NASM CES 3- Practice Exam 1

Myofascial rolling is classified as what type of intervention? Select one: a. Strengthening b. Compression c. Stretching d. Therapeutic modality

b. Compression

At which joint might an increase in ROM serve as a preventative strategy by allowing the trunk to be more upright and minimizing shearing forces in the trunk? Select one: a. Pelvis b. Knee c. Cervical spine d. Ankle

d. Ankle

Kaden is a 45-year-old office worker just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future? Select one: a. Ball squat with overhead press b. Push up c. Barbell squat d. Seated overhead press

a. Ball squat with overhead press

What is the biggest contraindication for stretching? Select one: a. Fibromyalgia b. Recently injured individuals c. Hypertensive individuals d. Joint replacement

b. Recently injured individuals

The glenohumeral joint is what type of joint? Select one: a. Fibrous b. Cartilaginous c. Synovial d. Fused

c. Synovial

Which receptor is activated by tension exerted on the muscle tendon and muscle? Select one: a. Pacinian corpuscle b. Golgi tendon organ (GTO) c. Merkle disc d. Ruffini ending

b. Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

Which type of movement assessment should always be performed first? Select one: a. Dynamic b. Loaded c. Transitional d. Static

c. Transitional

What type of stretching involves a 2-second static stretch with a contraction of the antagonist muscle to induce reciprocal inhibition? Select one: a. Ballistic b. Static c. Dynamic d. Active

d. Active

Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance while doing which of the following? Select one: a. Stabilizing b. Shortening c. Perturbating d. Lengthening

d. Lengthening

A ligament injury to the acromioclavicular joint is best classified as what? Select one: a. GH separation b. GH dislocation c. AC dislocation d. AC separation

d. AC separation

What verbal cue would one provide a client when doing a single-leg activity? Select one: a. "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toe." b. "Pull your knees in when you land." c. "Straighten your leg as much as you can." d. "Push your knees out when you land."

a. "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toe."

What percent of ACL ruptures occur during single-foot contact in physical activity secondary to uncontrolled lower extremity biomechanics? Select one: a. 0.7 b. 0.9 c. 0.5 d. 0.6

a. 0.7

For optimal sleep, what should the temperature of the room be? Select one: a. 72 degrees F/22 degree C b. 95 degrees F/35 degrees C c. 45 degrees F/7 degrees C d. 60 degrees F/16 degrees C

a. 72 degrees F/22 degree C

Polly demonstrates forward head posture during her assessment. Which of her muscles are most likely underactive? Select one: a. Deep cervical flexors, lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboids b. Latissimus dorsi, pectoralis major, pectoralis minor, teres major c. Suboccipital, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, and upper trapezius d. Lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and serratus anterior

a. Deep cervical flexors, lower trapezius, middle trapezius, and rhomboids

Which test is indicated if a client is unable to straighten their arms overhead? Select one: a. Elbow and wrist extension b. Modified Thomas test c. Lumbar flexion and extension d. Seated thoracic rotation

a. Elbow and wrist extension

Scott demonstrates an excessive posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following would be the most appropriate muscle to activate? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Abdominal complex c. Adductor magnus d. Hamstrings complex

a. Erector spinae

For which movement impairment would one see the arch of the foot collapse or malalignment of the Achilles tendon? Select one: a. Excessive pronation b. Feet turn out c. Heel raise d. Asymmetrical weight shift

a. Excessive pronation

Which is an abnormal movement associated with a seven-fold increase in ankle sprains? Select one: a. Increased postural sway b. Increased knee flexion movement c. Increased knee extension movement d. Increased spinal rigid

a. Increased postural sway

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture? Select one: a. Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors b. Gluteus maximus, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis c. Gluteus medius, adductors, and quadriceps d. Lumbar extensors, hip flexors, quads, and adductors

a. Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors

Which of the following statements accurately describes the effects of poor hydration levels on performance and movement? Select one: a. It causes a decrease in performance and overall health. b. Poor hydration will make movements rapid and twitchy. c. Electrolytes work better when the body is slightly dehydrated. d. It makes high-intensity activities easier to perform.

a. It causes a decrease in performance and overall health.

The activation phase primarily focuses on correcting which of the following? Select one: a. Lengthened muscles b. Hypertonic muscles c. Lack of flexibility d. Muscle imbalance

a. Lengthened muscles

Which term best describes the entire available motion at a joint as well as the body's neuromuscular control during motion? Select one: a. Mobility b. Extensibility c. Pliability d. Flexibility

a. Mobility

Orthotics are typically used to control which foot type? Select one: a. Over-pronated b. Any foot type c. Over-supinated d. Neutral foot

a. Over-pronated

Turning the palm toward the floor is what action? Select one: a. Pronation b. Ulnar deviation c. Radial deviation d. Supination

a. Pronation

Which statement most accurately describes the potential impact a previous low-back injury could have on a client? Select one: a. Reduced proprioception b. Improved lumbar mobility c. No direct impact d. Herniated disk

a. Reduced proprioception

A client presents with excessive elbow flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good choice to start the corrective exercise process? Select one: a. SMR the wrist extensors b. SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis c. isolate the wrist flexors d. Lengthen the triceps

a. SMR the wrist extensors

Through which plane and motion does the talocrural joint move? Select one: a. Sagittal; dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Transverse; rotation c. Frontal; dorsiflexion and plantar flexion d. Sagittal; rotation

a. Sagittal; dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

Which is a common cause of limited ankle dorsiflexion? Select one: a. Short/overactive plantar flexors b. Short/overactive tibialis anterior c. Short/overactive hamstrings d. Short/overactive quadriceps

a. Short/overactive plantar flexors

Which of the following would be the most likely movement compensations to observe in the head, neck, and shoulder regions during an overhead squat movement assessment? Select one: a. Shoulder elevation, asymmetric CS shift, and forward head b. Shoulder external rotation, chin tuck, and thoracic extension c. Shoulder depression, chin tuck, and scapular retraction d. Shoulder hyperextension, upper CS flexion, and anterior head rotation

a. Shoulder elevation, asymmetric CS shift, and forward head

amie demonstrated a posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is an appropriate activation exercise for Jamie? Select one: a. Standing hip flexor b. Abdominal crunch on stability ball c. Wall slides d. Standing hamstring curl

a. Standing hip flexor

What is considered normal mobility in the cervical side bending test? Select one: a. The head can tilt to a 45-degree angle. b. The head can tilt to a 25-degree angle. c. The head can tilt to a 90-degree angle. d. The head should remain neutral.

a. The head can tilt to a 45-degree angle.

Why is a textured myofascial roller theorized to be more effective than a flat myofascial roller? Select one: a. The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller. b. The textured roller may roll quicker and may be generating more friction than a smooth roller. c. The textured roller was no different than the smooth roller. d. The texture roller exerts significantly more pressure to the tissue than a smooth one.

a. The textured roller may distort or "move" the tissues more than a smooth roller.

What ligament creates the carpal tunnel? Select one: a. Transverse carpal ligament b. Extensor retinaculum c. Flexor retinaculum d. Synovium

a. Transverse carpal ligament

Posture and dynamic movement assessments reveal excessive wrist flexion. What muscle group should be activated? Select one: a. Wrist extensors b. Elbow flexors c. Wrist flexors d. Elbow extensors

a. Wrist extensors

The isometric tempo should last approximately how long? Select one: a. 1 count b. 2 seconds c. 3 counts d. 4 counts

b. 2 seconds

Why might it make sense to exercise the dominate limb first before the non-dominate limb for recruitment? Select one: a. To effectively perform the exercise prior to the challenge of the non-dominate side b. A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side c. Minimize injury to the non-dominate side d. Minimize injury to the dominate side

b. A primer to better prepare the non-dominate side

What is the name given for the wrist bones collectively? Select one: a. Metacarpals b. Carpals c. Metatarsals d. Tarsals

b. Carpals

Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, standing, unilateral and bilateral exercises, help to place increased stress on what other area? Select one: a. Lats b. Core musculature c. Triceps d. Ipsilateral musculature

b. Core musculature

To help correct a client's forward head posture, the Corrective Exercise Specialist recommends that the client perform the chin tuck exercise. What primary muscle(s) are targeted when performing this exercise? Select one: a. Scalenes b. Deep cervical flexors c. Sternocleidomastoid (SCM) d. Upper trapezius

b. Deep cervical flexors

What is considered normal mobility during the shoulder flexion test? Select one: a. Elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and shoulders fully extended b. Elbows extended and arms in line with torso c. Elbows extended and shoulders fully extended d. Elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and arms in line with the torso

b. Elbows extended and arms in line with torso

According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, what action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees? Select one: a. Abduction b. External rotation c. Internal rotation d. Flexion

b. External rotation

When should the static posture assessment be conducted during an objective assessment session with a client? Select one: a. Third b. First c. Fourth d. Second

b. First

What common knee injury results from overuse and is usually caused by muscle weakness in the kinetic chain and is commonly seen in runners? Select one: a. ACL injury b. IT Band Syndrome c. Patellofemoral Syndrome d. Patellar tendinopathy

b. IT Band Syndrome

What is the key compensation to look for during a single-leg squat assessment? Select one: a. Knee dominance b. Knee valgus c. Hyperextension d. Knee varus

b. Knee valgus

For which movement impairment would one see the knees bow outward? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Knee varus c. Knee dominance d. Excessive anterior pelvic tilt

b. Knee varus

What are the two scientific theories behind myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Local blood flow changes and decreased pain b. Local mechanical and neurophysiological effect c. Reduce myofascial restriction and improve "stretch tolerance." d. Break myofascial adhesions and relax the muscle.

b. Local mechanical and neurophysiological effect

What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury? Select one: a. Short-term static stretching b. Long-term static stretching c. Long-term dynamic stretching d. Short-term neuromuscular stretching

b. Long-term static stretching

A client has been training with a fitness professional and independently consistently for over 6 months. What stage of change would he most probably be in? Select one: a. Contemplation b. Maintenance c. Termination d. Preparation

b. Maintenance

If a client has a history of ankle sprains, which assessment can be used to determine if this has negatively influenced gluteal strength? Select one: a. Static LPHC posture with feet shoulder-width apart b. Overhead squat c. Manual muscle test of the hamstrings d. Ankle mobility

b. Overhead squat

While conducting a client intake screen, Sherry noticed that her client has reported feeling sad, low energy, and irritable and has had a significant change in her nutrition habits. What is the most appropriate action for Sherry to take next? Select one: a. Make recommendations as to how to improve her mental health. b. Refer the client to a licensed mental health professional. c. Recommend medications and supplements to help Sherry feel better. d. Write a detailed nutrition plan for Sherry.

b. Refer the client to a licensed mental health professional.

The serratus anterior muscle originates and inserts on what structures? Select one: a. Posterior scapula and anterior thorax b. Rib cage and medial border of the scapula c. Posterior thorax and glenohumeral joint d. Anterior thorax and posterior thorax

b. Rib cage and medial border of the scapula

Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual's balance? Select one: a. Overhead squat b. Single-leg squat c. Standing overhead dumbbell press d. Davies test

b. Single-leg squat

If the client has an underlying medical conditions that could be a contraindication, what is the best course of action before having them use a self-myofascial roller? Select one: a. The client tries the myofascial technique for 2 weeks to see how they tolerate the intervention. b. The client should be cleared through an appropriately licensed medical professional before proceeding with any myofascial techniques. c. The fitness professional simply has the client sign a waiver prior to doing the intervention. d. The fitness professional gets clearance by their manager.

b. The client should be cleared through an appropriately licensed medical professional before proceeding with any myofascial techniques.

What is the optimal duration of stretching to decrease musculotendinous stiffness? Select one: a. 60-90 seconds b. 20-30 seconds c. 30-60 seconds d. 5-10 seconds

c. 30-60 seconds

What is the minimum duration of stretching per week for each muscle group to improve or maintain a healthy ROM? Select one: a. 15 minutes b. 10 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 30 minutes

c. 5 minutes

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture? Select one: a. Gluteus medius, adductors, and quadriceps b. Gluteus maximus, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis c. Abdominals, intercostals, internal obliques, and hip extensors d. Lumbar extensors, hip flexors, quads, and adductors

c. Abdominals, intercostals, internal obliques, and hip extensors

Which muscle should be strengthened in a fitness program for a client with a lack of lumbar stabilization? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Rectus abdominis c. Multifidus d. External obliques

c. Multifidus

Knee injuries often occur during landing and, therefore, it is important to assess if the client lacks musculoskeletal control of the lower extremity during landing if there are no compensations observed during earlier assessment. The depth jump is one such assessment. During a depth jump assessment most impairments will be observed during what phase? Select one: a. Start or take off b. Finish/landing c. Deceleration d. Jump/movement

c. Deceleration

What three methods can be used to deliver optimal movement strategies to different types of clients? Select one: a. Movement based testing, clinical gait analysis, and sports performance testing. b. Informal subjective assessments, explaining "incorrect movement", and using random online exercise routines. c. Formal assessment sessions, a "feels right" strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population. d. Performance testing, maximal strength testing, and core strengthening programs.

c. Formal assessment sessions, a "feels right" strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population.

Weaknesses in which muscle may allow over-pronation deviations in subtalar joint motion during gait? Select one: a. Peroneus longus b. Adductor complex c. Gluteus medius d. Quadriceps

c. Gluteus medius

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall lordotic posture? Select one: a. Gluteus maximus, adductors, and peroneals b. Vastus medialis, gluteus maximus, and minimus c. Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, and internal obliques (upper) d. Gluteus maximus, hamstrings, and adductors

c. Hip flexors, lumbar extensors, and internal obliques (upper)

Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements? Select one: a. Intramuscular coordination b. Multiplanar coordination c. Intermuscular coordination d. Total body coordination

c. Intermuscular coordination

Which of the following are postural distortion patterns identified by Janda? Select one: a. Military Posture, Pronator Distortion Syndrome, and Upper Distortion Syndrome b. Kyphosis-lordosis, sway-back, pronator lordosis, and Lower Distortion Syndrome c. Lower Crossed Syndrome (A & B), Upper Crossed Syndrome, and Layered Crossed Syndrome d. Kyphosis-lordosis, flat-back, and Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome

c. Lower Crossed Syndrome (A & B), Upper Crossed Syndrome, and Layered Crossed Syndrome

What is the recommended client position when performing the passive hip internal rotation test? Select one: a. Standing with knees straight and feet in a comfortable position b. Lying supine on a table c. Lying prone on the table with legs together d. Standing with knees straight and feet shoulder-width apart

c. Lying prone on the table with legs together

During a session, a Corrective Exercise Specialist notices hyperkyphosis of the thoracic spine. What technique would improve the resultant neck and shoulder position? Select one: a. Bench press b. Subscapularis/teres major isolated strengthening c. Mobilize the thoracic spine with a foam roller and stretch the pectoralis group. d. Push-ups

c. Mobilize the thoracic spine with a foam roller and stretch the pectoralis group.

Which modality creates a tangential shearing or wringing-towel effect by creating compression around the muscle group and then adding movements to improve mobility? Select one: a. Cupping b. Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization (IASTM) c. Myofascial flossing d. Myofascial rolling

c. Myofascial flossing

What are the six dimensions of wellness as defined by the National Wellness Institute? Select one: a. Rest, recovery, refuel, sleep, psychological relaxation, and regeneration b. Muscle strength, muscle endurance, flexibility, joint mobility, cardiovascular, and speed c. Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional d. Muscle strength, rest, flexibility, sleep, cardiovascular, and joint mobility

c. Occupational, physical, social, intellectual, spiritual, and emotional

Limited dynamic postural control, core muscle strength, and core muscle endurance are all significant risk factors for the development of which type of injury in the lower extremity? Select one: a. Compression b. Inflammatory c. Overuse d. Atrophy

c. Overuse

What term is used to describe reduced neural drive to an antagonist muscle when an agonist muscle contracts? Select one: a. Cross-bridging b. Muscle imbalance c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Sensorimotor integration

c. Reciprocal inhibition

Which of the following represents a common static posture finding indicating potential dysfunction at the cervical spine? Select one: a. Arms fall forward b. Limited cervical flexion ROM c. Shoulders rounded forward d. Excessive cervical extension

c. Shoulders rounded forward

Performing a walking pattern with or without resistance is an example of activation for which subsystem? Select one: a. Anterior oblique b. Lateral c. Posterior oblique d. Deep longitudinal

d. Deep longitudinal

Which group of muscles in the feet are considered stabilizers? Select one: a. Extrinsic muscles b. External muscles c. Invertor muscles d. Intrinsic muscles

d. Intrinsic muscles

Peter, a Corrective Exercise Specialist, has completed his assessment of a new client who demonstrated non-neutral wrist during her assessment. He's completed Phases 1-3 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum, what should be his next exercise with his client? Select one: a. Standing triceps push down b. Military shoulder press c. Seated dumbbell wrist flexion d. Inverted row

d. Inverted row

Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client? Select one: a. It is a series of subjective questions that relate to lifestyle, occupation, and past medical history. b. It is a questionnaire used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity. c. It outlines the procedures and actions professionals are permitted to administer in accordance with the law. d. It outlines general information and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process.

d. It outlines general information and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process.

Which of the following tissues that surround the spine limit intersegmental motion, maintain the integrity of the lumbar spine, and may fail when proper motion cannot be created, proper posture cannot be maintained, or excessive motion cannot be resisted by the surrounding musculature? Select one: a. Laminar groove b. Muscles c. Tendons d. Ligaments

d. Ligaments

Subjects with which of the following issues have been reported to demonstrate impaired postural control, delayed muscle relaxation, abnormal muscle recruitment patterns, and notably diminished transverse abdominis and multifidus activation? Select one: a. Posterior pelvic tilt b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Herniated disc d. Low-back pain

d. Low-back pain

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Upper trapezius c. Cervical extensors d. Lower trapezius

d. Lower trapezius

What term is used to describe how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences? Select one: a. Motor development b. Motor behavior c. Motor learning d. Motor control

d. Motor control

Clients with overt static postural distortions can be assumed to have impairments during which other type of assessment? Select one: a. Cardiovascular b. Subjective c. Strength d. Movement

d. Movement

What is defined as the Human Movement System's relative ability to produce, reduce, and dynamically stabilize forces in all three planes of motion? Select one: a. Movement compensation b. Internal feedback c. Joint motion d. Neuromuscular efficiency

d. Neuromuscular efficiency

Which of the following statements describes the easiest method to assess one's hydration status? Select one: a. Get medically tested. b. Measure the sweat rate. c. Calculate daily calories. d. Observe urine color.

d. Observe urine color.

In which component of a client intake screen would the question, "Do you feel like your work day is mentally stressful?" be most appropriate to ask? Select one: a. Biometrics b. Medical history c. Lifestyle d. Occupation

d. Occupation

When one or both ilia are irregularly rotated, showing altered movement in the Human Movement System during standing or sitting, it is referred to as which of the following? Select one: a. Anterior rotation b. Lateral tilt c. Posterior rotation d. Pelvic asymmetry

d. Pelvic asymmetry

According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank? Select one: a. Isometric ankle plantarflexion b. Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades c. Relaxing the hip musculature d. Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

d. Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

What is the recommended composition and timing for a post-exercise meal for the endurance athlete? Select one: a. Quality high fat proteins and fiber, 1 hour after exercise. b. Quality fruits and vegetables, 30 minutes after exercise. c. Quality high-fat food and low carbohydrates, 3 hours after exercise. d. Quality carbohydrates and lean protein, 2 hours after exercise.

d. Quality carbohydrates and lean protein, 2 hours after exercise.

What is the tradeoff for enhanced mobility in the glenohumeral joint structure? Select one: a. Increased stability b. Increased strength c. Reduced strength d. Reduced stability

d. Reduced stability

The heels elevated modification of the overhead squat assessment places the ankle in a plantarflexed position. How may this effect the squat? Select one: a. Causes the client to adopt a posterior pelvic tilt b. Allows the client to keep the knees behind the toes c. Causes the client to lean forward d. Reduces the influence of the foot and ankle complex on the squat movement

d. Reduces the influence of the foot and ankle complex on the squat movement

Dysfunction in intrinsic core stabilizers (transverse abdominis and multifidus) can result in which of the following? Select one: a. Increased intersegmental stability. b. Reduced force generation during movement. c. Reduced ability to transfer forces from the lower extremity to the lumbo-pelvic region. d. SIJ instability and low back pain

d. SIJ instability and low back pain

If a client cannot complete a single-leg squat without difficulty, what modification provides more stability but also more insight into unilateral compensations? Select one: a. Goblet squat b. Overhead squat with heel lift c. Overhead squat d. Split squat

d. Split squat

Which movement assessment utilizes dumbbells to assess a vertical pushing movement? Select one: a. Standing push assessment b. Standing pull assessment c. Davies test d. Standing overhead press

d. Standing overhead press

The anterior side of the scapula (subscapular fossa) is designed to house which muscle of the rotator cuff? Select one: a. Teres minor b. Infraspinatus c. Supraspinatus d. Subscapularis

d. Subscapularis

Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type functional movement pattern? Select one: a. Length-tension b. Cooperative c. Force-couple d. Synergistic

d. Synergistic

What is the most appropriate term for a overuse injury to a tendon? Select one: a. Tendinitis b. Strain c. Sprain d. Tendinopathy

d. Tendinopathy

What is the name of the condition in which pain in the cervical spine is caused by looking down at a cell phone for prolonged periods of time? Select one: a. Deep flexor dysfunction b. AC impingement c. TMJ disorder d. Text neck

d. Text neck

During the static postural assessment, a client demonstrates forward head posture. What compensation in the cervical spine is most likely to occur when this individual performs an overhead squat? Select one: a. The client's upper CS will flex and their lower CS will flex. b. The client's upper CS will rotate and their lower CS will hyperextend. c. The client's upper CS will sidebend and their lower CS will hyperextend. d. The client's upper CS will hyperextend and their lower CS will flex.

d. The client's upper CS will hyperextend and their lower CS will flex.

A new client, Tommy, is just learning to use the myofascial roller. He asks how much pain should be felt while performing Step 1 of the myofascial rolling program. What is the best response? Select one: a. There should be maximal discomfort. b. There should be no discomfort. c. Instruct Tommy to hold his breath and apply as much pressure as tolerable to the roller. d. There should be some discomfort, but he should be able to relax and breathe.

d. There should be some discomfort, but he should be able to relax and breathe.

Recent research has found which of the following regarding the use of wobble boards, soft mats, and air-filled bladders? Select one: a. They may decrease joint stiffness. b. They are ideal for producing power. c. They are ideal for producing strength. d. They may increase motor control.

d. They may increase motor control.

In which order of the Corrective Exercise Continuum does activation occur? Select one: a. Fourth b. Second c. First d. Third

d. Third

Which of the following represent the correct steps, in the correct order, for the recovery planning process? Select one: a. Perform the Overhead Squat Assessment, perform performance testing, and design an exercise plan. b. Consult a medical doctor for clearance, complete the Par-Q+, and perform fitness assessments. c. Uncover medical history, perform physiological assessments, and perform movement testing. d. Use the recovery questionnaire, develop a recovery plan, and implement the plan.

d. Use the recovery questionnaire, develop a recovery plan, and implement the plan.

When is a client considered to have normal ankle dorsiflexion mobility? Select one: a. When the rear leg fully extends during the weight-bearing lunge test b. When the knee stays behind the toe during the weight-bearing lunge test c. When they keep their ankles in chronic plantarflexion d. When the knee is able to touch the wall during the weight-bearing lunge test

d. When the knee is able to touch the wall during the weight-bearing lunge test