N161 Midterm

Which symptoms should the nurse recognize that differentiate a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) from a client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? 1. Clients diagnosed with OCD experience both obsessions and compulsions, and clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder do not. 2. Clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder experience both obsessions and compulsions, and clients diagnosed with OCD do not. 3. Clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder experience only obsessions, and clients diagnosed with OCD experience only compulsions. 4. Clients diagnosed with OCD experience only obsessions, and clients diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder experience only compulsions.

ANS: 1 A client diagnosed with OCD experiences both obsessions and compulsions. Clients with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder exhibit a pervasive pattern of preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, mental and interpersonal control, but do not experience obsessions and compulsions.

Which factors differentiate the diagnosis of PTSD from the diagnosis of adjustment disorder (AD)? 1. PTSD results from exposure to an extreme traumatic event, whereas AD results from exposure to "normal" daily events. 2. AD results from exposure to an extreme traumatic event, whereas PTSD results from exposure to "normal" daily events. 3. Depressive symptoms occur in PTSD and not in AD. 4. Depressive symptoms occur in AD and not in PTSD.

ANS: 1 PTSD results from exposure to an extreme traumatic event, whereas AD results from exposure to "normal" daily events, such as divorce, failure, or rejection.

A client diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder states, "I really think my future will improve because of my successful treatment choices. I'm going to make my life better." Which guiding principle of recovery has assisted this client? 1. Recovery emerges from hope. 2. Recovery is person-driven. 3. Recovery occurs via many pathways. 4. Recovery is holistic.

ANS: 1 SAMHSA lists the following as guiding principles for the recovery model: Recovery emerges from hope.

A client with depression and substance abuse has an interrupted sleep pattern. She demands that her psychiatrist prescribe her a sedative. What teaching would the nurse provide about the rationale for the use of nonpharmacological interventions instead? 1. "Sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive and gradually lose their effectiveness as one builds up tolerance to them." 2. "Sedative-hypnotics work best in combination with other techniques." 3. "Sedative-hypnotics are not permitted for use in patients with substance abuse disorders." 4. "Sedative-hypnotics are not as effective as the antidepressant medications for treating sleep disturbances."

ANS: 1 Sedative-hypnotics are potentially addictive and should be used with caution by clients with a history of substance abuse. Tolerance can easily develop.

Without authorization, a nurse administers an extra dose of narcotic tranquilizer to an agitated client. The nurse's coworker observes this action but does nothing for fear of retaliation. What is the ethical interpretation of the coworker's lack of involvement? 1. Taking no action is still considered an unethical action by the coworker. 2. Taking no action releases the coworker from ethical responsibility. 3. Taking no action is advised when potential adverse consequences are foreseen. 4. Taking no action is acceptable, because the coworker is only a bystander.

ANS: 1 The coworker's lack of involvement can be interpreted as an unethical action. The coworker is experiencing an ethical dilemma in which a decision needs to be made between two unfavorable alternatives. The coworker has a responsibility to report any observed unethical actions.

A client diagnosed with panic disorder states, "When an attack happens, I feel like I am going to die." Which is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "I know it's frightening, but try to remind yourself that this will only last a short time." 2. "Death from a panic attack happens so infrequently that there is no need to worry." 3. "Most people who experience panic attacks have feelings of impending doom." 4. "Tell me why you think you are going to die every time you have a panic attack."

ANS: 1 The most appropriate nursing response to the client's concerns is to empathize with the client and provide encouragement that panic attacks only last a short period. Panic attacks usually last minutes but can, rarely, last hours.

What is the most essential task for a nurse to accomplish prior to forming a therapeutic relationship with a client? 1. Clarify personal attitudes, values, and beliefs. 2. Obtain thorough assessment data. 3. Determine the client's length of stay. 4. Establish personal goals for the interaction.

ANS: 1 The most essential task for a nurse to accomplish prior to forming a therapeutic relationship with a client is to clarify personal attitudes, values, and beliefs. Understanding one's own attitudes, values, and beliefs is called self-awareness.

Which therapeutic communication technique is being used in the following nurse-client interaction? Client: "My father spanked me often." Nurse: "Your father was a harsh disciplinarian." 1. Restatement 2. Offering general leads 3. Focusing 4. Accepting

ANS: 1 The nurse is using the therapeutic communication technique of restatement. Restatement involves repeating the main idea of what the client has said. It allows the client to know whether the statement has been understood and provides an opportunity to continue.

Which client action should a nurse expect during the working phase of the nurse-client relationship? 1. The client gains insight and incorporates alternative behaviors. 2. The client establishes rapport with the nurse and mutually develops treatment goals. 3. The client explores feelings related to reentering the community. 4. The client explores personal strengths and weaknesses that impact behavioral choices.

ANS: 1 The nurse should expect that the client will gain insight and incorporate alternative behaviors during the working phase of the nurse-client relationship.

A newly married woman comes to a gynecology clinic reporting anorexia, insomnia, and extreme pain during intercourse that has affected her intimate relationship. What initial intervention should the nurse expect a physician to implement? 1. A thorough physical, including gynecological examination 2. Referral to a sex therapist 3. Assessment of sexual history and previous satisfaction with sexual relationships 4. Referral to the recreational therapist for relaxation therapy

ANS: 1 The nurse should expect the physician to implement a thorough physical, including a gynecological examination to assess for any physiological causes of the client's symptoms. If no pathology exists, the client may be diagnosed with genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder. In this disorder, the individual experiences considerable difficulty with vaginal intercourse and attempts at penetration. Pain is felt in the vagina, around the vaginal entrance and clitoris, or deep in the pelvis. There is fear and anxiety associated with anticipation of pain or vaginal penetration. A tensing and tightening of the pelvic floor muscles occurs during attempted vaginal penetration.

A 16-year-old client diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorder experiences command hallucinations to harm others. The client's parents ask a nurse, "Where do the voices come from?" Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "Your child has a chemical imbalance of the brain, which leads to altered perceptions." 2. "Your child's hallucinations are caused by medication interactions." 3. "Your child has too little serotonin in the brain, causing delusions and hallucinations." 4. "Your child's abnormal hormonal changes have precipitated auditory hallucinations."

ANS: 1 The nurse should explain that a chemical imbalance of the brain leads to altered perceptions.

A newly admitted client asks, "Why do we need a unit schedule? I'm not going to these groups. I'm here to get some rest." Which is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "The purpose of group therapy is to learn and practice new coping skills." 2. "Group therapy is mandatory. All clients must attend." 3. "Group therapy is optional. You can go if you find the topic helpful and interesting." 4. "Group therapy is an economical way of providing therapy to many clients concurrently."

ANS: 1 The nurse should explain to the client that the purpose of group therapy is to learn and practice new coping skills.

After threatening to jump off of a bridge, a client is brought to an emergency department by police. To assess for suicide potential, which question should a nurse ask first? 1. "Are you currently thinking about harming yourself?" 2. "Why do you want to harm yourself?" 3. "Have you thought about the consequences of your actions?" 4. "Who is your emergency contact person?"

ANS: 1 The nurse should first assess the client for current harmful or suicidal thoughts to minimize risk of harm to the client and provide appropriate interventions. A suicidal client is experiencing a psychiatric emergency. The crisis team's priority is to assess client safety.

In the course of an assessment interview, a female client reveals a history of bisexual orientation. Which action should the nurse initially implement when working with this client? 1. Self-assess personal attitudes toward homosexuality. 2. Review client's possible childhood sexual abuse history. 3. Encourage discussion of aversion to heterosexual relationships. 4. Explore client's family history of homosexuality.

ANS: 1 The nurse should initially self-assess personal attitudes toward homosexuality. The nurse must be able to recognize when negative feelings compromise care. Unconditional acceptance of each individual is an essential component of compassionate nursing.

To promote self-reliance, how should a psychiatric nurse best conduct medication administration? 1. Encourage clients to request their medications at the appropriate times. 2. Refuse to administer medications unless clients request them at the appropriate times. 3. Allow the clients to determine appropriate medication times. 4. Take medications to the clients' bedside at the appropriate times.

ANS: 1 The psychiatric nurse promoting self-reliance would encourage clients to request their medications at the appropriate times. Nurses are responsible for the management of medication administration on inpatient psychiatric units, but nurses must work with clients to encourage self-reliance and responsibility, which may result in independent decision-making, leading to medication adherence.

A nursing instructor is teaching about the medications used to treat panic disorder. Which student statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "Clonazepam (Klonopin) is particularly effective in the treatment of panic disorder." 2. "Clozapine (Clozaril) is used off-label in long-term treatment of panic disorder." 3. "Doxepin (Sinequan) can be used in low doses to relieve symptoms of panic attacks." 4. "Buspirone (BuSpar) is used for its immediate effect to lower anxiety during panic attacks."

ANS: 1 The student indicates learning has occurred when he or she states that clonazepam is a particularly effective treatment for panic disorder. Clonazepam is a type of benzodiazepine in which the major risk is physical dependence and tolerance, which may encourage abuse. It can be used on an as-needed basis to reduce anxiety and its related symptoms.

Which client should the nurse anticipate to be most receptive to psychiatric treatment? 1. A Jewish, female social worker 2. A Baptist, homeless male. 3. A Catholic, black male. 4. A Protestant, Swedish business executive.

ANS: 1 The nurse should anticipate that the client of Jewish culture would place a high importance on preventative health care and would consider mental health as equally important to physical health.

A psychiatric nurse intern states, "This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated." Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement? 1. Defense mechanisms can be appropriate responses to stress and need not be eliminated. 2. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt of the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated. 3. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged and not eliminated. 4. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

ANS: 1 The nurse should determine that defense mechanisms can be appropriate during times of stress.

A nurse is assessing a set of 15-year-old identical twins who respond very differently to stress. One twin becomes anxious and irritable, and the other withdraws and cries. How should the nurse explain these different stress responses to the parents? 1. Reactions to stress are relative rather than absolute; individual responses to stress vary. 2. It is abnormal for identical twins to react differently to similar stressors. 3. Identical twins should share the same temperament and respond similarly to stress. 4. Environmental influences to stress weigh more heavily than genetic influences.

ANS: 1 The nurse should explain to the parents that, although the twins have identical DNA, there are several other factors that affect reactions to stress.

Which is an example of an intentional tort? 1. A nurse fails to assess a client's obvious symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome. 2. A nurse physically places an irritating client in four-point restraints. 3. A nurse makes a medication error and does not report the incident. 4. A nurse gives patient information to an unauthorized person.

ANS: 2 A tort, which can be intentional or unintentional, is a violation of civil law in which an individual has been wronged. A nurse who intentionally physically places an irritating client in restraints has touched the client without consent and has committed an intentional tort.

When used in combination with anxiolytic medication, alcohol leads to _____________ effects, and caffeine leads to _______________ effects. 1. increased; increased 2. increased; decreased 3. decreased; decreased 4. decreased; increased

ANS: 2 Anxiolytic medications work through depression of certain central nervous system (CNS) functions. Alcohol, which is a CNS depressant, would increase/potentiate their effects. Caffeine, which is a CNS stimulant, would decrease/inhibit their effects.

A nursing instructor is teaching about recovery as it applies to mental illness. Which student statement indicates that further teaching is needed? 1. "The goal of recovery is improved health and wellness." 2. "The goal of recovery is expedient, comprehensive behavioral change." 3. "The goal of recovery is the ability to live a self-directed life." 4. "The goal of recovery is the ability to reach full potential."

ANS: 2 Change in recovery is not an expedient process. It occurs incrementally over time.

A despondent client who has recently lost her husband of 30 years tearfully states, "I'll feel a lot better if I sell my house and move away." Which nursing response is most appropriate? 1. "I'm confident you know what's best for you." 2. "This may not be the best time for you to make such an important decision." 3. "Your children will be terribly disappointed." 4. "Tell me why you want to make this change."

ANS: 2 During crisis intervention, the nurse should guide the client through a problem-solving process. The nurse should help the individual confront the source of the problem, encourage the individual to discuss changes he or she would like to make, and encourage exploration of feelings about aspects of the crisis that cannot be changed.

Which statement about the tricyclic group of antidepressant medications is accurate? 1. Strong or aged cheese should not be eaten while taking them. 2. Their full therapeutic potential may not be reached until 4 weeks. 3. They may cause hypomania or recent memory impairment. 4. They should not be given with antianxiety agents.

ANS: 2 It may take several weeks for tricyclic medications to reach their full therapeutic effect.

A nursing instructor is explaining the etiology of trauma-related disorders from a learning theory perspective. Which student statement indicates that teaching has been effective? 1. "How clients perceive events and view the world affect their response to trauma." 2. "The psychic numbing in PTSD is a result of negative reinforcement." 3. "The individual becomes addicted to the trauma owing to an endogenous opioid response." 4. "Believing that the world is meaningful and controllable can protect an individual from PTSD."

ANS: 2 Learning theorists view negative reinforcement as behavior that leads to a reduction in an aversive experience, thereby reinforcing and resulting in repetition of the behavior. Psychic numbing decreases or protects an individual from emotional pain and, therefore, the learned response is the repetition of this behavior.

A client has been assigned a nursing diagnosis of complicated grieving related to the death of multiple family members in a motor vehicle accident. Which intervention should the nurse initially employ? 1. Encourage the journaling of feelings. 2. Assess for the stage of grief in which the client is fixed. 3. Provide community resources to address the client's concerns. 4. Encourage attending a grief therapy group.

ANS: 2 Prior to implementing all other nursing interventions presented, the nurse must assess the stage of grief in which the client is fixed. Appropriate nursing interventions are always based on accurate assessments.

A nursing instructor is teaching about the guiding principles of the recovery model, as described by SAMHSA. Which student statement indicates that further teaching is needed? 1. "Recovery occurs via many pathways." 2. "Recovery emerges from strong religious affiliations." 3. "Recovery is supported by peers and allies." 4. "Recovery is culturally based and influenced."

ANS: 2 Recovery emerges from hope but affiliation with any particular religion would have little bearing on the recovery process.

A client diagnosed with alcohol abuse disorder is referred to a residential care facility after discharge. According to SAMHSA, which dimension of recovery is supporting this client? 1. Health 2. Home 3. Purpose 4. Community

ANS: 2 SAMHSA describes the dimension of home as a stable and safe place to live.

A nurse maintains a client's confidentiality, addressed the client appropriately, and does not discriminate based on gender, age, race, or religion. Which guiding principle of recovery has this nurse employed? 1. Recovery is culturally based and influenced. 2. Recovery is based on respect. 3. Recovery involves individual, family, and community strengths and responsibility. 4. Recovery is person-driven.

ANS: 2 SAMHSA lists the following as guiding principles for the recovery model: Recovery is based on respect.

During a hiring interview, which response by a nursing applicant should indicate that the applicant operates from an ethical egoism framework? 1. "I would want to be treated in a caring manner if I were mentally ill." 2. "This job will pay the bills, and the workload is light enough for me." 3. "I will be happy caring for the mentally ill. Working in med/surg kills my back." 4. "It is my duty in life to be a psychiatric nurse. It is the right thing to do."

ANS: 2 The applicant's comment reflects the ethical egoism framework. This framework promotes the idea that decisions are made based on what is good for the individual and may not take the needs of others into account.

Which is the priority focus of recovery models? 1. Empowerment of the health-care team to bring their expertise to decision-making 2. Empowerment of the client to make decisions related to individual health care 3. Empowerment of the family system to provide supportive care 4. Empowerment of the physician to provide appropriate treatments

ANS: 2 The basic concept of a recovery model is empowerment of the client. The recovery model is designed to allow clients primary control over decisions about their own care.

In response to a student's question regarding choosing a psychiatric specialty, a charge nurse states, "Mentally ill clients need special care. If I were in that position, I'd want a caring nurse also." From which ethical framework is the charge nurse operating? 1. Kantianism 2. Christian ethics 3. Ethical egoism 4. Utilitarianism

ANS: 2 The charge nurse is operating from a Christian ethics framework. The imperative demand of Christian ethics is that all decisions about right and wrong should be centered in love for God and in treating others with the same respect and dignity with which we would expect to be treated.

A nurse admitted a client to an inpatient unit after a suicide attempt. A health-care provider orders amitriptyline (Elavil) for the client. Which intervention related to this medication should be initiated to maintain this client's safety upon discharge? 1. Provide a 6-month supply of Elavil to ensure long-term compliance. 2. Provide a 3-day supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments. 3. Provide a pill dispenser as a memory aid. 4. Provide education regarding the avoidance of foods containing tyramine.

ANS: 2 The health-care provider should provide no more than a 3-day supply of Elavil with refills contingent on follow-up appointments as an appropriate intervention to maintain the client's safety. Tricyclic antidepressants have a narrow therapeutic range and can be used in overdose to commit suicide. Distributing limited amounts of the medication decreases this potential. In addition, clients may gain energy to carry out a suicide once they begin to have more energy from taking the antidepressants.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia functions well and is bright, spontaneous, and interactive during hospitalization but then decompensates after discharge. What does the milieu provide that may be missing in the home environment? 1. Peer pressure 2. Structured programming 3. Visitor restrictions 4. Mandated activities

ANS: 2 The milieu, or therapeutic community, provides the client with structured programming that may be missing in the home environment. The therapeutic community provides a structured schedule of activities in which interpersonal interaction and communication with others are emphasized. Time is also devoted to personal problems and focus groups.

A 52-year-old client states, "My husband is upset because I don't enjoy sex as much as I used to." Which priority client data should a nurse initially collect? 1. History of hysterectomy 2. Date of last menstrual cycle 3. Use of birth control methods 4. History of thought disorder

ANS: 2 The nurse should assess the client's last menstrual cycle to determine if the client is experiencing the onset of menopause. Menopause usually occurs around the age of 50. The decrease in estrogen can result in multiple symptoms, including a decrease in biological drives and sexual activity.

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with pedophilic disorder. What would differentiate this sexual disorder from a sexual dysfunction? 1. Symptoms of sexual dysfunction include inappropriate sexual behaviors, whereas symptoms of a sexual disorder include impairment in normal sexual response. 2. Symptoms of a sexual disorder include inappropriate sexual behaviors, whereas symptoms of sexual dysfunction include impairment in normal sexual response. 3. Sexual dysfunction can be caused by increased levels of circulating androgens, whereas levels of circulating androgens do not affect sexual disorders. 4. Sexual disorders can be caused by decreased levels of circulating androgens, whereas levels of circulating androgens do not affect sexual dysfunction.

ANS: 2 The nurse should identify that pedophilic disorder is a sexual disorder in which individuals partake in inappropriate sexual behaviors. Pedophilic disorder involves having sexual urges, behaviors, or sexually arousing fantasies involving sexual activity with a prepubescent child.

Which potential client should a nurse identify as a candidate for involuntarily commitment? 1. The client living under a bridge in a cardboard box 2. The client threatening to commit suicide 3. The client who never bathes and wears a wool hat in the summer 4. The client who eats waste out of a garbage can

ANS: 2 The nurse should identify the client threatening to commit suicide as eligible for involuntary commitment. The suicidal client who refuses treatments is in danger and needs emergency treatment.

What is the best rationale for including family in the client's therapy within the inpatient milieu? 1. To structure a program of social and work-related activities 2. To facilitate discharge from hospitalization 3. To provide a concrete demonstration of caring 4. To encourage the family to model positive behaviors

ANS: 2 The nurse should include the client's family in therapy within the inpatient milieu to facilitate discharge from the hospital. Family members are invited to participate in some therapy groups and to share meals with the client in the communal dining room. Family involvement may also serve to prevent the client from becoming too dependent on the therapeutic environment.

A paranoid client presents with bizarre behaviors, neologisms, and thought insertion. Which nursing action should be prioritized to maintain this client's safety? 1. Assess for medication nonadherence. 2. Note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately. 3. Interpret attempts at communication. 4. Assess triggers for bizarre, inappropriate behaviors.

ANS: 2 The nurse should note escalating behaviors and intervene immediately, to maintain this client's safety. Early intervention may prevent an aggressive response and keep the client and others safe.

A widower reports a fear of intimacy because of an inability to achieve and sustain an erection. He has become isolative, has difficulty sleeping, and has lost weight over the past year. Which nursing diagnosis should be a priority for this client? 1. Risk for situational low self-esteem AEB inability to achieve an erection 2. Sexual dysfunction R/T dysfunctional grieving AEB inability to experience orgasm 3. Social isolation R/T low self-esteem AEB refusing to engage in dating activities 4. Disturbed body image R/T penile flaccidity AEB client statements

ANS: 2 The nurse should prioritize the nursing diagnosis sexual dysfunction R/T dysfunctional grieving AEB inability to experience orgasm. The nurse should assess the client's mood and level of energy, because depression and fatigue can decrease desire for participation in sexual activity.

A nursing instructor is teaching about specific phobias. Which student statement indicates to the instructor that teaching has been effective? 1. "These clients recognize their fear as excessive and frequently seek treatment." 2. "These clients have a panic level of fear that is overwhelming and unreasonable." 3. "These clients experience symptoms that mirror a cerebrovascular accident." 4. "These clients experience the symptoms of tachycardia, dysphagia, and diaphoresis."

ANS: 2 The nursing instructor should evaluate that learning has occurred when the student knows that clients with phobias have a panic level of fear that is overwhelming and unreasonable. Phobia is fear cued by a specific object or situation in which exposure to the stimuli produces an immediate anxiety response. Even though the disorder is relatively common among the general population, people seldom seek treatment unless the phobia interferes with ability to function.

What should be the priority nursing action during the orientation (introductory) phase of the nurse-client relationship? 1. Acknowledge the client's actions, and generate alternative behaviors. 2. Establish rapport and develop treatment goals. 3. Attempt to find alternative placement. 4. Explore how thoughts and feelings about this client may adversely impact nursing care.

ANS: 2 The priority nursing action during the orientation phase of the nurse-client relationship should be to establish rapport and develop treatment goals. Rapport implies feelings on the part of both the nurse and the client, based on respect, acceptance, a sense of trust, and a nonjudgmental attitude. It is the essential foundation of the nurse-client relationship.

Group therapy is strongly encouraged, but not mandatory, in an inpatient psychiatric unit. The unit manager's policy is that clients can make a choice about whether or not to attend group therapy. Which ethical principle does the unit manager's policy preserve? 1. Justice 2. Autonomy 3. Veracity 4. Beneficence

ANS: 2 The unit manager's policy regarding voluntary client participation in group therapy preserves the ethical principle of autonomy. The principle of autonomy presumes that individuals are capable of making independent decisions for themselves and that health-care workers must respect these decisions.

A client was recently admitted to the inpatient unit after a suicide attempt. He has been placed on a tricyclic antidepressant. In terms of medication, what steps should be taken to maintain the client's safety when he is discharged? 1. Provide a 6-month supply to ensure long-term compliance. 2. Provide a 1-week supply of medication, with refills authorized only after he visits his provider. 3. Encourage him to increase fluid intake to counteract the common side effect of diarrhea. 4. Educate him not to eat foods that contain tyramine.

ANS: 2 To prevent suicide through overdose on antidepressant medication, a limited supply should be given at discharge. Clients with a history of depression who have a lifting of mood may have an increased risk for suicide. Giving the client a larger supply of antidepressant medication increases the chances of overdose.

When an individual is "two-faced," which characteristic—essential to the development of a therapeutic relationship—should a nurse identify as missing? 1. Respect 2. Genuineness 3. Sympathy 4. Rapport

ANS: 2 When an individual is "two-faced," which means double-dealing or deceitful, the nurse should identify that genuineness is missing in the relationship. Genuineness refers to the nurse's ability to be open and honest and maintain congruence between what is felt and what is communicated. When a nurse fails to bring genuineness to the relationship, trust cannot be established.

Which nursing statement about the concept of neurosis is most accurate? 1. An individual experiencing neurosis is unaware that he or she is experiencing distress. 2. An individual experiencing neurosis feels helpless to change his or her situation. 3. An individual experiencing neurosis is aware of the psychological causes of his or her behavior. 4. An individual experiencing neurosis has a loss of contact with reality.

ANS: 2 The client feels helpless to change his or her situation.

At what point should the nurse determine that a client is at risk for developing a mental illness? 1. When thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are not reflective of the DSM-5 criteria. 2. When maladaptive responses to stress are coupled with interference in daily functioning. 3. When a client communicates significant distress. 4. When a client uses defense mechanisms as ego protection.

ANS: 2 The nurse should determine that the client is at risk for mental illness when responses to stress are maladaptive and interfere with daily functioning. The DSM-5 indicates that in order to be diagnosed with a mental illness, daily functioning must be significantly impaired.

How does a democratic form of self-government in the milieu contribute to client therapy? 1. By setting punishments for clients who violate the community rules 2. By dealing with inappropriate behaviors as they occur 3. By setting expectations wherein all clients are treated on an equal basis 4. By interacting with professional staff members to learn about therapeutic interventions

ANS: 3 A democratic form of self-government in the milieu contributes to client therapy by setting the expectation that all clients should be treated on an equal basis. Clients participate in the decision-making and problem-solving aspects that affect treatment setting. The norms, rules, and behavioral limits are established by the staff and clients.

The nurse is assessing a client who has a diagnosis of schizophrenia and takes an antipsychotic agent daily. Which finding requires further nursing assessment? 1. Respirations of 22 beats/minute 2. Weight gain of 8 lbs. in 2 months 3. Temperature of 101oF 4. Excess salivation

ANS: 3 A fever could be one of the first signs of an infection caused by reduced immunity from agranulocytosis secondary to antipsychotic medication.

Which client would a nurse recognize as being at highest risk for the development of an adjustment disorder? 1. A young married woman 2. An elderly unmarried man 3. A young unmarried woman 4. A young unmarried man

ANS: 3 Adjustment disorders are more common in women, unmarried persons, and younger people.

A nurse on an inpatient unit helps a client understand the significance of treatments, and provides the client with copies of all documents related to the plan of care. This nurse is employing which commitment in the "Tidal Model of Recovery?" 1. Know that Change Is Constant 2. Reveal Personal Wisdom 3. Be Transparent 4. Give the Gift of Time

ANS: 3 Barker & Buchanan-Barker developed a set of essential values termed The 10 Tidal Commitments upon which the Tidal Model is based. They include: Be Transparent.

A client was recently admitted to the inpatient unit after a suicide attempt and is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI). The nurse teaches the client about serotonin syndrome. Which of the following is a symptom of serotonin syndrome? 1. Change in mental status 2. Myoclonus 3. Blood pressure lability 4. Priapism

ANS: 3 Blood pressure lability is not a symptom of serotonin syndrome.

Which nursing statement to a client about social anxiety disorder versus schizoid personality disorder (SPD) is most accurate? 1. "Clients diagnosed with social anxiety disorder can manage anxiety without medications, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD can only manage anxiety with medications." 2. "Clients diagnosed with SPD are distressed by the symptoms experienced in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with social anxiety disorder are not." 3. "Clients diagnosed with social anxiety disorder avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions in all areas of life." 4. "Clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with social anxiety disorder tend to avoid interactions in all areas of life."

ANS: 3 Clients diagnosed with social anxiety disorder avoid interactions only in social settings, whereas clients diagnosed with SPD avoid interactions in all areas of life. Social anxiety disorder is an excessive fear of situations in which a person might do something embarrassing or be evaluated negatively by others.

A nurse is working with a client diagnosed with pedophilic disorder. Which client outcome is appropriate for the nurse to expect during the first week of hospitalization? 1. The client will verbalize an understanding of the importance of follow-up care. 2. The client will implement several relapse-prevention strategies. 3. The client will identify triggers for inappropriate behaviors. 4. The client will attend aversion therapy groups.

ANS: 3 During the first week of hospitalization, identifying triggers for inappropriate behaviors is an appropriate outcome for a client diagnosed with pedophilic disorder.

Both situational and intrapersonal factors most likely contribute to an individual's stress response. Which factor would a nurse categorize as intrapersonal? 1. Occupational opportunities 2. Economic conditions 3. Degree of flexibility 4. Availability of social supports

ANS: 3 Intrapersonal factors that might influence an individual's ability to adjust to a painful life change include social skills, coping strategies, the presence of psychiatric illness, degree of flexibility, and level of intelligence.

An aging client with chronic schizophrenia takes a beta-adrenergic blocking agent (propranolol) for hypertension and an antipsychotic. Given the combined side effects of these drugs, what teaching should the nurse provide? 1. "Make sure you concentrate on taking slow, deep, cleansing breaths." 2. "Watch your diet and try to engage in some regular physical activity." 3. "Rise slowly when you change position from lying to sitting or sitting to standing." 4. "Wear sunscreen and try to avoid midday sun exposure."

ANS: 3 The antipsychotic medication can cause orthostatic hypotension that could be magnified by the propranolol.

As the sole survivor of a roadside bombing, a veteran is experiencing extreme guilt. Which nursing diagnosis would address this client's symptom? 1. Anxiety 2. Altered thought processes 3. Complicated grieving 4. Altered sensory perception

ANS: 3 The client's survivor guilt is disrupting the normal process of grieving.

A female client on an inpatient unit enters the common area for visiting hours dressed in a see-through blouse. Which intervention should be a nurse's first priority? 1. Discuss with the client the inappropriateness of her attire. 2. Avoid addressing her attention-seeking behavior. 3. Lead the client back to her room and assist her with a change of clothing. 4. Restrict client to room until visiting hours are over.

ANS: 3 The most appropriate intervention by the nurse is to lead the client back to her room and assist her with a change of clothing. The client could be exhibiting symptoms of exhibitionistic disorder, which is characterized by urges to expose oneself to unsuspecting strangers.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorder states, "Can't you hear him? It's the devil. He's telling me I'm going to hell." Which is the most appropriate nursing response? 1. "Did you take your medicine this morning?" 2. "You are not going to hell. You are a good person." 3. "The voices must sound scary, but the devil is not talking to you. This is part of your illness." 4. "The devil only talks to people who are receptive to his influence."

ANS: 3 The most appropriate nursing response is to reassure the client while not reinforcing the hallucination. Reminding the client that "the voices" are a part of the illness is a way to help the client accept that the hallucinations are not real. It is also important for the nurse to connect with the client's fears and inner feelings.

Parents ask a nurse how they should reply when their child, diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorder, tells them that voices command him to harm others. Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "Tell him to stop discussing the voices." 2. "Ignore what he is saying, while attempting to discover the underlying cause." 3. "Focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality." 4. "Present objective evidence that the voices are not real."

ANS: 3 The most appropriate response by the nurse is to instruct the parents to focus on the feelings generated by the hallucinations and present reality. The parents should accept that their child is experiencing the hallucination but should not reinforce this unreal sensory perception.

Which treatment should the nurse identify as most appropriate for clients diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder? 1. Long-term treatment with diazepam (Valium) 2. Acute symptom control with citalopram (Celexa) 3. Long-term treatment with buspirone (BuSpar) 4. Acute symptom control with ziprasidone (Geodon)

ANS: 3 The nurse should identify that an appropriate treatment for clients diagnosed with GAD is long-term treatment with buspirone. Buspirone is an anxiolytic medication that is effective in 60% to 80% of clients diagnosed with GAD. Buspirone takes 10 to 14 days for alleviation of symptoms but does not have the dependency concerns of other anxiolytics.

Which client statement should a nurse identify as a typical response to stress most often experienced in the working phase of the nurse-client relationship? 1. "I can't bear the thought of leaving here and failing." 2. "I might have a hard time working with you, because you remind me of my mother." 3. "I really don't want to talk any more about my childhood abuse." 4. "I'm not sure that I can count on you to protect my confidentiality."

ANS: 3 The nurse should identify that the client statement, "I really don't want to talk any more about my childhood abuse," reflects that the client is in the working phase of the nurse-client relationship. The working phase includes overcoming resistance behaviors on the part of the client as the level of anxiety rises in response to discussion of painful issues.

A client diagnosed with schizoaffective disorder is admitted for social skills training. Which information should be included in the nurse's teaching? 1. The side effects of medications 2. Deep breathing techniques to decrease stress 3. How to make eye contact when communicating 4. How to be a leader

ANS: 3 The nurse should plan to teach the client how to make eye contact when communicating. Social skills, such as making eye contact, can assist clients to communicate needs and to establish relationships.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorder tells a nurse about voices commanding him to kill the president. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? 1. Disturbed sensory perception 2. Altered thought processes 3. Risk for violence: directed toward others 4. Risk for injury

ANS: 3 The nurse should prioritize the diagnosis risk for violence: directed toward others. A client who hears voices commanding him to kill someone is at risk for other-directed violence. Other risk factors for violence include aggressive body language, verbal aggression, catatonic excitement, and rage reactions.

A client diagnosed with schizophrenia refuses to take medication, citing the right of autonomy. Under which circumstance would a nurse have the right to medicate the client against the client's wishes? 1. A client makes inappropriate sexual innuendos to a staff member. 2. A client constantly demands attention from the nurse by begging, "Help me get better." 3. A client physically attacks another client after being confronted in group therapy. 4. A client refuses to bathe or perform hygienic activities.

ANS: 3 The nurse would have the right to medicate a client against his or her wishes if the client physically attacks another client. This client poses a significant risk to safety and is incapable of making informed choices. The client's refusal to accept treatment can be challenged, because the client is endangering the safety of others.

An angry client on an inpatient unit approaches a nurse stating, "Someone took my lunch! People need to respect others, and you need to do something about this now!" The nurse's response should be guided by which basic assumption of milieu therapy? 1. Conflict should be avoided at all costs on inpatient psychiatric units. 2. Conflict should be resolved by the nursing staff. 3. On inpatient units, every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention. 4. Conflict resolution should only be addressed during group therapy.

ANS: 3 The nurse's response should be guided by the basic assumption that every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention.

A high school student has learned that she cannot graduate. Her boyfriend will be attending a college out of state that she planned to attend. She is admitted to a psychiatric unit after overdosing on Tylenol. Which is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client? 1. Ineffective coping R/T situational crisis AEB powerlessness 2. Anxiety R/T fear of failure 3. Risk for self-directed violence R/T hopelessness 4. Risk for low self-esteem R/T loss events AEB suicidal ideations

ANS: 3 The priority nursing diagnosis for this client is risk for self-directed violence R/T hopelessness. Nurses should prioritize diagnoses and outcomes based on potential safety risk to the client or others.

A client began taking lithium for the treatment of bipolar disorder approximately 1 month ago and asks why he has gained 12 lbs. since then. Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "I'm surprised you have gained; weight loss is the typical pattern when taking lithium." 2. "Your weight gain is more likely related to food intake than medication." 3. "Weight gain is a common, but troubling side effect. Let's talk about some strategies for safely improving your nutrition and exercise habits." 4. "There's not much you can do about the weight gain. It's better than being emotionally unstable, though."

ANS: 3 Weight gain is a common side effect of lithium therapy. To ensure compliance the nurse should help the client develop strategies to prevent excessive weight gain.

During an intake assessment, a nurse asks both physiological and psychosocial questions. The client angrily responds, "I'm here for my heart, not my head problems." Which is the nurse's best response? 1. "It is just a routine part of our assessment. All clients are asked these same questions." 2. "Why are you concerned about these types of questions?" 3. "Psychological factors, like excessive stress, have been found to affect medical conditions." 4. "We can skip these questions, if you like. It isn't imperative that we complete this section."

ANS: 3 The nurse should attempt to educate the client on the negative effects of excessive stress on medical conditions.

A client with a history of three suicide attempts has been taking fluoxetine (Prozac) for 1 month. The client suddenly presents with a bright affect, rates mood at 9/10, and is much more communicative. Which action should be the nurse's priority at this time? 1. Give the client off-unit privileges as positive reinforcement. 2. Encourage the client to share mood improvement in group. 3. Increase frequency of client observation. 4. Request that the psychiatrist reevaluate the current medication protocol.

ANS: 3 The nurse should be aware that a sudden increase in mood rating and change in affect could indicate that the client is at risk for suicide and client observation should be more frequent. Suicide risk may occur early during treatment with antidepressants. The return of energy may bring about an increased ability to act out self-destructive behaviors prior to attaining the full therapeutic effect of the antidepressant medication.

An employee uses the defense mechanism of displacement when the boss openly disagrees with suggestions. What behavior would be expected from this employee? 1. The employee assertively confronts the boss. 2. The employee leaves the staff meeting to work out in the gym. 3. The employee criticizes a coworker. 4. The employee takes the boss out to lunch.

ANS: 3 The nurse should expect that the client using the defense mechanism displacement would criticize a coworker after being confronted by the boss.

A fourth-grade boy teases and makes jokes about a cute girl in his class. This behavior should be identified by a nurse as indicative of which defense mechanism? 1. Displacement 2. Projection 3. Reaction formation 4. Sublimation

ANS: 3 The nurse should identify that the boy is using reaction formation as a defense mechanism. Reaction formation is the attempt to prevent undesirable thoughts from being expressed by expressing opposite thoughts or behaviors.

A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder with psychotic features hears voices commanding self-harm. The client refuses to commit to developing a plan for safety. What should be the nurse's priority intervention at this time? 1. Obtaining an order for locked seclusion until client is no longer suicidal 2. Conducting 15-minute checks to ensure safety 3. Placing the client on one-to-one observation while monitoring suicidal ideations 4. Encouraging client to express feelings related to suicide

ANS: 3 The nurse's priority intervention when a client hears voices commanding self-harm is to place the client on one-to-one observation while continuing to monitor suicidal ideation.

A nurse discovers a client's suicide note that details the time, place, and means to commit suicide. What should be the priority nursing intervention and the rationale for this action? 1. Administering lorazepam (Ativan) prn, because the client is angry about the discovery of the note 2. Establishing room restrictions, because the client's threat is an attempt to manipulate the staff 3. Placing this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide 4. Calling an emergency treatment team meeting, because the client's threat must be addressed

ANS: 3 The priority nursing action should be to place this client on one-to-one suicide precautions, because the more specific the plan, the more likely the client will attempt suicide. The appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client would be risk for suicide.

Which clinical presentation is associated with the most commonly diagnosed adjustment disorder (AD)? 1. Anxiety, feelings of hopelessness, and worry 2. Truancy, vandalism, and fighting 3. Nervousness, worry, and jitteriness 4. Depressed mood, tearfulness, and hopelessness

ANS: 4 AD with depressed mood is the most commonly diagnosed adjustment disorder. The clinical presentation is one of predominant mood disturbance, although less pronounced than that of major depression. The symptoms—such as depressed mood, tearfulness, and feelings of hopelessness—exceed what is an expected or normative response to an identified stressor.

A nursing instructor is teaching about trauma and stressor-related disorders. Which statement by one of the students indicates that further instruction is needed? 1. "The trauma that women experience is more likely to be sexual assault and child sexual abuse." 2. "The trauma that men experience is more likely to be accidents, physical assaults, combat, or viewing death or injury." 3. "After exposure to a traumatic event, only 10 percent of victims develop posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)." 4. "Research shows that PTSD is more common in men than in women."

ANS: 4 Research shows that PTSD is more common in women than in men. This student statement indicates a need for further instruction.

Which situation presents an example of the basic concept of a recovery model? 1. The client's family is encouraged to make decisions in order to facilitate discharge. 2. A social worker, discovering the client's income, changes the client's discharge placement. 3. A psychiatrist prescribes an antipsychotic drug based on observed symptoms. 4. A client diagnosed with schizophrenia schedules follow-up appointments and group therapy.

ANS: 4 The basic concept of a recovery model is empowerment of the consumer. The recovery model is designed to allow consumers primary control over decisions about their own care.

When planning care for a client diagnosed with female sexual interest/arousal disorder, what should the nurse document as an expected outcome of sensate focus exercises? 1. To initiate immediate orgasm 2. To reduce anxiety by eliminating physical touch 3. To focus on touching breasts and genitals 4. To reduce goal-oriented demands of intercourse

ANS: 4 The expected outcome of sensate focus exercises is to reduce goal-oriented demands of intercourse. The reduction in demands reduces performance pressures and anxiety associated with possible failure.

An involuntarily committed client is verbally abusive to the staff, repeatedly threatening to sue. The client records the full names and phone numbers of the staff. Which nursing action is most appropriate to decrease the possibility of a lawsuit? 1. Verbally redirect the client, and then refuse one-on-one interaction. 2. Involve the hospital's security division as soon as possible. 3. Notify the client that documenting personal staff information is against hospital policy. 4. Continue professional attempts to establish a positive working relationship with the client.

ANS: 4 The most appropriate nursing action is to continue professional attempts to establish a positive working relationship with the client.

Which nursing intervention would be most appropriate when caring for an acutely agitated paranoid client diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorder? 1. Provide neon lights and soft music. 2. Maintain continual eye contact throughout the interview. 3. Use therapeutic touch to increase trust and rapport. 4. Provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries.

ANS: 4 The most appropriate nursing intervention is to provide personal space to respect the client's boundaries. Providing personal space may serve to reduce anxiety and thus reduce the client's risk for violence. The nurse should observe the patient while carrying out routine tasks.

An involuntarily committed client, when offered a dinner tray, pushes it off the bedside table onto the floor. Which nursing intervention should a nurse implement to address this behavior? 1. Initiate forced medication protocol. 2. Help the client to explore the source of anger. 3. Ignore the act to avoid reinforcing the behavior. 4. With staff support and a show of solidarity, set firm limits on the behavior.

ANS: 4 The most appropriate nursing intervention is to set firm limits on the behavior.

A client on an inpatient unit angrily says to a nurse, "Peter is not cleaning up after himself in the community bathroom. You need to address this problem." Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "I'll talk to Peter and present your concerns." 2. "Why are you overreacting to this issue?" 3. "You should bring this to the attention of your treatment team." 4. "I can see that you are angry. Let's discuss ways to approach Peter with your concerns."

ANS: 4 The most appropriate nursing response involves restating the client's feeling and developing a plan with the client to solve the problem. According to Skinner, every interaction is an opportunity for therapeutic intervention to improve communication and relationship-development skills.

A nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with schizophrenia spectrum disorder. The nurse asks the client, "Do you receive special messages from certain sources, such as the television or radio?" The nurse is assessing which potential symptom of this disorder? 1. Thought insertion 2. Paranoid delusions 3. Magical thinking 4. Delusions of reference

ANS: 4 The nurse is assessing for the potential symptom of delusions of reference. A client that believes he or she receives messages through the radio is experiencing delusions of reference. These delusions involve the client interpreting events within the environment as being directed toward himself or herself. Clients with delusions of reference believe that others are trying to send them messages in various ways, or they must break a code to receive a message.

A college student, who was nearly raped while jogging, completes a series of appointments with a rape crisis nurse. At the final session, which client statement most clearly suggests that the goals of crisis intervention have been met? 1. "You've really been helpful. Can I count on you for continued support?" 2. "I work out in the college gym rather than jogging outdoors." 3. "I'm really glad I didn't go home. It would have been hard to come back." 4. "I carry mace when I jog. It makes me feel safe and secure."

ANS: 4 The nurse should evaluate that the client who has developed adaptive coping strategies has achieved the goals of crisis intervention. The final phase of crisis intervention involves evaluating the outcome of the crisis intervention and anticipatory planning.

A client comes to a psychiatric clinic experiencing sudden extreme fatigue and decreased sleep and appetite. The client works 12 hours a day and rates anxiety as 8/10 on a numeric scale. What long-term outcome is realistic in addressing this client's crisis? 1. The client will change his type-A personality traits to more adaptive ones by one week. 2. The client will list five positive self-attributes. 3. The client will examine how childhood events led to his overachieving orientation. 4. The client will return to previous adaptive levels of functioning by week six.

ANS: 4 The nurse should identify that a realistic long-term outcome for this client is to return to previous adaptive levels of functioning. The nurse should work with the client to develop attainable outcomes that reflect immediacy of the situation.

A nurse working on an inpatient psychiatric unit is assigned to conduct a 45-minute education group. What should the nurse identify as an appropriate group topic? 1. Dream analysis 2. Creative cooking 3. Paint by number 4. Stress management

ANS: 4 The nurse should identify that teaching clients about stress management is an appropriate education group topic. Nurses should be able to perform the role of client teacher in the psychiatric area. Nurses need to be able to assess a client's learning readiness. Other topics for education groups include medical diagnoses, side effects of medications, and the importance of medication adherence.

On which task should a nurse place priority during the working phase of relationship development? 1. Establishing a contract for intervention 2. Examining feelings about working with a particular client 3. Establishing a plan for continuing aftercare 4. Promoting the client's insight and perception of reality

ANS: 4 The nurse should place priority on promoting the client's insight and perception of reality during the working phase of relationship development.

What symptoms should the nurse recognize that differentiate a client diagnosed with panic disorder from a client diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? 1. GAD is acute in nature, and panic disorder is chronic. 2. Chest pain is a common GAD symptom, whereas this symptom is absent in panic disorders. 3. Hyperventilation is a common symptom in GAD and rare in panic disorder. 4. Depersonalization is commonly seen in panic disorder and absent in GAD.

ANS: 4 The nurse should recognize that a client diagnosed with panic disorder experiences depersonalization, whereas a client diagnosed with GAD would not. Depersonalization refers to being detached from oneself when experiencing extreme anxiety.

If a client demonstrates transference toward a nurse, how should the nurse respond? 1. Promote safety and immediately terminate the relationship with the client. 2. Encourage the client to ignore these thoughts and feelings. 3. Immediately reassign the client to another staff member. 4. Help the client to clarify the meaning of the relationship, based on the present situation.

ANS: 4 The nurse should respond to a client's transference by clarifying the meaning of the nurse-client relationship based on the present situation. Transference occurs when the client unconsciously displaces feelings about a person from the past toward the nurse.

A cab driver, stuck in traffic, becomes lightheaded, tremulous, diaphoretic, tachycardic, and dyspneic. A work-up in an emergency department reveals no pathology. Which medical diagnosis should the nurse suspect, and what nursing diagnosis should be the nurse's first priority? 1. Generalized anxiety disorder and a nursing diagnosis of fear 2. Mild anxiety disorder and a nursing diagnosis of anxiety 3. Pain disorder and a nursing diagnosis of altered role performance 4. Panic disorder and a nursing diagnosis of anxiety

ANS: 4 The nurse should suspect that the client has exhibited signs and symptoms of a panic disorder. The priority nursing diagnosis should be anxiety. Panic disorder is characterized by recurrent, sudden-onset panic attacks in which the person feels intense fear, apprehension, or terror.

Which statement should a nurse identify as correct regarding a client's right to refuse treatment? 1. Clients can refuse pharmacological but not psychological treatment. 2. Clients can refuse any treatment at any time. 3. Clients can refuse only electroconvulsive therapy (ECT). 4. Professionals can override treatment refusal by an actively suicidal or homicidal client.

ANS: 4 The nurse should understand that health-care professionals can override treatment refusal when a client is actively suicidal or homicidal. A suicidal or homicidal client who refuses treatment may be in danger or a danger to others. This situation should be treated as an emergency, and treatment may be performed without informed consent.

A new mother is concerned about her ability to perform her parental role. She is quite anxious and ambivalent about leaving the postpartum unit. To offer effective client care, a nurse should be familiar with what information about this type of crisis? 1. This type of crisis is precipitated by unexpected external stressors. 2. This type of crisis is precipitated by preexisting psychopathology. 3. This type of crisis is precipitated by an acute response to an external situational stressor. 4. This type of crisis is precipitated by normal life-cycle transitions that overwhelm the client.

ANS: 4 The nurse should understand that this type of crisis is precipitated by normal life-cycle transitions that overwhelm the client. Reassurance and guidance should be provided as needed, and the client should be referred to services that can provide assistance.

A mother who is notified that her child was killed in a tragic car accident states, "I can't bear to go on with my life." Which nursing statement conveys empathy? 1. "This situation is very sad, but time is a great healer." 2. "You are sad, but you must be strong for your other children." 3. "Once you cry it all out, things will seem so much better." 4. "It must be horrible to lose a child, and I'll stay with you until your husband arrives."

ANS: 4 The nurse's response, "It must be horrible to lose a child, and I'll stay with you until your husband arrives," conveys empathy to the client. Empathy is the ability to see the situation from the client's point of view. Empathy is considered to be one of the most important characteristics of the therapeutic relationship.

A client was recently admitted to the inpatient unit after a suicide attempt and has not responded to SSRIs or tricyclic antidepressants. The client asks the nurse, "I heard about monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs). Why can't they be added to what I am on now? Wouldn't adding one help?" Which is the appropriate nursing response? 1. "Electroconvulsive therapy is your best option at this point." 2. "Combined use can lead to a life-threatening condition called hypertensive crisis." 3. "There is no reason why an MAOI couldn't be added to your therapy." 4. "They can't be used together because their mechanisms of action are very different."

ANS: 4 This statement is not therapeutic or accurate.

The family of a suicidal client is very supportive and requests more facts related to caring for their family member after discharge. Which information should the nurse provide? 1. Address only serious suicide threats to avoid the possibility of secondary gain. 2. Promote trust by verbalizing a promise to keep suicide attempt information within the family. 3. Offer a private environment to provide needed time alone at least once a day. 4. Be available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings.

ANS: 4 Being available to actively listen, support, and accept feelings increases the potential that a client would confide suicidal ideations to family members.

The treatment team is making a discharge decision regarding a previously suicidal client. Which client assessment information should a nurse recognize as contributing to the team's decision? 1. No previous admissions for major depressive disorder 2. Vital signs stable; no psychosis noted 3. Able to comply with medication regimen; able to problem-solve life issues 4. Able to participate in a plan for safety; family agrees to constant observation

ANS: 4 Participation in a plan of safety and constant family observation will decrease the risk for self-harm.

During a one-to-one session with a client, the client states, "Nothing will ever get better," and "Nobody can help me." Which nursing diagnosis is most appropriate for a nurse to assign to this client at this time? 1. Powerlessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements 2. Risk for injury R/T altered mood AEB client statements 3. Risk for suicide R/T altered mood AEB client statements 4. Hopelessness R/T altered mood AEB client statements

ANS: 4 The client's statements indicate the problem of hopelessness. Prior to assigning either risk for injury or risk for suicide, a further evaluation of the client's suicidal ideations and intent would be necessary.

A nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing occasional feelings of sadness because of the recent death of a beloved pet. The client's appetite, sleep patterns, and daily routine have not changed. How should the nurse interpret the client's behaviors? 1. The client's behaviors demonstrate mental illness in the form of depression. 2. The client's behaviors are extensive, which indicates the presence of mental illness. 3. The client's behaviors are not congruent with cultural norms. 4. The client's behaviors demonstrate no functional impairment, indicating no mental illness.

ANS: 4 The nurse should assess that the client's daily functioning is not impaired. The client who experiences feelings of sadness after the loss of a pet is responding within normal expectations.

During the planning of care for a suicidal client, which correctly written outcome should be a nurse's first priority? 1. The client will not physically harm self. 2. The client will express hope for the future by day three. 3. The client will establish a trusting relationship with the nurse. 4. The client will remain safe during the hospital stay.

ANS: 4 The nurse's priority should be that the client will remain safe during the hospital stay. Client safety should always be the nurse's priority.

A wife brings her husband to an emergency department after an attempt to hang himself. He is a full-time student and works 8 hours at night to support his family. He states, "I can't function any longer under all this stress." Which type of crisis is the client experiencing? 1. Maturational/developmental crisis 2. Psychiatric emergency crisis 3. Anticipated life transition crisis 4. Traumatic stress crisis

ANS:2 The nurse should determine that the client is experiencing a psychiatric emergency crisis. Psychiatric emergencies occur when crisis situations result in severe impairment, incompetence, or an inability to assume personal responsibility.