circulatory phase of cardiac​ arrest? A. 6 minutes B. 12 minutes C. 1 minute D. 4 minutes

A. 6 minutes

According to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS), at what blood glucose level can hypoglycemia be a possible pathology in the patient who is apparently suffering from a​ stroke? A. Below 60​ mg/dL B. Above 125​ mg/dL C. Above 400​ mg/dL D. Below 25​ mg/dL

A. Below 60​ mg/dL

Which of the following is a structural cause of altered mental​ status? A. Brain tumor B. Liver failure C. Kidney failure D. Hypoxia

A. Brain tumor

With​ age, degenerative processes affect the ability of the heart to pump blood. Calcium is deposited in areas of​ deterioration, fibrous tissue begins to replace muscle​ tissue, and the heart walls become thicker. What is the medical term for that​ condition? A. Cardiac hypertrophy B. Cardiomyopathy C. Atherosclerosis D. Myocardial infarction

A. Cardiac hypertrophy

Which of these descriptions illustrates an expected​ age-related change in signs and symptoms associated with illnesses in the​ elderly? A. Complaints of​ weakness, fatigue, and​ nausea, rather than of classic chest pain with myocardial infarction B. Bradypnea is an early sign of hypoxia. C. A​ full, bounding pulse resulting from shock D. Increased likelihood of​ fever, even with minor infections

A. Complaints of​ weakness, fatigue, and​ nausea, rather than of classic chest pain with myocardial infarction

Which of these complaints is LESS likely in the elderly than in younger​ patients? A. Headache B. Joint pain C. Nausea D. Difficulty breathing

A. Headache

Patients who present with a stroke are considered what transport​ priority? A. High priority B. Unnecessary risk C. Delayed candidate D. Low priority

A. High priority

Which of the following disorders does NOT significantly impact electrolyte​ balance? A. Hypoxia B. Kidney failure C. Diarrhea D. Burns

A. Hypoxia

Which choice occurs in the elderly as a result of​ age-related changes in​ physiology? A. Increased incidence of pneumonia B. Skin becomes tough and thick C. Fever occurs more​ frequently, even with minor illnesses D. Increased sensitivity to​ pain, resulting in frequent complaints of pain without physiological basis

A. Increased incidence of pneumonia

What effect do multiple rib fractures have on pulmonary​ ventilation? A. Interferes with chest wall movement B. Increases the tidal volume C. Decreases the airway resistance D. Decreases the amount of oxygen available at the cellular level

A. Interferes with chest wall movement

Which of the following is true regarding a transient ischemic​ attack? A. It is often a precursor to a stroke. B. It has no relationship to a stroke. C. It does not resolve on its own. D. It does not share similar symptoms of a stroke.

A. It is often a precursor to a stroke.

Which of the following signs would you expect to see in cardiogenic shock but not in distributive or hypovolemic​ shock? A. Jugular vein distention B. ​Pale, cool skin C. Hypotension D. Tachycardia

A. Jugular vein distention

What happens to oxygen delivery in the body during​ hypothermia? A. Less oxygen is offloaded at the tissue level. B. The respiratory rate decreases. C. Excessive oxygen is delivered to the tissues. D. The peripheral vasculature​ dilates, reducing core oxygenation.

A. Less oxygen is offloaded at the tissue level.

What treatment is the MOST critical factor in the emergency care of a stroke​ patient? A. Minimizing the time between the stroke and definitive care B. Maintaining an SpO2 of 100 percent C. Determining the degree of deficit D. Communicating the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale to the ED before arrival

A. Minimizing the time between the stroke and definitive care

Which of the following is a common cause of pulmonary​ edema? A. Myocardial infarction B. Flu C. Anaphylaxis D. Right ventricular failure

A. Myocardial infarction

Regarding the oxyhemoglobin dissociation​ curve, which of the statements below is​ TRUE? A. Offloading of oxygen at the cellular level is impaired in alkalosis. B. Offloading of oxygen at the cellular level is impaired in acidosis. C. Onloading of oxygen is favored in acidosis. D. Increased body temperature favors onloading of oxygen.

A. Offloading of oxygen at the cellular level is impaired in alkalosis.

Which of the following is considered when determining an underlying problem in cardiac arrest​ victims? A. Potassium level B. Magnesium level C. Sodium level D. Calcium level

A. Potassium level

The​ Six-Item Screener to Identify Cognitive Impairment has three words that the patient must repeat. Which of the following is one of those​ words? A. Table B. Quarter C. Orange D. Door

A. Table

Which of the following expected signs of hypovolemic shock may be absent in a geriatric​ patient? A. Tachycardia B. Poor skin perfusion C. Altered mental status D. Jaundice

A. Tachycardia

A​ 68-year-old male patient fell from a ladder. Which of the following indicates serious trauma and the need for rapid​ transport? A. Tachypnea B. Pink skin C. Hypertension D. Bradycardia

A. Tachypnea

What causes the​ stroke-like symptoms of a TIA to​ disappear? A. The ischemia is reversed. B. Other areas of the brain take over the lost function. C. ​Aspirin, taken by the​ patient, dissolved the clot. D. Oxygen therapy elevates the SpO2.

A. The ischemia is reversed.

An unconscious state in which the patient does not respond to painful stimuli is referred to​ as: A. a coma. B. a stroke. C. shock. D. a seizure

A. a coma.

A​ 65-year-old female patient complains of general weakness and fatigue. She takes​ aspirin, nitroglycerin, and insulin. You should suspect she is​ experiencing: A. a myocardial infarction. B. a diabetic emergency. C. the flu. D. a stroke.

A. a myocardial infarction.

You are responding to a call and encounter an​ 8-year-old unconscious boy who is hypoglycemic. You decide to raise the​ boy's blood glucose levels​ by: A. administering a 25 percent dextrose solution by IV infusion. B. making the boy drink a glass of apple juice. C. starting an IV and administering a 10 percent dextrose solution. D. starting an IV and administering a 50 percent dextrose solution.

A. administering a 25 percent dextrose solution by IV infusion.

The immediately​ life-threatening consequence of severe hypoglycemia​ is: A. dysfunction and death of brain cells. B. glycogenolysis. C. tachycardia. D. diabetic ketoacidosis.

A. dysfunction and death of brain cells.

Depending on the location of the nontraumatic brain​ injury, signs and symptoms may​ include: A. hemiplegia or hemiparesis. B. urine retention and constipation. C. eyes turned toward the side of the body that is paralyzed. D. dilated pupils.

A. hemiplegia or hemiparesis.

Ultimately the study of pathophysiology allows the Advanced EMT to​ understand: A. how the body responds to threats to homeostasis. B. when to call medical direction. C. what drug to administer. D. how to perform a primary exam.

A. how the body responds to threats to homeostasis.

An​ 84-year-old male patient complains of an aching shoulder and trouble breathing. You should suspect that the patient is most likely suffering from​ a: A. myocardial infarction. B. pulmonary embolism. C. isolated shoulder injury. D. abdominal aortic aneurism.

A. myocardial infarction

Signs and symptoms of neurologic deficit​ include: A. paralysis or weakness. B. ​deep, regular respirations. C. ​cool, clammy skin. D. chest pain.

A. paralysis or weakness.

The ability of the Advanced EMT to differentiate between a pneumothorax and anaphylaxis is based on knowledge​ of: A. pathophysiology. B. the mechanism of injury. C. anatomy and physiology. D. the patient history.

A. pathophysiology.

Altered mental status resulting from a​ space-occupying lesion or from destruction of brain tissue has​ a: A. structural cause. B. hypoperfusion cause. C. ​toxic-metabolic cause. D. hypoxic cause.

A. structural cause.

When treating a patient who is complaining of a​ headache, you should always be prepared​ to: A. treat for a seizure. B. arrange for ALS intercept. C. reassess the patient every 5 minutes. D. restrain the patient.

A. treat for a seizure.

You are caring for an elderly male who has fallen in his bedroom and has suspected hip and cervical trauma. While positioning him on the​ backboard, you find a large gap between the back of the head and the surface of the backboard. You​ should: A. use padding to fill the void. B. not immobilize the patient. C. apply gentle but firm pressure on the head until it is resting on the backboard. D. immobilize the patient laterally.

A. use padding to fill the void.

When there is hypoperfusion of the​ tissues, glucose usage is​ __________, causing the blood glucose level to​ ____________. A. ​impaired; increase B. ​increased; decrease C. ​impaired; decrease D. ​unchanged; remain the same

A. ​impaired; increase

Assessment of a 56-year-old male reveals him to be responsive to verbal stimuli with garbled speech. What statement made by the​ patient's wife suggests that the​ patient's problem may be toxic-​metabolic?

"He has bad​ kidneys."

You have been called for a six-year-old male with shortness of breath. On scene you find the patient with a runny nose and mucus coming from the right nare. Breath sounds are clear and his SpO2 is 99% on room air. When asked, he states that his throat is very sore. His vital signs are: pulse 124, respirations 20, and temperature 98.9F. There is no medical history, according to the mother. Which one of the following statements or instructions would be most appropriate for this situation?

"He is very stable, but we will take him to the hospital. The danger lies in the infection spreading to the lungs."

You have arrived at a residence to help another crew with a​ 62-year-old woman who is complaining of​ fatigue, chest​ discomfort, and diaphoresis. The EMTs on scene report that she has a history of hypertension for which she takes a blood pressure pill and is prescribed nitroglycerin because she has atherosclerosis. She also reports an allergy to aspirin. Vitals are pulse​ 64, respirations​ 16, blood pressure​ 128/86, and SpO2​ 97% on room air. Which of the following statements made by the EMTs would require immediate intervention on your​ part?

"I am going to put her on​ high-concentration oxygen because she had chest​ pain."

A​ 71-year-old male with a cardiac history and lower abdominal and back pain has called 911 for help. On​ scene, you detect a large pulsatile mass in his abdomen. With the exception of skin that is​ diaphoretic, the primary assessment indicates no life threats to the​ airway, breathing, or circulation. He has a history of​ hypertension, high​ cholesterol, diabetes, and is allergic to​ sulfa-based medications. Vital signs are pulse​ 92, respirations​ 20, blood pressure​ 130/66, and SpO2​ 95% on room air. What action would make you intervene​ immediately?

"I am going to take my daily aspirin since I did not take it this​ morning."

You are getting the past medical history of a patient who suffered the sudden onset of right-side weakness. Which one of the following statements made by the patient should you recognize as increasing the patient's risk of stroke?

"I have an irregular heartbeat."

Which of the following patient statements should cause the EMT to suspect an abdominal aortic​ aneurysm?

"I have belly pain that I also feel in my​ back."

The EMT shows she understands a hemorrhagic stroke when she states:

"It occurs when a blood vessel ruptures in the brain."

Which one of the following instructions given by an EMT indicates the proper administration of​ nitroglycerin?

"Let this pill dissolve under your​ tongue."

You are treating a patient who states that he has been short of breath for the past month. Tonight, his breathing just "got too bad" and he decided to call 911. The 67-year-old male is alert and oriented and has a patent airway. He is breathing 22 times per minute but appears to have an adequate tidal volume. His pulse is strong and regular, and his skin is warm. Vital signs are: pulse 92 beats per minute, respirations 22, and blood pressure 128/66 mmHg. What instruction would you give to your partner regarding this patient's care?

"Let's go ahead and put him on 15 lpm of oxygen."

While doing a public awareness class about​ stroke, a participant asks you if all stroke patients are paralyzed on one side of their bodies. Your reply would​ be:

"No. Some stroke patients may have only slight weakness to one side of their​ bodies."

Which one of the following statements made by another​ EMT, regarding chest pain and acute coronary​ syndrome, should you agree​ with?

"Some patients experiencing acute coronary syndrome do not have actual chest​ pain; rather, they experience a sensation of discomfort or​ pressure"

Which statement would the EMT expect from a patient with unstable​ angina?

"The chest pain awakens me from my nighttime​ sleep."

A TV reporter has been assigned to your ambulance for a​ ride-along. He is doing a segment on the local EMS services for EMS week. In your down​ time, he tells you that his wife was diagnosed with atherosclerosis. He is unsure what the condition is and asks you to explain it to him. Your response would​ be:

"The coronary arteries become narrowed by fat​ deposits."

Which one of the following patient statements should make an EMT suspect primary​ hypertension?

"The doctor does not know what is causing my blood pressure to be​ high."

Which one of the following statements made by the patient suggests that he is suffering from a tension headache?

"The pain seems to get worse as the day goes on."

The EMT understands diastolic blood pressure when he describes it as which of the​ following

"The pressure in the arteries after cardiac​ contraction"

What description of headache is of utmost concern regarding the potential stroke​ patient?

"This is the worst headache of my​ life."

Your patient is unresponsive. Which piece of information given to you by the patient's family is most important to the EMT in relation to a possible stroke?

"We noticed him acting oddly about 7 p.m."

Which one of the following questions is it critical that the EMT ask the family of a patient who cannot speak and is suspected of having a​ stroke?

"What time did the weakness and dizziness​ start?"

A 82-year-old male presents with right-hand weakness and garbled speech. Which one of the following questions should the EMT ask first?

"What time did these signs start?"

When obtaining a medical​ history, which of the following patient statements seemingly indicates that he is suffering from classic​ angina?

"When I stopped cutting the​ grass, the pain went​ away."

You have been called for a 63-year-old woman with slurred speech and right-arm weakness. On arrival, the patient informs you that the slurred speech and weakness have resolved. Since your assessment reveals no deficits, the patient insists on signing a refusal. Which one of the following statements should you make prior to having her sign?

"You really need to be evaluated in the hospital. You are at significant risk for a future stroke."

You are evaluating a​ 52-year-old male patient complaining of facial drooping on his left side upon awakening this morning. You have established that he has NO prior medical​ history, vital signs were all within normal​ ranges, and his blood glucose level was 98. You have determined that he has​ right-sided facial​ droop, is slurring his words​ slightly, has equal​ grip, and has equal arm drift. What screening result would you determine according to the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale? A. The patient most likely is not having a​ stroke; rather it is an ischemic episode. B. There is a high likelihood of an ischemic stroke. C. There is a low chance that the patient had an ischemic stroke. D. It is certain that the patient suffered an ischemic stroke.

.B. There is a high likelihood of an ischemic stroke.

Which of these solutions is used for low-level disinfection?

1:100 bleach solution

For the stroke patient to be eligible for a fibrinolytic, the patient must be brought to the hospital emergency department within how many hours of the onset of stroke symptoms?

2

patient requires several doses from MDI, how long should emt wait between doses.

2 Minutes

While a patient experiencing a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA) may develop MOST of the same symptoms as a patient suffering a​ stroke, the key difference is that the signs and symptoms of a TIA usually disappear​ within:

24 hours.

While a patient experiencing a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA) may develop MOST of the same symptoms as a patient suffering a​ stroke, the key difference is that the signs and symptoms of a TIA usually disappear​ within: A. one week. B. 24 hours. C. two to four weeks. D. two to three days.

24 hours.

normal breathes for infant

25 to 50

For the stroke patient to be eligible for a fibrinolytic, it must be given within:

3 hours of the onset of stroke symptoms.

How much blood loss can occur in a​ third-trimester pregnant female before she will show signs or symptoms of​ hypovolemia?

30 percent

A vagus nerve stimulator usually provides electrical pulses for a period of:

30 seconds

The EMT shows she is correctly administering aspirin to a patient with chest pain when she​ provides:

325 mg of baby aspirin and instructs the patient to chew it.

By what amount does the construction and insulation of newer automobiles reduce the interior decibel level of an approaching siren?

35 to 40 percent

As you enter the living room of a patient who called 911 for shortness of breath, you observe the patient sitting upright in a chair with a panicked look on her face, struggling to breathe. Her breathing rate appears to be fast and tidal volume poor. You can hear rhonchi from her lungs without the aid of a stethoscope. Once at her side, you initial care should be to: Select one: a. assess her airway. b. apply oxygen immediately. c. establish her rate of breathing. d. auscultate lung sounds.

A. Assess her airway

Which of the following would be the BEST way to handle family members who are answering questions for the​ patient? A. ​"I know you have information for​ me, but I need to hear the answers to these questions from the​ patient." B. ​"Could you please leave the room until I finish collecting my​ history?" C. ​"Could you please be quiet so I can hear the​ patient's answers?" D. ​"If something the patient says is unclear then I will ask​ you."

A. I know you have information for me, but I need to hear the answers to these questions from the patient

One of the MOST important communication mediums between the Advanced EMT and the emergency department in terms of patient safety​ is: A. a clear and concise PCR. B. a clear radio signal. C. insurance information. D. concise run times.

A. a clear and concise PCR

Each of the following is a type of falsification of information on a PCR​ EXCEPT: A. accidentally transposing the numbers in a blood pressure reading. B. knowingly providing inaccurate information. C. documenting an assessment you did not do. D. leaving out evidence of a mistake.

A. accidentally transposing the numbers in a blood pressure reading

When communicating with​ others, the initial level of trustworthiness you receive is typically based​ on: A. appearance. B. authority. C. credentials. D. attention.

A. appearance

When lifting a​ patient, remember​ to: A. avoid leaning or twisting. B. twist with your back. C. lean and then twist your legs. D. lean with your back.

A. avoid leaning or twisting

You are first to arrive at an automobile accident. After properly positioning your​ vehicle, which direction should you point your​ wheels? A. Away from the accident B. Toward the accident C. Straight ahead D. Toward the right side

A. away from the accident

You are preparing to make an emergency move with your patient. You can use any of the following methods​ EXCEPT: A. axial drag. B. shirt drag. C. ​armpit-forearm drag. D. blanket drag.

A. axial drag

Which of the following is part of the EMS minimum data set for patient​ information? A. Chief complaint B. When the unit arrived at the hospital C. Time incident reported D. Time unit was notified

A. chief complaint

Which of the following is an advantage of using radio​ codes? A. Codes streamline transmission of common radio traffic. B. Codes ensure patient privacy. C. Codes are uniform across all jurisdictions. D. Codes are simple to understand.

A. codes streamline transmission of common radio traffic

Positioning patients for transport​ requires: A. communication. B. rapid extrication techniques. C. trading patient comfort for expediency. D. silent focus.

A. communication

You are using lights and siren while responding to an emergency and are entering a freeway via the access ramp. What would be the MOST appropriate way to merge with​ traffic? A. Downgrade your response while entering and merging with​ traffic, move to the far left​ lane, and resume your emergency response. B. Vary your siren to alert traffic of your approach and move to an open lane. C. Exercise extreme​ caution, vary your siren while​ merging, and move to the left lane. D. Enter the freeway and remain in the right emergency lane until you can safely move across to the left lane.

A. downgrade your response while entering and merging with traffic, move to the far left lane, and resume your emergency response

You are exiting a freeway using lights and siren while transporting a critical patient to the emergency department. Which of the following is the recommended way to execute your​ exit? A. Downgrade your response while moving to the far right lane and resume your emergency response after fully on the exit ramp. B. Vary your siren to alert traffic of your approach as you move to the right lane. C. Begin your shifting to the right lane well in advance of the exit ramp to ensure that you are in the far right lane when you reach the ramp. D. Exercise extreme caution while moving to the right lane.

A. downgrade your response while moving to the far right lane and resume your emergency response after fully on the exit ramp

Which of the following methods would typically be used to transfer a patient from a hospital bed to your​ stretcher? A. Draw sheet B. Blanket drag C. Squat lift D. Extremity lift

A. draw sheet

When receiving an order from medical direction over the​ radio, you​ should: A. echo the order for confirmation. B. ​state, "Copy." C. ​say, "Thank​ you." D. ​say, "Affirmative."

A. echo the order for confirmation

Which of the following is recommended for clarity in radio​ communications? A. For numbers with more than one​ digit, say the number followed by each individual digit. For​ example, four​ seventy-four Eastern​ Avenue, followed by​ four-seven-four Eastern Avenue. B. Always​ say, "Thank​ you," to acknowledge the other​ party's transmission. C. Always​ say, "No," when responding in the negative. D. Use​ 10-codes to convey messages clearly.

A. for numbers with more than one.........

Administrative uses of patient care reports include each of the following​ EXCEPT: A. forming a medical diagnosis. B. gathering statistical information. C. filing insurance claims. D. billing.

A. forming a medical diagnosis

Your​ 72-year-old male patient is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. In what position should he be​ transported? A. ​Fowler's position B. Prone position C. Recovery position D. Trendelenburg position

A. fowler's position

When using the​ draw-sheet method of lifting and moving a​ patient, after the team grasps the edges of the sheet to support the​ patient's head,​ torso, and​ legs, one EMS​ provider: A. gives the command to move. B. moves to the​ patient's head. C. describes the plan for moving the patient. D. lets go of the sheet.

A. gives the command to move

The primary cause of​ line-of-duty deaths in EMS​ is: A. ground ambulance operation. B. working an accident scene. C. failure to perform a proper scene​ size-up. D. domestic violence calls.

A. ground ambulance operation

A socially acceptable but often overlooked form of nonverbal communication in EMS is​ a(n): A. handshake. B. backrub. C. wink. D. pat on the head.

A. handshake

Which of the following is accurate when communicating patient information to the emergency department via​ radio? A. In​ general, it is best for you to communicate in plain English using appropriate medical terminology. B. In accordance with HIPAA​ requirements, you should use radio codes to protect patient information. C. You are not required to use radio codes while transmitting on an encrypted digital system. D. You are not required to use radio codes unless transmitting on an analog radio system.

A. in general, it is best for you to communicate in plain English using appropriate medical terminology

What is the impact of speed on kinetic​ energy? A. Increasing speed increases kinetic energy. B. Increasing speed decreases kinetic energy. C. Speed has no impact on kinetic energy. D. Speed is inversely proportional to kinetic energy.

A. increasing speed increases kinetic energy

What is the term for the ability of various emergency services within a public safety system and between jurisdictions to communicate with each​ other? A. Interoperability B. Common frequencies C. Communication D. Cooperation

A. interoperability

A nonemergency​ move: A. is a routine part of preparing a patient for transport. B. involves the rapid extrication technique. C. is used to move patients immediately to avoid further harm. D. is typically accomplished on the scene of​ multiple-casualty incident.

A. is a routine part of preparing a patient for transport

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of the​ PCR? A. It is a personal document to be retained by the EMS provider B. It is a legal document that may be subpoenaed in criminal or civil cases C. It is an administrative document used for billing purposes D. It provides data for research

A. it is a personal document to be retained by the EMS provider

Which of the following is included in the minimum data set for documentation of patient​ information? A. Level of responsiveness B. Insurance and billing information C. Location where the patient was found D. ​Patient's home address

A. level of responsiveness

You respond to a call for a patient with a medical emergency. Several of the​ patient's family members are present on the scene and want to help. Family involvement in patient communications should​ be: A. limited to the amount the patient desires. B. always ignored. C. sought out when the patient is elderly. D. used to verify the accuracy of patient statements.

A. limited to the amount the patient desires

Which of the following is NOT normally part of the concise information you should communicate to the receiving facility via​ radio? A. Location where the transport originated B. The type of injury C. Vital signs D. The name of your service

A. location where the transport originated

What is the FIRST thing you should do when using a​ radio? A. Make sure the radio is powered on and you have selected the correct frequency. B. Listen before transmitting to avoid interrupting other transmissions. C. Press the PTT button and wait one second to avoid cutting off the first part of your transmission. D. Deliver information in a​ concise, organized format.

A. make sure the radio is powered on and you have selected the correct frequency

In which section of the PCR should you detail treatment provided to the​ patient? A. Narrative B. Administrative C. Patient data D. Vital signs

A. narrative

What information should be entered in the PCR in a technical writing​ format? A. Narrative data B. Chief complaint C. Administrative data D. Vital signs

A. narrative data

Which of the following is NOT considered to be one of the top three causes of ambulance operator​ error? A. Road conditions B. Distractions C. Speed D. Fatigue

A. road conditions

The Advanced​ EMT's responsibilities with regard to emergency vehicle readiness and operations include all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. rotating the​ vehicle's tires. B. checking emergency warning devices. C. inspecting the​ vehicle's exterior. D. checking the engine oil level.

A. rotating the vehicle's tires

The use of digitized radio equipment allows all of the following​ EXCEPT: A. ​send/receive functions in subways. B. more data to be transmitted over a frequency. C. encryption of digital data. D. the use of status buttons.

A. send/receive functions in subways

What is the appropriate action when driving with lights and siren and approaching an intersection for which you have the green​ light? A. Slow to at or below the speed limit and proceed carefully through the intersection with your foot covering the brake. B. Maintain speed and proceed carefully. C. Downgrade to nonemergency driving and proceed carefully. D. Come to a full stop before proceeding.

A. slow to at or below the speed limit and proceed carefully through the intersection with your foot covering the brake

What type of terminology should be used in a written​ PCR? A. Standard B. Informal C. Objective D. Subjective

A. standard

When four EMS providers are lifting a patient onto a​ stretcher, their movements must​ be: A. synchronized. B. timed differently from one another. C. spontaneous D. independent.

A. synchronized

While your patient is telling you how much stress she is under at​ work, you suddenly ask if she has been exerting herself in the past few hours. What does changing the subject convey to your​ patient? A. That you are not interested in what she is saying B. That you are more interested in her recent activities C. That you have a sense of urgency about getting the pertinent history D. That you feel her problem is related to overexertion

A. that you are not interested in what she is saying

Which one of the following is a good way to help minimize distractions while operating the​ ambulance? A. The partner checks the GPS navigation system for directions and advises the driver of the route. B. Always use the siren when lights are on. C. Put on PPE prior to leaving the squad bay. D. Use a GPS.

A. the partner checks the GPS navigation system for directions and advises the driver of the route

Using the SOAP method of writing a patient care​ narrative, which of the following would be considered subjective​ data? A. The​ patient's chief complaint B. Treatment provided C. Vital signs taken at the scene D. Results of blood glucose monitoring performed by EMS personnel

A. the patient's chief complaint

Why is establishing rapport with the patient​ necessary? A. To gather information from the patient B. To demonstrate your authority over the patient C. To convince the patient to do whatever you say D. To protect you against liability

A. to gather information from the patient

You and your partner are responding to a call in a neighborhood with a lot of Asian immigrants. Your partner​ says, "I hate responding to calls here. I never know how to act with these​ people." What is your BEST​ response? A. ​"We need to watch how our actions and words are received and use that as a​ guide." B. ​"We just need to act the same way we would with​ anybody." C. ​"It's not like​ we're putting on a play. We just need to our​ jobs." D. ​"That's a weird thing to say.​ I've never had any​ problems."

A. we need to watch how our actions and words are received and use that as a guide

To drive​ capably, an Advanced EMT should​ be: A. ​well-rested. B. on call. C. scheduled to work. D. at the beginning of a shift.

A. well-rested

you adminster MDI through spacer.

Administer medication into spacer then have patient inhale.

A patient with a headache informs you that his physician has diagnosed him with cluster headaches. He states that the pain feels just like the last cluster headache that he suffered. The primary assessment reveals no life threats. Her vital signs are: pulse 104, respirations 16, blood pressure 124/68 mmHg, and SpO2 at 98%. You note no neurological deficits. Based on this information, which one of the following is indicated in the treatment of this patient?

Administer oxygen at two liters per minute through a nasal cannula.

An alert and oriented 45-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea. Although her respiratory volume and rate are satisfactory, you note cyanosis in her fingertips. Which one of the following should be your next action?

Administer oxygen via nonrebreather mask at 15 lpm

A patient who is responsive to painful stimuli has a patent​ airway, inadequate respirations at 28 per​ minute, and a strong radial pulse with skin that is warm and dry. The patient is not moving his right arm or leg and is incontinent of urine. Which one of the following should the EMT do​ first?

Administer positive pressure ventilation.

Your patient is a five-year-old female. The patient's mother states that her daughter has been "sick" with a sore throat and fever for several days. The mother tells you she became concerned tonight and called 911 because the child was "making funny noises" and could not breathe. Your assessment reveals an alert well-developed child sitting upright and high-pitched tracheal noises when she breathes. What is the immediate priority for this patient?

Administering high-flow oxygen

The mother says child is sick. Child made funny noises and couldn't breathe. Child is lethargic, high pitched tracheal noises.

Adminster supplemtal oxygen.

As the lead EMT on a call for a dyspneic​ patient, you are reviewing the medications the patient takes. If the clinical criteria are met for assisting the patient with the administration of a​ bronchodilator, which of the following would the EMT be unable to​ use? A. Bronkosol B. Proventil C. Xopenex D. Advair

Advair

Which of the following medications should the EMT NOT use for acute management of​ bronchoconstriction? A. Advair B. Bronkosol C. Proventil D. Xopenex

Advair

A 42 year old man has summoned emergency medical services. As your approach him, you notice that he is probably homeless. This patient needs you as both a health care provider and as an:

Advocate

Medication in a metered dose inhaler is deliver in what form.

Aerosolized

Injuries caused by improvised explosive devices are prevalent in the conflicts in:

Afghanistan

Emphysema makes breathing hard because

Air Trapping

A 45 year old male patient complains of sudden sharp chest pain. His lung sounds are clear. You notice that he has a PICC line in his right arm. You should suspect:

Air embolism

Which of the following is accurate regarding vascular access devices?

Air may be allowed into the core circulation

Failure to perform which of the following interventions in any dyspneic patient will result in cardiac​ arrest? A. MDI administration B. Intravenous therapy C. Oxygen administration D. Airway control

Airway control

You are dispatched for a patient with respiratory distress. Upon your​ arrival, the patient is unresponsive with sonorous airway sounds. What type of intervention is this patient in immediate need​ of? A. Airway control B. Oxygen therapy C. Positive pressure ventilation D. MDI administration

Airway control

Which of the following medications is prescribed to a patient for a respiratory​ disease? A. Compazine B. Albuterol C. Atorvastatin D. Propranolol

Albuterol

Which of the following may affect the pattern of injury in abdominal​ trauma?

All of the above

Which of the following is a special consideration when managing the pregnant trauma​ patient?

All of the above are special considerations.

Which of the following assessment findings in a patient who is suffering an asthma attack that is NOT relieved by medications is the MOST reliable indicator that the patient is​ hypoxic? A. Repeated coughing without expectorating any material B. Nasal flaring with each inhalation C. Altered mental status or desire to lie down D. Preference to sit in an upright position

Altered mental status or desire to lie down

Your patient cannot remember his name. You would document this finding by writing that he has​ a/n:

Altered mental status.

What is located at the terminal end of the respiratory​ tree? A. Alveoli B. Pulmonary lobules C. Capillary beds D. Pleura

Alveoli

Which of these actions is MOST critical to an emergency driver to maintain control of an ambulance?

Always recognize and respond to changes in the weather conditions.

Which choice is considered a "signature wound" of the Iraq and Afghanistan wars?

Amputation

Which of the following, according to the Code of Federal Regulations, must any EMT working at a traffic collision wear?

An ANSI/ISEA safety vest, Class 2 or 3, or a Public Safety Vest

What is your minimum oxygenation target for the patient who is displaying an altered mental status with adequate​ respirations? A. An SpO2 of​ 94% or above B. An SpO2 of​ 90% or above C. A minimum SpO2 of​ 97% D. An SpO2 of​ 100%

An SpO2 of​ 94% or above

What is your oxygenation target for the patient who is displaying an altered mental status with adequate​ respirations?

An SpO2 of​ 94% or above.

You are assessing a patient with blunt abdominal trauma. You note that the abdomen is slightly​distended, rigid to the​ touch, with an ecchymotic area surrounding the umbilicus. What does this finding​imply?

An abdominal injury that is likely several hours old

The MOST significant problem with a patient who loses the gag reflex would​ be:

An inability to protect the airway.

Which of these findings is MOST likely with PTSD?

Anger

You have just arrived by the side of a male patient who is in cardiac arrest. Emergency Medical Responders have been on scene for 6 minutes performing CPR. Advanced life support​ (ALS) has been contacted and is 1 minute out. Which one of the following should you do​ immediately?

Apply and use the automated external defibrillator

You are treating a victim of a fall with an altered mental status who is now having sonorous respirations. What should you​ do? A. Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver. B. Intubate the trachea. C. Insert an OPA. D. Apply high flow oxygen.

Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver.

You are treating a victim of a fall with an altered mental status who is now having sonorous respirations. What should you​ do? A. Apply high flow oxygen. B. Intubate the trachea. C. Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver. D. Insert an OPA.

Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver.

You enter room for unknown emergency and find snoring respirations, lying supine in bed.

Apply head tilt chin lift.

You have a patient that you suspect of being infected with pertussis (whooping cough). While performing the primary assessment, you note a deep cough with clear breath sounds. Her vital signs are: pulse 108, respirations 16, and SpO2 at 96% on room air. Given this scenario, which one of the following would be most appropriate?

Apply humidified oxygen

On​ scene, you are treating a​ 62-year-old female with chest​ pain, diaphoresis, and nausea. She states she has a history of heart problems as well as​ diabetes, for which she takes medications. She is allergic to penicillin and iodine. She is​ alert, oriented, and calm and there are no threats to the​ airway, breathing, or circulation. She took 81 mg of aspirin this morning as she always does. Her vital signs​ are: pulse​ 100, respirations​ 16, blood pressure​ 118/90, and SpO2​ 97% on room air. In overseeing the care of this​ patient, which of the following actions would demand immediate and corrective​ intervention?

Applying oxygen through a nasal cannula

Which of the strategies will make it easier for the EMT to communicate with the stroke patient who is having trouble forming​ words?

Ask​ yes/no questions the patient can shake their head to.

Which of the strategies will make it easier for the EMT to communicate with the stroke patient who is having trouble forming​ words? A. Have the patient try to talk faster. B. Ask​ yes/no questions the patient can shake their head to. C. Tell the patient to use more volume with the speech. D. Have the patient try to talk slower.

Ask​ yes/no questions the patient can shake their head to.

What does the A in the mnemonic TRACEM stand for?

Asphyxiation

When patient complains of shortness of breath, what should emt do first.

Assess adecquacy of pateints breathing

Patient siting upright in chair, struggling to breathe. Rate is fast, poor tidal volume, you can hear rhonchi from her lungs without stethoscope.

Assess her airway.

Which one of the following statements made by the EMT indicates a correct understanding of the care of a patient suffering from a headache?

Assessment is essential in determining if a patient's headache represents a life-threatening condition."

You are treating a​ 45-year-old female who has been struggling in trying to breathe. She has a history of COPD from years of smoking more than two packs of cigarettes a day. Aside from administering the appropriate amount of​ oxygen, what else is an appropriate​ treatment? A. Assist the patient with her bronchodilator according to your protocols. B. Lay the patient down and raise her legs. C. Administer four baby aspirins. D. Administer an epinephrine​ self-injector.

Assist the patient with her bronchodilator according to your protocols.

Where does the lower airway​ begin? A. At the bronchial bifurcation B. At the level of the vocal cords C. At the uvula D. At the bronchiole branches

At the level of the vocal cords

When a driver is pulled over and asked to walk a line by the police officer this is an attempt to assess​ for:

Ataxia.

26 year old lifts heavy box and immediately has shortness of breath and sharp pain. you are suspcisious of pnueomothorax.

Auscultate breath sounds

TIA

A​ 49-year-old male calls​ 9-1-1 and explains to the dispatcher that the left side of his face is numb and his left arm is severely weak. Upon your​ arrival, the symptoms have completely resolved. The patient most likely experienced​ a/n: A. psychosomatic injury. B. temporary paralysis. C. TIA. D. ischemic stroke.

Why is collection of a thorough history important when assessing the victim of a severe​ headache?

A​ severe, acute onset headache or a change in headache pattern indicates the need for immediate attention

What is the BEST explanation for why you should you not park your ambulance behind the accident with the doors away from the​ scene? A. The cot will have to travel further. B. Both the crew and patient are exposed to unnecessary peril. C. Any additional equipment you need requires additional time to retrieve from the vehicle. D. The​ patient's privacy may be compromised.

B both the crew and patient are exposed to unnecessary peril

In accordance with the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians​ (NAEMT), vehicle and building keys that are unaccounted for should​ be: A. eliminated from the key log. B. considered a security breach. C. replaced promptly. D. renumbered.

B considered a security breach

For a person weighing 70​ kg, if breathing becomes shallow and the tidal volume decreases to​ ________ mL, only 150 mL is available for gas exchange. A. 450 B. 500 C. 300 D. 350

B. 500

You are treating a victim of a fall with an altered mental status who is now having sonorous respirations. What should you​ do? A. Intubate the trachea. B. Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver. C. Apply high flow oxygen. D. Insert an OPA.

B. Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver.

A​ 45-year-old male patient is confused. Which of the following is a structural cause of his​ condition? A. Poisoning B. Brain infection C. Severe anoxia D. Hypoglycemia

B. Brain infection

Which of the following can significantly interfere with pulmonary​ ventilation? A. Lumbar fractures B. Circumferential eschar C. Properly applied circumferential bandages D. Sling and swathe

B. Circumferential eschar

A sign of severely altered mental status that is commonly associated with trauma to the brainstem is flexion of the arms toward the trunk. What term is applied to this​ sign? A. ​Battle's sign B. Decorticate posturing C. Abnormal respiratory pattern D. Decerebrate posturing

B. Decorticate posturing

Which of the following may be caused by analgesic​ medications? A. Stroke B. Dementia C. Seizure D. ​Alzheimer's disease

B. Dementia

Which of the following is a key in care of a patient with cognitive​ impairment? A. The patient should always be placed in an assisted living facility. B. Ensure the patient can care for himself. C. Ensure the patient calls the nonemergency number. D. The patient should always be transported to the emergency department.

B. Ensure the patient can care for himself.

A narcotic drug overdose depresses the respiratory centers. What is the disease mechanism that impacts the body at the cellular​ level? A. Slowed respiratory rate B. Hypoxia C. Physical D. Shallow respirations

B. Hypoxia

Which of the following would you suspect to find with an elderly patient with GI​ bleeding? A. Red skin B. Inability to get comfortable C. Trauma D. Hypothermia

B. Inability to get comfortable

Which of the following does the chronically hypoxic body use to help increase the amount of oxygen delivered to the​ cells? A. Alcohol metabolism B. Increased RBC count C. Continuous hyperventilation D. Anaerobic metabolism

B. Increased RBC count

Your patient develops pneumonia. What is the disease mechanism that impacts the body at the cellular​ level? A. Toxic exposure B. Infection C. Physical trauma D. Electrolyte imbalance

B. Infection

Your patient has been complaining of a severe headache. During​ transport, you notice that he is now developing an altered mental status. What is your primary​ concern? A. Checking his neurological status B. Maintaining an adequate airway C. Administering naloxone D. Completing your history

B. Maintaining an adequate airway

The EMT enters the house of a family reporting severe​ headaches, where is determined that the family is experiencing carbon monoxide poisoning. Which type of headache would this be classified​ as? A. Vascular B. Organic C. Cluster D. Tension

B. Organic

Which of these statements regarding​ Alzheimer's disease is​ CORRECT? A. Most patients who die with​ Alzheimer's disease die as a direct result of​ Alzheimer's disease. B. Patients with​ Alzheimer's disease are prone to depression and suicide. C. ​Alzheimer's disease is easily diagnosed with CT scan or MRI. D. ​Alzheimer's disease is an acute condition that requires rapid transport to the hospital.

B. Patients with​ Alzheimer's disease are prone to depression and suicide.

A patient informs the paramedic of a severe headache and suspects it is a migraine. Which clinical manifestation would the paramedic expect the patient to​ report? A. Occurs in groups B. Photosensitivity C. Rhinorrhea D. Hypotension

B. Photosensitivity

As a patient with a neurological insult starts to​ deteriorate, to what body system will the EMT need to pay particular​ attention? A. Musculoskeletal B. Respiratory C. Digestive D. Endocrine

B. Respiratory

Which of the following causes acute altered mental status requiring emergency​ treatment? A. Aging process B. Stroke C. ​Alzheimer's disease D. ​Parkinson's disease

B. Stroke

Which of the following occurs in pulmonary​ embolism? A. Fluid builds up between the alveolar capillaries and the alveolar​ walls, preventing gas exchange. B. The lung is​ ventilated, but a portion of the alveoli are not receiving blood flow to exchange gases. C. A portion of the lung is not​ ventilated, despite blood flow to the​ area, preventing gas exchange. D. A combination of​ bronchoconstriction, mucus​ production, and tissue swelling limits airflow in the​ lungs, but circulation to the alveoli remains normal.

B. The lung is​ ventilated, but a portion of the alveoli are not receiving blood flow to exchange gases.

Your patient cannot remember his name. You would document this finding by writing that he has​ a/n: A. coma. B. altered mental status. C. stroke. D. metabolic condition.

B. altered mental status.

The largest consumer of ATP in the body is​ the: A. liver. B. cellular​ sodium/potassium pump. C. lungs. D. pancreas.

B. cellular​ sodium/potassium pump.

The initial event in hypovolemic shock that triggers the​ body's compensatory mechanisms​ is: A. increased stroke volume. B. decreased cardiac output. C. the release of cortisol. D. increased afterload.

B. decreased cardiac output.

The common mechanism in all forms of distributive shock​ is: A. infection. B. extreme vasodilation. C. dehydration. D. a physical obstacle to blood flow.

B. extreme vasodilation

When circulation​ ceases, brain cells begin to suffer irreversible damage within​ ______ minutes. A. six to eight B. four to six C. seven to 10 D. one to three

B. four to six

Serious causes of headaches include each of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. hypertension. B. heart attack. C. subarachnoid hemorrhage. D. cyanide poisoning.

B. heart attack.

A common risk factor for thrombotic stroke​ is: A. high sodium intake. B. high blood pressure. C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD). D. blunt force trauma to the head.

B. high blood pressure.

Stroke caused by a blockage is referred to​ as: A. hemorrhagic penumbra. B. ischemic stroke. C. hemorrhagic stroke. D. ischemic penumbra.

B. ischemic stroke.

Neurogenic shock is caused​ by: A. increased sympathetic nervous system stimulation to the cardiovascular system. B. loss of sympathetic nervous system impulses to the blood vessels. C. increased parasympathetic impulses to the cardiovascular system. D. decreased input to the cardiovascular system by the parasympathetic nervous system.

B. loss of sympathetic nervous system impulses to the blood vessels.

A loss of minerals in bone tissue as a person ages is known as A. osteomyoelitis. B. osteoporosis. C. kyphosis. D. osteoarthritis.

B. osteoporosis.

A​ 72-year-old male patient complains of orthopnea and​ blood-tinged sputum. You should suspect that he is suffering​ from: A. pneumonia. B. pulmonary edema. C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. D. pulmonary embolism.

B. pulmonary edema.

A temporary loss of consciousness is also known as A. ​Alzheimer's disease. B. syncope. C. ​trans-ischemic attack. D. cerebrovascular accident.

B. syncope.

Treatment of pneumonia should include maintaining a SpO2 of at​ least: A. ​90%. B. ​94%. C. ​92%. D. ​93%.

B. ​94%.

The minimum size of a landing zone for a rotor wing air ambulance is​ generally: A. 50 feet by 50 feet. B. 100 feet by 100 feet. C. 150 feet by 150 feet. D. 100 square feet.

B. 100 ft X 100 ft

The agency that licenses EMS agency radio base stations is​ the: A. Federal Interagency Committee on Emergency Medical Services. B. Federal Communications Commission. C. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration. D. National Association of EMTs.

B. FCC

What agency is responsible for oversight of different types of radio​ communication? A. Homeland Security B. Federal Communications Commission​ (FCC) C. Interstate Commerce Commission​ (ICC) D. Office of Government Information Management

B. FCC

A four-year-old female is having great difficulty breathing. She is responsive to verbal stimuli and has an open airway. Her respiratory rate is 40 breaths per minute, and she has an SpO2 reading of 88% while receiving high-flow oxygen through a pediatric nonrebreather mask. Her pulse is rapid, and her skin cool to the touch. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize what condition? a. Respiratory arrest b. Respiratory failure c. Cardiopulmonary arrest d. Respiratory distress

B. Respiratory Failure

What is the main disadvantage all radio systems have in​ common? A. A limited number of frequencies B. A limited transmission range C. Scanners can follow calls D. Unreliable encoding

B. a limited transmission range

Which of the following patients should be transported in the left lateral recumbent​ position? A. A spinal shock victim B. A patient with severe abdominal pain C. An emphysema patient complaining of shortness of breath D. A multisystem trauma victim

B. a patient with severe abdominal pain

Which of the following is communicated to the receiving hospital during an EMS​ call? A. That you are arriving on the scene B. A report on the​ patient's condition and your estimated time of arrival C. That you are en route to a call D. That you are leaving the hospital

B. a report on the patient's condition and your estimated time of arrival

The difference between an acute and a chronic illness is​ its: A. number of complications. B. a​ sudden-onset medical condition. C. severity. D. involvement in trauma.

B. a sudden-onset medical condition

One of the leading causes of ambulance crashes​ is: A. poor driving conditions​ (rain, snow, and so​ on). B. ambulance driver distraction. C. failure of other automobiles to yield. D. not traveling in the left lane.

B. ambulance driver distraction

Which of the following is suitable for an emergency​ move? A. Direct ground lift B. ​Armpit-forearm drag C. ​Draw-sheet method D. Direct carry

B. armpit-forearm dray

Using the SOAP​ format, the statement​ "Suspected narcotic​ overdose" would belong in the​ __________ section of the patient care narrative. A. subjective B. assessment C. objective D. plan

B. assessment

You respond to an emergency at a​ patient's residence and quickly discover that the patient cannot hear. Writing your patient history questions may be​ required: A. to ensure your PCR is complete. B. because your patient is unable to hear. C. if accurate charting is to be done. D. so that your call to the emergency department is not recorded.

B. because your patient is unable to hear

During the patient transportation phase of an EMS​ call, who makes decisions about the best route to use and whether to use lights and​ sirens? A. Patient B. Driver C. Dispatch D. Attendant

B. driver

The primary initial goal of therapeutic communication​ is: A. conducting a patient assessment. B. establishing trust and rapport. C. obtaining a medical history. D. analyzing patient behavior.

B. establishing trust and rapport

Acknowledging what you have heard a patient say and encouraging the patient to go on is an example of which​ technique? A. Confronting B. Facilitating C. Summarizing D. Reflecting

B. facilitating

Carbon monoxide formation is typically the result​ of: A. low outdoor temperatures. B. fossil fuel combustion. C. breathing in an enclosed space. D. a lack of oxygen.

B. fossil fuel combustion

Which of the following actions is LEAST likely to increase your​ patient's trust in​ you? A. Maintaining a distance of two to four feet while introducing yourself and taking a history B. Having all responders enter the room and stand around the patient C. Getting down on the​ patient's level D. Smiling at the patient

B. having all responders enter the room and stand around the patient

A patient appears agitated and possibly​ angry, but you do not yet feel that the patient poses a danger to you or your partner. Which of the following is NOT something you should say to this​ patient? A. ​"Are you​ hurt?" B. ​"If I'm going to help​ you, then you to calm​ down." C. ​"We are here to help​ you." D. ​"How may we​ help?"

B. if I'm going to help you, then you need to calm down

The​ two-way radio that is mounted in your ambulance is called​ a: A. portable radio. B. mobile radio. C. repeater. D. base station.

B. mobile radio

You have arrived at the emergency department and placed your patient in a bed in the emergency department. Which of the following steps in an EMS​ unit's communications during a typical call would FOLLOW this​ event? A. Contact receiving hospital. B. Notify dispatch of your arrival back at the station. C. Notify dispatch that you are leaving the scene. D. Contact medical direction.

B. notify dispatch of your arrival back at the station

You are first to arrive at an automobile accident. Where should you position your​ ambulance? A. In an adjacent parking lot B. On the same side of the street between the scene and oncoming traffic to protect the patient and providers C. On the opposite side of the​ street, just ahead of the accident with the rear doors toward the patient D. Behind the accident on the same side of the street with the rear doors toward the patient

B. on the same side of the street between the scene and oncoming traffic to protect the patient and providers

Which of the following is an advantage of digital radio systems that reduces radio time and provides clear​ communication? A. Encoding B. Radio status buttons C. Range of transmission D. 4G LTE programming

B. radio status buttons

After you position the patient on a​ stretcher, you​ should: A. pinch the​ patient's arms or hands to test perfusion. B. raise the side rails. C. lower the side rails. D. secure the patient using safety straps.

B. raise the side rails

You have contacted medical command by radio to assist you in the treatment of your patient and the physician is giving you additional orders. How should you respond to the physician after you have received the​ orders? A. ​"Copy." B. Repeat the orders back. C. ​"Affirmative." D. Say that the orders will be carried out.

B. repeat the orders back

Which of the following statements regarding a call to a residence is​ FALSE? A. It is your responsibility to leave a​ patient's home safe and secure as you leave the premises. B. Responding to a residence does not typically pose a risk to​ providers' safety like highway and industrial responses do. C. You must keep what you see in another​ person's home​ confidential, except when required by law or when relevant information is shared with other health care providers for the benefit of the​ patient's care. D. Responding to a​ patient's home provides you with unique information not available to most health care providers.

B. responding to a residence does not typically pose a risk to providers' safety like highway and industrial responses do

In order to minimize the risk of injury while lifting a patient on a​ cot, how should your feet be​ positioned? A. Angled either left or right B. ​Shoulder-width apart C. Together below your knees D. Together centered under your hips

B. shoulder-width apart

Which of the following would be included in the assessment section of a patient care narrative using the CHART​ format? A. ​"Pt. found supine in​ bed." B. ​"Skin warm and moist with good​ color." C. ​"Administered 4​ L/min oxygen by nasal​ cannula." D. ​"Pt. states the pain is dull and​ aching."

B. skin warm and moist with good color

An ambulance driver​ should: A. regularly reassess patients. B. stay focused on the task of driving. C. drive aggressively to clear a path for the ambulance. D. monitor what the attendant is doing at all times.

B. stay focused on the task of driving

When using the​ "CHEATED" format for your narrative​ report, information entered under the​ "C" portion would​ be: A. vital signs not provided for in that section. B. subjective. C. objective. D. the result of your primary exam.

B. subjective

A primary reason the PCR must be completed legibly and accurately is because even after patient care it may​ be: A. used as a teaching tool. B. subpoenaed as part of a litigation process. C. used as an example in the continuous quality improvement process. D. provided to the​ patient's family.

B. subpoenaed as part of a litigation process

In what position should a patient who you suspect of having a spine injury be​ transported? A. Prone on a backboard B. Supine C. In the recovery position D. ​Semi-supinated with a cervical collar

B. supine

The need for an emergency move implies which one of the​ following? A. No additional equipment is available. B. The patient is exposed to harm. C. The patient is critical. D. The patient is stable.

B. the patient is exposed to harm

Which overarching rule controls whether or not an emergency move is​ possible? A. You must have made contact with and assessed the patient. B. The patient must be in immediate peril from a dangerous situation. C. The patient must appear to be stable. D. The patient must be unconscious.

B. the patient must be in immediate peril from a dangerous situation

What is the purpose of displaying both lights and​ siren? A. To lower the possibility of emergency vehicle collisions B. To request right of way C. To establish a guaranteed path through traffic D. To improve patient outcomes

B. to request right of way

Which of the following is a situation in which you should downgrade from emergency​ driving, even though you still are responding to a​ call? A. When responding with other emergency vehicles B. When you approach a school zone C. Anytime you approach an intersection D. When traveling against oncoming traffic

B. when you approach a school zone

What is the branch of medicine that deals with the management of obese patients?

Bariatrics

Which of the following pieces of information would lead EMT to believe patient has history of chronic lung disease.

Barrel shaped chest.

Factors or influences that inhibit communication, situation awareness, or teamwork are known as:

Barriers

The primary assessment for a patient with a ventilator should:

Be conducted in the same sequence as for a patient without a ventilator

Why should patients with an altered mental status and no pulse ox reading initially receive supplemental oxygen​ therapy? A. To mitigate the effects of carbon monoxide poisoning B. Because hypoxia is a cause of altered mental status C. To establish the accuracy of the pulse oximeter D. To prevent cyanosis

Because hypoxia is a cause of altered mental status

Why should patients with an altered mental status initially receive supplemental oxygen​ therapy?

Because hypoxia is a cause of altered mental status.

You are performing a "stand-by" along with the fire department at a local county fair. Since it is fall and the temperature is cool, the emergency crews are sitting in their ambulances. Given this situation, what would contribute to an increase in the carbon monoxide levels in your ambulance?

Being parked too close to a fire engine that is also running

Which of the following​ non-stroke disorders could result in a​ "probability of ischemic​ stroke" according to the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale? A. ​Guillain-Barre syndrome B. ​Burke's encephalopathy C. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis​ (ALS) D. ​Bell's palsy

Bell's palsy

According to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS), at what blood glucose level can hypoglycemia be a possible pathology in the patient who is apparently suffering from a​ stroke? A. Below 60​ mg/dL B. Below 25​ mg/dL C. Above 400​ mg/dL D. Above 125​ mg/dL

Below 60​ mg/dL

According to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS), at what blood glucose level can hypoglycemia be a possible pathology in the patient who is apparently suffering from a​ stroke?

Below 60​ mg/dL.

A patient has a low platelet count in his blood. Based on​ this, for which of the following is he most at​ risk?

Bleeding

What is the definition of​ hematochezia?

Blood in the stool

A patient is very dizzy and altered in mental status. Vital signs​ are: pulse​ 84, respiration​ 16, blood pressure​ 74/32, and SpO2​ 93%. Medical direction has ordered the paramedic to start and IV infusion of a medication that causes vasoconstriction. You would recognize that the medication is benefiting the patient when you​ observe:

Blood pressure​ 110/64

When assessing a patient with difficulty breathering, what sign or symptom is most concern.

Blue Coloration to lips.

Which of the​ stroke-screening methods utilizes arm drift as one of the screening​ criteria?

Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen (LAPSS).

Which of the​ stroke-screening methods utilizes arm drift as one of the screening​ criteria? A. Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen B. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ (CPSS) C. Arm drift is not a criterion for any popular​ stroke-screening system D. The Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS)

Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen

Which of the​ stroke-screening methods utilizes arm drift as one of the screening​ criteria? A. The Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS) B. Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen C. Arm drift is not a criterion for any popular​ stroke-screening system D. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ (CPSS)

Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen

You have been called to a home for an 18-year-old male who informs you that he experienced a sudden onset of shortness of breath and back pain while watching television. He also informs you that he has a history of spontaneous pneumothorax, and the current symptoms he is experiencing are identical to those he felt with a previous pneumothorax. Assessment reveals the patient to be slightly dyspneic with breath sounds clear and intact bilaterally. During transport, what is most critical for the EMT to monitor continually on this patient?

Breath sounds

What level of the respiratory tree are the airways that are supported by smooth​ muscle? A. Bronchioles B. Alveoli C. Mainstem bronchi D. Segmental bronchi

Bronchioles

Fully immobilized to a long spine board

Bystanders state that a 72dash-yeardash-old woman complained of chest pain and dizziness just before she fell down a flight of stairs. She is alert but confused and states that she feels nauseated and may vomit. How should the EMT position this patient for​ transport? A. Supine with her head turned to one side B. Fully immobilized to a long spine board C. Semiminus−​Fowler's with a cervical collar in place D. Left lateral recumbent position on a long spine board

How much air is available for gas exchange when the tidal volume is 300​ mL? A. 300 mL B. 250 mL C. 150 mL D. 100 mL

C. 150 mL

The patient reports a history of vascular headaches to a paramedic on the scene. Which assessment finding would be a cause of these type​ headaches? A. Oxygen saturation​ 90% B. Respirations 10 per minute C. Blood pressure​ 160/120 D. Heart rate 55​ beats/minute

C. Blood pressure​ 160/120

Which​ age-related respiratory changes should you anticipate in a​ 72-year-old patient? A. Greater sensitivity of the respiratory drive to hypoxia B. Decreased reliance on the diaphragm as the major muscle of respiration C. Calcium deposits where the ribs join the​ sternum, causing the rib cage to be less pliable D. Increased tidal volume at rest

C. Calcium deposits where the ribs join the​ sternum, causing the rib cage to be less pliable

A patient informs the EMT of an excruciating​ right-sided headache, nasal​ congestion, and excessive right eye watering. Which type of headache should the EMT​ suspect? A. Sinus B. Tension C. Cluster D. Migraine

C. Cluster

A​ 42-year-old man has fallen from a steel beam at a construction site and landed on jagged metal below. He is awake but slow to respond. His skin is​ pale, cool, and diaphoretic. He is able to​ speak, and his respirations are about 24 breaths per minute. His radial pulse is weak and rapid. He has large lacerations to his torso and lower extremities. Which should you do​ first? A. Start two​ large-bore IVs of isotonic crystalloid and give a​ 1,000-mL bolus B. Administer​ high-flow oxygen by nonrebreather mask C. Control bleeding with direct pressure D. Cover the patient with blankets and keep him warm

C. Control bleeding with direct pressure

For which type of stroke is the patient NOT a candidate for​ "clot-busting" drugs? A. Thrombotic B. Ischemic C. Hemorrhagic D. Embolic

C. Hemorrhagic

A patient suffering from what other disorder can sometimes be confused with a patient experiencing a stroke. A. Congestive heart failure B. A transitional hemorrhage C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyperglycemia

C. Hypoglycemia

When a patient loses the ability to​ speak, feel​ sensations, or​ move, he is experiencing what type of​ deficit? A. Muscular B. Hemorrhagic C. Neurologic D. Urinary

C. Neurologic

You arrive on the scene of an unresponsive elderly patient who struck his head when he lost consciousness and fell from a chair. As you approach the​ patient, what should your first action​ be? A. Check for a pulse. B. Open his airway. C. Stabilize the spine. D. Check respirations.

C. Stabilize the spine.

A​ 49-year-old man calls 911 and explains to the dispatcher that the left side of his face is numb and his left arm is severely weak. Upon your​ arrival, the symptoms have completely resolved. The patient most likely experienced​ a/n: A. psychosomatic injury. B. temporary paralysis. C. TIA. D. ischemic stroke.

C. TIA.

Why is it necessary to take the patient to the hospital if the symptoms of a stroke have subsided by the time you arrive on the​ scene? A. He is likely to start seizing. B. He will need to get an​ x-ray. C. The cause of the TIA needs to be explored by the hospital. D. He will probably need to be given insulin.

C. The cause of the TIA needs to be explored by the hospital.

You are caring for a patient whom you suspect is hypoglycemic because of his presenting signs and​ symptoms, and he has a history of type 1 diabetes. During your​ assessment, you find out the​ patient's blood glucose level​ (BGL) is 148​ mg/dL. What does this information tell​ you? A. The patient is hypoglycemic. B. The patient is about to have a seizure. C. The patient may be having a stroke. D. The patient has depleted glycogen stores.

C. The patient may be having a stroke.

Which of these guidelines should you keep in mind when assessing elderly​ patients? A. Capillary refill time greater than 2 seconds is a reliable indicator of poor perfusion. B. It is always necessary to speak up when questioning an elderly patient. C. They can be easily fatigued by the exam. D. Unlike younger​ patients, the elderly prefer not to have explanations of medical procedures.

C. They can be easily fatigued by the exam.

Of the following factors that impact the survivability of a stoke​ patient, which one does the EMT have influence​ over? A. Intubation of the trachea B. Reduction of blood pressure C. Time to treatment D. Initiation of an IV by ALS providers

C. Time to treatment

Your​ 62-year-old male patient was experiencing weakness on one side of his body and slurred speech. After you arrived and evaluated the​ patient, you are noticing the symptoms beginning to subside. What is the likely cause of his​ condition? A. Acute coronary syndrome B. Status epilepticus C. Transient ischemic attack D. Subdural hematoma

C. Transient ischemic attack

Cardiac hypertrophy is A. weakening of the right ventricle. B. an increase in blood flow to the heart. C. a thickening of the heart walls. D. stretching of the cardiac muscle fibers

C. a thickening of the heart walls.

The​ "A" in​ AEIOU-TIPPSS stands​ for: A. anoxia. B. aphasia. C. alcohol intoxication. D. apnea.

C. alcohol intoxication.

The​ DNA-encoded self-destruction of cells that occurs as a normal and controlled part of the​ body's development and protection from damaged cells is​ called: A. dysplasia. B. anaplasia. C. apoptosis. D. atrophy.

C. apoptosis.

The third goal of the American Heart​ Association's "Stroke Chain of​ Survival" includes​ rapid: A. recognition. B. dispatch. C. assessment. D. treatment.

C. assessment.

Reduced muscle mass in geriatric patients predisposes them​ to: A. stroke. B. abuse. C. hypothermia. D. GI bleeding.

C. hypothermia.

All of the following reflect the​ body's attempts to compensate for inadequate perfusion​ EXCEPT: A. increased heart rate. B. ​pale, cool skin. C. low blood pressure. D. increased respiratory rate

C. low blood pressure.

During the electrical phase of a cardiac arrest the myocardium​ is: A. displaying pulseless electrical activity. B. resistant to defibrillation. C. reasonably well perfused and likely responsive to defibrillation. D. hypoxic.

C. reasonably well perfused and likely responsive to defibrillation.

In​ children, the MOST common cause of cardiac arrest​ is: A. hypovolemia. B. drug overdose. C. respiratory arrest. D. cancer.

C. respiratory arrest.

Which of the following signs would you anticipate in cardiogenic shock but not in hypovolemic​ shock? A. Tachycardia B. Confusion C. ​Frothy, pink sputum D. Hypotension

C. ​Frothy, pink sputum

Into what category of causes of altered mental status would​ anoxia, hypoglycemia, and carbon monoxide poisoning​ fall? A. Central nervous system​ (CNS) depression B. Structural causes C. ​Toxic-metabolic causes D. Shock

C. ​Toxic-metabolic causes

When using the​ radio, your transmission should last no longer​ than: A. five minutes. B. three minutes. C. 30 seconds. D. one minute.

C. 30 seconds

In​ 12-hour clock​ time, 1730 hours​ is: A. ​5:30 am. B. ​7:30 pm. C. ​5:30 pm. D. ​7:30 am.

C. 5:30pm

What agency is responsible for assigning call signs to radio​ licensees? A. Amateur Operators Association B. Disaster Services C. FCC D. FEMA

C. FCC

Two reasons lights and sirens increase risk are civilian driver confusion​ and: A. increased stopping distance. B. variability of road conditions. C. ambulance operator adrenaline. D. reduced reaction times.

C. ambulance operator adrenaline

​"How long has your arm been hurting​ you?" is an example of which one of the​ following? A. Facilitating B. Asking an​ open-ended question C. Asking a​ closed-ended question D. Summarizing

C. asking a closed-ended question

Which of the following is a role of the Federal Communications Commission with regard to EMS​ communication? A. Ensuring providers use​ 10-codes in communication B. Repairing and servicing radio equipment C. Assigning broadcast frequencies D. Providing training for EMS providers

C. assigning broadcast frequencies

The number of patients involved for a situation to be considered an MCI depends on the availability of local resources and​ the: A. distance to the nearest trauma center. B. competence of responding personnel. C. assistance that can be expected from surrounding agencies. D. severity of the​ patients' injuries.

C. assistance that can be expected from surrounding agencies

The landing zone also should be marked at each​ corner: A. with a pen or pencil stuck in the dirt. B. by an EMS provider standing in place. C. by highly visible devices. D. with whatever is handy at the scene.

C. by highly visible devices

Which of the following is an action performed during the preparation phase of an EMS​ call? A. Scene​ size-up B. Packaging the patient C. Checking the fuel level of the ambulance D. Acknowledging the call

C. checking the fuel level of the ambulance

When lifting a patient with an​ assistant: A. have the assistant support your arms. B. lift on a count of 2 and have the assistant lift on 3. C. communicate throughout the lift. D. the lift with your feet while your assistant lifts with his back.

C. communicate throughout the lift

After giving your report to the receiving hospital via​ radio, the physician tells​ you, "Continue​ transport, no further​ orders." What should your response​ be? A. ​"Copy." B. ​"ETA 10​ minutes." C. ​"Copy, continuing​ transport, no further​ orders, clear." D. ​"10-4."

C. copy, continuing transport, no further orders, clear

A​ patient's perception of your expertise and trustworthiness is important to establish​ your: A. professionalism. B. empathy. C. credibility. D. respect.

C. credibility

While driving with lights and siren and approaching a stopped school bus unloading​ children, you​ should: A. select a different route. B. slow and maintain a high level of awareness while passing. C. downgrade and stop. D. stop with lights flashing to signal urgency.

C. downgrade and stop

Under which of the following circumstances would a PCR typically be delivered in an abbreviated​ format? A. When care is provided by an​ EMT-R B. When transporting a violent patient C. During a multiple casualty incident D. When the patient is under the aegis of law enforcement

C. during a MCI

An Advanced EMT listens to a​ patient's statement about his pain from falling and injuring his wrist and​ says, "I can imagine how you feel. I fell when I was snowboarding last season and had a similar​ injury." This is a therapeutic communication technique known​ as: A. remorse. B. reflection. C. empathy. D. facilitation.

C. empathy

Which of the following statements BEST describes the concept of due regard with respect to operation of emergency​ vehicles? A. Drivers must slow down or change lanes when approaching a stopped emergency vehicle along a roadway. B. It is acceptable to perform otherwise prohibited​ actions, such as traveling in the opposite lane of​ travel, as long as you use warning lights and sirens. C. Even with lights and​ sirens, an emergency vehicle operator must anticipate the reactions of other drivers and drive defensively. D. Use of lights and sirens exempts the emergency vehicle driver from liability in the event of a collision.

C. even with lights and sirens, an emergency vehicle operator must anticipate the reactions of other drivers and drive defensively

When operating an ambulance in heavy​ rain, remember​ to: A. reduce lane change time. B. increase speed to increase traction. C. expect longer stopping distances. D. drive closer to vehicles in front of you.

C. expect longer stopping distances

What type of attendant seat offers the BEST protection for EMS​ providers? A. Reclinable B. ​Rearward-facing C. ​Forward-facing D. ​Side-facing

C. foward-facing

Which of the following moves should NOT be used for an emergency​ move? A. ​Armpit-forearm drag B. Shirt drag C. Ground lift D. Blanket drag

C. ground lift

Why should you be thoroughly familiar with the meaning of all terms you use on a​ PCR? A. The continuous quality improvement reviewer may have questions about the terms. B. The​ patient's family may have questions about the terms. C. Improper use of terminology may result in subsequent injury to the patient. D. The emergency department staff may have questions about the terms.

C. improper use of terminology may result in subsequent injury to the patient

The MOST dangerous places for emergency​ vehicles, with regard to risk of​ collision, are: A. interstate highways. B. city streets. C. intersections. D. ​two-lane rural highways.

C. intersections

The PCR is only provided to personnel involved directly with the​ patient's care​ because: A. it is a legally binding contract. B. it will be subpoenaed. C. it is a​ HIPAA-protected document. D. it has the​ patient's home address.

C. it is a HIPAA-protected document

All of the following are characteristics of an ideal place to park the ambulance at the scene of a highway collision​ EXCEPT: A. just past the scene so the rear doors are closest to the location of the patients. B. with an obstacle between the ambulance and oncoming traffic. C. just before the scene with the front of the ambulance closest to the location of the patients. D. on the same side of the road.

C. just before the scene with the front of the ambulance closest to the location of the patients

An elderly male patient has an extremely​ formal, reserved demeanor that you suspect is a consequence of the​ patient's culture and age. The​ patient's granddaughter is present and seems much less reserved. Which of the following would be MOST helpful in establishing rapport with this​ patient? A. Try to get the patient to lighten up with a couple jokes. B. Speak to the granddaughter instead of the patient and keep your tone easy and light. C. Match the​ patient's formality and reserve with your own behavior. D. Keep your own tone as light and easygoing as possible to balance the​ patient's demeanor.

C. match the patient's formality and reserve with your own behavior

You arrive on the scene of an elderly male patient complaining of severe chest pain with some shortness of breath. The patient has taken his nitroglycerin and is breathing better but has received no relief from the pain. He is also refusing transport. Your next call would be​ to: A. dispatch to report back in service. B. law enforcement for assistance. C. medical command. D. the fire department.

C. medical command

The way in which a message is transmitted from the sender to the receiver is called​ the: A. frequency. B. code. C. medium. D. type.

C. medium

If you find yourself in another​ vehicle's blind spot while operating an​ ambulance, what action should you​ take? A. ​None, visibility is the other​ vehicle's responsibility. B. Sound your horn. C. Move out of the blind spot as soon as possible. D. Turn to a different route.

C. move out of the blind spot as soon as possible

While responding to an emergency at night you​ should: A. complete your​ pre-response check sheet. B. never exceed the speed limit. C. not use​ high-beam flashers. D. never exceed 55 mph.

C. not use high-beam flashers

Which of the following is NOT typically communicated during an EMS​ call? A. Notifying dispatch that you have arrived at the scene B. Acknowledging the call to dispatch C. Notifying your supervisor that you are en route to the receiving hospital D. Notifying dispatch that you are en route to the scene

C. notifying your supervisor that you are en route to the receiving hospital

Run data are recorded in the administrative section of a patient care​ report, which relates to what​ purpose? A. Providing a means of documenting injuries to EMS personnel B. Providing information about the​ patient's baseline condition C. Obtaining statistical information about the operation of an EMS system D. Preventing duplication of treatment already provided

C. obtaining statistical information about the operation of an EMS system

Which of the following is a disadvantage to using radio​ codes? A. Concise meanings B. Security C. Opportunity for miscommunication D. Streamlined transmission of radio traffic

C. opportunity for miscommunication

When you use an abbreviation that is standardized when filling out the patient care​ report, this means​ that: A. it is something both you and the patient understand. B. you intend to use it consistently. C. other medical personnel reading the report will recognize the abbreviation. D. you have used the abbreviation before.

C. other medical personnel reading the report will recognize the abbreviation

The recommendation within EMS systems is to use which of the following forms of radio​ communication? A. Morse code system B. Signal number code system​ (signal 1, and so​ on) C. Plain language D. ​10-code system​ (10-2, and so​ on)

C. plain language

Which of the following actions should be performed last during the final phase of an ambulance​ call? A. Reassess the patient. B. Select the best route of travel to the emergency department. C. Restock all equipment and supplies used. D. Give a​ hand-off report to the triage nurse.

C. restock all equipment and supplies used

On arrival at your​ scene, the patient tells you that his chest feels like an elephant is sitting on it. When you record this detail in the narrative section of the​ PCR, this is an example​ of: A. objective information. B. a pertinent finding. C. subjective information. D. pertinent history.

C. subjective information

Your unit is returned to service for an emergency prior to your completion of the PCR form. What procedure should you​ follow? A. Refuse the emergency. B. Tell the staff you will complete the PCR and patient​ hand-off later. C. Submit an abbreviated or partial PCR and full verbal report prior to leaving. D. Delay the response until you complete your PCR and patient​ hand-off.

C. submit an abbreviated or partial PCR and full verbal report prior to leaving

When initiating a radio call to the receiving​ hospital, you should first​ state: A. your name. B. the name of your unit. C. the name of the receiving hospital. D. the name of your patient.

C. the name of the receiving hospital

As an Advanced​ EMT, you will need to know how to communicate with patients in a manner that establishes a positive relationship. This is often referred to as​ _____________ communication. A. feedback B. nonverbal C. therapeutic D. dynamic

C. therapeutic

Using the​ "SOAP" narrative​ format, information provided under the​ "P" portion of the report would​ include: A. the patient problem. B. treatment prior to arrival. C. treatment provided and transport information. D. pertinent medical history.

C. treatment provided and transport information

What unit of power denotes the energy emitted by radio​ systems, including cellular​ phones? A. Amperes B. Joules C. Watts D. Volts

C. watts

All of the following are guidelines you should follow when moving patients​ EXCEPT: A. fasten the safety straps or harnesses over the top of sheets or blankets placed on the patient. B. when carrying a patient on​ stairs, he always should be facing toward the top of the stairs. C. when carrying a patient downstairs on a long​ backboard, he should be carried with the head facing toward the bottom of the stairs. D. walk forward when moving the stretcher whenever possible.

C. when carrying a patient downstairs on a long backboard, he should be carried with the head facing toward the bottom of the stairs

Your 67-year-old male patient is complaining of shortness of breath. The patient cannot remember how many times he used his inhaler prior to your arrival. Which one of the following should be your next action?

Call medical direction for assistance

Which of these is an​ open-ended question? A. ​"Who is your primary care​ physician?" B. ​"Did you get sweaty when the pain​ started?" C. ​"What time did the pain​ begin?" D. ​"Can you describe the pain to​ me?"

Can you describe the pain to me

_______ is a condition in which the lens of the eyes becomes cloudy.

Cataracts

For altered mental status to​ occur, what body system must be​ affected?

Central nervous

A patient with which of the following signs is displaying findings of respiratory​ failure? A. Central​ cyanosis, one- to​ two-word dyspnea, pulse ox reading of​ 84% B. Respiratory rate of​ 32/minute, intercostal retractions​ noted, and tachycardia C. Absent alveolar breath sounds to left apical​ zone, pulse ox reading of​ 89%, mild confusion D. Pale​ skin, expiratory​ wheezing, respiratory rate of​ 26/minute

Central​ cyanosis, one- to​ two-word dyspnea, pulse ox reading of​ 84%

What is the formal name of a​ stroke, defined as the death or injury of brain tissue that has been deprived of​ oxygen?

Cerebral vascular accident

What is the formal name of a​ stroke, defined as the death or injury of brain tissue that has been deprived of​ oxygen?

Cerebral vascular accident (CVA).

A​ 67-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease called 911 for chest pain. He states that the pain started when he was cleaning out his​ garage, but after a period of​ rest, the pain has resolved. His airway is​ patent, his breathing is​ adequate, his radial pulse is​ irregular, and his skin is warm and dry. He has a past medical history of atrial fibrillation​ (irregular heartbeat), coronary artery​ disease, and​ diabetes, for which he takes insulin. Vital signs are pulse​ 68, respiration​ 16, blood pressure​ 148/88, and SpO2​ 97% on room air. He took 81 mg of aspirin as prescribed this morning on awakening. Which of the following would you do​ first?

Check breath sounds

Immediately after assisting a diabetic patient with her​ nitroglycerin, she states that she feels​ weak, dizzy, and nauseated. Which of the following should the EMT do​ next?

Check her blood pressure.

You have determined an alert patient to have garbled speech and weakness to the right arm and leg. The patient also has a history of heart problems and diabetes. Which one of the following should you do immediately?

Check the patient's blood glucose level (if local protocol allows)

Which of these is done during the daily vehicle inspection?

Checking door closing and latching mechanisms

What does the C in the mnemonic TRACEM stand for?

Chemical

A patient with a past medical history of angina is complaining of chest discomfort. When assessing the​ patient, which sign or symptom should alert the EMT that the patient is probably suffering an acute myocardial infarction and not an anginal​ attack?

Chest discomfort is not relieved by nitroglycerin.

When assessing a patient in the prehospital​ setting, which of the following does the EMT recognize as an indication for​ aspirin?

Chest discomfort that is suggestive of a heart attack

Which class of garment is designed for traffic moving at 25 miles per hour or faster?

Class 2

Into which category of hazardous materials do weapons of mass destruction, which utilizes chlorine gas, fall?

Class 2 Toxic and Flammable Gases

Which of the following safety garments should be worn by workers who are at serious risk and whose attention is diverted from the roadway?

Class 3

Damage to what hollow organ can result in hemorrhage and content spillage into the​ retroperitoneal, peritoneal, or pelvic​ spaces?

Colon

Damage to which of the following organs is most likely to induce severe infection in the abdominal​ cavity?

Colon

What should immediately increase your suspicion of a hazardous materials incident?

Colored vapor cloud

During the Korean conflict, post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) was known as:

Combat neurosis

At the scene of a motor vehicle collision, a police car or fire vehicle should be parked to

Create a physical barrier between traffic and your ambulance

The process of effectively using all resources available to increase safety and reduce errors is known as:

Crew resource management

Which assessment finding in a patient who is dyspneic is a clear indication of​ hypoxia? A. Cyanosis B. Diaphoresis C. Nasal flaring D. Rambling speech

Cyanosis

In order for a condition to be considered a​ TIA, the symptoms must resolve in how many​ hours? A. 1 hour B. 6 hours C. 2 hours D. 24 hours

D. 24 hours

Normal blood glucose levels range from​ ______________ mg/dL. A. 100 to 175 B. 45 to 90 C. 130 to 190 D. 80 to 120

D. 80 to 120

Which of the following occurs in​ pneumonia? A. The lungs are​ scarred, creating resistance to airflow. B. A collection of fluid between the alveolar wall and capillary wall increases the distance that gases must diffuse. C. A loss of surfactant causes alveoli to​ collapse, preventing ventilation of an area of the lung. D. A collection of debris and mucus in the alveoli prevents gases from being exchanged between the lungs and the pulmonary capillaries.

D. A collection of debris and mucus in the alveoli prevents gases from being exchanged between the lungs and the pulmonary capillaries.

Which of these conditions is characterized by signs and symptoms of slurred​ speech, muscle weakness or​ paralysis, and headache that are completely reversed within 24 hours or​ sooner? A. Syncope B. A stroke C. A seizure D. A transient ischemic attack

D. A transient ischemic attack

A patient with substantial blunt chest trauma has a decreased level of responsiveness with​ cool, moist, skin. He is in respiratory distress and has a heart rate of 130 beats per minute. Which of the combinations of additional findings below would be MOST associated with tension​ pneumothorax? A. Flushed​ skin; inability to use the diaphragm when breathing B. A​ distended, firm​ abdomen; hypotension C. Muffled heart​ sounds; flat neck veins D. Absent breath sounds on one or both​ sides; jugular vein distension

D. Absent breath sounds on one or both​ sides; jugular vein distension

What effect does air trapping in the alveoli have on effective minute​ volume? A. Air trapped in the alveoli moves to the dead space on​ expiration, reducing the dead space volume and increasing the effective minute volume. B. Air trapped in the alveoli moves to the dead space on​ expiration, reducing the dead space volume and the effective minute volume. C. Air trapped in the alveoli is available for gas exchange and does not affect effective minute volume. D. Air trapped in the alveoli decreases the overall amount of air available for gas exchange and the effective minute volume.

D. Air trapped in the alveoli decreases the overall amount of air available for gas exchange and the effective minute volume.

Which of the following is the result of an extremely exaggerated immune​ response? A. Pneumothorax B. Hay fever C. Pulmonary embolism D. Anaphylaxis

D. Anaphylaxis

As an Advanced​ EMT, which of the following patients could you treat by administering 0.3 mg of epinephrine​ 1:1,000 IM? A. A​ 34-year-old woman who complains of sharp chest pain and sudden difficulty breathing. She is​ anxious, has​ mottled, cool​ skin, a weak radial pulse of 130 beats per​ minute, and a blood pressure of​ 72/50 mmHg. B. A​ 16-year-old boy who was accidently shot in the thigh while hunting. He has lost​ 1,500 mL of​ blood, responds only to painful​ stimuli, and has​ cool, pale, diaphoretic skin. C. A​ 64-year-old man who complained of chest pain before becoming unresponsive. He has​ cool, dry​ skin, no radial​ pulse, but a carotid pulse of 42 beats per minute. D. A​ 31-year-old woman who was stung by a bee and immediately became lightheaded and collapsed. She responds to painful​ stimuli, has​ cool, pale​ skin, a weak radial pulse of 124 beats per​ minute, and a blood pressure of​ 82/50 mmHg.

D. A​ 31-year-old woman who was stung by a bee and immediately became lightheaded and collapsed. She responds to painful​ stimuli, has​ cool, pale​ skin, a weak radial pulse of 124 beats per​ minute, and a blood pressure of​ 82/50 mmHg.

All forms of shock have the same result despite differing mechanisms. What is that​ result? A. Osmotic pump failure B. Carboxyhemoglobin overload C. Aerobic cellular metabolism D. Cellular hypoxia

D. Cellular hypoxia

The second goal of the American Heart​ Association's "Stroke Chain of​ Survival" is​ rapid: A. recognition by the public. B. EMS assessment. C. diagnosis. D. EMS dispatch.

D. EMS dispatch.

A​ 74-year-old female patient presents with melena and dyspepsia. You also observe jaundice. You should​ suspect: A. hypothermia. B. trauma. C. abuse. D. GI bleeding.

D. GI bleeding.

All forms of shock are precipitated by which​ occurrence? A. Respiratory alkalosis B. External respiratory failure C. A lack of circulating blood D. Inadequate delivery of oxygenated blood to tissues

D. Inadequate delivery of oxygenated blood to tissues

Which of the following is the MOST important reason for the advanced EMT to understand​ pathophysiology? A. Understanding pathophysiology helps the advanced EMT to appear more​ knowledgeable, and​ thus, more competent to the patient. B. It allows the advanced EMT to give an accurate report of symptoms to medical command. C. It helps the advanced EMT to record patient symptoms. D. It allows the advanced EMT to develop an informed clinical impression in order to administer appropriate treatment.

D. It allows the advanced EMT to develop an informed clinical impression in order to administer appropriate treatment.

By which of the mechanisms below does cyanide lead to anaerobic​ metabolism? A. It binds with​ hemoglobin, preventing oxygen from being carried to the cellular level. B. It creates a severe metabolic acidosis that decreases the ability of oxygen to bind to hemoglobin. C. It paralyzes the respiratory​ muscles, leading to respiratory arrest and hypoxia. D. It disables the electron transport chain in the mitochondria.

D. It disables the electron transport chain in the mitochondria.

Which of the following is accurate in regard to geriatric presentation of​ shock? A. It presents faster than in other age groups. B. It is always a result of trauma. C. It is not commonly a result of trauma. D. It presents slower than in other age groups.

D. It presents slower than in other age groups.

The EMT is assessing an elderly patient who reports increased difficulty ambulating. The EMT assesses the​ patient's feet, and the patient states that the feet are numb and tingling. Which term should the EMT include when documenting this​ finding? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Stenosis C. Hypertrophy D. Neuropathy

D. Neuropathy

A​ 42-year-old female with a cast on her leg from a fracture that occurred four weeks ago complains of a​ sudden, sharp chest pain accompanied by severe shortness of breath. She has slight cyanosis of her lips and nail beds. She is very anxious and has a heart rate of 124 beats per minute and a blood pressure of​ 96/68 mmHg. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of shock in this​ patient? A. Pericardial tamponade B. Cardiogenic shock C. Septic shock D. Pulmonary embolism

D. Pulmonary embolism

Which of the following is listed as a goal in the American Heart​ Association's "Stroke Chain of​ Survival"? A. Rapid CT scan B. Rapid fibrinolytic therapy C. Rapid discharge D. Rapid dispatch

D. Rapid dispatch

Why does shock progress quicker in the geriatric population as compared to younger age​ groups? A. Decreased blood volume B. Increased blood volume C. Fast venous response D. Slow arterial response

D. Slow arterial response

Which of the following occurs if the cellular​ sodium/potassium pump​ fails? A. Sodium concentration within the cell​ decreases, causing water to leave the​ cell, eventually dehydrating the​ cell, causing it to die. B. Potassium concentration inside the cell​ increases, causing a decrease in the amount of potassium in the blood. C. Both sodium and potassium leave the​ cell, leaving the cell unable to function. D. Sodium concentration within the cell​ increases, causing water to enter the cell and eventually causing the cell to burst and die.

D. Sodium concentration within the cell​ increases, causing water to enter the cell and eventually causing the cell to burst and die.

A​ 70-year-old man complains of a headache that he calls a migraine. The headache began about 4 hours ago and has gotten worse. He has also started to feel nauseated and has​ "foggy" thinking. Upon​ questioning, you determine that the patient has NEVER had a history of migraines. He tells​ you, "No, this is the first​ one, but​ it's a​ doozy!" For which of these conditions should you immediately have an increased index of​ suspicion? A. Atypical seizure B. New onset of migraine headache C. Brain tumor D. Stroke

D. Stroke

The patient reports tightness in the neck and a headache all over that is squeezing. Which type of headache should the EMT document in the medical​ record? A. Organic B. Migraine C. Cluster D. Tension

D. Tension

​Normally, when BGLs begin to​ fall, which of the following​ occurs? A. The body decreases production of glucagon to prevent BGLs from dropping further. B. Brain cells start using fatty acids for​ fuel, resulting in diabetic ketoacidosis. C. The body secretes​ insulin, allowing more glucose to enter cells. D. The body secretes​ glucagon, leading to the breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver.

D. The body secretes​ glucagon, leading to the breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver.

Which of the following is accurate regarding a myocardial infarction in​ geriatrics? A. Breathing trouble is an uncommon complaint. B. Indigestion is uncommon. C. Chest pain is the most common symptom. D. The heart attack may be​ "silent."

D. The heart attack may be​ "silent."

Which of the following statements regarding a silent heart attack is​ CORRECT? A. A silent heart attack is one in which the patient suddenly collapses in cardiac arrest. B. The term silent heart attack arises from the​ patient's reluctance to seek help. C. A silent heart attack results in chest pain​ only, without other related symptoms. D. The only symptoms to a silent heart attack may be weakness and fatigue.

D. The only symptoms to a silent heart attack may be weakness and fatigue.

Which one of the following occurs to assist in homeostasis during a heat​ emergency? A. The​ blood-brain barrier removes cerebral spinal fluid from the cranial vault. B. The body increases the flow of glucose to the brain. C. A shift in the electrolyte balance stops perspiration. D. The peripheral vasculature dilates.

D. The peripheral vasculature dilates.

You are evaluating a​ 52-year-old male patient complaining of facial drooping on his left side upon awakening this morning. You have established that he has no prior medical​ history, vital signs were all within normal​ ranges, and his blood glucose level was 98​ mg/dL. You have determined that he has​ right-sided facial​ droop, equal​ grip, and equal arm drift. What screening result would you determine according to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS) assessment? A. The screening criteria were​ met, but not a sufficient level to call for a​ "Code Stroke." B. The screening criteria were​ met; call for a​ "Code Stroke." C. You have not collected enough information for a LAPSS assessment. D. The screening criteria were not met.

D. The screening criteria were not met.

Which of these changes occurs in the cardiovascular system as a result of the aging​ process? A. An increase of electrical conducting cells B. A decrease in resting heart rate C. Increased thickness of capillary walls D. Widespread arteriosclerosis

D. Widespread arteriosclerosis

The MOST significant problem with a patient who loses the gag reflex would​ be: A. choking. B. loss of uvular function. C. slurred speech. D. an inability to protect the airway.

D. an inability to protect the airway.

All of the following occur as a result of shock​ EXCEPT: A. pyruvate is converted to lactic​ acid, which accumulates in the tissues. B. the precapillary and postcapillary sphincters in peripheral circulation constrict to shunt blood to the vital organs. C. the decrease in available ATP causes the cellular​ sodium/potassium pump to​ fail, and cellular edema and death occur. D. compensatory mechanisms result in low blood pressure.

D. compensatory mechanisms result in low blood pressure.

A symptom that is very common and is caused by a decrease or interruption to the blood supply to the brain​ is: A. tachycardia. B. tachypnea. C. hypertension. D. dizziness.

D. dizziness.

An increase in tidal volume​ and/or respiratory rate is an indicator​ of: A. cyanosis. B. COPD. C. anaphylaxis. D. hypoxia.

D. hypoxia.

The final common pathway of shock​ is: A. inadequate blood pressure. B. fluid loss. C. blood loss. D. inadequate cellular perfusion to meet metabolic needs.

D. inadequate cellular perfusion to meet metabolic needs.

The process by which oxygen molecules​ attract, or​ pull, hydrogen ions from one enzyme to another within the mitochondria of​ cells, eventually resulting in the production of​ ATP, is​ called: A. apoptosis. B. metaplasia. C. anaerobic metabolism. D. oxidative phosphorylation.

D. oxidative phosphorylation.

Patients with an altered mental status and a pulse ox reading of 90 percent will benefit​ from: A. epinephrine. B. fibrinolytics. C. glucose. D. oxygen.

D. oxygen.

The first goal of the American Heart​ Association's "Stroke Chain of​ Survival" is​ rapid: A. diagnosis and treatment by a medical facility. B. EMS assessment and recognition of stroke. C. EMS dispatch. D. recognition of stroke signs and symptoms.

D. recognition of stroke signs and symptoms

The first​ "S" in​ AEIOU-TIPPSS stand​ for: A. speech difficulty. B. stroke. C. safety. D. shock.

D. shock.

A​ 74-year-old female patient complains of vomiting blood. Her compensation for shock will likely​ be: A. effective. B. long acting. C. increased. D. short acting.

D. short acting.

All of the following may be true of sudden cardiac arrest​ (SCA) EXCEPT: A. the myocardium produces no effective cardiac output during ventricular fibrillation. B. there is pulseless ventricular tachycardia. C. the heart is experiencing ventricular fibrillation. D. there is never a pulse.

D. there is never a pulse.

The emergency medical care of a serious headache should include each of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. establish and maintain an adequate airway. B. be prepared to suction. C. administer oxygen if saturation is low. D. use Trendelenburg position.

D. use Trendelenburg position.

Which of the following statements by a patient regarding a headache should indicate to the EMT that rapid transport may be​ necessary? A. ​"I don't know why I keep getting these​ headaches." B. ​"Aspirin usually works better than​ this." C. ​"I wish my doctor could figure out what the problem​ is." D. ​"It's the worst headache I have ever​ had."

D. ​"It's the worst headache I have ever​ had."

Which of the following is the most likely candidate for a​ stroke? A. ​60-year-old female patient who smokes B. ​68-year-old female patient who is a diabetic C. ​48-year-old male patient with a history of myocardial infarction​ (MI) D. ​72-year-old male patient with previous TIAs

D. ​72-year-old male patient with previous TIAs

What type of stroke is likely to have the slowest​ onset? A. ​Embolic-type stroke B. Arterial​ spasm-type stroke C. ​Hemorrhagic-type stroke D. ​Thrombotic-type stroke

D. ​Thrombotic-type stroke

You are transporting a patient who is continuing to deteriorate. You contact medical​ command, provide your patient​ report, and request additional orders. Medical command communicates additional​ orders, and you have heard and understood the message. What word or phrase will tell medical command that you have heard and understood​ them? A. Over B. Clear C. Affirmative D. ​10-4

D. 10-4

2100 hours in​ 12-hour clock time​ is: A. ​6:00 am. B. ​11:00 pm. C. ​11:00 am. D. ​9:00 pm.

D. 9:00 pm

Operating​ gas-powered equipment inside an ambulance places occupants at risk because​ of: A. carbon dioxide accumulation. B. high noise levels. C. oxygen depletion. D. CO accumulation.

D. CO accumulation

The agency that must approve all radio equipment manufactured is​ the: A. Federal Reserve Commission. B. Federal Emergency Management Agency. C. Federal Trade Commission. D. Federal Communications Commission.

D. FCC

When requesting air medical​ transport, which of the following important pieces of information should you be prepared to provide​ immediately? A. How long you have been on the scene B. A detailed description of your​ patient's medical history C. Why you chose to request air medical transport D. A brief patient condition report that include the​ patient's weight

D. a brief patient condition report that includes the patient's weight

​"How long ago did your accident​ happen?" is an example​ of: A. facilitation. B. reflection. C. clarification. D. a​ closed-ended question.

D. a closed-ended question

"What medical problems have you​ had?" is an example of which one of the​ following? A. Asking a​ closed-ended question B. Summarizing C. Facilitating D. Asking an​ open-ended question

D. asking an open-ended question

All of the following are examples of nonverbal communication​ EXCEPT: A. your facial expression. B. your tone of voice. C. the neatness of your uniform. D. asking an​ open-ended question.

D. asking an open-ended question

During the course of​ transport, your patient is further injured when your stretcher drops from full height to the lowest setting. How should this event be​ documented? A. Give the emergency department a verbal account of the injury and its occurrence. B. Omit the details of the injury and put only the treatment on the PCR. C. Complete the PCR and include information from the patient injury. D. Complete the​ PCR, include information from the patient​ injury, and complete a supplemental incident report form pertaining to the accident.

D. complete the PCR, include information from the patient injury, and complete a supplemental incident report form pertaining to the accident

You are among the first responders at a​ multiple-casualty incident. As other responders arrive on​ scene, which of the following will facilitate​ communication? A. Use of slang B. Use of codes C. Confrontation D. Confirmation of information received

D. confirmation of information received

An ambulance driver must take a sharp turn. How is this BEST​ accomplished? A. Turn the wheel sharply at speed just before entering the intersection. B. Increase speed going into the turn. C. Begin the turn when the front wheels clear the curb. D. Decrease speed and begin the turn when the rear wheels clear the curb.

D. decrease speed and begin the turn when the rear wheels clear the curb

Rolling your eyes as a patient tells you the chief complaint is likely to be interpreted​ as: A. flirting. B. compassion and understanding. C. a lack of​ self-confidence. D. disbelief or disrespect.

D. disbelief or disrespect

Which of the following is NOT typically a purpose of a​ PCR? A. Documenting identification of the unit responding and the crew members B. Documenting patient demographic data C. Documenting times that the call was​ dispatched, when the crew​ arrived, when the crew left the​ scene, and when the crew arrived at the hospital D. Documenting information about patients in a​ multiple-casualty situation

D. documenting information about patients in a MCI

When merging onto a freeway while driving with lights and​ siren, the​ driver's first step should be​ to: A. evaluate traffic. B. move rapidly to the left lane. C. accelerate above the posted speed. D. downgrade the response.

D. downgrade the response

When entering a school zone while responding to an emergency​ call, you​ should: A. ensure sirens are activated. B. proceed normally. C. travel quickly through the zone. D. downgrade to nonemergency driving.

D. downgrade to nonemergency driving

When correcting an error on a paper​ PCR, the proper method of doing so is​ to: A. draw a line through the patient care narrative section and rewrite the report on a supplemental form. B. black out the incorrect​ information, make the​ correction, and initial it. C. use correction fluid to cover the error and write over it. D. draw a single line through the​ error, make the​ correction, and initial it.

D. draw a single line through the error, make the correction, and initial it

Patients that need to be moved immediately require​ a(n): A. stair lift. B. ​Fowler's position. C. log roll. D. emergency move.

D. emergency move

When a patient appears to be​ hostile, your first consideration when communicating with that patient is​ to: A. maintain a period of silence to allow the patient time to collect his thoughts and get his emotions under control. B. display empathy. C. confront the patient about the reason for his hostility. D. ensure your own safety.

D. ensure your own safety

According to the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians​ (NAEMT) security​ guidelines, the development of operational security standards​ should: A. be publicly posted. B. be distributed only to supervisors. C. exactly mimic the Department of Homeland Security​ (DHS) guidelines. D. include input from all employees.

D. include input from all employees

How can patients and providers be protected from CO poisoning while in the​ ambulance? A. Create a negative interior pressure by opening the vents. B. Keep windows rolled down. C. Keep doors open until you leave the scene. D. Install a CO detector.

D. install a CO detector

A type of question that is generally avoided in patient interviews is​ _____________ questions. A. ​open-ended B. ​closed-ended C. direct D. leading

D. leading

A reduction in your cushion of safety while operating an ambulance results​ in: A. a smoother ride. B. an accident. C. patient injury. D. less maneuvering room.

D. less maneuvering room

Which of the following should you do before depressing the​ push-to-talk button on the​ radio? A. Place the microphone against your lips. B. State the name of the entity or unit you are calling. C. Give a concise​ report, speaking for no more than 30 seconds at a time. D. Listen for other radio traffic to avoid interrupting.

D. listen for other radio traffic to avoid interrupting

What safety standards pertain to construction of the patient compartment of an​ ambulance? A. Federal specifications document​ KKK-1822-E B. American Society for Testing and Materials test standards C. Federal Motor Vehicle Safety Standards D. None

D. none

During an EMS​ call, which of the following events would MOST likely occur before the​ others? A. Requesting orders from medical direction B. Giving the receiving hospital a report on the​ patient's condition C. Notifying dispatch that you have left the scene D. Notifying dispatch that you have arrived at the scene

D. notifying dispatch that you ahve arrived at the scene

You are dispatched to 472 Rose Avenue for a fall. What type of data are​ these, and where would this information appear on the​ PCR? A. ​subjective, demographics B. ​objective, patient data and demographics C. ​subjective, patient data D. ​objective, administrative information

D. objective, administrative information

Emergency vehicle collisions​ are: A. uncontrollable. B. typically not serious. C. rare. D. often preventable.

D. often preventable

What type of narrative data is​ this: "NKDA, no​ medications, no major illnesses or​ surgeries, last oral intake​ catfish, fries, cole​ slaw, and soda at 1230​ hrs."? A. Vital signs B. Subjective information C. Chief complaint D. Pertinent history

D. pertinent history

In accordance with HIPAA​ regulations, you​ should: A. provide the​ patient's attorney with a copy of the PCR form if requested. B. provide the PCR form to law enforcement if requested. C. provide the​ patient's family with a copy of the PCR form. D. prevent anyone not directly involved with patient care from viewing the PCR form.

D. prevent anyone not directly invovled with patient care from viewing the PCR form

Telling a patient who you feel is suffering from a myocardial infarction that the patient will​ "feel better​ soon" is an example​ of: A. understanding. B. empathizing. C. calming the patient. D. providing false reassurance.

D. providing false reassurance

An ambulance operator​ should: A. have the capability to work extended or double shifts for long periods with no ill effects. B. be able to drive safely regardless of the level of fatigue. C. maintain a high level of endurance regardless of the number of consecutive hours worked. D. recognize when fatigue is setting in and responsibly take that into account.

D. recognize when fatigue is setting in and responsibly take that into account

While en route to the​ hospital, you complete your radio report to medical command. The information the hospital is​ transmitting, however, is garbled. You believe the hospital is attempting to communicate additional orders to you. What should you​ say? A. ​"Copy, please​ repeat." B. ​"Copy, go​ ahead." C. ​"Negative, stand​ by." D. ​"Repeat, over."

D. repeat, over

Which of the following devices does NOT require rolling or lifting the patient in order to properly package the patient with​ it? A. Folding stretcher B. Backboard C. Stair chair D. Scoop stretcher

D. scoop stretcher

Which of the following is MOST likely to result in​ fatigue? A. Light exercise B. Heavy exercise C. Driving the ambulance D. Shift work

D. shift work

Which of the following statements regarding patient restraint is​ TRUE? A. Two straps are required to keep the patient from being ejected from the cot in an accident. B. Shoulder harnesses cannot be installed on cots. C. Backboard straps should be released after strapping the patient on the cot. D. Shoulder harnesses are required to keep the patient on the cot.

D. should harnesses are required to keep the patient on the cot

When lifting a cot from a fully lowered position to a full height position you should use​ the: A. ​curl-lift technique. B. clean and jerk technique. C. grip and lift technique. D. ​squat-lift technique.

D. squat-lift techniques

A direct ground lift uses what to lift the​ patient? A. A draw sheet B. a backboard C. A blanket D. The arms

D. the arms

Who is the MOST common tailgater of an​ ambulance? A. Curiosity seekers B. Another emergency vehicle C. Additional staff D. The family

D. the family

Which of the following statements concerning the narrative section of the PCR is MOST​ accurate? A. Information in the narrative section is used for administrative purposes only. B. Pertinent negatives are​ "assumed by​ omission" in the narrative section. C. The Advanced​ EMT's conclusions should be limited to the narrative section. D. The narrative section is to be completed in a​ clear, straightforward style of technical writing without opinion or conclusions.

D. the narrative section isto be completed in a clear, straightforward style of technical writing without opinion or conclusions

Which of the following statements about the rear box of an ambulance is​ TRUE? A. Standard vehicle construction and safety standards apply to the ambulance box. B. The patient compartment of an ambulance includes everything from the windshield back. C. The ambulance box is not tested by its manufacturer in a manner that predicts how it will perform in a collision. D. The patient compartment of an ambulance is a​ pre-manufacturing modification.

D. the patient copartment of an ambulance is a pre-manufacturing modification

You respond to several calls in a week that involve a response from multiple agencies in addition to your​ own, presenting issues with communication and coordination. Although individual team members may change from call to​ call, what should remain​ consistent? A. The types of calls received B. The type of communication required C. The operation of the ambulance D. The roles of the providers

D. the roles of the providers

Tailgaters are difficult to see​ because: A. ambulance mirrors are typically misadjusted. B. the vehicle profile of a tailgater is narrower than most​ vehicles' C. they can approach your vehicle fast. D. the size of an ambulance creates a blind spot.

D. the size of an ambulance creates a blind spot

The minimum data set collected through the NEMSIS system does not violate HIPAA​ because: A. the data cannot be subpoenaed. B. the chief complaint is omitted. C. the patient allows the information to be collected. D. there is no personally identifiable information collected.

D. there is no personally identifiable information collected

What is the stopping distance of an ambulance from 60​ mph? A. 106 feet B. 292 feet C. Ten percent longer than the average​ car's stopping distance D. Up to three times as far as the average​ car's stopping distance

D. up to three times as far as the average car's stopping distance

Which of the following is an example of an​ open-ended question? A. How long have you been​ coughing? B. When did you last take your​ Coumadin? C. Do you have a history of heart​ disease? D. What kind of medical problems have you​ had?

D. what kind of medical problems have you had?

Which of the following is an example of​ confrontation? A. ​"You were on your way to work this morning when the accident happened.​ Continue." B. ​"Let me make sure I have all the​ information." C. ​"I'm not sure I​ understand." D. ​"You say you​ didn't injure yourself but you are​ limping."

D. you say you didnt injury yourself but you are limping

What bit of information can be referenced in the Emergency Response Guidebook?

DOT hazard placards

A sign of severely altered mental status that is commonly associated with trauma to the brainstem is flexion of the arms toward the trunk. What term is applied to this​ sign? A. Abnormal respiratory pattern B. ​Battle's sign C. Decorticate posturing D. Decerebrate posturing

Decorticate posturing

You are treating a​ 67-year-old male with chest pain and a history of prior heart attacks as well as diabetes and hypertension. The patient has taken three nitroglycerin tablets which have decreased the pain from 7 to​ 4/10; however, the pain persists.​ Initially, his SpO2 was​ 91% on room air. Oxygen was applied by nasal cannula and​ now, on 3 lpm O2​, his SpO2 is​ 97%. How would you address the​ oxygen, given that he still has chest​ pain?

Decrease the oxygen to 2 lpm

Hemiplegia or hemiparesis

Depending on the location of the nontraumatic brain​ injury, signs and symptoms may​ include: A. urine retention and constipation. B. eyes turned toward the side of the body that is paralyzed. C. hemiplegia or hemiparesis. D. dilated pupils.

Of the following stroke signs and​ symptoms, which would be considered visual​ disturbances? A. Sudden onset of headache B. Sudden onset of paralysis C. Incoordination of the extremities D. Deterioration or loss of sight in one or both eyes

Deterioration or loss of sight in one or both eyes

Of the following stroke signs and​ symptoms, which would be considered visual​ disturbances?

Deterioration or loss of sight in one or both eyes.

When assessing a patient with upper back​ pain, what assessment finding would make you very suspicious of a thoracic aortic​ dissection?

Different blood pressure readings in each arm

Which of these findings is more likely to be associated with traumatic brain injury than with post traumatic stress disorder?

Difficulty finding the right words

After administration of a​ bronchodilator, what would the EMT expect to hear during auscultation if the medication had its desired effect on the​ body? A. Diminishment in rales​ (crackles) B. Slight increase in tracheal sounds C. Diminishment in wheezing D. Slight increase in heart tones

Diminishment in wheezing

A symptom that is very common and is caused by a decreased or interruption to the blood supply to the brain​ is:

Dizziness.

Which of the following is accurate regarding measuring a blood pressure on a dialysis patient?

Do not take a blood pressure on the extremity with an AV fistula

Which of these is allowed of EMTs driving an emergency ambulance in MOST states?

Drive the wrong way down a one-way street

Why would the fact that a patient who presented with difficulty breathing and stridor is now​ drooling, be important to​ note? A. Drooling indicates that the sinus is congested. B. Drooling is due to painful​ swallowing, which may indicate epiglottitis. C. Drooling can be a source of infection. D. Drooling is not significant so do not let it distract you.

Drooling is due to painful​ swallowing, which may indicate epiglottitis.

Breathing 32 times a minute. Pulse of 140, SpO2 is 98.

Dyspnea

What major role can EMS play in the overall management of a stroke​ patient?

Early recognition and rapid transport

Which of the following BEST describes the two etiologic​ mechanisms, which can often result in an altered mental​ status?

Either structural lesions or toxic metabolic states

Which of the following patient populations is MOST likely to have a presentation resembling that of a​ stroke, but actually they are experiencing a hypoglycemic​ episode?

Elderly.

Which of the following is a potential hazard for personnel responding to a marijuana grow operation?

Electrical hazards

ventilating the patient with inadequate breathing.

Emergency medical care of the unresponsive patient who has a nontraumatic brain injury may​ include: A. placing unresponsive patient in the Trendelenburg position. B. ventilating the patient with inadequate breathing. C. placing the unresponsive patient in the prone position. D. applying​ low-concentration oxygen by face mask.

You are treating a patient who has difficulty breathing. He is very thin and has a​ barrel-chest appearance. He is coughing but with little sputum and has a prolonged exhalation as if he is puffing. What type of disease does he MOST likely​ have? A. Chronic bronchitis B. Asthma C. Emphysema D. Pulmonary embolus

Emphysema

While assessing a victim of domestic violence, you should:

Encourage the victim to disclose what happened

Your patient is a 78-year-old male who was found lying on his bathroom floor. Emergency Medical Responders report that the patient is unresponsive with unequal pupils, and vital signs are as follows: pulse 78, respirations 20 and snoring, blood pressure 210/106, SpO2 at 99%. The EMRs have applied oxygen by nonrebreather, and also report that the patient has a hematoma on the back of his head. Which one of the following should you do first?

Ensure an open airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver

Your male patient was attacked by a prostitute he was attempting to have sex with. The assailant managed to cut off a section of the​ man's penis with a knife she had hidden. Upon your​ arrival, the male patient is using direct pressure to stop the​ bleeding, and you see the amputated body part on the floor. The assailant has left the building. What should be the​ paramedic's first assessment​ action?

Ensure the patient has an open airway and adequate breathing.

The first step in providing care for a human trafficking victim is:

Ensuring scene safety

Which of these actions will improve your control of a vehicle at higher speeds?

Enter a curve at the outside, and start turning as early as possible

Croup differs from epiglottis by

Epiglottis typically drools, while croup rarely if ever drools

A veteran who trained for combat but never went to war is known as an:

Era veteran

You have a patient who was trapped beneath a truck along the freeway when he was trying to repair the brakes. By the time you​ arrive, the local fire department has already extricated the patient from underneath the​ truck, and he is currently immobilized. They advise you that the patient has a crushed​pelvis, an open fracture to the left​ femur, a distended​ abdomen, and vomitus in the airway. The patient suddenly became unresponsive when the weight of the truck was lifted from him. What should be your first priority of​ management?

Establish an open airway.

Which one of the following actions is it essential that the EMT take prior to assisting the patient in taking his nitroglycerin​ tablet?

Evaluate the​ patient's blood pressure.

Your patient has sustained a deep laceration to the anterior abdominal wall secondary to an industrial accident. When you remove his clothing during your​ assessment, you note that portions of the bowel are now protruding through the abdominal wall. What type of injury is this known​ as?

Evisceration

You have been called to the house of a young adult male who is unresponsive. The man lives by himself so no family is present. In trying to determine the origin of the​ patient's altered mental​ status, which of the following would most likely provide the best​ information?

Examination of medication containers

Your EMS agency wants to increase the power output of the base station in order to cover a larger area without needing a repeater. Which federal agency is responsible for establishing limitations for power output? a. International Municipal Signal Association (IMSA) b. Warning and Reference Guidance Association c. Office of Emergency Communications (OEC) d. Federal Communications Commission (FCC)

FCC

radio communications, which may include patient assessment findings, responses to interventions, and information from the scene are monitored by the a. EPA b. OSHA c. FCC d. DOT

FCC

central nervous

For altered mental status to​ occur, what body system must be​ affected? A. Cardiovascular B. Respiratory C. Central nervous D. Endocrine

In which situation is the assessment of breath sounds MOST important to the​ EMT? A. For each unresponsive patient and after the administration of oral glucose B. For each traumatized patient and after immobilization C. For each patient with dyspnea and after any pulmonary treatment D. For each patient with a headache and after initiating oxygen

For each patient with dyspnea and after any pulmonary treatment

The​ semi-conscious patient who is nauseous following an ingested poisoning

For which patient is transport in the lateral recumbent position most​ appropriate? A. The unconscious spinal injury patient who fell off a tall ladder B. The​ semi-conscious patient with an oral airway who was in a bar fight C. The unconscious patient who is being ventilated after a stroke D. The​ semi-conscious patient who is nauseous following an ingested poisoning

hemorrhagic

For which type of stroke is the patient NOT a candidate for​ "clot-busting" drugs? A. Thrombotic B. Hemorrhagic C. Embolic D. Ischemic

Bystanders state that a 72-year-old woman complained of chest pain and dizziness just before she fell down a flight of stairs. She is alert but confused and states that she feels nauseated and may vomit. How should the EMT position this patient for transport?

Fully immobilized to a long spine board

Asking a stroke patient yes or no questions may permit the EMT​ to:

Gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient.

After administering the​ 45-year-old female​ patient's bronchodilator, you notice that she continues to have considerable distress and her mental status is becoming altered. Aside from administering​ oxygen, what else should you be​ considering? A. Administering another bronchodilator treatment B. Administering an epinephrine​ self-injector C. Getting out the​ bag-valve mask and preparing to assist ventilations D. Using CPAP

Getting out the​ bag-valve mask and preparing to assist ventilations

You are called to a residence for an​ 8-year-old male patient complaining of severe headache and elevated temperature since the previous evening. The parents stated that the headache has just gotten​ "worse and​ worse." On your​ arrival, it appears that the scene is safe. What steps would you take in terms of Standard Precautions and personal protective​ equipment? A. ​Gloves, mask, and gown B. Gloves C. Gloves and mask for you and a mask for your patient D. Gloves and mask

Gloves and mask for you and a mask for your patient

Which of these conditions helps minimize the possibility of carbon monoxide poisoning from ambulances?

Having an exhaust system that exits beyond the side of the vehicle.

What is the highest level of training for hazmat incidents under OSHA regulations?

Hazardous materials specialist

You are caring for a patient with a history of emphysema who has a primary complaint of shortness of breath and the following​ findings: pulse ox reading of 93​ percent, heart rate​ 110, blood pressure​ 180/86, and respiratory rate​ 26/minute. You find the​ patient's skin to be diaphoretic with ashen fingers and toes. There are bilaterally diminished breath sounds with a slight expiratory​ wheeze, but alveolar sounds are still present. Given these​ findings, how would you characterize this​ patient's current ventilation​ adequacy? A. He is breathing​ adequately, and no indications of respiratory failure are present. B. He is breathing inadequately but shows signs of improving. C. He displays respiratory​ distress, and he is at risk for deterioration. D. He is breathing​ inadequately, and significant findings of inadequacy are present.

He displays respiratory​ distress, and he is at risk for deterioration.

Assesment of 67 year old male reveals absent lung sounds accompained by sharp chest pain. What is important when obtaining history.

He has emphysema.

You pull up to the scene of a​ one-car motor vehicle collision and find an​ off-duty emergency department physician from a local hospital treating the patient. What is the best way to initially communicate with the​ doctor? A. ​"We will be in the ambulance if you need​ us." B. ​"Thank you,​ doctor, you can go​ now; we will take​ over." C. ​"The law requires you to let us handle the​ situation." D. ​"Hello, doctor. We are EMTs. How can we​ help?"

Hello, doctor. We are EMTs. How can we help

For which type of stroke is the patient NOT a candidate for​ "clot-busting" drugs? A. Ischemic B. Thrombotic C. Hemorrhagic D. Embolic

Hemorrhagic

Patients who present with an acute change in their mental status are considered what transport​ priority? A. Low priority B. Unnecessary risk C. Delayed candidate D. High priority

High priority

The last time the patient was neurologically intact

How is the time of onset of a stroke​ defined? A. The point at which a TIA fails to resolve itself B. The first time the patient noticed a neurological deficit C. The last time the patient was neurologically intact D. The time at which the deficit exceeds the​ 2-hour limit that commonly differentiates a TIA from a stroke

Which finding is LEAST likely following radiation exposure?

Hypertension

A patient suffering from what other disorder can sometimes be confused with a patient experiencing a stroke. A. A transitional hemorrhage B. Congestive heart failure C. Hypoglycemia D. Hyperglycemia

Hypoglycemia

The signs and symptoms of a stroke may closely resemble those of what condition?

Hypoglycemia

When assessing a patient with stroke-like signs and​ symptoms, it is critical that the EMT also suspect and rule out what​ condition?

Hypoglycemia

A patient suffering from what other disorder can sometimes be confused with a patient experiencing a stroke.

Hypoglycemia.

Patient has cyanosis around lips adn fingertips, skin is cool, pulse is rapid. Breath sounds diminished but clear.

Hypoxia

What is the MOST severe consequence of reduced airflow from​ COPD? A. Hypotension B. GI distress C. Hypoxia D. Tachycardia

Hypoxia

What is the MOST severe consequence of reduced airflow from​ COPD? A. Hypotension B. Tachycardia C. GI distress D. Hypoxia

Hypoxia

71 year old female complains of shortness of breath. Experiences chest pain that worsens with deep breath. What raises suspcision of pulmonary embolism?

I had foot surgery five days ago

What is the lowest priority when you determine that a patient may have been exposed to a radiation source?

Immediate transport to the ED

A hazardous material is defined as a material that:

In any quantity causes a threat or risk to life.

Which of the following guidelines applies to prehospital fluid resuscitation of hypotensive patients with intraabdominal​ hemorrhage?

In most​ cases, fluid administration should be limited to 3 liters.

two hours Most interventions must be delivered within the first three hours of a stroke syndrome. To do​ this, however, the patient must be delivered to the emergency department at least within the first two hours from the onset to allow the emergency department personnel enough time to collect the necessary information to make a decision whether to administer the drugs to destroy the clot causing the stroke.

In order for the patient to have a maximal response to interventions designed to treat an embolic​ stroke, how soon do they need to get to the emergency department from time of symptom​ onset? A. Four hours B. Three hours C. One hour D. Two hours

You are approaching a collision in the southbound lanes of an interstate from the north. You see one of the vehicles in the median, and one of the vehicles parallel to it, across the right-hand lane. Which of these is the BEST place to park your vehicle at the scene?

In the safe zone of other blocking vehicles with loading area away from the closest lane of traffic

Because of significant advancements in medicine, which choice BEST describes the trend for the living arrangements of increasing numbers of people with serious chronic illnesses?

In their own or a family members home

Which is NOT a typical reason for EMS to be summoned to the home of a patient who is dependent on medical technology?

Inability of the family to stay with a patient at home because they need to go grocery shopping

Which choice BEST describes a language disorder?

Inability to understand the spoken word

Which of the following is a benefit of crew resource management?

Increases situation awareness

Which of the following has been shown to be an effect on emergency vehicle drivers as a result of using the siren while driving?

Increasing their driving speed

Which cause of abdominal trauma is on the​ rise?

Increasing violence in society

Hydrocephalus is more common in:

Infants

According to the National Association of Emergency Medical Technicians, which of the following is an acceptable form of security briefing?

Information sheets

You are reassessing your unconscious patient and have determined that his respirations are no longer of an adequate depth. What should your next action​ be?

Initiate positive pressure ventilation.

Which is true regarding ventalition in healthy patient.

Inspiration requires energy, is active process. Expiration requires little to no energy.

Which hazard is represented by the yellow area on an NFPA placard?

Instability (reactivity)

Patient is complaining of rapid breathing, light headedness, and tachycardia. Had bad advice and denies chest pain.

Instruct patient to close mouth and breathe through nose, he is hyperventilating

Which level of infection control is appropriate for stethoscopes, blood pressure cuffs, or reusable splints?

Intermediate-level disinfection

You are assisting a paramedic in the transport of a patient from a community hospital emergency department to a large medical center. The patient was diagnosed with an acute myocardial infarction​ (heart attack) and received fibrinolytic therapy in the ED.​ Currently, you are transporting the patient with the fibrinolytic medication infusing through an IV. In regards to the fibrinolytic​ therapy, you know that during this​ transport, you will need to closely monitor the patient for what​ complication?

Internal bleeding

Your patient is a​ 60-year-old female restrained driver involved in a​ moderate-speed frontal impact collision. When you arrive at the​ scene, she is sitting up in the​ driver's seat with a chief complaint of a burning sensation in her face. You note abrasions from deployment of the airbag. After immobilizing the patient on a long​ backboard, you begin transport. As you perform a detailed​ examination, the patient complains of developing right shoulder pain. Which of the following should you​ suspect?

Intraabdominal bleeding

While on scene at a residence, you notice a strange odor and a soda pop bottle that appears to be swelling under pressure. You should:

Isolate the area

Which of the following BEST describes the nature of post traumatic stress disorder?

It is a reaction that occurs to normal people who are exposed to abnormal stressors or dangerous conditions

When instructing patient to use SVN what is important.

It is important to cough occassionaly during treatment

Your patient has a history of multiple TIA events. They are usually​ self-limiting and resolve quickly.​ Currently, the findings have lasted about 25​ minutes, and the patient is now scared. What should the EMT​ conclude? A. It is called an extended TIA. B. It is an indicator of liver dysfunction. C. It requires monitoring but not treatment. D. It may actually be a small stroke.

It may actually be a small stroke.

A system based on fairness and promotion of accountability of everyone involved is known as:

Just culture

Which of these guidelines should you follow when interacting with a returning combat veteran in need of your assistance?

Keep in mind that stimuli that you take for granted, such as diesel fumes, can trigger combat memories, stress, and anxiety in the patient

How can the EMT lower the risk of CO poisoning in older ambulances that are still in service?

Keep the windows shut in the patient compartment

Pursed lip breathing

Keeps small airways open

This prehospital stroke screen has been found to have a 97 percent success rate in determining which patients have actually suffered a stroke.

LAPSS.

During a fight with a​ knife-wielding assailant, your teenage patient was stabbed in the lower left abdominal​ quadrant, at roughly the 5​ o'clock position. Bleeding is​ minimal, and the patient is conscious and in extreme pain. Given this​ injury, what structure is most likely injured from the​ stabbing?

Large bowel

You are treating a patient with an intraventricular shunt emergency. How should you position the patient to help maintain the airway?

Lateral recumbent

With the increase in home-going medical technology, what can the EMT do to help stay abreast of the emerging technologies that are being used within their jurisdiction?

Learn from local specialty hospitals

Chronic and untreated hypertension will affect which part of the heart​ first?

Left Ventricle

You have been called for a patient who is not feeling well. Assessment indicates an open​ airway, adequate​ breathing, and regular radial pulse. He states that his left arm is weak and has had a stroke in the past which caused paralysis in his right arm. He is also a diabetic and has not taken any insulin today because he is out of the medication. Vital signs are pulse​ 88, respirations​ 20, blood pressure​ 186/104, and SpO2​ 95% on home oxygen for his COPD. What assessment finding is most concerning to​ you?

Left arm weakness

A male patient suffered the sudden onset of inability to talk and right-side weakness. Currently he is responsive to verbal stimuli and has the following vital signs: pulse 88, respirations 14 and adequate, and blood pressure 210/80. For transporting this patient to the hospital, in what position should you place him?

Left lateral recumbent

A 73-year-old female is responsive to painful stimuli and cannot move her left arm or leg. You suspect she is having a stroke. What is the best transport position for​ her?

Left lateral recumbent position

Your patient is responsive to verbal stimuli but cannot move his left arm or leg. You suspect she is having a stroke. What is the best transport position for her?

Left lateral recumbent position

Which of the following is an easily recognizable prescribed medication for a patient for a respiratory​ disease? A. Cozaar B. Fenofibrate C. Levalbuterol D. Trilafon

Levalbuterol

A​ 44-year-old male is experiencing chest pain. He has a history of angina and is prescribed​ nitroglycerin, which he has not taken yet. He is also taking another medication. Which of the following contraindicates the administration of​ nitroglycerin?

Levitra

Why should you always try to establish trust with a patient who is known to have a cognitive or verbal disability?

Many of these patients can still interpret body language, tone of voice, and disrespect

A TIA that lasts longer than 5 to 10​ minutes:

May actually be a small stroke.

What area of the brain is responsible for the gross rate and rhythm of the breathing​ pattern? A. Midbrain B. Stretch receptors C. Cerebellum D. Medulla oblongata

Medulla oblongata

Which of these problems is MOST likely to be associated with PTSD?

Memory problems

Which of the following medications is prescribed to a patient for a respiratory​ disease? A. Lisinopril B. Haldol C. Simvastatin D. Metaproterenol

Metaproterenol

While you are getting a medical history for a patient with generalized weakness and fatigue, she hands you a list of all the medications she is currently taking. Which one of the following medications should the EMT recognize as a bronchodilator?

Metaproterenol

What should you recognize as bronchodilator.

Metaproternol

18 year old male with sudden shortness of breath and back pain. Has history of Spontaneous Pneumothorax, and symptoms are similar. Patient is slightly dyspneic.

Monitor breath sounds

Patient suspected of being infected with whooping cough, deep cough and clear breath sounds.

Monitor patient and transport

For which of these purposes would low-level disinfection be appropriate?

Mopping the ambulance floor

Which situation is NOT likely to cause a patient to suffer from quadriplegia?

Morbid obesity

Which of the following is TRUE of the epidemiology of abdominal​ trauma?

Morbidity and mortality due to blunt trauma are​ decreasing, but morbidity and mortality due to penetrating trauma are increasing.

Which statement is most appropriate to start with when transferring a patient to the emergency department and giving the oral​ report? A. ​"This is Mr. Hedger. He has the state insurance​ plan." B. ​"Please refer to the recording of my radio report for specific information about Mr. Benton and his chest​ pain." C. ​"Mr. Hedger has high blood pressure and appears to be having a heart​ attack." D. ​"Mr. Hedger called us today because he was having chest​ pain."

Mr. Hedger called us today because he was having chest pain

You are treating an elderly man who tells you his name is Robert Walters. What is the MOST appropriate way to refer to​ him? A. Mr. Walters B. Robert C. Rob D. Mister

Mr. Walters

Rhonchi is caued by.

Mucus in bronchi.

Which of the following scene​ size-up observations would make you suspicious that a patient complaining of shortness of breath is suffering from congestive heart​ failure?

Multiple pillows stacked at the head of his bed

A​ 64-year-old male presents with a blood pressure of​ 210/132 mmHg. What patient statement would you recognize as most concerning and most likely associated with the elevated blood​ pressure?

My ears are continually ringing.

A patient with chest pain has an SpO2 of​ 90% on room air. How would you start providing oxygen to this​ patient?

Nasal cannula 2 lpm

When a patient loses the ability to​ speak, feel​ sensations, or​ move, he is experiencing what type of​ deficit?

Neurologic.

heighten emt's supsicion of child with persistent cough may have whooping cough

Never had childhood immunizations

Which agency is responsible for the regulations in "29 CFR 1910.120" as it relates to hazardous materials response?

OSHA

Of these problems, which is second only to smoking as a cause of preventable death?

Obesity

Which of the following best describes an ischemic​ stroke?

Obstructive blood clot inside a blood vessel within the brain

Given the commonality of patients with respiratory​ distress, which of the following will the EMT encounter MOST​ often? A. Infectious lung disease B. Obstructive lung disease C. Cancerous lung disease D. Hemorrhagic lung disease

Obstructive lung disease

You have been called to an office building for a​ 47-year-old male complaining of chest pain. He is​ alert, oriented, and complaining of pain in his chest that came on suddenly about 15 minutes ago. His skin is diaphoretic and cool. Which one of the following should you do​ first?

Obtain a heart​ rate, respiratory​ rate, blood​ pressure, and SpO2 reading.

Which of these tasks is the lowest priority when you are managing a patient with complicated medical technology devices?

Obtaining a printout of the patients ECG

SpO2​ 95% with 2 lpm O2 via nasal cannula

On​ scene, a confused 68-year-old female with possible stroke has an SpO2 of​ 91% on room air. Which one of the following indicates the most appropriate and beneficial type of oxygen therapy for this​ patient? A. SpO2​ 97% with 4 lpm O2 via nasal cannula B. SpO2​ 95% with 2 lpm O2 via nasal cannula C. SpO2​ 98% with 12 lpm O2 via nonrebreather D. SpO2​ 100% with 15 lpm O2 via nonrebreather

A patient informs you that he has a hard time breathing when he lies in bed. You would best document this​ as:

Orthopnea

What is the pathophysiology of cystic​ fibrosis? A. Swelling of the tongue B. Overabundant production of mucus in the lower airways C. Ankle edema D. Bronchodilitation of the lower airways

Overabundant production of mucus in the lower airways

Which of the following extracts oxygen from the air?

Oxygen concentrator

What statement indicates that an EMT understands the appropriate use of supplemental oxygen regarding care of a stroke​ patient?

Oxygen should be administered at a minimal​ amount, just enough to get the SpO2 at or above​ 94%."

You suspect that your patient with cyanosis around the lips and to the​ fingers, dyspnea, and hypotension is suffering from a pulmonary embolism. Which treatment listed would you most likely​ perform? A. Oxygen therapy B. CPAP C. Assist with a bronchodilator D. Prone positioning

Oxygen therapy

Signs and symptoms of neurologic deficit​ include:

Paralysis or weakness.

Which condition does NOT result in impairment of sight?

Paraplegia

Which of these statements regarding interaction with patients with developmental disabilities is accurate?

Patients can be just as sensitive to body language and tone of voice as other people can.

high priority

Patients who present with an acute change in their mental status are considered what transport​ priority? A. Delayed candidate B. High priority C. Unnecessary risk D. Low priority

paralysis of the throat muscles.

Patients with an altered mental status due to a stroke may not be able to control their own airways because​ of: A. hypersensitivity of the gag reflex. B. paralysis of the throat muscles. C. increased oral secretions . D. enlargement and swelling of the epiglottis.

Which choice should you keep in mind when interacting with a patient who has a developmental disability?

Patients with developmental disability generally retain the ability to derive meaning from body language and tone of voice

What type of injury is most likely to result in frank​ hematuria?

Pelvic fracture

What type of trauma is most likely to cause vascular injuries to the​ abdomen?

Penetrating

You are by the side of a 46-year-old male dialysis patient with end-stage renal failure. He was found by a family member on his living room recliner, unresponsive with snoring respirations. Which one of the following should you do first?

Perform a head tilt-chin lift.

You are caring for a​ 62-year-old female with chest pain and shortness of breath. She is alert and oriented with an open airway. Her breathing is adequate and radial pulse strong. Her skin is warm and dry. Which one of the following should you do​ next?

Perform a secondary assessment.

Your patient is a middle-aged male who collapsed while shopping and now responds to verbal stimuli with confused speech. The primary assessment indicates no immediate life-threatening conditions. His pulse is​ 96, respirations​ 16, blood pressure​ 158/88, SpO2 at​ 98%, blood glucose level 69​ mg/dL. He is carrying a vial of nitroglycerin in his jacket pocket. Which of the following would you do​ next?

Perform a secondary assessment.

A standardized 4-sided diamond that designates hazardous material is called a:

Placard

When managing a patient that you have decided has an AVPU of​ "U" it will be important​ to:

Place a simple mechanical airway.

If you must remove the clothing of a domestic violence victim, you should:

Place it in a paper bag

Which of these is an appropriate infection control measure to be taken at the completion of a call?

Place soiled linens in an approved dirty linen bag or hamper

Your patient was contaminated with radiation in an industrial accident. There is NO radiation safety officer available. What is an acceptable alternative for ensuring this patient gets care?

Place the patient in a body bag, zipped up to his neck, cover his head with a cap or towel, wipe his face with disposable wipes and place the wipes in a sealed bag.

When assessing and treating a patient with an altered neurological​ status:

Place the unresponsive patient in the lateral recumbent position if no spinal injury is suspected.

Which of these actions can help open and maintain the airway of an obese patient who must be placed in a supine position?

Place towels behind his shoulders to help open the airway

The EMT is properly assessing breath sounds when he gives instructions to

Please Breathe slowly through mouth as I listen to your lungs

Med direction told you to help patient with inhaler.

Please inhale slowly and I will administer the medications

You are caring for an alert and oriented patient with chest pain. He is receiving supplemental​ oxygen, and two nitroglycerin tablets and aspirin have been administered.​ Currently, his vital signs are pulse​ 76, respirations​ 16, blood pressure​ 110/56, and SpO2​ 95%. When transporting him on the​ stretcher, which position is​ best?

Position of comfort

You are transporting a​ 27-year-old female complaining of a migraine headache. She denies any nausea. She has a history of migraines for the past 10​ years, but​ today's seems to be hanging on longer than normal and is not helped by aspirin. Her vital signs and blood glucose level are normal. She is getting limited relief from lying in a dark quiet room and wishes to be seen in the ED. She would benefit MOST from which of the following.

Position of comfort and immediate but not rapid transport to the hospital with lights dimmed or off

You are transporting a​ 27-year-old female complaining of a migraine headache. She denies any nausea. She has a history of migraines for the past 10​ years, but​ today's seems to be hanging on longer than normal and is not helped by aspirin. Her vital signs and blood glucose level are normal. She is getting limited relief from lying in a dark quiet room and wishes to be seen in the ED. She would benefit MOST from which of the following.

Position of comfort and immediate transport to the hospital with interior lights dimmed

A​ 71-year-old female patient is lying in bed and complaining of respiratory distress. She exhibits moderate​ dyspnea, crackles in both​ lungs, and edema to the abdomen and lower extremities. Supplemental oxygen is being provided to the patient by Emergency Medical Responders. Her vital signs​ are: pulse​ 132, respirations​ 18, blood pressure​ 138/86, and SpO2 at​ 95%. Which one of the following would be the most benefit to the​ patient?

Position the patient upright

What is the best method by which to reduce the morbidity and mortality associated with abdominal​trauma?

Prevention

Which one of the following is the best order for assessing a patient suspected of having a stroke?

Primary assessment, facial droop, arm drift

What will NOT provide you protection from exposure to a source of radiation?

Prophylactic ingestion of iodine within the week prior to exposure

What is the highest priority regarding hazardous materials rescue when the material is yet unidentified?

Protect the safety of all rescuers and patients.

What describes the roles of hazardous materials specialists?

Provide command and support activities at the site of a hazardous materials incident

You are called to render care to a suspected victim of human trafficking. After ensuring scene safety, you should next:

Provide emergency care

A 30-year-old patient with a history of migraine headaches has called 911 for a migraine headache. She says the headache follows her usual pattern of headaches, states the pain is a 10/10 and she is nauseated. Her vital signs are: pulse 108, respirations 18, and blood pressure 146/84 mmHg. Which one of the following is indicated in the care of this patient?

Providing a darkened environment

A patient complaining of shortness of breath has called 911. Her history includes chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD). When assessing the​ patient, which one of the following causes you to immediately prepare the patient for​ transport?

Pulsating mass in the abdomen

When performing a secondary assessment of a patient who is confused and combative, which one of the following findings should be of most concern to the EMT?

Pulse of 164 beats per minute

When administering oxygen to a patient with chest​ pain, which of the following should be a guide to its use and​ maintenance?

Pulse oximetry reading

Which choice is NOT classified as a developmental disability?

Quadriplegia

If a patient is paralyzed to all four extremities, he is said to be a:

Quadriplegic

administer ppv

Question Help A patient who is responsive to painful stimuli has a patent​ airway, inadequate respirations at 28 per​ minute, and a strong radial pulse with skin that is warm and dry. The patient is not moving his right arm or leg and is incontinent of urine. Which one of the following should the EMT do​ first? A. Administer oxygen by nonrebreather mask. B. Check the blood glucose level. C. Administer positive pressure ventilation. D. Insert an oropharyngeal airway.

When there are only localized areas of damage resulting from radiation exposure, what is the condition called?

Radiation injury

Which of the following describes definitive care of the patient with traumatic intraabdominal​ hemorrhage?

Rapid surgical intervention

EMT recognizes rhonchi when he hears

Rattling like noises that decrease when coughed.

In addition to toxicity and flammability, what else is among the harmful properties of hazardous materials?

Reactivity

When assessing a patient with a possible stroke, what is the priority of care?

Recognizing the signs of a stroke

EMS response to a patient with a ventricular assist device is usually:

Related to secondary infection

Which of these signs and symptoms is associated with PTSD?

Relationship problems

You arrive on scene for an unresponsive male patient with a suspected airway obstruction. Without performing any assessment on this patient other than knowing that he is an adult​ male, what is the MOST common reason for an upper airway​ obstruction? A. Relaxed tongue B. Tonsillar hematoma or mass C. Aspirated fluid D. Partially chewed food

Relaxed tongue

To save additional heart muscle from dying when a patient suffers an acute myocardial infarction​ (heart attack), what treatment must​ occur?

Relieving the obstruction in the coronary arteries

Which of these findings should alert you to the possibility that a patient diagnosed with PTSD may have an undiagnosed traumatic brain injury?

Reports he was told he was involved in an IED explosion, but does not remember it, impulsive behavior, and relationship difficulties

A 65 year old female patient is complaining of chest pain. The patient is at a dialysis center and is currently connected to the dialysis machine. You should:

Request the dialysis staff to disconnect the patient

As a patient with a neurological insult starts to​ deteriorate, to what body system will the EMT need to pay particular​ attention? A. Endocrine B. Musculoskeletal C. Digestive D. Respiratory

Respiratory

4 year old female is having difficulty breathing. Responsive to stimuli and has open airway. Breathes 40 per minute, has SpO2 of 88 on high-concentration oxygen. Rapid pulse and cool skin.

Respiratory Failure

You are called to the scene of a​ 45-year-old male with extreme trouble breathing. Upon your​ arrival, he is not​ breathing, but you can feel a weak carotid pulse. Which of the following terms BEST describes his​ condition? A. Respiratory arrest B. Cardiac arrest C. Respiratory failure D. Dyspnea

Respiratory arrest

What is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in infants and children?

Respiratory compromise

Which of the following describes the four essential features of PTSD?

Response, reliving, avoiding, and anxiety

In addition to the traditional management of a patient with spinal injury and abdominal trauma who is immobilized on a​ backboard, what intervention should be provided for the​ 8-months-pregnant female with abdominal​ trauma?

Rotate the board 15 degrees to the left.

Which of the following may increase the possibility of a person being targeted by a human trafficker?

Runaways

the recommended method by with you can organize the information that you are providing the receiving EMS system or ED is called a. triage b. SAMPLE c. COBRA d. SBAR

SBAR

Which of the following medications is the EMT NOT allowed to use for the acute management of a patient with​ bronchoconstriction, wheezing, and a history of​ asthma? A. Albuterol B. Isoetharine C. Levalbuterol D. Salmeterol xinafoate

Salmeterol xinafoate

Which of these guidelines should you adhere to when setting up a landing zone for a small helicopter at night?

Select an area that is a flat square with 100-foot sides

EMS directs an ambulance to respond to a call for domestic violence. The EMT arrives and notices two adults arguing and being physically violent. There are children noted in the home. Which should the EMT do to protect the child?

Separate the child from the victim

Which of the following is TRUE of the patient with a suspected penetrating injury to or rupture of the​ diaphragm?

Shallow respirations may be due to abdominal contents in the thorax.

You are reassessing a patient to whom you have administered oxygen and an MDI for respiratory distress. During your​ reassessment, you find that there is only slight expiratory​ wheezing, the pulse ox reading is 97​ percent, the patient is speaking in full​ sentences, and the​ patient's color is good. Given​ this, which of the following characterizes the​ patient? A. She is displaying mild respiratory failure. B. She is displaying mild respiratory distress. C. She is in respiratory arrest. D. She is displaying mild respiratory arrest.

She is displaying mild respiratory distress.

You arrive on scene for 9 year old with severe cough. Child may have whooping cough. Unsure if daughter is immunized.

She is possibly contagious, lets put mask on her

What must be done before leaving the warm zone and entering the cold zone in a hazmat incident?

She'd all contaminated clothing

Which of the following is most likely to occur as a result of rapid deceleration without actual contact between the​ patient's body and the interior of the​ vehicle?

Shearing injury of the liver

In addition to time, distance, and quantity, what else is a protective factor against radiation exposure?

Shielding

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the SAMPLE history of a patient with a neurological deficit who is conscious and presents​ stable?

Since the patient is​ responsive, obtain the history before performing a physical exam.

What is the preferred position to have the patient in while you auscultate breath​ sounds? A. Supine B. Prone C. Lateral recumbent​ (recovery position) D. Sitting up

Sitting up

While you are listening to breath​ sounds, the patient should be in what anatomic position whenever​ possible? A. Sitting upright B. Positioned supine in a bed C. Lying down on their side D. Standing erect

Sitting upright

SBAR stands​ for: A. ​Situation, Background,​ Action, Response. B. ​Symptoms, Backgrounds,​ Assessment, Response. C. ​Signs, Background,​ Action, Responsibilities. D. ​Situation, Background,​ Assessment, Recommendation.

Situation, background, assessment, recommendation

Which of these signs and symptoms would be MOST likely to result from PTSD?

Sleep disturbance

On​ scene, a confused 68 year old female with possible stroke has an SpO2 of​ 91% on room air. Which one of the following indicates the most appropriate and beneficial type of oxygen therapy for this​ patient?

SpO2​ 95% with 2 lpm O2 via nasal cannula

What confirms hyperventilation syndrome?

Spasm of hands

Which of the following organs is NOT part of the digestive​ system?

Spleen

What is an example of a mechanical cause for​ dyspnea? A. Asthma B. Spontaneous pneumothorax C. Pneumonia D. Congestive heart failure

Spontaneous pneumothorax

You arrive on the scene of an unresponsive elderly patient who struck his head when he lost consciousness and fell from a chair. As you approach the​ patient, what should your first action​ be?

Stabilize the spine.

You have been called to a long-term care facility for a 77-year-old female who was found unresponsive in her wheelchair by staff. The nurse reports that the patient complained of a headache earlier in the day and was given 600 mg of Motrin. Your assessment shows her to be unresponsive with a patent​ airway, slow and irregular​ respirations, and a weak radial pulse. Her lips are cyanotic and your partner reports the following vital​ signs: pulse​ 44, respirations​ 6, and blood pressure​ 228/116 mmHg. Which one of the following should you do​ next?

Start positive pressure ventilation.

81 year old is in respiratory distress. Confused wiht open airway. Diaphoretic skin with cyanosis in fingertips.

Start positve pressure ventilation

Your patient is complaining of chest pain that radiates into his neck and arms. The primary assessment reveals a patent​ airway, adequate​ breathing, and a​ strong, regular radial pulse. His skin is warm and​ dry, and reveals no signs of inadequate perfusion. Which of the following should you do​ next?

Start the secondary assessment

You are managing a patient who you believe is severely​ hypoxic, and the pulse oximeter is not functioning properly. Given this​ information, what is the BEST thing you could do for the​ patient? A. Start​ high-flow oxygen. B. Start​ low-flow oxygen at 4 lpm via face mask. C. Place the patient in a tripod position. D. Initiate artificial ventilation.

Start​ high-flow oxygen.

Using closed ended questions would be MOST beneficial in interviewing which​ patients?

Stroke patient with dysphasia.

A male patient has altered mental status secondary from a brain tumor. The EMT would classify the brain tumor as what type of​ cause?

Structural

Neurologic disorders that display symptoms of unilateral hemispheric involvement are generally the result of which of the following​ mechanisms?

Structural lesions

Neurologic disorders that display symptoms of unilateral hemispheric involvement are generally the result of which of the following​ mechanisms?

Structural lesions.

Assessment reveals a drooling 48-year-old male to have gurgling speech and left-arm paralysis. Which one of the following should be the EMT's priority?

Suction the airway

When faced with a patient who is complaining of an​ abrupt-onset headache with severe pain that worsens with bending​ over, the EMT​ should:

Suspect a serious underlying condition.

A​ 49-year-old male calls​ 9-1-1 and explains to the dispatcher that the left side of his face is numb and his left arm is severely weak. Upon your​ arrival, the symptoms have completely resolved. The patient most likely experienced​ a/n: A. psychosomatic injury. B. ischemic stroke. C. TIA. D. temporary paralysis.

TIA.

Which of the following is indicative of a combat veteran?

Tattoos

Which of the following best describes shear injuries to the abdominal​ organs?

Tearing of the organ in which the organ is fixed at its point of attachment but free to move otherwise

Which one of the following signs or symptoms should the EMT directly relate to a patient who has a high white blood cell​ count?

Temperature of 103.4 °F

Which one of the following describes the typical signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA)?

Temporary, lasting as little as 15 minutes up to a couple of hours.

What is the terminology used to refer to a condition of an individual with a disease that is realistically expected to result in the death of the patient despite medical treatment?

Terminal illness

Which​ stroke-screening method(s) relies on speech as one of the screening​ criteria? A. Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen B. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale C. The Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS) D. Speech is not a criterion for any common stroke screening system

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

They help to identify​ stroke, even when it is not the​ patient's chief​ complaint."

The EMT shows that he recognizes the benefit of using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ and/or Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen when he makes which one of the following​ statements? A. ​"They are very predictive in determining if the patient will die from​ stroke." B. ​"They allow the EMT to identify the patient at risk for​ stroke." C. ​"They help to identify​ stroke, even when it is not the​ patient's chief​ complaint." D. ​"They allow the EMT to differentiate the type of stroke a patient is​ having."

​"How old are​ you?"

The EMT shows that is performing the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS) correctly when he asks which one of the following​ questions? A. ​"May I assess your​ pupils?" B. ​"Did you lose control of your​ bladder?" C. ​"Do you know where you are right​ now?" D. ​"How old are​ you?"

You are assessing a patient which is ventilator-dependent. After evaluating the patients mental status, you should next focus on:

The airway

use Trendelenburg position the body is laid flat on the back (supine position) with the feet higher than the head by 15-30 degrees

The emergency medical care of a serious headache should include each of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. use Trendelenburg position. .B. be prepared to suction. C. establish and maintain an adequate airway. D. administer oxygen if saturation is low.

In which situation should an EMT avoid any risks to life or health at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

The event is a threat only to the environment

Which of the following is a legitimate reason for requesting air medical transport of a critical patient?

The facility capable of caring for the patient is 45 minutes away by ground

If a patient has a clot occluding the blood flow through his left coronary​ artery, which of the following will occur​ first?

The flow of​ oxygen-rich blood to the muscle of the left ventricle will be decreased.

Which of the following changes is NOT of concern in the pregnant trauma​ patient?

The high likelihood of trauma to the uterus in the first trimester

What causes the​ stroke-like symptoms of a TIA to​ disappear?

The ischemia is reversed.

How is the time of onset of a stroke​ defined?

The last time the patient was neurologically intact

How is the time of onset of a stroke​ defined?

The last time the patient was neurologically intact.

Your patient is a​ 30-year-old pregnant woman at 36​ weeks' gestation. She was injured in a fall from a horse and is complaining of painful contractions. Her abdomen is tender to palpation over the​ uterus, and the uterus becomes firm with​ contractions, but she denies vaginal bleeding. The patient is​ anxious, but her skin is warm and dry. Her blood pressure is​ 112/70, her heart rate is​ 92, and her respirations are 24. Which of the following statements best describes this​ situation?

The mechanism and patient complaints are suspicious for abruptio placentae. Both the mother and the fetus are in jeopardy.

after administering albuterol through MDI, patient is breathing more easily. EMR asks how the medication helped the patient.

The medication in inhaler relaxes and opens up small airways in the lungs.

What structure helps to support the digestive​ tract?

The mesentery

What is the LOWEST priority information to provide when consulting with CHEMTREC?

The name of the person who initially called 911

You are preparing to transport a patient with a high cervical injury and quadriplegia to the hospital. Which statement is INCORRECT?

The patient can often last without his ventilator until you get to the hospital

A 41-year-old female has called 911 for a headache. Which one of the following assessment findings should make the EMT suspicious that the patient is suffering from a vascular headache?

The patient has pain throughout her entire head.

All of the following are reasons to request air medical transport EXCEPT:

The patient is in an urban area

Which of the following is NOT a contraindication to administering a bronchodilator by MDI to a patient with​ asthma? A. An MDI is not prescribed for the patient. B. The patient is not responsive enough to use the MDI. C. The patient is in severe respiratory distress. D. The patient has already taken the maximum allowable dose.

The patient is in severe respiratory distress.

You are lifting a quadriplegic patient from his wheelchair onto your stretcher. Of which of these possibilities should you be particularly alert?

The patient may have a urinary catheter that can become entangled as you move him.

A patient suffers from pulmonary​ hypertension, which has increased the resistance in the pulmonary blood vessels. In​ response, which of the following will most likely​ occur?

The right side of the heart will weaken.

You are evaluating a​ 52-year-old male complaining of facial drooping on his left side upon awakening this morning. You have established that he has no prior medical​ history, vital signs were all within normal​ ranges, and his blood glucose level was 98​ mg/dL. You have determined that he has​ right-sided facial​ droop, equal​ grip, and equal arm drift. What screening result would you determine according to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS) assessment?

The screening criteria were not met.

You are evaluating a​ 52-year-old male complaining of facial drooping on his left side upon awakening this morning. You have established that he has no prior medical​ history, vital signs were all within normal​ ranges, and his blood glucose level was 98​ mg/dL. You have determined that he has​ right-sided facial​ droop, equal​ grip, and equal arm drift. What screening result would you determine according to the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS) assessment? A. The screening criteria were not met. B. The screening criteria were​ met; call for a​ "Code Stroke." C. The screening criteria were​ met, but not a sufficient level to call for a​ "Code Stroke." D. You have not collected enough information for a LAPSS assessment.

The screening criteria were not met.

hemorrhagic

The type of stroke where a blood vessel in the brain has ruptured is​ called: A. an aneurysm. B. ischemic. C. occlusive. D. hemorrhagic.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding ventilation of obese patients?

The weight of adipose tissue on the chest wall makes ventilation of obese patients more difficult

You are evaluating a​ 52-year-old male complaining of facial drooping on his left side upon awakening this morning. You have established that he has NO prior medical​ history, vital signs were all within normal​ ranges, and his blood glucose level was 98. You have determined that he has​ right-sided facial​ droop, is slurring his words​ slightly, has equal​ grip, and has equal arm drift. What screening result would you determine according to the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke​ Scale?

There is a high likelihood of an ischemic stroke.

Which of these statements BEST characterizes the problems of traumatic brain injury (TBI) and post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) in returning combat veterans?

There is an overlap in the signs and symptoms of TBI and PTSD

What does the T in the mnemonic TRACEM stand for?

Thermal

When you are transporting a patient with​ headache, what must your treatment remain focused​ on?

The​ patient's airway and oxygen levels

When you are transporting a patient with headache what must your treatment remain focused​ on?

The​ patient's airway and oxygen levels.

For which patient is transport in the lateral recumbent position most​ appropriate?

The​ semi-conscious patient who is nauseous following an ingested poisoning

You are called for a patient who turns out to be a teenage girl. On arrival, you note that the teenager and an older man are living in a rundown apartment and the teenager seems to be afraid to talk to you or answer your questions. The adult does all the talking and tells you the girl seems to have a vaginal infection. You suspect any of the following, EXCEPT:

This is a normal teenager living in a normal household

lapss

This prehospital stroke screen has been found to have a 97 percent success rate in determining which patients have actually suffered a stroke. A. LAPSS B. CPSS C. USAST D. OCVAT

What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the onset of a stroke and the provision of drugs or mechanical interventions designed to break up a clot causing a​ stroke?

Three hours

What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the onset of a stroke and the provision of drugs or mechanical interventions designed to break up a clot causing a​ stroke?

Three hours.

What type of stroke is likely to have the slowest​ onset? A. Arterial​ spasm-type stroke B. ​Embolic-type stroke C. ​Thrombosis-type stroke D. ​Hemorrhagic-type stroke

Thrombosis-type stroke

One type of stroke that MOST often occurs at​ night, and often without the symptom of a​ headache, is​ the:

Thrombosis-type stroke.

Of the following factors that impact the survivability of a stoke​ patient, which one does the EMT have influence​ over? A. Reduction of blood pressure B. Time to treatment C. Intubation of the trachea D. Initiation of an IV by ALS providers

Time to treatment

You have been called to patient with altered mental status and shortness of breath. Patient is unresponsive and lying in bed with snoring respirations. Oxygen at 15 liters has been applied. Your immediate action is:

To apply head-tilt chin lift.

What is the purpose of placing an unresponsive patient in a lateral recumbent position for​ transport?

To avoid possible aspiration.

why would COPD patient have higher red blood cell percent then non COPD

To carry additional oxygen to cells

What is the purpose of placing an unresponsive patient in a lateral recumbent position for​ transport?

To minimize possible aspiration

You are administering positive pressure ventilation to an elderly male with a history of advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which one of the following must you keep in mind as you care for this patient?

Too forceful ventilations may rupture the lung tissue and cause a pneumothorax.

A weapon of mass destruction would most likely fall into what category of HAZMAT?

Toxic and infectious substances

Diffuse depression of both hemispheres of the brain is likely the result of which of the following​ mechanisms? A. Structural lesions B. Intracranial hemorrhage C. Toxic metabolic states D. Neoplasm formation

Toxic metabolic states

Diffuse depression of both hemispheres of the brain is likely the result of which of the following​ mechanisms?

Toxic metabolic states.

Which is a common weapon used in terrorism?

Toxic substances

Into what category of causes of altered mental status would​ anoxia, hypoglycemia, and carbon monoxide poisoning​ fall? A. Central nervous system​ (CNS) depression B. ​Toxic-metabolic causes C. Shock D. Structural causes

Toxic-metabolic causes

You are by the side of a patient complaining of severe chest pain that radiates into his right arm and neck. He is alert and oriented with an open airway and adequate breathing. His radial pulse is​ strong, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic. Your partner reports his pulse rate is​ 84, respirations are​ 18, blood pressure is​ 86/62 mmHg, and SpO2 is​ 98% on room air. You have obtained a medical history and performed the secondary assessment. The patient states that he has had two heart attacks in the past and is allergic to aspirin and sulfa medications. Which one of the following should you do​ next?

Transfer him to the stretcher and transport.

You are called for a 69-year-old male with altered mental status. Assessment reveals him to be confused and have left-sided weakness. During transport, you note that the patient is now completely oriented and the weakness has resolved. What condition should you suspect?

Transient ischemic attack

You are dispatched for a​ "possible stroke." Upon​ arrival, you find a​ 76-year-old male patient with facial droop and paralysis to the left side of his body. You load him into the ambulance​ and, by the time you reach the emergency department 18 minutes​ later, he has recovered fully. He MOST likely suffered​ a/an:

Transient ischemic attack (TIA).

What condition places the patient at greatest risk for an acute neurological​ deficit?

Transient ischemic attack​ (TIA)

You are by the side of a 77-year-old male with the complaint of shortness of breath. Auscultation of his lungs indicates crackles in the bases. In addition, both of his feet are swollen. His SpO2 on room air is 88% and the remainder of his vitals are: pulse 124, respirations 20, and blood pressure 168/90 mmHg. He is complaining of lower-back pain with a history of a "pinched nerve" in that area. He continues to state that he always has this pain. Which one of the following is the most appropriate care for this patient?

Transport in an upright position

77 year old male wiht shortness of breath in crackles in bases. swolen feet. patient complaines of lower back and pinched nerve in area. Has difficulty finishing sentences without gasping for air.

Transport in upright position

You have gathered and written down all of the medications that a confused 46-year-old male patient is taking. The patient is placed on the stretcher for transport. What should the EMT do with the medications?

Transport the medications with the patient

It appears that the feeding tube has been dislodged in a 42 year old male patient. The patients has no other complaints. You should:

Transport the patient to a hospital

A 63 year old male patient complains of an obstructed ostomy. You should:

Transport to the emergency department

Your 56-year-old patient is in bed and unable to speak. Family members state that he has had a previous stroke and has been bedridden since, but has always been able to talk, until a few hours ago when his speech became garbled. They also state that the last stroke left him paralyzed on his left side. Your assessment reveals him unable to speak, but with an open airway, adequate respirations, and a strong radial pulse. Additionally you note that he is unable to move his right arm. Which one of the following would be most appropriate in the care on this patient?

Transport without delay

Which of the following is a signature injury of the conflict in Afghanistan and Iraq?

Traumatic brain injury

When treating a patient who is complaining of a​ headache, you should always be prepared​ to:

Treat for a seizure.

During a continuing education class on hospice care, the presenter uses the term "palliative care." You know this refers to:

Treatment aimed at making the patient more comfortable

Which of these is considered a "trouble area" that should be avoided when driving the ambulance, if possible?

Tunnels

What strategy will NOT help to reduce the accumulation of carbon monoxide in the patient compartment of the ambulance?

Turning on the exhaust fan in the back of the ambulance

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paralysis caused by​ stroke? A. It is a good sign when patients experience only weakness in the​ extremities, as they will not deteriorate further. B. ​Typically, paralysis from strokes affects only one side of the body. C. It is common for both sides of the body to be paralyzed from stroke. D. It is difficult to distinguish stroke from spinal​ injury, as both can cause paralysis to both legs.

Typically, paralysis from strokes affects only one side of the body.

Which of these security measures should be in place to safeguard against unauthorized personnel obtaining EMS uniforms and emblems?

Uniform stores must verify the identity of anyone seeking to purchase uniforms and emblems, and should cross-reference the identification to a list of authorized personnel.

What instruction would you provide to someone ventilating patient.

Use minimal tidal volume, just to make chest rise and fall

You are transporting a patient with chest pain to the hospital emergency department. In regards to possible fibrinolytic​ therapy, which of the following should you relay as a possible relative contraindication to this​ therapy?

Use of anticoagulant medication

Which of the following includes the proper way to assess for breath​ sounds? A. Instruct the patient to breathe through the nose as you​ listen, and listen for three complete breaths. B. Use the diaphragm end of the​ stethoscope, listen over bare​ skin, and instruct the patient to cough first. C. Tell the patient to sit​ upright, use the bell end of the​ stethoscope, and listen to the posterior side only. D. Bare the​ patient's skin, and use the bell end of the stethoscope on bare skin as you instruct the patient to breathe with the mouth open.

Use the diaphragm end of the​ stethoscope, listen over bare​ skin, and instruct the patient to cough first.

Which of these serves as a safety benchmark regarding parking at the scene of a collision or other roadway incident?

Use the first-arriving vehicles as a block and physical barrier to upstream traffic.

Which of the following is accurate regarding the documentation of domestic violence?

Use the patients own words

Which statement regarding sensory clues to a hazardous materials incident is LEAST accurate?

Using your sense of smell is a reliable method of detecting hazardous materials

What is considered the LEAST reliable method to detect the presence of hazardous materials?

Using your senses

You are evaluating a​ 32-year-old female in her third trimester after being called to her residence for a fall. During your​ exam, she tells you she is having​ contractions, which you are unable to feel by palpation. The abdomen also feels​ "soft." What has likely​ occurred?

Uterine rupture

You arrive at a scene and begin to provide care to a patient who is complaining of a severe headache. You notice that you are also getting a severe headache. What should you do​ next?

Vacate the area.

When a patient tells you he feels like the room is going round and round this is often​ called:

Vertigo

When a stroke patient is experiencing double vision this is referred to as​ a/an:

Visual disturbance.

As an EMT at the scene of a hazardous materials incident, you will treat any life threats in the:

Warm zone

In which area is lifesaving emergency patient care begun in a hazardous materials incident?

Warm zone

Your patient is a toddler who seems to be developmentally much younger than his age. One possible explanation is that the child:

Was shaken or otherwise abused as an infant

Which of the following statements BEST describes morbid obesity?

Weighing 100 pounds more than a persons ideal weight

Which of the following is an appropriate question to ask a veteran?

Were you in the military?

The ischemia is reversed.

What causes the​ stroke-like symptoms of a TIA to​ disappear? A. ​Aspirin, taken by the​ patient, dissolved the clot. B. Other areas of the brain take over the lost function. C. Oxygen therapy elevates the SpUpper O 2O2. D. The ischemia is reversed.

ischemia is reversed

What causes the​ stroke-like symptoms of a TIA to​ disappear? A. ​Aspirin, taken by the​ patient, dissolved the clot. B. Oxygen therapy elevates the SpUpper O 2O2. C. The ischemia is reversed. D. Other areas of the brain take over the lost function.

Transient ischemic attack​ (TIA)

What condition places the patient at greatest risk for an acute neurological​ deficit? A. Transient ischemic attack​ (TIA) B. Acute myocardial infarction​ (AMI) C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD) D. New onset of Type II diabetes

You can still gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient.

What is a benefit of using​ closed-ended questions to gather a​ history? A. There is no benefit. B. You can mislead the patient. C. You can exercise control over the information that is sought. D. You can still gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient.

Cerebral vascular accident

What is the formal name of a​ stroke, defined as the death or injury of brain tissue that has been deprived of​ oxygen? A. Carotid vascular accident B. Cerebral vascular accident C. Carotid vessel aneurysm D. Cerebral vascular aneurysm

3 hours

What is the maximum amount of time that can pass between the onset of a stroke and the provision of drugs or mechanical interventions designed to break up a clot causing a​ stroke? A. Two hours B. Three hours C. Four hours D. One hour

To minimize possible aspiration

What is the purpose of placing an unresponsive patient in a lateral recumbent position for​ transport? A. To avoid the risk of further spinal injury B. To minimize possible aspiration C. To monitor the mucous membranes for cyanosis D. To assist in a proper mask seal should ventilation become necessary

minimum oxygenation target for the patient who is displaying an altered mental status with adequate​ respirations is Sp02 of 94%

What is your minimum oxygenation target for the patient who is displaying an altered mental status with adequate​ respirations? A. An Sp02 of​ 94% or above .B. An Sp02of​ 100% C. A minimum Sp02 of​ 97% D. An Sp02 of​ 90% or above

B

What major role can EMS play in the overall management of a stroke​ patient? A. Early recognition and administration of high flow oxygen to maintain an SpUpper O 2O2 near​ 100% B. Early recognition and rapid transport C. Training of the public in stroke recognition D. Rapid transport to the nearest ED

Early recognition and rapid transport

What major role can EMS play in the overall management of a stroke​ patient? A. Rapid transport to the nearest ED B. Training of the public in stroke recognition C. Early recognition and rapid transport D. Early recognition and administration of high flow oxygen to maintain an SpUpper O 2O2 near​ 100%

Oxygen should be administered at a minimal​ amount, just enough to get the SpO2 at or above​ 94%."

What statement indicates that an EMT understands the appropriate use of supplemental oxygen regarding care of a stroke​ patient? A. ​"Since stroke decreases oxygen delivery to the​ brain, highdash-concentration oxygen should always be geared toward achieving an SpO2 as near to​ 100% as​ possible." B. ​"If positive pressure ventilation is​ required, it should be given with room air and not supplemental​ oxygen." C. ​"In the short time that we provide care to a stroke​ patient, the benefits of highdash-concentration oxygen outweigh the​ risks." D. ​"Oxygen should be administered at a minimal​ amount, just enough to get the SpO2 at or above​ 94%."

Minimizing the time between the stroke and definitive care

What treatment is the MOST critical factor in the emergency care of a stroke​ patient? A. Communicating the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale to the ED before arrival B. Minimizing the time between the stroke and definitive care .C. Determining the degree of deficit .D. Maintaining an SpUpper O 2O2 of​ 100%

​Thrombosis-type stroke Ischemic stroke can be divided into two main types: thrombotic and embolic. Deprived of oxygen and other nutrients, the brain suffers damage as a result of the stroke. A thrombotic stroke occurs when diseased or damaged cerebral arteries become blocked by the formation of a blood clot within the brain.

What type of stroke is likely to have the slowest​ onset? A. ​Embolic-type stroke B. Arterial​ spasm-type stroke C. ​Thrombosis-type stroke D. ​Hemorrhagic-type stroke

Many patients have breathing difficulty as the result of narrowed bronchioles of the lower airway due to tightening of the muscle layer. What kind of breath sound would this produce upon​ auscultation? A. Stridor B. Wheezing C. Rhonchi D. Rales

Wheezing

If you are going to assist in the administration of a beta22​-agonist inhaled​ stimulant, what are the likely breath sounds you can hear upon auscultation that would warrant the drug and what causes​ them? A. ​Wheezing; narrowed bronchioles B. ​Rales; fluid in the alveoli C. ​Rhonchi; mucus in the larger airways D. Pleural friction​ rub; inflamed pleural lining

Wheezing; narrowed bronchioles

primary​ assessment, facial​ droop, arm drift.

When assessing a patient with a suspected​ stroke, the order of the exam would​ be: A. primary​ assessment, facial​ droop, arm drift. B. abnormal​ speech, facial​ droop, arm​ drift, primary assessment. C. level of​ consciousness, facial​ droop, arm​ drift, airway. D. secondary​ assessment, primary​ assessment, stroke exam.

place the unresponsive patient in the lateral recumbent position if no spinal injury is suspected.

When assessing and treating a patient with an altered neurological​ status: A. place the unresponsive patient in the lateral recumbent position if no spinal injury is suspected. B. remember that​ high-concentration oxygen may be detrimental to the patient. C. you may assume that the patient is still responsive if there is no response to a painful stimulus. D. always insert an oropharyngeal​ airway, as these patients have no gag reflex.

stroke typically results in weakness or paralysis to one side of the body.

When attempting to distinguish a spinal injury from a​ stroke, the EMT should remember​ that: A. stroke usually causes weakness to all​ extremities; spinal injuries do not. B. spinal injuries always result in weakness to one side of the body. C. stroke does not cause​ paralysis, while spinal injuries typically do. D. stroke typically results in weakness or paralysis to one side of the body.

make an effort to explain everything that is happening or being done.

When transporting an alert but nonverbal stroke patient with a blood pressure of​ 210/110 mmHg, the EMT​ should: A. remain in the​ patient's sight but avoid talking or stimulating the patient. B. touch the patient only when absolutely​ necessary, like obtaining vitals. C. make an effort to explain everything that is happening or being done. D. dim the lights and remain out of the​ patient's sight to avoid unnecessary stimulation.

treat for a seizure.

When treating a patient who is complaining of a​ headache, you should always be prepared​ to: A. treat for a seizure. B. reassess the patient every 5 minutes. C. arrange for ALS intercept. D. restrain the patient.

ask the patient to repeat a common phrase.

When using a stroke scale to assess a patient for abnormal​ speech, the EMT​ should: A. ask the patient to repeat a common phrase. B. write questions on note cards for the patient to read. C. question family members about the​ patient's ability to talk. D. observe verbal ability during assessment.

airway and oxygen levels

When you are transporting a patient with​ headache, what must your treatment remain focused​ on? A. Maintaining a state of hyperoxia to reduce swelling B. The administration of antiemetics C. Blood medication levels D. The​ patient's airway and oxygen levels

How does contamination occur in a radiation incident?

When you come into contact with the source of radiation contamination, such as radioactive particles

Since the patient is​ responsive, obtain the history before performing a physical exam.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the SAMPLE history of a patient with a neurological deficit who is conscious and presents​ stable? A. Obtain the vitals before you obtain the SAMPLE history. B. Because these patients will be unable to answer your​ questions, obtain your information from family or bystanders. C. Since the patient is​ responsive, obtain the history before performing a physical exam. D. Always obtain the SAMPLE history after performing a physical exam.

Typically, paralysis from strokes affects only one side of the body.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding paralysis caused by​ stroke? A. It is common for both sides of the body to be paralyzed from stroke. B. It is a good sign when patients experience only weakness in the​ extremities, as they will not deteriorate further. C. It is difficult to distinguish stroke from spinal​ injury, as both can cause paralysis to both legs. D. ​Typically, paralysis from strokes affects only one side of the body.

​"If one arm is​ weak, a stroke should be​ suspected."

Which of the following statements shows an understanding of assessment findings related to​ stroke? A. ​"For a stroke to be​ suspected, both arms must be equally​ weak." B. ​"If one arm is​ weak, stroke should be suspected only if the blood pressure is also​ elevated." C. ​"If one arm is​ weak, a stroke should be​ suspected." D. ​"A stroke should only be suspected when one arm is​ paralyzed, not​ weak."

Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen

Which of the​ stroke-screening methods utilizes arm drift as one of the screening​ criteria? A. The Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS) B. Arm drift is not a criterion for any popular​ stroke-screening system C. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ (CPSS) D. Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen

Temporary, lasting as little as 15 minutes up to a couple of hours.

Which one of the following describes the typical signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA)? A. Severe and permanent B. ​Temporary, lasting as little as 15 minutes up to a couple of hours. C. ​Persistent, lasting at least several hours D. ​Mild, but permanent

​"Close your eyes and hold your arms straight​ out."

Which one of the following instructions to a possible stroke patient indicates proper assessment for an arm​ drift? A. ​"Close your eyes and hold your arms straight​ out." B. ​"Grab my fingers and squeeze with both hands as hard as you​ can." C. ​"Hold out your arms and count to​ 10." D. ​"Raise your hands above your head and close your​ eyes."

​"What time did the weakness and dizziness​ start?"

Which one of the following questions is it critical that the EMT ask the family of a patient who cannot speak and is suspected of having a​ stroke? A. ​"Does your mother have any pain in her arms or​ legs?" B. ​"What medications is your mother​ taking?" C. ​"Does your mother have a history of heart​ problems?" D. ​"What time did the weakness and dizziness​ start?"

CPSS

Which one of the validated​ stroke-screening evaluation tools screens for a patient who is aphasic or​ dysphasic? A. EMTSS B. LAPSS C. CPSS D. ABCD Score

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

Which​ stroke-screening method(s) relies on speech as one of the screening​ criteria? A. Speech is not a criterion for any common stroke screening system B. Both the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale and the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen C. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale D. The Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen​ (LAPSS)

24 hours TIA typically resolves in 1-2 hours after onset however it may last up to 24 hours

While a patient experiencing a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA) may develop MOST of the same symptoms as a patient suffering a​ stroke, the key difference is that the signs and symptoms of a TIA usually disappear​ within: A. one week. B. 24 hours. C. two to four weeks. D. two to three days.

"No. Some stroke patients may have only slight weakness to one side of their​ bodies."

While doing a public awareness class about​ stroke, a participant asks you if all stroke patients are paralyzed on one side of their bodies. Your reply would​ be: A. ​"Yes. To be diagnosed with a​ stroke, the arm​ and/or leg must be very weak and​ paralyzed." B. ​"No. Some patients suffering stroke will show no signs or​ symptoms, but still must be​ evaluated." C. ​"Yes. Both the arm and leg must be paralyzed for the health professional to recognize a​ stroke." D. ​"No. Some stroke patients may have only slight weakness to one side of their​ bodies."

Start artificial ventilation.

While transporting an unresponsive stroke​ patient, you notice that the​ patient's respirations are becoming slow and irregular and that the pulse ox now reads 90 percent when it earlier read 98 percent. What should the EMT do to rectify​ this? A. Place the patient supine and elevate the legs. B. Start artificial ventilation. C. Take off the nasal cannula and put on an oxygen mask. D. Stop transporting on the red as this patient is now improving.

Which color of emergency light is visible at the greatest distance?

White

Which of the following is the recommended color scheme to promote recognition of ambulances?

White with an orange stripe around the body and blue Star of Life.

A change in headache pattern indicates the need for immediate attention

Why is collection of a thorough history important when assessing the victim of a severe​ headache? A. A change in headache pattern indicates the need for immediate attention B. To determine if the patient is contagious C. To determine if you will transport the patient D. To determine a position of comfort and what actions help relieve the pain

The cause of the TIA needs to be explored by the hospital.

Why is it necessary to take the patient to the hospital if the symptoms of a stroke have subsided by the time you arrive on the​ scene? A. He will probably need to be given insulin. B. He will need to get an​ x-ray. C. He is likely to start seizing. D. The cause of the TIA needs to be explored by the hospital.

Because hypoxia is a cause of altered mental status

Why should patients with an altered mental status and no pulse ox reading initially receive supplemental oxygen​ therapy? A. To mitigate the effects of carbon monoxide poisoning B. Because hypoxia is a cause of altered mental status C. To prevent cyanosis D. To establish the accuracy of the pulse oximeter

What is part of the daily vehicle inspection checklist?

Windshield wipers

Hemorrhagic strokes often occur in​ people:

With a history of high blood pressure.

Gloves and mask for you and a mask for your patient

You are called to a residence for an​ 8-year-old male patient complaining of severe headache and elevated temperature since the previous evening. The parents stated that the headache has just gotten​ "worse and​ worse." On your​ arrival, it appears that the scene is safe. What steps would you take in terms of Standard Precautions and personal protective​ equipment? A. Gloves and mask for you and a mask for your patient B. ​Gloves, mask, and gown C. Gloves and mask D. Gloves

The patient may be having a stroke.

You are caring for a patient whom you suspect is hypoglycemic because of his presenting signs and​ symptoms, and he has a history of type 1 diabetes. During your​ assessment, you find out the​ patient's blood glucose level​ (BGL) is 148​ mg/dL. What does this information tell​ you? A. The patient may be having a stroke. B. The patient is about to have a seizure. C. The patient has depleted glycogen stores. D. The patient is hypoglycemic.

transient ischemic attack. a episode of neurological dysfunction resulting from an interruption in the blood supply to the brain or the eye, sometimes as a precursor to a stroke.

You are dispatched for a​ "possible stroke." Upon​ arrival, you find a​ 76-year-old male patient with facial droop and paralysis to the left side of his body. You load him into the ambulance​ and, by the time you reach the emergency department 18 minutes​ later, he has recovered fully. He MOST likely suffered​ a/an: A. reversible ischemic incident. B. intercranial iliac occurrence. C. transient ischemic attack. D. minor hemorrhagic stroke.

Position of comfort and immediate but not rapid transport to the hospital with lights dimmed or off

You are transporting a​ 27-year-old female complaining of a migraine headache. She denies any nausea. She has a history of migraines for the past 10​ years, but​ today's seems to be hanging on longer than normal and is not helped by aspirin. Her vital signs and blood glucose level are normal. She is getting limited relief from lying in a dark quiet room and wishes to be seen in the ED. She would benefit MOST from which of the following. A. Half a tube of oral glucose B. Position of comfort and immediate transport to the hospital with interior lights dimmed C. Administration of an antiemetic D. Administration of an NSAID

Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver.

You are treating a victim of a fall with an altered mental status who is now having sonorous respirations. What should you​ do? A. Apply high flow oxygen. B. Insert an OPA. C. Intubate the trachea. D. Apply a​ jaw-thrust maneuver.

stroke

You arrive on scene for a female patient who awoke from sleep at night with a mild headache and the inability to speak clearly. The patient has a history of​ hypertension, high​ cholesterol, and constipation. Given the​ findings, the EMT should initially​ suspect: A. silent MI. B. stroke. C. hyperglycemia. D. drug overdose.

Stabilize the spine.

You arrive on the scene of an unresponsive elderly patient who struck his head when he lost consciousness and fell from a chair. As you approach the​ patient, what should your first action​ be? A. Open his airway. B. Check respirations. C. Check for a pulse. D. Stabilize the spine.

What is a benefit of using​ closed-ended questions to gather a​ history?

You can gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient.

What is a benefit of using​ closed-ended questions to gather a​ history? A. You can exercise control over the information that is sought. B. There is no benefit. C. You can still gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient. D. You can mislead the patient.

You can still gather a history from an aphasic stroke patient.

Examination of medication containers

You have been called to the house of a young adult male who is unresponsive. The man lives by himself so no family is present. In trying to determine the origin of the​ patient's altered mental​ status, which of the following would most likely provide the best​ information? A. Examination of medication containers B. Interpretation of assessment findings C. Observation of the living conditions in the house D. Contact with medical direction

Transport them with the patient.

You have gathered and written down all of the​ medications, including narcotic pain​ medications, that a confused 46dash-yeardash-old male currently takes. The patient is placed on the stretcher for transport. At this​ time, how would you handle the​ medications? A. Transport them with the patient. B. Turn them over to the police. C. Return them to their original places. D. Give them to a family member.

You help somebody take inhaler for first time.

You may feel anxious and your heart rate may increase.

You must obtain on-line direction to assist patient with MDI, this means.

You must contact and emergency physician prior to assisting with MDI

Which of the following is TRUE concerning your actions when driving an ambulance to an emergency call?

You must exercise due regard for the safety of others

Which of the following is accurate regarding most patients with an implanted ventricular assist device?

You will be unable to feel a pulse

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the reassessment of a patient with breathing​ difficulty? A. Positive pressure ventilation should not be provided if you cannot reassess the patient. B. Reassessment should be performed every 15 minutes for the patient with dyspnea. C. You will use the same strategies for reassessing breathing difficulty in all patients. D. It is important to determine the exact cause of the breathing difficulty.

You will use the same strategies for reassessing breathing difficulty in all patients.

it may actually be a small stroke

Your patient has a history of multiple TIA events. They are usually​ self-limiting and resolve quickly.​ Currently, the findings have lasted about 25​ minutes, and the patient is now scared. What should the EMT​ conclude? A. It requires monitoring but not treatment. B. It may actually be a small stroke. C. It is called an extended TIA. D. It is an indicator of liver dysfunction.

Perform a secondary assessment.

Your patient is a middledash-aged male who collapsed while shopping and now responds to verbal stimuli with confused speech. The primary assessment indicates no immediate lifedash-threatening conditions. His pulse is​ 96, respirations​ 16, blood pressure​ 158/88, SpO2 at​ 98%, blood glucose level 69​ mg/dL. He is carrying a vial of nitroglycerin in his jacket pocket. Which of the following would you do​ next? A. Perform a secondary assessment. B. Administer oral glucose. C. Administer sublingual nitroglycerin. D. Provide highdash-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.

You have been called to treat a woman whose injuries resulted from domestic violence. You should also observe any children who are present because:

Your report of suspected abuse may include a suspicion that the abuser may also be harming children or other members of the household.

Transient ischemic attack

Your​ 62-year-old male patient was experiencing weakness on one side of his body and slurred speech. After you arrived and evaluated the​ patient, you are noticing the symptoms beginning to subside. What is the likely cause of his​ condition? A. Status epilepticus B. Transient ischemic attack C. Subdural hematoma D. Acute coronary syndrome

A female patient is complaining of feeling tired over the past two​ days, associated with swelling of the​ ankles, epigastric​ pain, and nausea. This patient may be suffering​ from:

a coronary event.

You are assessing a patient whom you feel is having a stroke. Which of the following findings is typically associated with a stroke​ patient? A. numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes. B. abdominal pain. C. a headache. D. stomach pains.

a headache.

When a patient who has COPD gets progressively worse in a​ day, this is often due​ to: A. bronchodilation. B. a respiratory infection. C. asthma. D. a decreased body temperature.

a respiratory infection.

When a patient who has a chief complaint of difficulty breathing presents with a​ wheeze, this can be due to any of the following​ EXCEPT: A. a rib infection. B. a severe allergic reaction. C. reactive airways. D. an asthma attack.

a rib infection.

When a patient who has a chief complaint of difficulty breathing presents with a​ wheeze, this can be due to any of the following​ EXCEPT: A. a severe allergic reaction. B. an asthma attack. C. reactive airways. D. a rib infection.

a rib infection.

After administering a bronchodilator to a patient through a small volume nebulizer, which one of the following statements made by the patient should be of most concern to an EMT? Select one: a. "My chest feels heavy." b. "My mouth is really dry." c. "I suddenly feel nervous." d. "I feel shaky."

a. "My chest feels heavy."

You arrive on scene for a nine-year-old female with a severe cough. Her mother states that she has spoken to her pediatrician who believes that the child may have whooping cough and should be taken to the hospital for evaluation. Her mother states that she is unsure if her daughter has had all her immunizations. Which one of the following statements would be most appropriate in the care of this patient? Select one: a. "She is possibly contagious, so let's put an oxygen mask with high-flow oxygen on her." b. "She is probably contagious, so we need to each put on a gown and goggles to protect ourselves." c. "Let's get a full set of vital signs, since this disease can cause heart problems, especially in the young." d. "Since this is caused by a virus, she is not contagious and we just need to transport her."

a. "She is possibly contagious, so let's put an oxygen mask with high-flow oxygen on her."

Following a call in which you treated a pediatric patient suffering from croup, a new EMT who is in orientation asks you how you can differentiate croup from epiglottis. Which one of the following responses would be most appropriate? Select one: a. "The child with epiglottitis typically drools; the child with croup rarely, if ever, drools." b. "The swelling associated with epiglottis typically decreases with exposure to cool air; the swelling with croup does not." c. "Croup is typically associated with wheezing; epiglottitis is typically associated with crackles in the lungs." d. "Epiglottis is accompanied by a cough; croup is not associated with a cough."

a. "The child with epiglottitis typically drools; the child with croup rarely, if ever, drools."

How many breaths per minute is normal for an infant? Select one: a. 8 to 10 b. 25 to 50 c. 45 to 60 d. 12 to 20

a. 8 to 10

You have been called to an industrial warehouse for a young adult male who was exposed to an unknown chemical gas. The patient was immediately removed from the environment and presents to you with a patent airway, burning to the throat with inspiration, and complaint of shortness of breath. His vital signs are: pulse 120, respirations 20, blood pressure 164/60, and SpO2 at 95%. In addition, you note bilateral wheezing to the lungs. What should be your first action in caring for this patient? Select one: a. Administer high-concentration oxygen. b. Apply in-line manual spinal stabilization. c. Identify the chemical to which he was exposed. d. Administer a saline mist through a small volume nebulizer.

a. Administer high-concentration oxygen.

A 911 call was placed for a three-year-old child with difficulty breathing. On scene you note that the child is upright with slight stridor upon inspiration. He is alert and breathing at a rate of 30 breaths per minute. His skin is warm and dry, and his radial pulse strong and regular. His breath sounds are clear and equal. His mother states that he has been fine all day until 15 minutes ago when he was playing with friends in the playroom and suddenly started having difficulty breathing. As an EMT, you should suspect which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Foreign body airway obstruction b. Epiglottis c. Bronchial asthma d. Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

a. Foreign body airway obstruction

A 911 call was placed for a three-year-old child with difficulty breathing. On scene you note that the child is upright with slight stridor upon inspiration. He is alert and breathing at a rate of 30 breaths per minute. His skin is warm and dry, and his radial pulse strong and regular. His breath sounds are clear and equal. His mother states that he has been fine all day until 15 minutes ago when he was playing with friends in the playroom and suddenly started having difficulty breathing. As an EMT, you should suspect which of the following conditions? Select one: a. Foreign body airway obstruction b. Epiglottis c. Bronchial asthma d. Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

a. Foreign body airway obstruction

Which one of the following statements about ventilation in a healthy patient is true? Select one: a. Inspiration is an active process that requires energy; expiration requires little to no energy. b. Both inspiration and expiration require the same amount of energy. c. Inspiration and expiration require no energy in a healthy person. d. Inspiration requires little energy; expiration requires much energy.

a. Inspiration is an active process that requires energy; expiration requires little to no energy.

You have arrived on scene to find a 32-year-old male patient complaining of rapid breathing, lightheadedness, tachycardia, and numbness and tingling to his lips and hands. Family on scene reports that he received bad advice from his attorney about a pending divorce when the symptoms started. The patient denies chest pain as well as any other past medical history. His pulse is 124, respirations are 52, and his blood pressure is 158/68 mmHg. What is your first course of action in treating this patient? Select one: a. Instruct the patient to close his mouth and breathe through his nose. b. Have the patient breathe into a paper bag for approximately five minutes. c. Apply a nonrebreather face mask that is not connected to oxygen. d. Monitor for spasms of the hand muscles and administer nitroglycerin.

a. Instruct the patient to close his mouth and breathe through his nose.

A lethargic four-year-old female is in respiratory distress. Her airway is patent and respirations are at 16 per minute. Breath sounds are diminished bilaterally and there is noted accessory muscle use with inspiration and expiration. Her pulse is 84 and SpO2 at 88%. Which one of the following should be your immediate action? Select one: a. Start positive pressure ventilation. b. Get a history and perform a secondary exam. c. Recheck the SpO2 on another finger. d. Initiate immediate transport to the hospital.

a. Start positive pressure ventilation.

After you administer a medication though a metered-dose inhaler (MDI), it is important that the patient: Select one: a. hold her breath for several seconds. b. pant for 10 seconds. c. immediately inhale deeply. d. exhale as forcefully as possible.

a. hold her breath for several seconds.

When an infant or child starts to become hypoxic, initially her pulse will: Select one: a. increase. b. remain normal. c. become slow and irregular. d. decrease.

a. increase.

When an infant or child starts to become hypoxic, initially her pulse will: Select one: a. increase. b. remain normal. c. become slow and irregular. d. decrease.

a. increase.

which one of the following should be commonly communicated to dispatch a. travel speed b. acknowledgement of call information c. condition of the patient d. description of the scene

acknowledgement of call information

45 year old male has shortness of breath, but satisfactory respiration but is cynatoic

administer supplemental oxygen

One of the primary tasks of an EMS dispatcher is to: a. diagnose the patient's illness and relay it to responders b. notify the responders of the patient's HIV status c. obtain insurance billing information from the caller d. advise the caller on how to manage the situation until help arrives

advise the caller on how to manage the situation until help arrives

Your unit has been dispatched to a motor vehicle collision with injuries. Which one of the following should be communicated to dispatch? a. advising your unit is en route b. passenger count c. condition of the patient d. description of the scene

advising your unit is en route

Your patient cannot remember his name. You would document this finding by writing that he has​ a/n: A. coma. B. cerebrovascular accident. C. altered mental status. D. metabolic condition.

altered mental status.

Your medical director's written protocol instructs you to obtain on-line medical direction prior to assisting a patient with a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Given this protocol, you must contact: Select one: a. no one; physician direction is not required when assisting with the MDI. b. an emergency physician prior to assisting with the MDI. c. the patient's family doctor before assisting with the MDI. d. the medical director after assisting with the MDI.

an emergency physician prior to assisting with the MDI

A patient is unable to talk. You should document this as:

aphasia.

neatness, cleanliness, pride, and professionalism should be suggested by your a. empathy b. mannerisms c. appearance d. voice

appearance

You are caring for a​ 69-year-old male who is short of breath and in congestive heart failure. He is​ alert, anxious, and panicked with an open airway and rapid shallow respirations. His heart rate is​ tachycardic, and his skin is cool and diaphoretic with cyanosis noted to the lips and fingers. There are crackles noted to both​ lungs, as well as pedal edema to both feet. He denies chest pain or​ discomfort, but is having a difficult time speaking due to the shortness of breath. When caring for this​ patient, you​ should:

apply continuous positive airway pressure​ (CPAP)

After being dispatched for a male patient experiencing shortness of​ breath, you arrive to find the confused​ 67-year-old man sitting upright at his kitchen table in severe respiratory distress. You also note remarkable swelling to his lower legs and feet. He has an open​ airway, but cannot speak more than two to three words without attempting to breathe. His breathing is extremely labored and his skin is​ cool, diaphoretic, and dusky in color. Family states a history of​ hypertension, congestive heart​ failure, and​ angina, for which he takes nitroglycerin. Your immediate action in caring for this patient is​ to

apply continuous positive airway pressure​ (CPAP).

You have been called for a​ 4-year-old female who told her mother that her chest hurts. On​ scene, the child is crying and points to her chest when asked if she has pain. Her airway is​ patent, respirations slightly​ labored, pulse rapid and​ regular, and skin warm and pale. Vital signs​ are: pulse​ 132, respirations​ 28, blood pressure​ 108/74, and SpO2​ 86%. Mother denies any medical​ history, medications, or allergies for her daughter. Your first action would be​ to

apply oxygen

To administer aspirin in the prehospital​ setting, which of the following must be​ satisfied?

approval from medical direction

In radio communication, phrases like "please" and "thank you" a. increase cooperation b. are assumed and should not be stated on the radio c. can sound sarcastic d. are common courtesy and should be included if time and traffic permit

are assumed and should not be state on the radio

Patients who are capable of providing their own informed​ consent: A. cannot refuse transport. B. must follow their​ family's preferences. C. are entitled to make their own decisions. D. can be restrained.

are entitled to make their own decisions

Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question? a. why did you call the ambulance b. are you having chest pain? c. where do you hurt d. can you describe the pain

are you having chest pain

For which one of the communication uses are cellular/digital phones best suited? a. as an emergency backup to the radio system b. for communicating with the ED c. for interagency communications during a disaster d. for intra-agency communications during a disaster

as an emergency backup to the radio system

When using a stroke scale to assess a patient for abnormal speech, the EMT should:

ask the patient to repeat a common phrase

When assessing a patient for a facial droop, the EMT should:

ask the patient to show you his teeth or smile

The FCC is responsible for which one of the following? a. limiting antenna height b. regulating radiation produced by radio equipment c. assigning radio call signs d. limiting the number of radios per agency

assigning radio call signs

Patient is altered mental. Chronic COPD and breathing slowly and clammy with cyanosis.

assist respirations with positive pressure ventilation

When a patient is exhibiting stridor and you believe that it is due to partial upper airway obstruction from a severe allergic​ reaction, the appropriate management would​ include: A. placing the patient into the recumbent position. B. assisting the patient with two nitroglycerin pills. C. assisting the patient with his EpiPen. D. assisting the patient with four baby aspirins.

assisting the patient with his EpiPen.

good communication skills are essential for all the following EXCEPT: a. verbal communications with hospital personnel b. interpersonal communications c. assuring you are quoted correctly by the local newspaper d. radio communications

assuring you are quote correctly by the local newspaper

The emt is properly using a SVN when he

attaches nebulizer to oxygen at 8 to 10 lpm

A patient is breathing eight times per minute with poor chest rise and fall. What instruction would you give your partner about the respiratory care of this patient? Select one: a. "Since he is breathing, let's go ahead and put him on a nonrebreather mask with 15 lpm of oxygen." b. "Ventilate him at 12 times per minute and superimpose your ventilations over his." c. "Be sure to deliver your ventilations with the bag-valve mask in between his breaths." d. "Only deliver a ventilation with the bag-valve mask when he breathes."

b. "Ventilate him at 12 times per minute and superimpose your ventilations over his."

A patient is breathing eight times per minute with poor chest rise and fall. What instruction would you give your partner about the respiratory care of this patient? Select one: a. "Since he is breathing, let's go ahead and put him on a nonrebreather mask with 15 lpm of oxygen." b. "Ventilate him at 12 times per minute and superimpose your ventilations over his." c. "Be sure to deliver your ventilations with the bag-valve mask in between his breaths." d. "Only deliver a ventilation with the bag-valve mask when he breathes."

b. "Ventilate him at 12 times per minute and superimpose your ventilations over his."

The medication contained within a metered-dose inhaler is in what form? Select one: a. Pressurized liquid b. Aerosolized c. Viscous gel d. Compressed tablet

b. Aerosolized

When assessing an adult patient with difficulty breathing, which one of the following signs or symptoms would be of most concern to the EMT? Select one: a. Temperature of 101.3°F b. Blue coloration to the lips c. Cyanosis to the fingernails d. Gradual onset of dyspnea

b. Blue coloration to the lips

A 48-year-old male is short of breath and confused. His airway is open, and his breathing accelerated. A radial pulse is easily palpated. His skin is warm to cool and nondiaphoretic. Your partner reports the following vital signs: pulse 124 beats per minute, respirations 24, blood pressure 158/86 mmHg, and a SpO2 at 89% on room air. His lung sounds indicate slight wheezing. Based on this information, the immediate threat to this patient's well-being is which one of the following conditions? Select one: a. Infection b. Hypoxia c. Elevated blood pressure d. Increased heart rate

b. Hypoxia

When auscultating breath sounds, the EMT should recognize rhonchi when he hears which one of the following sounds? Select one: a. Crowing-like sounds that are accompanied by a high-pitched cough b. Rattling-like noises that decrease when the patient coughs c. Crackling-like noises that are heard in the upper portion of the lung d. High-pitched whistling-like noises heard more on expiration

b. Rattling-like noises that decrease when the patient coughs

You realize the EMT is properly ventilating an unresponsive adult male patient when he: Select one: a. allows two seconds between each ventilation. b. delivers each breath over a one-second period c. ventilates smoothly at a rate of 24 breaths a minute. d. flexes the patient's head as ventilations are administered.

b. delivers each breath over a one-second period

You realize the EMT is properly ventilating an unresponsive adult male patient when he: Select one: a. allows two seconds between each ventilation. b. delivers each breath over a one-second period. c. ventilates smoothly at a rate of 24 breaths a minute. d. flexes the patient's head as ventilations are administered.

b. delivers each breath over a one-second period.

When administering albuterol to a patient with shortness of breath, the EMT realizes that the therapeutic effect of this medication is achieved by: Select one: a. decreasing inflammation. b. dilating the small airways. c. decreasing mucous production. d. opening the large airways.

b. dilating the small airways.

When administering albuterol to a patient with shortness of breath, the EMT realizes that the therapeutic effect of this medication is achieved by: Select one: a. decreasing inflammation. b. dilating the small airways. c. decreasing mucous production. d. opening the large airways.

b. dilating the small airways.

What part of the EMS radio communication system uses a relatively high-power output radio of between 80 and 150 watts? a. portable radios b. base stations c. mobile radios d. transponders

base stations

your oral report to the receiving facility should a. only include information previously broadcast b. be updated with information from your reassessment c. be very detailed d. take approximately 5 minutes

be updated with information from your reassessment

Emergency medical care for a child who is experiencing significant difficulty breathing may​ include: A. removing the child from the parent and securing the child to the ambulance stretcher. B. applying a nasal cannula if the patient will not tolerate a nonrebreather mask and is in respiratory arrest. C. reassessing the patient every 15 minutes while en route to the hospital. D. beginning positive pressure ventilations if breathing becomes inadequate.

beginning positive pressure ventilations if breathing becomes inadequate.

Assessment of a 67-year-old male reveals absent lung sounds to the right lung, accompanied by sharp chest pain to the same side. When obtaining a history, which one of the following statements made by the patient's wife would the EMT recognize as most important? Select one: a. "He had a fever last night." b. "He did not take his medications today." c. "He has emphysema." d. "He has been in bed for 12 hours."

c. "He has emphysema."

At a health fair, a patient informs you that she has just been prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) for her asthma. She states that she is confused about how to take the medication when needed. Which one of the following statements about the MDI would be most appropriate for you to make? Select one: a. "Take it every four hours around the clock, even if you feel fine." b. "Make sure to store the metered-dose inhaler in your refrigerator." c. "It is important to shake the inhaler vigorously before taking the medication." d. "You should only take the medication after calling your doctor."

c. "It is important to shake the inhaler vigorously before taking the medication."

Medical direction has ordered you to assist a patient in taking his metered-dose inhaler (MDI). After placing his lips on the mouthpiece, which one of the following instructions would be most appropriate? Select one: a. "Please hold your breath and I will administer the medication." b. "Please exhale, hold your breath, and I will administer the medication." c. "Please inhale slowly and I will administer the medication." d. "Please inhale, then hold your breath, and I will give you the medication."

c. "Please inhale slowly and I will administer the medication."

What is the maximum recommended speed over the limit that it is considered safe to travel when responding with lights and​ siren? A. 5 mph B. 15 mph C. 10 mph D. 20 mph

c. 10 mph

You are administering a medication through a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) using a spacer. Which one of the following actions would be most appropriate? Select one: a. Administer the medication into the spacer and then have the patient exhale. b. Instruct the patient to inhale slowly just prior to the medication being placed in the spacer. c. Administer the medication into the spacer and then have the patient inhale. d. Instruct the patient to exhale slowly as you place the medication into the spacer.

c. Administer the medication into the spacer and then have the patient inhale.

A 26-year-old male has summoned EMS after lifting a heavy box and suddenly experiencing shortness of breath and sharp pain to the left side of his chest that worsens with deep inspiration. Given this description, you immediately become suspicious of a pneumothorax. Which one of the following should you perform next to help confirm this suspicion? Select one: a. Inquire about past lung problems. b. Obtain a SpO2 reading. c. Auscultate breath sounds. d. Palpate the chest for subcutaneous emphysema.

c. Auscultate breath sounds.

As you enter a room for an unknown medical emergency, you find an unresponsive male with snoring respirations lying supine in bed. Which one of the following actions should you take immediately? Select one: a. Take in-line manual spinal stabilization. b. Start positive pressure ventilation. c. Perform a head tilt—chin lift maneuver. d. Suction the airway of fluids.

c. Perform a head tilt—chin lift maneuver.

As you enter a room for an unknown medical emergency, you find an unresponsive male with snoring respirations lying supine in bed. Which one of the following actions should you take immediately? Select one: a. Take in-line manual spinal stabilization. b. Start positive pressure ventilation. c. Perform a head tilt—chin lift maneuver. d. Suction the airway of fluids.

c. Perform a head tilt—chin lift maneuver.

On scene you suspect that a young female patient is suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. Which one of the following signs would best assist you in confirming this suspicion? Select one: a. Urinary incontinence b. Heart rate of 64 beats per minute c. Spasm of the hands d. Breathing through the mouth

c. Spasm of the hands

On scene you suspect that a young female patient is suffering from hyperventilation syndrome. Which one of the following signs would best assist you in confirming this suspicion? Select one: a. Urinary incontinence b. Heart rate of 64 beats per minute c. Spasm of the hands d. Breathing through the mouth

c. Spasm of the hands

When trying to determine if a patient may have had a stroke the EMT should assess each of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. listening for slurred speech. B. pronator drift. C. capillary refill time. D. smile from side to side.

capillary refill time.

Regarding​ arteries, the EMT should recognize that all​ arteries:

carry blood away from the heart.

You have just arrived by the side of a​ 68-year-old male complaining of chest pain. After determining his airway is patent and breathing​ adequate, it is imperative that you perform which action​ next?

check his radial pulse

You have been called for a patient with angina. On scene the​ 67-year-old man reports that he has a history of angina and the pain started when he was moving firewood from the garage into his house.​ Unfortunately, the pain has yet to go​ away, despite three nitroglycerin tablets and 20 minutes of rest. Your next action should be​ to

check the​ patient's vital signs.

A patient does not speak English and no family members are available to translate. Which other options are available to you to facilitate communication with the​ patient? A. Write questions on a pad B. Proceed with your primary exam C. Treat the patient as if he is unconscious D. Check with dispatch or use a​ toll-free interpreter line

check with dispatch or use a toll-free interpreter line

when communicating with medical direction, you should provide the following information early in your dialogue that patient's a. marital status b. chief complaint c. ethnic origin d. name

chief complaint

when receiving directions from the dispatcher or orders from the physician, you should a. immediately repeat each statement to confirm accurate reception and understanding b. use the echo procedure c. complete all of these tasks to ensure that you understand accurately d. write down important information

complete all of these tasks to ensure that you understand accurately system answer shows immediately repeat - though when showing incorrect says to complete all

A patient denies difficulty​ breathing, but displays signs of respiratory distress. You​ state, "I know that you said you are breathing​ fine, but you cannot speak more than two to three words at a time without gasping for​ air." Your response is an example​ of: A. Contradiction B. Empathy C. Explanation D. Confrontation

confrontation

An alert and oriented patient presents with shortness of​ breath, crackles in both​ lungs, jugular venous​ distention, and edema to the feet and ankles. Her pulse is​ 132, respirations​ 26, blood pressure​ 160/86, and SpO2 at​ 88%. Based on​ this, the EMT should​ suspect:

congestive heart failure.

A mother has called 911 because her​ 6-year-old son told her he had chest pain. On​ scene, the mother informs you that her son suffers from a congenital heart defect called aortic coarctation. The boy admits to chest pain and appears distressed. His airway is​ patent, breathing​ adequate, and radial pulse present and regular. Vital signs are pulse​ 108, respirations​ 24, blood pressure​ 148/92, and SpO2​ 98%. Your next action would be​ to:

contact medical command for advisement.

during transport to the hospital, your patient has a brief seizure and goes into cardiac arrest. What should the lead EMT tell the other one driving to do? a. contact the receiving ED with a patient update while you start CPR b. start driving faster regardless of the road or traffic conditions c. contact an ALS supervisor to determine if you must continue transport d. contact your dispatch to get permission to transport to a funeral home

contact the receiving ED with a patient update while you start CPR

On an​ EKG, the EMT would understand the QRS to​ represent:

contraction of the ventricles.

A patient with chest pain and shortness of breath informs you that the last time he had a heart​ attack, he went into heart failure. When performing your secondary​ assessment, which one of the following signs or symptoms is most indicative that the patient is in heart failure​ again?

crackles in the lungs

If the patient has an SPO2 below 90​ percent, it is likely that his color will​ be: A. yellow. B. gray. C. red. D. cyanotic.

cyanotic.

When instructing a patient on how to use a small volume nebulizer, which one of the following statements would be correct? Select one: a. "Take nice slow and deep breaths, and try not to cough the medicine out." b. "Breathe about 20—30 times per minute so the medication gets into your lungs." c. "As I depress the trigger on the canister, take in a deep breath." d. "It is really important to occasionally cough during the treatment."

d. "It is really important to occasionally cough during the treatment."

When instructing a patient on how to use a small volume nebulizer, which one of the following statements would be correct? Select one: a. "Take nice slow and deep breaths, and try not to cough the medicine out." b. "Breathe about 20—30 times per minute so the medication gets into your lungs." c. "As I depress the trigger on the canister, take in a deep breath." d. "It is really important to occasionally cough during the treatment."

d. "It is really important to occasionally cough during the treatment."

Within minutes of administering Proventil (albuterol) to a patient through her metered-dose inhaler (MDI), she is breathing easier and states that she feels much better. An Emergency Medical Responder on scene asks you how the medication in the MDI helped the patient. Which one of the following responses would be most appropriate? Select one: a. "The medication in the MDI opens up the throat, allowing more oxygen to enter." b. "The medication is an anti-inflammatory and decreases swelling in the lungs." c. "The medication travels to the brain and causes the respiratory rate to increase." d. "The medication in the inhaler opens up the small airways in the lungs."

d. "The medication in the inhaler opens up the small airways in the lungs."

You are delivering positive pressure ventilations to a patient who is breathing poorly with absent breath sounds to the right lung. Which one of the following instructions would you provide to those who are ventilating the patient? Select one: a. "Let's use just room air for the ventilations. We don't want to cause a tension pneumothorax by giving pure oxygen." b. "If his SpO2 is 85% or above, let's stop the ventilations and put him on high-flow oxygen with a facemask." c. "Make sure to really get those ventilations into his good lung. He needs the oxygen." d. "Use the minimal tidal volume possible, just enough to make the chest rise and fall."

d. "Use the minimal tidal volume possible, just enough to make the chest rise and fall."

You are delivering positive pressure ventilations to a patient who is breathing poorly with absent breath sounds to the right lung. Which one of the following instructions would you provide to those who are ventilating the patient? Select one: a. "Let's use just room air for the ventilations. We don't want to cause a tension pneumothorax by giving pure oxygen." b. "If his SpO2 is 85% or above, let's stop the ventilations and put him on high-flow oxygen with a facemask." c. "Make sure to really get those ventilations into his good lung. He needs the oxygen." d. "Use the minimal tidal volume possible, just enough to make the chest rise and fall."

d. "Use the minimal tidal volume possible, just enough to make the chest rise and fall."

You are called to a motor-vehicle collision. Your patient states that she was unrestrained and struck the steering column with her chest after the car she was driving struck another from behind. She is alert. oriented, and complaining of difficulty breathing associated with some pain when she inhales. Her airway is patent and her breathing is adequate. Assessment of the radial pulse reveals it to be rapid and slightly irregular. Her breath sounds are clear and equal. She informs you that she suffers from asthma and has a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What is your best action in treating this patient? Select one: a. Assist the patient with her MDI. b. Transport in a position of comfort. c. Place an oral airway and begin ventilation. d. Apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute.

d. Apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute.

You are called to a motor-vehicle collision. Your patient states that she was unrestrained and struck the steering column with her chest after the car she was driving struck another from behind. She is alert. oriented, and complaining of difficulty breathing associated with some pain when she inhales. Her airway is patent and her breathing is adequate. Assessment of the radial pulse reveals it to be rapid and slightly irregular. Her breath sounds are clear and equal. She informs you that she suffers from asthma and has a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What is your best action in treating this patient? Select one: a. Assist the patient with her MDI. b. Transport in a position of comfort. c. Place an oral airway and begin ventilation. d. Apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute.

d. Apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute.

You are called to a motor-vehicle collision. Your patient states that she was unrestrained and struck the steering column with her chest after the car she was driving struck another from behind. She is alert. oriented, and complaining of difficulty breathing associated with some pain when she inhales. Her airway is patent and her breathing is adequate. Assessment of the radial pulse reveals it to be rapid and slightly irregular. Her breath sounds are clear and equal. She informs you that she suffers from asthma and has a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). What is your best action in treating this patient? Select one: a. Assist the patient with her MDI. b. Transport in a position of comfort. c. Place an oral airway and begin ventilation. d. Apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute.

d. Apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute.

Which one of the following pieces of information would heighten the EMT's suspicion that a child may have pertussis (whooping cough)? Select one: a. Cough for the past six months b. Chest pain while coughing c. Cough worse during the day d. Never had childhood immunizations

d. Never had childhood immunizations

You have been called for a three-year-old male who is "not breathing right." Aside from a notable expiratory wheeze, which one of the following would be cause for most concern? Select one: a. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute b. Abdominal wall movement with inspiration c. Clinging to his mother and crying d. Prolonged and forced expiration

d. Prolonged and forced expiration

You have been called for a three-year-old male who is "not breathing right." Aside from a notable expiratory wheeze, which one of the following would be cause for most concern? Select one: a. Respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute b. Abdominal wall movement with inspiration c. Clinging to his mother and crying d. Prolonged and forced expiration

d. Prolonged and forced expiration

A patient who is nonverbal from a previous stroke is in severe respiratory distress. Family states that she has multiple medical problems including high blood pressure, diabetes, heart failure, and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (emphysema and chronic bronchitis). When assessing the patient, which one of the following signs or symptoms should raise your suspicion that the patient is suffering from heart failure, as opposed to COPD or asthma? Select one: a. Pursed lip breathing b. Diaphoresis c. Flat neck veins d. Pulmonary crackles

d. Pulmonary crackles

On scene, you find a two-year-old male in significant respiratory distress. He is responsive to verbal stimuli and exhibits noisy respirations through an open airway. His breathing is shallow at a rate of 44 breaths per minute. His pulse is rapid. Assessment of the skin shows it to be cool and diaphoretic with cyanosis to the extremities and around the mouth. What is the immediate priority for this patient? Select one: a. Apply oxygen through a pediatric nonrebreather mask. b. Insert an oropharyngeal airway. c. Move to the ambulance for immediate transport. d. Start positive pressure ventilation.

d. Start positive pressure ventilation.

You have been dispatched for a young child with difficulty breathing. As you enter the apartment, which one of the following scene clues would best indicate that the patient is experiencing a problem in her upper airway? Select one: a. Grunting with exhalation b. Audible wheezing on expiration c. Low pitched sobbing and crying d. Stridorous noises with inspiration

d. Stridorous noises with inspiration

You have been called for a patient who is complaining of shortness of breath. On scene you find the 41-year-old woman sitting upright in bed, displaying nasal flaring and wheezing. A metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is lying on the nightstand next to her. For the EMT to assist the patient with the MDI, which one of the following criteria must be met? Select one: a. High-flow oxygen must be administered first for five minutes. b. The patient must display altered mental status. c. The pulse oximeter reading must be less than 90%. d. The MDI must be prescribed for the patient.

d. The MDI must be prescribed for the patient.

You have been called for a patient who is complaining of shortness of breath. On scene you find the 41-year-old woman sitting upright in bed, displaying nasal flaring and wheezing. A metered-dose inhaler (MDI) is lying on the nightstand next to her. For the EMT to assist the patient with the MDI, which one of the following criteria must be met? Select one: a. High-flow oxygen must be administered first for five minutes. b. The patient must display altered mental status. c. The pulse oximeter reading must be less than 90%. d. The MDI must be prescribed for the patient.

d. The MDI must be prescribed for the patient.

When auscultating the lungs of an elderly patient, you note rhonchi-like noises to the upper lobes of both lungs. As a knowledgeable EMT, you would recognize that this is caused by: Select one: a. narrowing of the larger airways. b. edema to the bronchioles. c. fluid accumulation in the alveoli. d. accumulation of mucus in the bronchi.

d. accumulation of mucus in the bronchi.

The EMT is properly using a small volume nebulizer when she: Select one: a. instructs the patient to breathe deeply through his nose. b. places a spacer on the small volume nebulizer. c. shakes the medication canister for 30 seconds prior to administration. d. attaches the nebulizer to oxygen at 8 to 10 lpm.

d. attaches the nebulizer to oxygen at 8 to 10 lpm.

You have been dispatched to a home for a 16-year-old female with shortness of breath. On scene you find the patient in bed with her mother at her side. Her mother states that her daughter has a fever with a past medical history of cystic fibrosis and would like to have her transported to the hospital for evaluation of possible pneumonia. As a knowledgeable EMT, you know that underlying pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is a: Select one: a. hereditary disease in which the lungs are malformed and smaller than normal. b. contagious disease in which the lungs are damaged by bacteria and excessive coughing. c. disease in which lifelong antibiotic medications are needed for survival. d. condition in which excessive and thick mucus often plugs the airways.

d. condition in which excessive and thick mucus often plugs the airways.

Detecting vehicles at your side cushions requires use​ of: A. scene lights. B. side lighting. C. your partner. D. mirrors.

d. mirros

A son has called 911 for his father, who is having difficulty breathing. On scene the 81-year-old patient is sitting upright in a chair at the dining room table and is in obvious respiratory distress. He is confused, but has an open airway. His respirations are 36 per minute and his skin is extremely diaphoretic. At this time, the EMT should: Select one: a. assess the patient's breath sounds. b. suction the airway of secretion. c. determine the patient's past medical history. d. start positive pressure ventilation.

d. start positive pressure ventilation.

A son has called 911 for his father, who is having difficulty breathing. On scene the 81-year-old patient is sitting upright in a chair at the dining room table and is in obvious respiratory distress. He is confused, but has an open airway. His respirations are 36 per minute and his skin is extremely diaphoretic. At this time, the EMT should: Select one: a. assess the patient's breath sounds. b. suction the airway of secretion. c. determine the patient's past medical history. d. start positive pressure ventilation.

d. start positive pressure ventilation.

What should communication equipment be cleaned with a. non-ammoniated cleaner b. canned air c. dry cloth d. damp cloth and mild detergent

damp cloth and mild detergent

En route to the​ hospital, it is important to perform an ongoing assessment of the patient with breathing difficulty. While you are reevaluating your​ patient, remember​ that: A. moist skin usually correlates with an improving condition. B. the use of an MDI may cause the heart rate to slow. C. decreased wheezing may not always indicate improvement. D. a decreasing heart rate in a patient who is tachycardic indicates that the patient is worsening.

decreased wheezing may not always indicate improvement.

When administering aspirin to a patient with chest pain that is suggestive of a heart​ attack, the EMT recognizes that this medication will benefit the patient​ by:

decreasing the ability of the platelets in the blood to form clots.

when an EMT begins to talk to a patient who was in a motor vehicle crash that had a significant MOI, you may be told, "I'm okay, I do not need any help." This could be a form of a/an a. facilitated communication b. altered mental status c. cry for help d. defense mechanism

defense mechanism

The ground rules for radio communication include a. using EMS frequencies for all radio traffic, including personal messages b. depressing the "press to talk" button and waiting 1 second before speaking c. telling the receiving hospital what you feel the patient's diagnosis is d. pressing your lips against the microphone for clarity while speaking

depressing the press to talk button and waiting 1 second before speaking

The medication in MOST MDIs is considered a beta2​-agonist. This means that the​ medication: A. mimics the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system. B. constricts smooth muscle. C. is a​ long-term steroid that stabilizes the bronchioles. D. dilates the bronchioles.

dilates the bronchioles.

EMTs need functional communication equipment to talk with a. law enforcement agencies b. family members c. local fire departments d. dispatch

dispatch

which of the following is the BEST definition of a base​ station? A. Handheld​ transmitter/receivers B. Devices used when transmission must be carried over a long distance C. ​Transmitter/receivers that are affixed in a vehicle D. Dispatch and coordination area

dispatch and coordination area

A symptom that is very common and is caused by a decreased or interruption to the blood supply to the brain​ is: A. hypertension. B. tachycardia. C. tachypnea. D. dizziness.

dizziness.

While reviewing patient care reports as part of a quality assurance​ program, which trip time documented by an EMT would indicate that the EMT needs refresher education regarding proper military time​ utilization? A. ​"Medication administered at 0814​ hours" B. ​"Departed scene with patient at 1000​ hours" C. ​"Intercepted with ALS at 0032​ hours" Your answer is correct.D. ​"Call dispatched at 2233​ hours"

do not understand why any of these are needing refresher intercepted with ALS at 0032 hours

Determination of the cause of altered mental status should​ begin: A. during your scene​ size-up. B. as soon as you locate a bystander. C. with the family interview. D. with establishing the​ patient's level of consciousness.

during your scene​ size-up.

You suspect that a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD) is suffering from right ventricular disease. From your​ assessment, which of the following findings reinforce this​ suspicion?

edema to both feet

An EMT listens to a​ patient's statement about his pain from falling and injuring his wrist and​ says, "I understand how you feel. I fell when I was snowboarding last season and had a similar​ injury." This is a therapeutic communications technique known​ as: A. empathy B. reflection. C. confrontation. D. facilitated communication.

empathy

En route to the​ hospital, an elderly patient seems very distressed over the fact that he does not have the money to pay for the hospital bill. Telling the patient that you understand him and you know what it is like to worry about having money to pay the bills is an example​ of: A. summary. B. clarification. C. sympathy. D. empathy.

empathy

While gathering an elderly female patient's medical history, you find she is very upset and crying about having to go to the hospital and not having money to pay the bill. What technique to help facilitate this communication would be helpful for the EMT to employ? a. summary b. silence c. confrontation d. empathy

empathy

Which statement is most appropriate to relay after establishing radio contact with the destination emergency department to which you are transporting a​ patient? A. ​"Five minutes out with Mr. John​ Panzer, who called us today for high blood​ pressure." B. ​"Inbound with a​ 52-year-old suffering from a myocardial​ infarction." C. ​"En route with a drug addict who has overdosed on an unspecified amount of​ heroin." D. ​"En route to your facility with a​ 73-year-old male complaining of​ dizziness."

en route to your facility with a 73-year-old male complaining of dizziness

in order, the steps of communication are a. response, decoding,​ receiving, and encoding. B. ​receiving, encoding,​ decoding, and response. C. ​decoding, receiving,​ response, and encoding. D. ​encoding, receiving,​ decoding, and response.

encoding receiving decoding response

A condition that can cause obstruction of an​ infant's upper airway is swelling of the epiglottis from an infection. This condition is known​ as: A. epiglottitis. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD). C. asthma. D. croup.

epiglottitis.

while en route to a scene, you would likely advise dispatch of which one of the following a. travel speed b. estimated time of arrival c. ambient temperature d. condition of the patient

estimated time of arrival

After delivering a​ 12-year-old girl from a Hispanic culture to the hospital for an​ illness, your EMT partner tells you that he thinks​ it's stupid how the grandmother of the girl kept answering all the​ questions, rather than the girl herself. He​ adds, "That's just not​ right, even if​ that's how it happens where​ they're from." From this​ statement, you know your partner is displaying characteristics​ of: A. sympathy. B. ethnocentrism. C. egalitarianism. D. empathy.

ethnocentrism

the benefits of using cellular phones in the EMS communications system include increased privacy, easy maintenance, and a. excellent sound quality b. consistent nationwide reception c. free intrastate long-distance calling d. dependability during multiple-casualty disasters

excellent sound quality

If a patient stiffens or backs away from​ you, the BEST strategy would be​ to: A. exit the​ patient's intimate space. B. grasp him on the shoulder and prevent him from backing away. C. calmly reenter the​ patient's intimate space. D. gently touch the patient on the arm.

exit the patient's intimate space

When transporting an alert but nonverbal stroke patient with a blood pressure of 210/110 mmHg, the EMT should:

explain everything that is happening or being done.

During the ride to the​ ED, the EMT tells the​ patient, who fell and may have broken her​ wrist, that they will take an​ X-ray to determine the extent of the injury. This is a form of therapeutic communication known​ as: A. clarification. B. summary. C. explanation. D. reflection.

explanation

While at the scene of a pediatric patient who was hit by a car while riding his​ bike, you tell the​ boy's parents that you would like to transport him so the hospital could take an​ X-ray of his leg to make sure it is not​ broken, or to see if there is a hairline fracture. This is a form of therapeutic communication known​ as: A. summary. B. explanation. C. reflection. D. clarification.

explanation

You are questioning an elderly patient who is unable to speak. In order for him to write responses to your​ questions, you must assist him by supporting his arm. What type of communication facilitation is​ this? A. Steadied B. Facilitated C. Assisted D. Alternative

facilitated

patient condition, vitals, and pertinent medical history would typically be communicated to whom upon arrival at the hospital with a patient? a. facility staff b. hospital security c. the patient d. the department ward clerk

facility staff

Information that you receive from the patient about your behavior and verbal statements is called a. encoding b. reflection c. decoding d. feedback

feedback

when receiving orders from medical direction, you should do all of the following EXCEPT a. ask for clarification of an order you did not understand or feel is inappropriate b. avoid phrases such as please, thank you, and you're welcome c. give the patient's name over the radio d. repeat the order word-for-word

give the patient's name over the radio

6 year old has shortness of breath and runny nose and mucus.

he is very stable, but take him to the hospital, danger lies in infection spreading to lungs

Serious causes of headaches include each of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. heart attack. B. cyanide poisoning. C. subarachnoid hemorrhage. D. hypertension.

heart attack.

The three primary components of the cardiovascular system are best described​ as:

heart, blood​ vessels, and blood.

Depending on the location of the nontraumatic brain​ injury, signs and symptoms may​ include: A. dilated pupils. B. eyes turned toward the side of the body that is paralyzed. C. hemiplegia or hemiparesis. Your answer is correct.D. urine retention and constipation.

hemiplegia or hemiparesis.

The type of stroke where a blood vessel in the brain has ruptured is​ called: A. an aneurysm. B. occlusive. C. ischemic. D. hemorrhagic.

hemorrhagic.

The underlying pathophysiology of cystic fibrosis is:

hereditary condition in which excessive and thick mucus plugs airways

A common risk factor for thrombotic stroke​ is: A. blunt force trauma to the head. B. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease​ (COPD). C. high sodium intake. D. high blood pressure.

high blood pressure.

Assessment of a 63-year-old female reveals a patent​ airway, adequate​ breathing, and strong radial pulse. She has no difficulty speaking and no facial​ droop, but exhibits a slight left arm drift. The EMT should interpret these findings​ as:

highly suggestive that a stroke is occurring.

To ensure that the MOST medication is​ absorbed, the EMT who is assisting the patient with an inhaler should try to encourage the patient​ to: A. spray the medicine on the inside of the mouth. B. hyperventilate. C. hold the medicine in her lungs as long as possible. D. take​ short, shallow breaths.

hold the medicine in her lungs as long as possible.

Patient has cystic fibrosis, looks thin and sick. Breathing adequately but labored. Coughs green and yellow mucus. Reveals rhonchi

humidified oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 lpm

If the cells of the body are not getting an adequate supply of​ oxygen, they begin to die. This state of inadequate oxygen supply is​ called: A. apnea. B. shock. C. hypoxia. D. dyspnea.

hypoxia.

The wife of a​ 57-year-old male called 911 because her husband had chest pain. Which piece of information would be included in your SBAR report to the hospital during​ transport? A. ​"The call originated at the address to which we​ responded." B. ​"The police were called after a neighbor complained about where the ambulance was​ parked." C. ​"His wife also has a history of high blood​ pressure, so it appears to run in the​ family." D. ​"I am thinking that the patient would benefit from 324 mg of​ aspirin."

i am thinking that the patient would benefit from 324 mg of aspirin

what should your first step be when transferring the care of a patient to another EMS provider in the field? a. provide the patient's current condition b. identify yourself c. ask the patient to repeat the chief complaint d. provide the patient's chief complaint

identify yourself

In which situation should the EMT honor the wishes of the​ patient's family rather than the​ patient's wishes regarding treatment and transport​ decisions? A. When the​ family's decision about treatment and transport coincides with the​ EMT's decision, even if the patient disagrees B. When the​ family, rather than the​ patient, is responsible for paying the ambulance and hospital bill C. When the patient is a child or is an adult who does not have the capacity to make his or her own decisions Your answer is not correct.D. If the patient is an adopted family member from another culture who has not yet become accustomed to normal practices in the United States

if the patient is an adopted family member from another culture who has not yet become accustomed to normal practices in the United States

Morbidity and mortality for various abdominal injuries has been on the decline due​ to:

improved surgical and critical care techniques.

If you are treating a patient with respiratory complaints and the patient is​ cyanotic, it could indicate that the patient​ is: A. in respiratory failure. B. having an AMI. C. in need of a respiratory treatment. D. having an altered mental status.

in respiratory failure.

The EMT recognizes the cause of heart failure​ as:

inadequate ejection of blood

it is important for emt to remember when child becomes hypoxic, the pulse when

increase

A paramedic administers a medication to decrease the effect of the parasympathetic nervous system on the heart. As a​ result, the EMT would expect which of the​ following?

increase in heart rate

The sympathetic nervous system will cause the heart​ to:

increase the heart rate

which of the following is a disadvantage of radio codes? a. medical terms are often too simple for codes b. they shorten air time c. they provide unclear information d. infrequently used codes waste time

infrequently used codes waste time

An effective and reliable communication system is essential to the EMT and the EMS system​ because: A. EMTs are better able to assess patients B. The safety of an EMT is guaranteed at a dangerous scene C. It has been shown to decrease the number of lawsuits against EMS providers D. It allows hospitals to better prepare for the arrival of a patient

it allows hospitals to better prepare for the arrival of a patient

Guidelines for communicating with your patient include which one of the choices? a. refraining from explaining what you are doing, as it takes too much time b. being informal with older patients and calling them by their first name c. never touching a patient in a comforting manner, as the patient will perceive it as encroachment d. keeping your eye level above that of the patient if the patient seems hostile or aggressive

keeping your eye level above that of the patient if the patient seems hostile or aggressive

You are treating a​ 58-year-old patient who presented with an altered level of consciousness. This could be due to a number of conditions including each of those listed​ below, EXCEPT: A. hypothermia. B. kidney pain. C. dehydration. D. hypoxia.

kidney pain.

as an EMT, you will have to explain many things. Which of the following should you consider prior to providing an explanation a. education level b. language barriers c. attitudes d. medical condition

language barriers

"Your pain is a 10/10, isn't it?" is an example of what type of question? a. open-ended question b. invalid question c. leading question d. indirect question

leading question

Which portion of the​ heart, when weakened by a heart​ attack, is responsible for causing fluid to back up into and engorge the lung​ tissue?

left ventricle

When a patient smiles, the left side of the face shows significantly less movement than the right side of the face. The EMT should describe this as:

left-side facial droop

The medical direction is discussing appropriate radio communications with a group of EMTs. With FCC regulations should the direction include in the presentation? a. hiring of trained dispatchers b. licenses individual base station operations c. nationwide public safety network d. system maintenance

licenses individual base station operators

when communicating within the EMS system, the EMT should keep his transmission brief and remember to a. begin talking as soon as you depress the PPT button b. speak with your lips directly on the mircophone c. listen before transmitting d. state your ID number and then who you are calling

listen before transmitting

after providing a verbal report when transferring care of a patient to another EMS provider, you should a. remain in charge of the scene b. leave the scene c. make sure the other provider doesn't need any additional information d. submit a PCR to the ED

make sure the other provider doesn't need any additional information

For a patient with a history of an unstable abdominal aortic​ aneurysm, the EMT should recognize and prepare​ for:

massive internal bleeding

patients who are unable to speak a. are considered communicative b. are intentionally deceiving you c. are embarrassed d. more not be able to elaborate on details about the facts

may not be able to elaborate on details about the facts

The​ __________is a double peritoneal fold containing blood​ vessels, lymphatic​ vessels, nerves, and fatty tissue.

mesentery

Which of the below communication technologies is often used as a "backup" system to normal communications used by EMS? a. digital equipment b. mobile radio c. a base station d. mobile phones

mobile phones

what is imporant about MDI

must shake vigourously before taking medication.

The possible side effects of albuterol include increased heart​ rate, nervousness,​ and: A. drowsiness. B. excessive salivation. C. nausea. D. hemiparalysis.

nausea.

What structure of the neck would the EMT examine on a patient she believes to be in congestive heart​ failure?

neck veins

Prior to administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest​ pain, the EMT must ensure that​ the:

nitroglycerin is prescribed for the patient.

as an EMT, you will be expected to communicate with partners, dispatch, medical direction, and hospitals. Which of the following is expected radio transmission? a. contacting the patient's personal physician while en route to the hospital b. notifying dispatch when you are five minutes from the scene c. contacting law enforcement with medical information about the patient d. notifying dispatch of your arrival to the hospital

notifying dispatch of your arrival to the hospital

When you press the button on the radio to​ talk, you should wait at LEAST how long before speaking to avoid cutting off the first words of your​ transmission? A. Five seconds B. Seven seconds C. Three seconds D. One second

one second

which question type is likely to provide you with the most subjective information? a. objective b. closed-ended c. open-ended d. narrative

open-ended

when questioning your patient, it is BEST to ask a. more than one question at a time b. similar questions worded differently each time c. open-ended questions leading to closed-ended questions d. closed-ended questions leading to open-ended questions

open-ended questions leading to closed-ended questions

when providing a lengthy radio​ report, the most important reason to pause every 30 seconds is so​ that: A. The repeater can process and transmit all that you are saying B. The person receiving the message can write down what you are saying C. The person receiving the message has time to think about what you are saying D. Other people can use the radio for emergency transmissions that may arise

other people can use the radio for emergency transmissions that may arise

you check for subq emphysema when you

palpate anterior and posterior chest

The EMT is correctly assessing a patient for subcutaneous emphysema when he:

palpates the anterior and posterior chest

Dysfunction of the​ heart's conductive cells most likely will​ cause:

palpitations.

Signs and symptoms of neurologic deficit​ include:

paralysis or weakness.

Patients with an altered mental status due to a stroke may not be able to control their own airways due to:

paralyzed throat muscles

You have been called to a residence for a patient with altered mental status and shortness of breath. On scene an Emergency Medical Responder meets you and states that he believes the patient had a stroke and is unresponsive. As you enter the room, you see the patient lying in bed with snoring respirations. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute has been applied. Your immediate action when you reach the patient's side should be to: Select one: a. determine if a pulse is present. b. start positive pressure ventilation. c. perform the head tilt-chin lift. d. place a nasal airway and suction.

perform head tilt-chin lift

The distance that surrounds each person that extends out 1.5 to 4 feet and is considered to be an extension of self is known​ as: A. personal distance. B. social distance. C. intimate zone. D. public distance.

personal distance

When transferring care of a patient to another EMS​ provider, your brief verbal report should always include the​ patient's: A. last oral intake. B. Glasgow Coma Score. C. weight. D. pertinent history.

pertinent history

When managing a patient that you have decided has an AVPU of​ "U" it will be important​ to:

place a simple mechanical airway.

When assessing and treating a patient with an altered neurological​ status: A. always insert an oropharyngeal​ airway, as these patients have no gag reflex. B. you may assume that the patient is still responsive if there is no response to a painful stimulus. C. place the unresponsive patient in the lateral recumbent position if no spinal injury is suspected. D. remember that​ high-concentration oxygen may be detrimental to the patient.

place the unresponsive patient in the lateral recumbent position if no spinal injury is suspected.

MOST EMS systems communicate over the radio using what type of​ language? A. Ten codes​ (e.g., 10-4) B. Radio codes C. APCO codes D. Plain English

plain english

for radio communications, many emergency medical service systems prefer the use of a. standard signals b. agency-specific codes c. ten codes d. plain english

plain english

while working as an EMT, what type of communication device will like be provided to you that you carry on your person so that you can communicate easily with dispatch? a. mobile radio b. portable radio c. repeater d. base station radio

portable radio

You are caring for a male patient who was involved in an industrial fall in which he landed in a straddle position on a steel beam. The patient has severe​ pain, disfigurement, and swelling to the genitalia. Patient care should include all of the following​ except:

position of comfort for transport.

Your elderly patient complains of chest pain. She has a history of previous heart attack and diabetes. You​ should:

prepare for possible cardiac arrest.

When assessing a patient with a suspected​ stroke, the order of the exam would​ be:

primary​ assessment, facial​ droop, arm drift.

An alert and oriented 69-year-old male has slight right-arm weakness but exhibits no deficits to the right leg. The EMT should consider the patient​ a:

priority for transport to a hospital with a stroke center.

The pancreas is responsible​ for:

production of glucagon and insulin.

what personal attribute along with your professional mannerisms will ensure those present that you are in charge of the scene? a. verbal orders b. dominant attitude c. minimal words, but more actions d. professional appearance

professional appearance

One example of the use of public education to reduce morbidity and mortality related to abdominal trauma​ is:

proper use of seat belts.

All of the following are considered chronic obstructive pulmonary diseases​ EXCEPT: A. chronic bronchitis. B. black lung disease. C. emphysema. D. pulmonary embolism.

pulmonary embolism.

You respond to the regional airport to remove an elderly patient from a plane that just landed from a long flight. A respiratory condition that may be caused by a deep vein thrombosis when the person has been sitting for a long time is​ called: A. croup. B. asthma attack. C. spontaneous pneumothorax. D. pulmonary embolism.

pulmonary embolism.

You respond to the regional airport to remove an elderly patient from a plane that just landed from a long flight. A respiratory condition that may be caused by a deep vein thrombosis when the person has been sitting for a long time is​ called: A. pulmonary embolism. B. spontaneous pneumothorax. C. croup. D. asthma attack.

pulmonary embolism.

While you are obtaining your​ patient's blood​ pressure, you notice that the needle drops more than 10​ mm/Hg each time the patient inhales. This is​ called: A. pulsus alternans. B. ​hypoxia-induced tachycardia. C. pulsus paradoxus. D. pressus invertus.

pulsus paradoxus.

Your patient tells you that he has a headache. You​ reply: "Your head​ hurts; that can be really​ frustrating, right?" This is a form of therapeutic communication known​ as: A. echoing. B. reflection. C. explanation. D. clarification.

reflection

you may receive an order from medical direction over the radio to help a patient with his medication. after receiving the order, you should a. repeat the order back to medical direction b. confirm the order with your partner c. repeat vital signs d. administer the medication

repeat the order back to medical direction

a devise that receives transmissions from one source, boosts the signal power, and rebroadcasts it is called a a. frequency modulator b. repeater c. delay circuit d. converter

repeater

BLANK are devices that receive transmissions from lower powered sources and rebroadcast them at a higher power and a different frequency a. decoders b. encoders c. mobile data terminals d. repeaters

repeaters

what is most common cause of cardiac arrest in children

respiratory compromise

Early signs of breathing difficulty in the infant or child​ include: A. retractions during inspiration. B. shortened exhalation. C. bradycardia. D. grunting heard during inhalation.

retractions during inspiration.

Snoring or rattling noises heard in the lungs upon auscultation are​ called: A. crackles. B. rales. C. wheezing. D. rhonchi.

rhonchi.

if the patient seems reluctant to speak, what would your NEXT step be? a. assume that pathology is not the cause b. rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties c. decide if the patient is hiding something d. treat the patient as uncooperative

rule out language barriers and hearing difficulties

which of the following is an advantage of radio codes? a. shortens air time b. benefits from complex medical terms c. meets HIPAA compliance d. improves interagency communications

shortens air time

What type of facilitation is waiting patiently for the patient to fully respond to a​ question? A. Clarification B. Empathy C. Reflection D. Silence

silence

a technique that may be helpful to allow a patient with a language barrier to respond is a. empathy b. silence c. confrontation d. reflection

silence

what communication format should the EMT utilize when communicating with the ED via cellular/mobile phone a. question and answer b. any format is permissible, as HIPAA doesn't apply to phone calls c. similar to radio d. conversational

similar to radio

which of the following is important when communicating with medical direction a. only echo items that medical control orders you not to do b. speak in a clear and understandable way c. always question the order provided by the physician d. repeat the order only if you understand it

speak in a clear and understandable way

A condition in which a lung collapses without any chest trauma is​ called: A. random pneumothorax. B. spontaneous pneumothorax. C. vacuous pneumothorax. D. hemopneumothorax.

spontaneous pneumothorax.

When treating a COPD patient who had a sudden onset of sharp chest pain and difficulty breathing while doing physical​ exercise, the EMT should be concerned about the possibility of a pulmonary embolus​ or: A. spontaneous pneumothorax. B. stroke. C. congestive heart failure. D. acute myocardial infarction.

spontaneous pneumothorax.

2 year old in respiratory distress. Responsive and exhibits noisy respirations. Shallow breathing at 44 bpm. Rapid pulse and cyanotic

start positive pressure ventilation

If you are assessing a patient who is having breathing difficulty as well as stridor and​ drooling, you should be careful NOT​ to: A. apply​ high-concentration oxygen. B. monitor the vital signs. C. stimulate the back of the throat. D. place the patient in the position of comfort.

stimulate the back of the throat.

in the process of providing an oral report, the sender creates the message from words and a. information b. symbols c. special codes d. confirmation

symbols

You are caring for an older patient with chest pain. Your paramedic partner tells you the​ patient's ECG is showing some conduction abnormalities. You should​ assume:

the patient may be experiencing a cardiac emergency

As an EMT, you will be expected to routinely communicate with all of the following on MOST EMS calls, EXCEPT: a. the police supervisor b. medical direction c. your EMS partner d. your EMS dispatcher

the police supervisor

which of the following most accurately defines the nonverbal communication technique of haptics? a. the study of touching b. maintaining eye contact c. maintaining a comfortable distance d. reflecting feelings to the patient

the study of touching

when attempting to make contact with another ambulance unit using the radio, it is customary to declare the name of which entity FIRST? a. the repeater location b. your unit number c. the base station d. the unit you are calling

the unit you are calling

while assigned to an emergency call, which one of the following would you most likely communicate to dispatch? a. description of the scene b. travel speed c. to announce arrival at the ED d. wind speed and direction

to announce arrival at the ED

Keep in mind when ventilation a COPD

too forceful ventilations may rupture lung tissue

Your patient is a​ 67-year-old male who has chest pain. After assisting with his​ nitroglycerin, his chest pain remains 7 out of 10 and he is still diaphoretic. His vital signs​ are: pulse 72 beats per​ minute, respirations 18 per minute and​ adequate, blood pressure​ 82/60 mmHg, and SpO2 at​ 97% on 2 liters per minute of oxygen. To the​ present, the patient has taken two nitroglycerin tablets. You​ should

transfer him to the stretcher and transport

You are dispatched for a​ "possible stroke." Upon​ arrival, you find a​ 76-year-old male patient with facial droop and paralysis to the left side of his body. You load him into the ambulance​ and, by the time you reach the emergency department 18 minutes​ later, he has recovered fully. He MOST likely suffered​ a/an: A. transient ischemic attack. B. minor hemorrhagic stroke. C. intercranial iliac occurrence. D. reversible ischemic incident.

transient ischemic attack.

When treating a patient who is complaining of a​ headache, you should always be prepared​ to: A. treat for a seizure. B. arrange for ALS intercept. C. reassess the patient every 5 minutes. D. restrain the patient.

treat for a seizure.

You arrive at the scene to find a​ 55-year-old woman who first stated​ "she hurts all​ over" but now refuses to​ talk; her friend volunteers that the​ patient's husband recently passed away and she is becoming increasingly despondent. You would use this information​ to: A. try to establish a positive relationship with the patient. B. establish a line of questioning. C. bill the insurance. D. establish depression as the​ patient's chief complaint.

try to establish a positive relationship with the patient

The emergency medical care of a serious headache should include each of the​ following, EXCEPT: A. be prepared to suction. B. administer oxygen if saturation is low. C. use Trendelenburg position. D. establish and maintain an adequate airway.

use Trendelenburg position.

which of the following is NOT recommended when using radio terms and codes? a. using the term encode when calling the hospital to give a patient report b. using the term out of service when you have to return to the station to decontaminate the patient compartment c. using codes to shorten your transmission time or communicate a message that could be distressful or misleading to the lay public d. using codes that are known only by yourself and the dispatcher

using codes that are known only by yourself and dispatcher

while transmitting patient information to the emergency department (ED), you should avoid a. describing the patient's condition b. using personally identifiable information c. providing an ETA d. informing the ED of the patient's medical history

using personally identifiable information

Emergency medical care of the unresponsive patient who has a nontraumatic brain injury may​ include: A. applying​ low-concentration oxygen by face mask. B. placing unresponsive patient in the Trendelenburg position. C. placing the unresponsive patient in the prone position. D. ventilating the patient with inadequate breathing.

ventilating the patient with inadequate breathing.

You must carefully limit radio transmission of any information that might identify a particular patient. This includes such things as​ name, race, financial​ status, and similar descriptors. Transmission of such information does not enhance patient care and​ may: A. violate patient confidentiality​ laws, including the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. B. affect patient care. C. reveal that the patient is related to ED staff. D. reveal the​ patient's identity to eavesdroppers.

violate patient confidentiality laws, including HIPAA

How should the EMT clean a portable radio that became dirty when dropped in a field during an emergency run on and MVC earlier in the​ day? A. With several alcohol preps from the back of the ambulance B. By dipping the device in soapy water and then drying it with a towel C. With the portable sanitizer liquid that you use on your hands between calls D. With a damp cloth and mild detergent

with a damp cloth and mild detergent

The EMT should consider the communication technique of silence for patients a. who are more reserved b. with language barriers c. that are quick to answer d. coping with depression

with language barriers

A​ 31-year-old female with a history of depression took some pills in a suicide attempt. Her husband is visibly upset and her three young children are crying as you place her into the ambulance. The patient is conscious and stable as you transport her to the hospital. During the​ transport, she tearfully states she did not mean to take the pills and asks if she is going to die. In regard to therapeutic​ communication, what would be your best​ response? A. ​"I think that you have a loving family and you need to be more considerate of​ them." B. ​"If you do not want to​ die, why did you take the​ pills?" C. ​"You are going to be​ fine, don't​ worry." D. ​"You are stable right now and we are transporting you for continued care so you can get​ better."

you are stable right now and we are transporting you for continued care so you can get better

Which of the following should be completed prior to advising dispatch you are available for another​ assignment? A. The unit is restocked but still needs disinfected. B. You have cleared the scene of an MVC with one patient on board. C. The squad has returned back to the station. D. Your previous patient has been transferred​ (including hand-off​ report) to hospital staff.

your previous patient has been transferred (including hand-off report) to the hospital staff

The EMT shows that she understands the difference between classic angina and an acute myocardial infarction​ (MI) when she​ states:

​"An acute myocardial infarction results in the death of cardiac​ tissue; classic angina does​ not."

Which one of the following instructions to a possible stroke patient indicates proper assessment for an arm​ drift?

​"Close your eyes and hold your arms straight​ out."

Which one of the following questions would the EMT ask when performing the Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke​ Screen?

​"Have you ever had a​ seizure?"

Which of the following statements shows an understanding of assessment findings related to​ stroke?

​"If one arm is​ weak, a stroke should be​ suspected."

You have been called for a​ 56-year-old female complaining of chest pain. She informs you that she takes nitroglycerin and asks you to get it off of the top of her refrigerator. You find it is a clear glass jar hand labeled​ "nitroglycerin." Which of the following is the most appropriate​ response?

​"It is best to keep the nitro in a dark container since light will inactivate​ it."

The EMT shows that he understands a hemorrhagic stroke when he​ states:

​"It occurs when a blood vessel ruptures within the​ brain."

Your patient has chest​ pain, and you have just assisted him in taking his nitroglycerin tablet. Which of the following patient statements is the cause for greatest​ concern?

​"The chest pain does not feel any​ different."

You have been called to a residence for a​ 52-year-old male complaining of chest pain. When obtaining a history from the​ patient, what​ statement, made by the​ patient, would you find most​ concerning?

​"The pain came on suddenly when I was reading the​ paper."

The EMT shows that he recognizes the benefit of using the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale​ and/or Los Angeles Prehospital Stroke Screen when he makes which one of the following​ statements?

​"They help to identify​ stroke, even when it is not the​ patient's chief​ complaint."

Which one of the following statements should the EMT recognize as an absolute contraindication to the use of fibrinolytic medications in the emergency​ department?

​"Two months ago I had a stroke on the left side of my​ brain."

Which of the following patients may have trauma to abdominal​ organs? 1. A​ 30-year-old construction worker who fell from a​ second-story roof but managed to land on his feet 2. A​ 17-year-old male with a gunshot wound to the right buttock 3. A​ 50-year-old male with a stab wound 4 cm inferior to the right scapula 4. A​ 45-year-old female restrained driver of an SUV with a​ moderate-speed frontal impact

​1, 2,​ 3, 4

Your patient is a​ 17-year-old male driver of a vehicle that received a lateral impact at the​ driver's side door. There are no​ side-impact airbags, and there is about 8 inches of intrusion into the passenger compartment at the left door. Your patient is complaining of left shoulder pain and pain​ "in his left​ side." He has a contusion on the left shoulder and deformity of the left clavicle. He has erythema over the left lateral thorax from ribs 6 through 12 with crepitus on palpation. Which of the following injuries should you​ suspect? 1. Blunt trauma to the spleen 2. Blunt trauma to the liver 3. Penetrating trauma to the spleen 4. Penetrating trauma to the liver 5. Left pneumothorax 6. Fracture of the left clavicle

​1, 5, 6

On room​ air, which patient requires supplemental​ oxygen?

​47-year-old female; temperature 100.3degrees°​F; denies​ sob; SpO2​ 91%

An example of effective communications between the EMS dispatcher and crew would​ be: A. ​Dispatcher: Control to Unit​ 34, respond high priority to 783 Third​ Street, cross street​ Vine, on a possible heart attack Unit​ 34: Control, Unit 34​ copy, responding high priority to 783 Third Street​ Dispatcher: Copy B. ​Dispatcher: Control to Unit​ 34, respond high priority to 783 Third​ Street, cross street​ Vine, on a possible heart attack Unit​ 34: Copy​ Dispatcher: Unit​ 34, 1340 hours C. ​Dispatcher: Control to Unit​ 34, respond to 783 Third​ Street-guy there with chest pain Unit​ 34: Copy​ that, we're​ rollin' Dispatcher: Time out 1340 D. ​Dispatcher: Unit 34 from​ Control, respond high priority to 783 Third​ Street, cross street​ Vine, on a possible heart attack Unit​ 34: Control, Unit 34​ copy, responding high priority to 783 Third Street​ Dispatcher: Unit​ 34, 1340 hours

​Dispatcher: Unit 34 from​ Control, respond high priority to 783 Third​ Street, cross street​ Vine, on a possible heart attack Unit​ 34: Control, Unit 34​ copy, responding high priority to 783 Third Street​ Dispatcher: Unit​ 34, 1340 hours