NASM CES test preparation

What is the minimum typical duration of acute static stretching per muscle group in isolation (no dynamic warm-up activities) that would lead to performance impairments? Select one: a. 120 seconds b. 60 seconds c. 20 seconds d. 30 seconds

60 seconds

Which of the following is the best definition for the term recovery? Select one: a. A between-exercise process where the body and brain require adequate rest in order to prepare for next day of training or competition. b. A pre-exercise process where the body requires an adequate warm-up and energy drink in order to prepare for upcoming training or competition. c. A post-exercise process where the brain requires additional glucose to regenerate in order to prepare for same-day competition. d. A post-exercise process where the body and brain require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training or competition.

A post-exercise process where the body and brain require replenishment and rejuvenation in order to prepare for upcoming training or competition.

Overactivity in which muscles contributes to forward head posture? Select one: a. Adductor magnus, hamstring complex, and piriformis b. Levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and upper trapezius c. Cervical extensors, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, upper trapezius d. Psoas, TFL, latissimus dorsi, adductors, rectus femoris, and spinal extensor complex

Cervical extensors, levator scapulae, sternocleidomastoid, upper trapezius

What assessment collects valuable subjective information and identifies "red flags" that may be the first glimpse at potential movement impairments? Select one: a. Client Intake Screen b. Mobility Assessment c. Overhead Squat Assessment d. Static posture assessment

Client Intake Screen

A client with an Achilles tendon injury would be expected to have weakness in which of the following muscles? Select one: a. Gastrocnemius b. Anterior tibialis c. Posterior tibialis d. Hamstrings

Gastrocnemius

Performing a walking pattern with or without resistance is an example of activation for which subsystem? Select one: a. Anterior oblique b. Lateral c. Posterior oblique d. Deep longitudinal

Deep longitudinal

Which global subsystem stabilizes the sacroiliac joint and is activated in part by the biceps femoris, increasing tension on the sacrotuberous ligament? Select one: a. Posterior oblique b. Lateral c. Anterior oblique d. Deep longitudinal

Deep longitudinal

Which phase of the muscle action spectrum is the slowest during corrective exercise? Select one: a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric d. Amortization

Eccentric

What is considered normal mobility during the shoulder flexion test? Select one: a. Elbows extended and arms in line with torso b. Elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and shoulders fully extended c. Elbows extended and shoulders fully extended d. Elbows flexed to a 90-degree angle and arms in line with the torso

Elbows extended and arms in line with torso

For which movement impairment would one see the arch of the foot collapse or malalignment of the Achilles tendon? Select one: a. Heel raise b. Feet turn out c. Asymmetrical weight shift d. Excessive pronation

Excessive pronation

Lengthening of the biceps is most effective with which shoulder position? Select one: a. Extension b. External rotation c. Internal rotation d. Flexion

Extension

According to the Screw-Home Mechanism, in an open-chain position and as the knee extends, what action best describes the motion of the tibia on the femur during the last 30 degrees? Select one: a. External rotation b. Abduction c. Flexion d. Internal rotation

External rotation

Jenny, a client, was diagnosed with fibromyalgia 6 months ago. She wants to begin a stretching program. What are the considerations before starting a program with her? Select one: a. Fibromyalgia effects the myofascia. Neuromuscular stretching should not be done. b. Fibromyalgia is considered a precaution and stretching should be done with caution. c. Fibromyalgia results in muscle tightness. Aggressive stretching should be done. d. Fibromyalgia is consider a chronic pain condition. Ballistic stretching should not be done.

Fibromyalgia is considered a precaution and stretching should be done with caution.

Matt presented with a knee valgus compensation that did not improve with a heel lift on the OHS assessment. What two muscles should be addressed as a key part of the activation exercises of Matt's corrective exercise program? Select one: a. Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus b. Gastrocnemius and soleus c. TFL/IT band d. Biceps femoris

Gluteus medius and gluteus maximus

Which activities are most commonly related to habitual repetitive movement? Select one: a. Having an appendix removed. b. Sitting at a desk every day. c. Golfing multiple days per week. d. Spraining an ankle while running.

Golfing multiple days per week.

What is a common neurophysiological effect that myofascial rolling creates for tissue relaxation? Select one: a. Greater myofascial relaxation or "stretch tolerance" b. Increased myofascial adhesions c. Decreased blood flow to the myofascia d. Increased viscosity in the myofascia

Greater myofascial relaxation or "stretch tolerance"

What position is recommended for the testing leg during the hip abduction and external rotation test? Select one: a. Hip and knee bent to 0 degrees b. Hip and knee bent to 120 degrees c. Hip and knee bent to 45 degrees d. Hip and knee bent to 90 degrees

Hip and knee bent to 45 degrees

Foam rolling the posterior adductor magnus and hamstring complex helps to reduce tension in the tissues allowing for appropriate levels of which joint action to be achieved? Select one: a. Hip adduction b. Knee flexion c. Hip extension d. Hip flexion

Hip flexion

What three factors optimally influence an individual's success with muscle hypertrophy and strength improvements? Select one: a. Blood iron levels, proper recovery, and hydration b. Adequate sleep, low stress, and mindful meditation c. Hormone levels, a properly designed resistance training program, and consumption of the right food d. Blood glucose levels, a proper cardiovascular program, and proper recovery

Hormone levels, a properly designed resistance training program, and consumption of the right food

Georgia has completed Phases 1 and 2 of the Corrective Exercise Continuum for forward head posture. Which of the following is most appropriate activation exercise for her? Select one: a. Ball roll-outs b. Incline dumbbell scaption c. Squat to row d. Ball combo 1

Incline dumbbell scaption

Which is an abnormal movement associated with a seven-fold increase in ankle sprains? Select one: a. Increased spinal rigid b. Increased postural sway c. Increased knee extension movement d. Increased knee flexion movement

Increased postural sway

Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements? Select one: a. Intramuscular coordination b. Multiplanar coordination c. Intermuscular coordination d. Total body coordination

Intermuscular coordination

Rearfoot pronation or eversion is associated with what coupled motion? Select one: a. Ankle plantarflexion b. Subtalar joint inversion c. External fibula rotation d. Internal tibial rotation

Internal tibial rotation

What type of myofascial intervention is Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization? Select one: a. It is a myofascial technique that is considered part of acupuncture and cupping. b. It is a specialized technique that uses instruments to provide a mobilizing effect on the myofascia. c. It is a type of stretching technique that improves myofascial mobility. d. It is a type of myofascial rolling technique administered by the fitness professional.

It is a specialized technique that uses instruments to provide a mobilizing effect on the myofascia.

Which statement most accurately defines an informed consent agreement with a corrective exercise client? Select one: a. It outlines the procedures and actions professionals are permitted to administer in accordance with the law. b. It is a questionnaire used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity. c. It outlines general information and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process. d. It is a series of subjective questions that relate to lifestyle, occupation, and past medical history.

It outlines general information and associated risks involved with the corrective exercise process.

During a movement assessment, if the foot over-supinates, what compensation would one observe? Select one: a. Knee varus b. Knee dominance c. Knee valgus d. Hyperextension

Knee varus

Which best describes the recommended knee position during the lumbar flexion test? Select one: a. Knees slightly flexed b. Knees straight c. Knees in a comfortable position d. Knees completely flexed

Knees straight

What term is used to describe the form of feedback whereby a fitness professional notes abnormal movement during a squat and asks the client if they felt or saw anything abnormal? Select one: a. Internal feedback b. Sensorimotor integration c. Knowledge of performance d. Knowledge of results

Knowledge of performance

Most ankle sprains occur at which aspect of the ankle? Select one: a. Anterior b. Medial c. Lateral d. Posterior

Lateral

Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance while doing which of the following? Select one: a. Shortening b. Lengthening c. Stabilizing d. Perturbating

Lengthening

Which movement assessment utilizes bands or a cable machine to assess horizontal pushing capabilities? Select one: a. Davies test b. Standing overhead press c. Loaded push assessment d. Standing pull assessment

Loaded push assessment

What are the two scientific theories behind myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Reduce myofascial restriction and improve "stretch tolerance." b. Break myofascial adhesions and relax the muscle. c. Local blood flow changes and decreased pain d. Local mechanical and neurophysiological effect

Local mechanical and neurophysiological effect

What type of stretching can lead to decreased incidences of muscle and tendon injury? Select one: a. Long-term dynamic stretching b. Long-term static stretching c. Short-term neuromuscular stretching d. Short-term static stretching

Long-term static stretching

In an OHSA, tightness in hip flexors, erector spinae, and latissimus dorsi will most likely contribute to which movement dysfunction? Select one: a. Knees cave in b. Low-back arch c. Feet turn out d. Excessive forward lean

Low-back arch

What term is used to describe how the CNS integrates sensory information with previous experiences? Select one: a. Motor control b. Motor behavior c. Motor learning d. Motor development

Motor control

What term defines the cumulative change in motor behavior over a person's entire lifetime? Select one: a. Sensory information b. Proprioception c. Motor learning d. Motor development

Motor development

Which modality creates a tangential shearing or wringing-towel effect by creating compression around the muscle group and then adding movements to improve mobility? Select one: a. Myofascial rolling b. Instrument-Assisted Soft Tissue Mobilization (IASTM) c. Cupping d. Myofascial flossing

Myofascial flossing

What is the anatomic action of the longus capitus and longus colli muscles? Select one: a. Sidebending of the cervical spine b. Rotation of the cervical spine c. Nodding of the chin d. Extension of the cervical spine

Nodding of the chin

Orthotics are typically used to control which foot type? Select one: a. Over-pronated b. Over-supinated c. Any foot type d. Neutral foot

Over-pronated

If a client has a history of ankle sprains, which assessment can be used to determine if this has negatively influenced gluteal strength? Select one: a. Manual muscle test of the hamstrings b. Static LPHC posture with feet shoulder-width apart c. Ankle mobility d. Overhead squat

Overhead squat

Knee valgus and varus, an increased Q angle, poor quadriceps and hamstrings flexibility, poor eccentric deceleration capabilities, and playing on hard surfaces are all risk factors for developing what common knee injury? Select one: a. IT Band Syndrome b. ACL injury c. Patellofemoral Syndrome d. Patellar tendinopathy

Patellar tendinopathy

Which of the following best describes how to introduce tissue movement with the myofascial roller? Select one: a. Roll in a slow continuous motion for 60 seconds b. Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure. c. Perform passive movements such as trainer assisted flexion/extension while maintaining pressure. d. Perform quick active movements while continuously rolling back and forth on the target tissue.

Perform active movements such as flexion/extension while maintaining pressure.

According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank? Select one: a. Performing a posterior pelvic tilt b. Relaxing the hip musculature c. Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades d. Isometric ankle plantarflexion

Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome can lead to the following injuries? Select one: a. Metatarsal stress fractures, femur fractures, and quadriceps strains b. Hip flexor strain, IT band friction syndrome, hamstring strains, and Achilles tendonitis c. Plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low-back pain d. Hip bursitis, hamstring strains, Achilles tendonitis, and ankle arthritis

Plantar fasciitis, medial tibial stress syndrome (shin splints), patellar tendonitis, and low-back pain

Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to excessive pronation during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Peroneals complex b. TFL c. Posterior tibialis d. Hamstrings complex

Posterior tibialis

Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following? Select one: a. Preferential activation b. Isometric activation c. Positional activation d. Ideal activation

Preferential activation

What's the most appropriate muscle to inhibit if a client demonstrates heel rise during assessment? Select one: a. TFL b. Quadriceps c. Gluteus medius d. Anterior tibialis

Quadriceps

Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee extension during the modified Thomas test? Select one: a. Rectus femoris b. Biceps femoris c. Psoas d. TFL

Rectus femoris

The Kendall flat-back posture presents with which of the following static positions in the lower body? Select one: a. Excessive lumbar shift, anterior pelvic tilt, flexed hips, and valgus knees b. Excessive lumbar lordosis, tilted pelvis, and internally rotated hips and knees c. Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, and flexed hips and knees d. Reduced lumbar lordosis, posterior tilted pelvis, and extended hips and knees

Reduced lumbar lordosis, posterior tilted pelvis, and extended hips and knees

Which of the following best define the concept of regeneration within the recovery strategy framework? Select one: a. Regeneration is the processes of post-training nutrition to recover from repetitive exercise. b. Regeneration of the process of pre-training hydration and rest to maintain optimal recovery from strenuous exercise. c. Regeneration is the cumulative amount of sleep needed to maintain optimal energy levels. d. Regeneration is the cumulative process of pre- and post-training routines to maintain optimal movement efficiency.

Regeneration is the cumulative process of pre- and post-training routines to maintain optimal movement efficiency.

Recent research pointed out that potential precautions and contraindications for myofascial rolling have not been thoroughly documented. Therefore, precautions and contraindications have been taken from which of the following? Select one: a. Myofascial rolling literature specific to the medical profession b. Related myofascial therapies c. Leading medical textbooks d. Leading medical experts

Related myofascial therapies

What are the common neurophysiological mechanisms of myofascial rolling that result in decreased pain? Select one: a. Roller pressure may create greater myofascial relaxation or "stretch tolerance" through central nervous system (CNS) afferent input from the Golgi tendon reflex, gamma loop modulation, and mechanoreceptors. b. Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptive pathways (gate theory of pain), and descending anti-nociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control) c. Roller pressure may increase viscosity, decrease pain, increase myofascial restriction, and decrease fluid changes. d. Roller pressure may increase viscosity, create myofascial restriction, increase pain, and increase cellular responses.

Roller pressure may modulate pain through stimulation of muscle and cutaneous receptors, afferent central nociceptive pathways (gate theory of pain), and descending anti-nociceptive pathways (diffuse noxious inhibitory control)

A client presents with excessive elbow flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good choice to start the corrective exercise process? Select one: a. SMR the wrist extensors b. Lengthen the triceps c. SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis d. isolate the wrist flexor

SMR the bicep brachii and brachialis

What process describes the ability of the CNS to interpret sensory information as needed to execute the proper motor response? Select one: a. Augmented feedback b. Knowledge of performance c. Sensorimotor integration d. Muscle synergy

Sensorimotor integration

Which is a common cause of limited ankle dorsiflexion? Select one: a. Short/overactive tibialis anterior b. Short/overactive plantar flexors c. Short/overactive quadriceps d. Short/overactive hamstrings

Short/overactive plantar flexors

A client has demonstrated feet turn out during assessment. Which of the following integrate exercises is most appropriate for a beginner client? Select one: a. Short foot b. Step-up to balance c. Single-leg squat d. Single-leg balance

Single-leg balance

The fitness professional uses activations to provide strength to muscles that lack the ability to appropriately eccentrically decelerate unwanted joint actions and do what else? Select one: a. Alleviate joint pain b. Concentrically accelerate unwanted movement c. Stabilize unwanted movement d. Maximize force productio

Stabilize unwanted movement

A client presents with excessive wrist flexion during the assessment process. What activity would be a good next choice activity after inhibiting the wrist flexors? Select one: a. Inhibit the triceps b. Stretch the wrist extensors c. Stretch the wrist flexors d. Inhibit the wrist extensors

Stretch the wrist flexors

When performing a static postural assessment on a client, the fitness professional notes that the client demonstrates a forward head posture. What muscle group is most likely shortened and overactive? Select one: a. Thoracic erector spinae b. Rhomboids c. Deep cervical flexors d. Suboccipitals

Suboccipitals

Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type functional movement pattern? Select one: a. Force-couple b. Synergistic c. Cooperative d. Length-tension

Synergistic

What is the long-term impact that repeated heavy lifting can have on the kinetic chain? Select one: a. Shoulder impingement b. Synergistic dominance c. Overpronation of the feet d. Breathing Pattern Dysfunction

Synergistic dominance

Which muscle is thought to be overactive/shortened if the client demonstrates knee abduction during the modified Thomas test? Select one: a. Piriformis b. TFL c. Psoas d. Rectus femoris

TFL

What is an effective tool to help understand a client's willingness to create behavior change in their workout routine? Select one: a. Perform an accurate fitness assessment. b. Consult the client's doctor for more information. c. Review the SMART goals monthly. d. The Transtheoretical Model of Change

The Transtheoretical Model of Change

What would occur if the resting length of a muscle is shorter than it should be? Select one: a. Length tension relationships will be normal. b. The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is increased. c. Force output is increased. d. The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced.

The amount of available actin on myosin cross-bridging is reduced.

If wrist extension is limited with elbow flexion, one can assume the limitation is coming from which structure(s)? Select one: a. Brachialis b. Wrist joint c. Triceps d. Biceps brachii

Wrist joint

What are the key components of the Cumulative Injury Cycle? Select one: a. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions b. Adhesion, dysfunction, and surgery c. Muscle spasms, compensation, and injury d. Synergistic dominance and movement impairments

Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions

What is the most appropriate duration for a dynamic stretching warm-up? Select one: a. 30 seconds to 1 minute b. Less than or equal to 30 seconds c. Up to 90 seconds d. Less than or equal to 60 seconds

Up to 90 seconds

During the static postural assessment, a client demonstrates forward head posture. What compensation in the cervical spine is most likely to occur when this individual performs an overhead squat? Select one: a. The client's upper CS will rotate and their lower CS will hyperextend. b. The client's upper CS will flex and their lower CS will flex. c. The client's upper CS will hyperextend and their lower CS will flex. d. The client's upper CS will sidebend and their lower CS will hyperextend.

The client's upper CS will hyperextend and their lower CS will flex.

What best describes a closed-packed position of the shoulder? Select one: a. The glenohumeral joint has full internal rotation and adduction. b. The glenohumeral joint has full internal rotation and 90 degrees of adduction. c. The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full internal rotation. d. The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation.

The glenohumeral joint is at 90 degrees of abduction and full external rotation.

Which of the Janda syndromes has both an A and B designation? Select one: a. Lower Crossed Syndrome b. Layered Crossed Syndrome c. Upper Crossed Syndrome d. Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome

Lower Crossed Syndrome

What is the minimum duration of stretching per week for each muscle group to improve or maintain a healthy ROM? Select one: a. 15 minutes b. 30 minutes c. 10 minutes d. 5 minutes

5 minutes

It is recommended that adults sleep how many hours a night? Select one: a. 6 to 8 hours a night b. 10 to 11 hours c. 8 to 10 hours d. 7 to 9 hours

7 to 9 hours

Programming by the fitness professional that focuses on improving movement dysfunction such as excessive knee valgus, knee rotation, hip adduction and hip rotation; improving single-leg neuromuscular balance; and improving muscle strength can help reduce the risk of what severe knee injury? Select one: a. Patellar tendinopathy b. Patellofemoral Syndrome c. ACL tear/rupture d. IT Band Syndrome

ACL tear/rupture

Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture? Select one: a. Gluteus medius, adductors, and quadriceps b. Gluteus maximus, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis c. Lumbar extensors, hip flexors, quads, and adductors d. Abdominals, intercostals, internal obliques, and hip extensors

Abdominals, intercostals, internal obliques, and hip extensors

A client that presents with over-pronation and limited ankle mobility is at risk for which injury or condition? Select one: a. Knee valgus b. Knee varus c. Achilles tendinopathy d. Over-pronation and limited ankle mobility are only linked to positions not conditions or injuries.

Achilles tendinopathy

What type of stretching involves a 2-second static stretch with a contraction of the antagonist muscle to induce reciprocal inhibition? Select one: a. Static b. Dynamic c. Active d. Ballistic

Active

What best describes an eccentric action of the posterior tibialis? Select one: a. Decelerates ankle dorsiflexion and inversion b. Ankle dorsiflexion and eversion c. Stabilization of the foot and ankle complex d. Ankle plantar flexion and inversion

Ankle dorsiflexion and eversion

Lower Crossed Syndrome A and B both contain which of the following observable body positions? Select one: a. Excessive lumbar lordosis b. Knee hyperextension c. Posterior tilted pelvis d. Anterior tilted pelvis

Anterior tilted pelvis

What type of muscle contractions are common during the jumping phase of the depth jump? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Isokinetic c. Concentric d. Isometric

Concentric

Which term best describes the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow for the full range of motion of a joint? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Contractility c. Elasticity d. Mobility

Flexibility

What three methods can be used to deliver optimal movement strategies to different types of clients? Select one: a. Movement based testing, clinical gait analysis, and sports performance testing. b. Performance testing, maximal strength testing, and core strengthening programs. c. Informal subjective assessments, explaining "incorrect movement", and using random online exercise routines. d. Formal assessment sessions, a "feels right" strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population.

Formal assessment sessions, a "feels right" strategy, and pre-formatted routines that are effective for the general population.

The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from which of the following? Select one: a. Kendall's postures b. Janda's syndromes c. Clark's models d. Mennell's truisms

Mennell's truisms

A client presents with the Janda Upper Crossed Syndrome. Which muscles are commonly underactive/lengthened? Select one: a. Pectorals, biceps, triceps, and levator scapulae b. Pectorals, scalenes, cervical extensors, and biceps c. Pectorals, upper trapezius, levator scapulae, and cervical extensors d. Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior

Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, and serratus anterior

Which term best describes the entire available motion at a joint as well as the body's neuromuscular control during motion? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Extensibility c. Mobility d. Pliability

Mobility

What muscle changes may occur as a result of a chronically inhibited neural drive? Select one: a. Force production is increased as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive. b. The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a lengthened state. c. Force production is reduced as a result of the inhibited muscle being overactive. d. The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a shortened state.

The muscle on the opposing side of the joint would pull it into a lengthened state.

What compensatory movements create an excessive posterior pelvic tilt? Select one: a. The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion. b. The knees bowing outward. c. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes. d. The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension.

The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion.

Recent research has found which of the following regarding the use of wobble boards, soft mats, and air-filled bladders? Select one: a. They may decrease joint stiffness. b. They may increase motor control. c. They are ideal for producing power. d. They are ideal for producing strength.

They may increase motor control.

What is the most common reason for compensations during gait observed during late midstance? Select one: a. This the point when maximum ankle plantar flexion is required. b. This is the point when maximum ankle mobility is required. c. This is the point of maximum impact forces. d. This is the point of maximum foot stability.

This is the point when maximum ankle mobility is required.

Which of the following represent the correct steps, in the correct order, for the recovery planning process? Select one: a. Perform the Overhead Squat Assessment, perform performance testing, and design an exercise plan. b. Consult a medical doctor for clearance, complete the Par-Q+, and perform fitness assessments. c. Use the recovery questionnaire, develop a recovery plan, and implement the plan. d. Uncover medical history, perform physiological assessments, and perform movement testing.

Use the recovery questionnaire, develop a recovery plan, and implement the plan.

If a client demonstrates feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment that was corrected with the heels elevated modification, what is the most appropriate next step? Select one: a. Weight-bearing lunge test b. Supine FABER test c. Ankle plantar flexion test d. Knee flexion test

Weight-bearing lunge test

Posture and dynamic movement assessments reveal excessive wrist flexion. What muscle group should be activated? Select one: a. Elbow extensors b. Wrist flexors c. Elbow flexors d. Wrist extensors

Wrist extensors

Posture and dynamic movement assessments reveal excessive wrist flexion. What muscle group should be activated? Select one: a. Elbow flexors b. Elbow extensors c. Wrist flexors d. Wrist extensors

Wrist extensors