NASM missed questions

What are the three categories within the lipid family? Select one: a. Saturated, unsaturated, and hydrogenated fats b. Cholesterol, omega-3s, and omega-6s c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols d. Saturated fat, unsaturated fat, and cholesterol

c. Triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols

Stage 3 balance exercise should include what types of motion? Select one: a. Little motion b. Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing c. Moving only the balance leg through a full range of motion d. No motion

Hopping motions with a single-leg stance landing

What is the fibrous tissue that connects bone to bone? Select one: a. Ligament b. Elastin c. Collagen d. Tendon

Ligament

Which subsystem is responsible for providing both frontal plane mobility and stabilization of the lumbo-pelvic-hip complex? Select one: a. Lateral subsystem b. Deep longitudinal subsystem c. Posterior oblique subsystem d. Anterior oblique subsystem

a. Lateral subsystem

Which of the following is the best example of a complete protein source? Select one: a. Beans b. Dairy foods c. Grains d. Legumes

b. Dairy foods

For which of the following populations is the floor bridge exercise contraindicated? Select one: a. Youth clients between the ages of 4 and 8, in whom growth plates are not fused b. Clients with an underactive gluteal complex c. Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy d. Clients with no comorbidities but who sit for extended periods of time

c. Clients who are in the third trimester of pregnancy

What phase of the OPT model aims to increase growth of muscles to maximal levels? Select one: a. Strength Endurance b. Maximal Strength c. Muscular Development d. Stabilization Endurance

c. Muscular Development

Training power for 2 days before moving on to 2 days of strength training would be an example of what kind of periodization? Select one: a. Direct periodization b. Linear periodization c. Undulating periodization d. Localized periodization

c. Undulating periodization

Loaded movement training is best achieved with which training modality? Select one: a. Dumbbells b. Strength machines c. ViPR d. Suspended bodyweight training

c. ViPR

A client has thoughts that they cannot exercise on their own, that they look silly doing it, and that other people are watching them. They believe these thoughts to be true. What is occurring? Select one: a. Acceptance b. Reverse listing c. Stopping d. Cognitive fusion

d. Cognitive fusion

Resistance band exercises are best utilized in which phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phase 1 and Phase 4 b. Phases 3 and 4 c. Phase 2 and 3 d. Phase 2 and 5

d. Phase 2 and 5

Why is nonexercise activity thermogenesis (NEAT) important? Select one: a. NEAT can increase muscle mass. b. NEAT can increase cardiorespiratory fitness. c. NEAT can decrease the resting metabolic rate. d. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

d. NEAT can be protective against obesity.

Which source of social support for exercise is the most influential for children and adolescents? Select one: a. The community b. Exercise groups c. Peers d. Parents

d. Parents

What is it called when a ligament is overstretched or torn? Select one: a. A strain b. A pull c. A twist d. A sprain

A sprain

According to the text, what percentage of Americans older than the age of 20 years are either overweight or obese? Select one: a. 0.92 b. 0.72 c. 0.62 d. 0.22

0.72

How much fluid is recommended for rehydration after an intense training session or event? Select one: a. Twice the amount of body weight lost during the activity b. 2 to 3 liters of fluid c. 12 to 15 ounces of fluid d. 1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

1.25 times the amount of body weight lost during the activity

What is the corresponding heart rate for an intensity scored as 14 on the original Borg 6 to 20 scale of exertion? Select one: a. 120 beats per minute b. Unable to estimate because the Borg 6 to 20 scale applies only to vigorous exercise c. 140 beats per minute d. Unable to estimate because RPE does not correlate with heart rate

140 beats per minute

What is the acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat in the diet? Select one: a. 5 to 20% of total calories b. 45 to 65% of total calories c. 10 to 35% of total calories d. 20 to 35% of total calories

20 to 35% of total calories

Which of the following statements describes the abdominal skinfold location? Select one: a. A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) b. A horizontal skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button) c. A vertical skinfold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line) d. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line

A vertical skinfold taken 1 inch lateral to the umbilicus (belly button)

At what age is total peak bone mass reached? Select one: a. 18 b. 30 c. 35 d. 25

30

How many calories are in 1 gram of protein? Select one: a. 4 b. 2 c. 6 d. 9

4

What is a key characteristic of plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Stabilization of the LPHC b. Slow and controlled movements c. A faster tempo, similar to daily life d. Use of heavy weights

A faster tempo, similar to daily life

You are working with an intermediate client on SAQ drills. From the choices provided, what would be the best choice for drills per session? Select one: a. 2 to 4 drills b. 9 or 10 drills c. 6 to 8 drills d. 4 to 5 drills

6 to 8 drills

What is the sufficient recovery time that is generally needed between plyometric exercises during a workout? Select one: a. 0 seconds b. 5 minutes c. 60 to 120 seconds d. 30 seconds

60 to 120 seconds

Movements that take place within a joint and are not visible to the human eye may be classified in what way? Select one: a. Arthrokinematic b. Posterior c. Osteokinematic d. Anterior

Arthrokinematic

From the choices provided, what would be most recommended for SAQ drills per session with beginner clients? Select one: a. 4 to 6 drills b. 1 or 2 drills c. 7 to 9 drills d. 9 or 10 drills

a. 4 to 6 drills

What percentage of alpha-linolenic acid (ALA) converts to a biologically available form called eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA)? Select one: a. About 30% b. About 50% c. About 5-15% d. About 90%

About 5-15%

Which of the following is a ketone body? Select one: a. Pyruvate b. Acetoacetic acid c. Glycogen d. Lactic acid

Acetoacetic acid

Which of the following is a component of quickness training? Select one: a. Assessment of visual stimuli b. Stride rate c. Acceleration d. Speed

Assessment of visual stimuli

During a squat, the lowering phase would be described as what type of muscle action? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Isokinetic d. Isometric

a. Eccentric

Which of the following is an example of an exercise that targets the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Medicine ball overhead throw b. Plank c. Back extension d. Dead bug

Back extension

Which skinfold sites are measured if determining body composition via the Durnin-Womersley protocol? Select one: a. Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac b. Triceps, subscapular, chest, and thigh c. Triceps, abdomen, mid-axillary, and suprailiac d. Biceps, mid-axillary, subscapular, and chest

Biceps, triceps, subscapular, and suprailiac

Which muscle functions as part of the global muscular system? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Internal oblique c. Multifidus d. Transversus abdominis

a. Erector spinae

What is the primary muscle type of the heart? Select one: a. Cardiac b. Myofibril c. Smooth d. Skeletal

Cardiac

Which ADL would be most likely to involve the hip hinge? Select one: a. Raking leaves b. Moving a grocery cart c. Cleaning d. Getting in and out of the car

Cleaning

Which term best describes the ability to contract muscles of the core with force in an effort to flex the trunk during a slow controlled movement? Select one: a. Core strength b. Core power c. Core endurance d. Core stability

Core strength

How often does an NASM Certified Personal Trainer need to renew their certification? Select one: a. Every 5 years b. Every 2 years c. Every year d. Every 3 years

Every 2 years

Which source of social support has been shown to be particularly important for older adults? Select one: a. Exercise group b. Exercise leader c. The community d. Family

Family

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the excessive forward trunk lean during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Hip flexor complex b. Gluteus maximus c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Rectus abdominis

Gluteus maximus

Which muscle would be considered underactive, leading to the low back arching during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Gluteus maximus c. Lumbar extensors d. Hip flexor complex

Gluteus maximus

What is the best next progression for a client who can properly perform the power step-up exercise? Select one: a. Squat jump b. Depth jumps c. Proprioceptive plyometrics d. Ice skaters

Ice skaters

Which of the following global muscles' primary action is hip flexion? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Iliopsoas c. Erector spinae d. Latissimus dorsi

Iliopsoas

A new client has indicated that they are exercising due to advice from their physician, but they are generally amotivated. What would be the best choice for the personal trainer in their initial meeting? Select one: a. Create a plan for overcoming barriers. b. Inquire further about what their motives are for participating. c. Start establishing an emotional support system. d. Establish short- and long-term goals.

Inquire further about what their motives are for participating.

Training the eccentric phase of plyometric movements with a new client will help them improve which of the following? Select one: a. Landing mechanics b. Core stability c. Force production d. Power development

Landing Mechanics

What is one advantage of using the Karvonen method (heart rate reserve or HRR) to calculate training heart rates, versus percentage of maximal heart rate (HRmax)? Select one: a. It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate. b. It is performed simply on the fly, right in the gym. c. This formula focuses on age to calculate training based on heart rate. d. It does not use resting heart rate, so it is easier to estimate.

It accommodates for discrepancies in resting heart rate.

Which muscle functions in a feed-forward mechanism in anticipation of limb movements? Select one: a. Erector spinae b. Rectus abdominis c. Gluteus maximus d. Multifidus

Multifidus

How heavy should the medicine ball be when performing the soccer throw exercise? Select one: a. At least 21% of body weight b. 16 to 20% of body weight c. 11 to 15% of body weight d. No more than 10% of body weight

No more than 10% of body weight

Which term best describes observable movement of the limbs? Select one: a. Biomechanics b. Osteokinematics c. Kinesiology d. Arthrokinematics

Osteokinematics

What differentiates change of direction from agility? Select one: a. Changing directions b. Deceleration c. Acceleration d. Reaction to a signal

Reaction to a signal

Active and dynamic stretching utilize which physiological action? Select one: a. Length-tension relationships b. Lengthening reaction c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Synergistic dominance

Reciprocal inhibition

What is the scientific term that describes the nervous system's role in the contract/relax relationship between agonists and antagonists? Select one: a. Muscle imbalance b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Length-tension relationship

Reciprocal inhibition

Balance exercises used for introducing balance training should initially involve little joint motion and improve what type of contractions? Select one: a. No muscle contractions are involved in balance training. b. Preplanned voluntary contractions c. Voluntary contractions d. Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

Reflexive (automatic) joint-stabilization contractions

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the eccentric muscle action performed? Select one: a. 4 seconds b. 2 seconds c. 3 seconds d. 1 second

a. 4 seconds

Which phase of training would be most appropriate for a beginner who has had previous experience within the last few months? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Stabilization Endurance Training c. Power Training d. Maximal Strength Training

Strength Endurance Training

What are the three pathways through which the body can produce ATP? Select one: a. The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation b. Phosphorylation, glycolysis, and the electron transport chain c. The ATP-PC system, digestion, and oxidative phosphorylation d. Ketosis, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

The ATP-PC system, glycolysis, and oxidative phosphorylation

What does the electron transport chain (ETC) do? Select one: a. The ETC uses proteins to create ADP. b. The ETC uses proteins to create hydrogen ions. c. The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP. d. The ETC uses an oxygen gradient to create ATP.

The ETC uses a hydrogen gradient to create ATP.

Hypertension is categorized by a blood pressure greater than what measurement? Select one: a. 125/75 mm Hg b. 120/60 mm Hg c. 80/120 mm Hg d. 120/80 mm Hg

d. 120/80 mm Hg

Which sense provides information to the central nervous system about where the body is in space? Select one: a. Hearing system b. Visual system c. Vestibular system d. Somatosensory system

Visual System

Unrealistic goals can become a barrier when which of the following happens? Select one: a. When only one goal is set b. When outcome goals are objective c. When goals are not adjusted d. When process goals are too specific

When goals are not adjusted

Which of the following intensities best represents VT2 during the incremental test protocol? Select one: a. When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" b. When the individual responds with "yes" when asked, "Can you speak competently?" c. When the individual says it is "challenging" to speak during the activity d. When the individual says it is "somewhat easy" to talk during the activity

When the individual responds with "no" when asked, "Can you speak competently?"

In what training zone would you be exercising at a vigorous to very hard intensity, where talking is limited to infrequent, short phrases? Select one: a. Zone 3 b. Zone 1 c. Zone 4 d. Zone 2

Zone 3

Which statement is an accurate reflection of exercise and physical activity as it relates to arthritis? Select one: a. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax). b. High-intensity resistance training is appropriate to improve joint integrity. c. Physical activity tends to aggravate arthritic symptoms. d. Plyometric training alleviates arthritic symptoms.

a. Cardiorespiratory training should begin at a low to moderate intensity (40 to 65% HRmax).

What does the eccentric phase of a plyometric movement accomplish? Select one: a. Deceleration b. Amortization c. Stabilization d. Acceleration

a. Deceleration

Which of the following is a component of agility training? Select one: a. Deceleration b. Assessment of visual stimuli c. Stride rate d. Reaction

a. Deceleration

Using battle ropes is considered which sort of exercise? Select one: a. Low-impact activity b. Loaded movement training c. Proprioceptive training d. High-impact activity

a. Low-impact activity

Which of the following tests is used to measure lateral speed and agility? Select one: a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT) b. Pro shuttle c. Vertical jump d. 40-yard dash

a. Lower extremity functional test (LEFT)

Which of the following modalities is most likely to allow for strength and/or power development in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Medicine balls b. BOSU balls c. Strength machines d. Kettlebells

a. Medicine balls

A client is performing the multiplanar step-up, balance, curl to overhead press exercise. During the movement, their low-back arches. Which muscles are potentially overactive and underactive? Select one: a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals b. Overactive core stabilizers and underactive hip flexors c. Overactive hip adductors and underactive gluteus medius d. Overactive upper trapezius and underactive lower trapezius

a. Overactive latissimus dorsi and underactive abdominals

Which resistance training system is most appropriate for hypertensive clients? Select one: a. Peripheral heart action system b. Pyramid system c. Drop set d. Complex training

a. Peripheral heart action system

What is an appropriate tempo for Phase 1 of the OPT model? Select one: a. 1-2-3-4 b. 4-2-1-1 c. X-X-X-X d. 2-0-2-0

b. 4-2-1-1

Which muscles are typically underactive when the feet turn out? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Anterior and posterior tibialis c. Adductor complex d. Upper trapezius

b. Anterior and posterior tibialis

Contraction of the erector spinae and hip flexor muscles creates what motion of the pelvis in the sagittal plane? Select one: a. Lateral pelvic tilt b. Anterior pelvic tilt c. Posterior pelvic tilt d. Medial pelvic tilt

b. Anterior pelvic tilt

Which of the following is the initial assessment that should be completed prior to starting any exercise or training program? Select one: a. Postural assessment b. Health risk assessment c. Anthropometric assessment d. Cardiorespiratory assessment

b. Health risk assessment

When ADP is converted to ATP, what is this process called? Select one: a. ATP-PC b. Phosphorylation c. Oxidation d. Transformation

b. Phosphorylation

What three joint actions comprise triple extension? Select one: a. Dorsiflexion, knee flexion, and hip flexion b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension c. Spinal extension, hip extension, and plantar flexion d. Knee extension, shoulder extension, and elbow extension

b. Plantar flexion, knee extension, and hip extension

When a person loses body weight, what is the only way that mass is lost? Select one: a. As ATP b. As water c. As exhaled carbon dioxide d. As exhaled oxygen

c. As exhaled carbon dioxide

Which section of the NASM Code of Professional Conduct requires that client records are disposed of in a secure manner? Select one: a. Legal and ethical b. Professionalism c. Confidentiality d. Business practice

c. Confidentiality

Which of the following is considered an "under the water" foundational adaptation, per the "iceberg effect"? Select one: a. Power b. Endurance c. Stability d. Strength

c. Stability

If someone engages in a short, intense burst of activity lasting less than 30 seconds, which energy system will contribute the most to ATP production? Select one: a. The citric acid cycle b. Oxidative phosphorylation c. The ATP-PC system d. Glycolysis

c. The ATP-PC system

How is osteopenia best described? Select one: a. A bone weakness disease caused by vitamin D deficiency. b. An age-related loss of muscle mass resulting in weakness and frailty in older adults. c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process. d. A disease characterized by low bone density.

c. The loss of bone density related to the aging process.

Performing a biceps curl with a dumbbell in the hand is an example of which type of lever? Select one: a. Second class b. Fourth class c. Third class d. First class

c. Third class

What variable of plyometric training is determined by the client's fitness level, current training program, training history, injury history, and training goals? Select one: a. Intensity b. Recovery c. Training frequency d. Volume

c. Training frequency

In what plane of movement do shoulder horizontal adduction and abduction occur? Select one: a. Sagittal b. Dorsal c. Transverse d. Frontal

c. Transverse

Beth is considering opportunities for how to begin her career as a fitness professional. If her primary goal is to earn a stable income by helping clients reach their fitness goals, which of the following would provide the best option? Select one: a. Creating online coaching programs b. Offering in-home training services c. Working for a premium health club company d. Working for a low-cost health club company

c. Working for a premium health club company

Which of the following would be the appropriate progression for a core training program to optimize function? Select one: a. Lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency, intervertebral stability b. Movement efficiency, intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability c. Lumbopelvic stability, intervertebral stability, movement efficiency d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

d. Intervertebral stability, lumbopelvic stability, movement efficiency

Asking a client to close their eyes during a balance exercise would challenge which system? Select one: a. Somatosensory system b. Visual system c. Auditory system d. Vestibular system

b. Visual system

In which phase of the OPT model would suspended bodyweight training be the most desirable for optimal outcomes? Select one: a. Phase 3 b. Phase 4 c. Phase 2 d. Phase 5

c. Phase 2

What are the end products of the electron transport chain? Select one: a. ADP and water b. ATP and water c. ADP and hydrogen ions d. ATP and oxygen

b. ATP and water

The PAR-Q+ and preparticipation process reflects what three health indicators? Select one: a. An individual's current level of physical activity, age, and weight b. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity c. An individual's habits related to exercise, diet, and sleep d. An individual's desired exercise intensity, body composition, and gender

b. An individual's current level of physical activity, the presence of signs and symptoms of disease, and the individual's desired exercise intensity

What are two medical precautions for self-myofascial techniques? Select one: a. Cancer and bleeding disorders b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis c. Osteoporosis and uncontrolled hypertension d. Extreme discomfort/pain and rheumatoid arthritis

b. Joint hypermobility and scoliosis

Which muscle is classified as a local muscle involved in stabilizing the spine? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Multifidus c. Iliopsoas d. Erector spinae

b. Multifidus

What concern should you have when prescribing flexibility exercises to a client with osteoporosis? Select one: a. Osteoporosis is not considered a precaution for static stretching. b. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling. c. Osteoporosis is considered more than a precaution for myofascial rolling. d. Osteoporosis is not a contraindication for any flexibility exercises.

b. Osteoporosis is considered a contraindication to myofascial rolling.

If the concentric phase of a plyometric exercise doesn't use all the stored elastic energy from the eccentric phase, what occurs? Select one: a. The unused energy builds up and causes muscular pain. b. The unused energy is dissipated as heat. c. The attempt at jumping will fail. d. The unused energy is stored for the next jump.

b. The unused energy is dissipated as heat.

What is the primary function of the global muscles of the core? Select one: a. Limiting strain on the vertebral discs b. Stabilize individual vertebral segments c. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements d. Limit excessive compression between vertebral segments

c. Force production during dynamic whole-body movements

The number of sidewalks available in a community is an example of which of the following? Select one: a. The assembled environment b. The manufactured environment c. The built environment d. The constructed environment

c. The built environment

What are the steps in the cumulative injury cycle? Select one: a. Muscle hypertrophy, altered neuromuscular inhibition, poor flexibility, muscle ache, swelling, and tissue bruising b. Muscle atrophy, neuromuscular recruitment, increased flexibility, muscle pain, bruising, and tissue edema c. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance d. Muscle spasm, neuromuscular pain, increased psychological fear, poor flexibility, muscle pain, and bruising

c. Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasm, adhesions, altered neuromuscular control, and muscle imbalance

What is acidosis in muscle? Select one: a. A decrease in pH, which can improve muscle strength b. An increase in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue c. An increase in pH, which can improve muscle strength d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

d. A decrease in pH, which can lead to feelings of fatigue

For an individual training in stage 1, what training volume and frequency would qualify that person to progress to stage 2? Select one: a. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 45 minutes, 4 times per week b. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 5 times per week c. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 60 minutes, 2 times per week d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

d. Ability to maintain zone 1 intensity for at least 30 minutes, 3 times per week

What type of lever could be described as having a fulcrum in the middle like a seesaw? Select one: a. Fourth class b. Second class c. Third class d. First class

d. First class

When sequencing physiological assessments, which of the following would produce a better result if measured immediately after exercise rather than before exercise? Select one: a. Resting heart rate b. Blood pressure c. Body composition d. Flexibility

d. Flexibility

Before amino acids can be used to make ATP, what process do they have to go through? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. Oxidation c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. Gluconeogenesis

d. Gluconeogenesis

Which of the following is not considered an open-chain exercise? Select one: a. Machine leg extension b. Lat pulldown c. Bench press d. Push-up

d. Push-up

Horizontal adduction is most common during what type of movement? Select one: a. Hip hinge b. Pulling c. Squatting d. Pushing

d. Pushing

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo II exercise? Select one: a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra b. Shoulder horizontal adduction and internal rotation c. Hip extension, knee extension, and plantar flexion d. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

d. Row, shoulder external rotation, and shoulder press

Which behavior change technique allows individuals to identify external triggers that lead them to behave in certain ways? Select one: a. Action planning b. Enlisting social support c. Coping planning d. Self-monitoring

d. Self-monitoring

Which of the following is not one of the primary levels of the OPT model? Select one: a. Strength b. Stabilization c. Power d. Strength Endurance

d. Strength Endurance

What is an example of an individual in the alarm reaction stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person has suffered a metatarsal stress fracture. b. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular hypertrophy. c. The person is experiencing improvement in aerobic capacity. d. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness.

What component of breathing improves blood flow back to the heart? Select one: a. Expiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure b. Inspiration with an increase in intrathoracic pressure c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure d. Expiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

c. Inspiration with a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

How is an isokinetic muscle contraction best described? Select one: a. A contraction that occurs when a muscle is exerting force greater than the resistive force, resulting in a shortening of the muscle b. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is created without a change in length and no visible movement of the joint c. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted d. A contraction that occurs when muscle tension is developed and movement occurs through a given range of motion at a speed that may vary

c. A contraction that occurs when the speed of movement is fixed and the resistance varies with the force exerted

If someone specifically wanted to burn a lot of fat (not necessarily total calories), what type of exercise should they do? Select one: a. High-intensity exercise for less than 10 minutes b. Walking for 5 minutes c. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes d. High-intensity exercise for 10 to 15 minutes

c. Low- to moderate-intensity exercise for 30 to 60 minutes

What are the recommended training variables for active stretching? Select one: a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions b. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, and repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions c. 4 to 6 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 3 repetitions d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

a. 1 to 3 sets, hold each stretch for 1 to 2 seconds, and repeat for 5 to 10 repetitions

Which of the following exercises may increase inaccurate readings while utilizing a wrist-worn heart rate monitor? Select one: a. Stability ball plank b. Suspended bodyweight crunch c. Medicine ball catch and pass d. Barbell squats

c. Medicine ball catch and pass

A person walks differently when they move from a sidewalk onto the sand. This is regulated by what function? Select one: a. Neuroplasticity b. Muscle function c. Motor function d. Wolff's law

c. Motor function

Which scheme would be the most ideal to achieve stabilization and muscular endurance adaptations? Select one: a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM b. 4 sets, 8 repetitions, 30% 1RM c. 3 sets, 10 repetitions, 77% 1RM d. 5 sets, 5 repetitions, 85% 1RM

a. 2 sets, 20 repetitions, 50% 1RM

If someone went out for a 5-mile jog with their friend, which energy system would provide most of the ATP for this activity? Select one: a. Glycolysis b. Beta-oxidation c. Oxidative phosphorylation d. The ATP-PC system

c. Oxidative phosphorylation

Before carbohydrates, fat, or protein can enter the citric acid cycle (CAC), they need to be converted to what common molecule? Select one: a. Acetyl CoA b. Amino acids c. ATP d. Pyruvate

a. Acetyl CoA

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with pes planus distortion syndrome? Select one: a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius b. Adductor complex (inner thighs) c. Upper trapezius d. Hip flexors

a. Anterior and posterior tibialis, and gluteus maximus and medius

Which of the following statements would be accurate with regard to muscle force and velocity during a concentric contraction? Select one: a. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases. b. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action decreases, its ability to produce force decreases. c. As velocity decreases, the force remains constant. d. As the velocity of a concentric muscle action increases, its ability to produce force increases.

a. As the velocity of the muscle action increases, its ability to produce force decreases.

What is considered to be the mechanism of action with self-myofascial rolling? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Synergistic dominance d. Reciprocal inhibition

a. Autogenic inhibition

What is the process in which neural impulses that sense tension are greater than the impulses that cause muscles to contract, providing an inhibitory effect to the muscle spindles? Select one: a. Autogenic inhibition b. Stretch reflex c. Isometric contraction d. Reciprocal inhibition

a. Autogenic inhibition

What is a common cause of chronic hypertension? Select one: a. Excess weight b. Vigorous exercise c. 1,500 mg of sodium per day d. A low-fat diet

a. Excess weight

Which is very important as a prenatal vitamin? Select one: a. Folate b. Niacin c. Vitamin C d. Pantothenic acid

a. Folate

During a squat, which muscle group isometrically contracts to prevent unnecessary thigh movement in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip abductors b. Hip extensors c. Hip flexors d. Hip internal rotators

a. Hip abductors

Improving this using balance training would most likely decrease the risk of injury. Select one: a. Injury resistance b. Rehabilitation c. Posture d. Performance

a. Injury resistance

Which heart chamber gathers oxygenated blood coming to the heart from the lungs? Select one: a. Left atrium b. Pulmonary veins c. Left ventricle d. Right atrium

a. Left atrium

What is the bone type of the clavicle, radius, and ulna? Select one: a. Long b. Irregular c. Flat d. Short

a. Long

The process of diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide gases in and out of the bloodstream occurs in what structure or structures? Select one: a. Pulmonary arteries b. Alveolar sacs c. Bronchioles d. Trachea

Alveolar sacs

Which of the following statements most accurately reflects ventilatory threshold one (VT1)? Select one: a. An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging b. An intensity where continuous talking becomes almost impossible c. An intensity where continuous talking is comfortable d. An intensity where continuous talking becomes difficult

An intensity where continuous talking becomes challenging

The risk of which lower-extremity injury was decreased in female basketball athletes who participated in a 5-week balance training program that improved landing movement mechanics? Select one: a. Foot injury b. Patellar fracture c. Shoulder injury d. Anterior cruciate ligament injury

Anterior cruciate ligament injury

What is a client-centric coaching style that helps enhance their desire to change by resolving ambivalence? Select one: a. Motivational interviewing b. Collecting summaries c. Reflective listening d. Affirming

a. Motivational interviewing

Which type of nerve receptor senses pain? Select one: a. Nociceptor b. Neurotransmitter c. Action potential d. Mechanoreceptor

a. Nociceptor

A Certified Personal Trainer may seek further proprioceptive development in which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phase 1 b. Phase 3 c. Phase 4 d. Phase 2

a. Phase 1

Which of the following is the best source for reviewing information about dietary supplements? Select one: a. PubMed b. A professional athlete c. The supplement company's website d. A fitness magazine

a. PubMed

Which of the following is a component of total daily energy expenditure (TDEE)? Select one: a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR) b. Elapsed activity thermogenesis (EAT) c. Nonexercise anabolic thermogenesis (NEAT) d. Thermic effect of fasting (TEF)

a. Resting metabolic rate (RMR)

What is a joint disease in which the body's immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue, causing an inflammatory response? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoporosis c. Osteoarthritis d. Osteopenia

a. Rheumatoid arthritis

In which of the following phases of the OPT model is suspended bodyweight training considered ideal? Select one: a. Phases 3 and 4 b. Phases 4 and 5 c. Phases 1 and 2 d. Phases 1 and 3

c. Phases 1 and 2

The TRX Rip Trainer should be most beneficial to which of the following phases of the OPT model? Select one: a. Phases 2, 3, and 4 b. Phases 3, 4, and 5 c. Phases 1, 2, and 5 d. Phases 1 and 3

c. Phases 1, 2, and 5

Which is a primary adaptation of the Stabilization Endurance phase? Select one: a. Maximal muscular strength b. Core strength c. Postural alignment d. Rate of force production

c. Postural alignment

In which phase of training would a person want to spend more time if they were looking to become better at beach volleyball and already has adequate leg strength? Select one: a. Strength Endurance Training b. Muscular Development Training c. Power Training d. Stabilization Endurance Training

c. Power Training

What are the three movements performed during the ball combo I exercise? Select one: a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra b. Hip adduction, flexion, and internal rotation c. Wrist flexion, elbow flexion, and shoulder flexion d. Shoulder extension, adduction, and internal rotation

a. Scaption, shoulder abduction, and cobra

If a Certified Personal Trainer helps a client make an action plan to enhance their confidence that they can exercise on their own, what determinant of behavior are they targeting? Select one: a. Self-efficacy b. Attitudes c. Outcome expectations d. Intention

a. Self-efficacy

Asking a client to stand on a BOSU ball would provide a major challenge to what system? Select one: a. Somatosensory b. Digestive c. Vision d. Vestibular

a. Somatosensory

Which of the following modalities is the least likely to increase joint instability? Select one: a. Strength machines b. Terra-Core c. Resistance bands d. Suspended bodyweight training

a. Strength machines

Pronation of the foot describes what multiplanar movements? Select one: a. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction b. Inversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle adduction c. Eversion, plantar flexion, and ankle abduction d. Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

Eversion, dorsiflexion, and ankle abduction

What breathing change occurs at the second ventilatory threshold (VT2)? Select one: a. Breathing becomes more shallow. b. Inspiration is prolonged. c. Expiration becomes more forceful. d. Breathing settles into a more consistent rhythm. Feedback

Expiration becomes more forceful

What scientific term is used to describe the concept whereby a loaded eccentric contraction prepares the muscles for a rapid concentric contraction? Select one: a. Stretch-shortening cycle b. Altered reciprocal inhibition c. Series elastic component d. Reciprocal inhibition

a. Stretch-shortening cycle

What is the physical action in the body during the eccentric phase of the stretch-shortening cycle? Select one: a. Stretching of the agonist muscle b. Shortening of the agonist muscle c. Stretching of the antagonist muscle d. Transitioning of forces

a. Stretching of the agonist muscle

What muscles does the tubing (shoulder) internal rotation exercise primarily target? Select one: a. Subscapularis b. Scalenes c. Infraspinatus d. Anterior tibialis

a. Subscapularis

Which of the following examples describes a muscle that is functioning as an antagonist? Select one: a. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension b. The serratus anterior being active during shoulder flexion c. The infraspinatus being active during shoulder external rotation d. The transversus abdominus being active during hip extension

a. The biceps brachii being active during elbow extension

The drawing-in maneuver increases activation of what muscle? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Erector spinae c. Diaphragm d. External obliques

a. Transverse abdominis

Which term defines the degree to which a test specifically measures what it is intended to measure? Select one: a. Validity b. Reliability c. Appropriateness d. Relevance

a. Validity

Which of the following is a question that may provoke resistance? Select one: a. What makes you think you are not at risk? b. If you decided to make a change, what might you do? c. What might you want to change? d. What might work for you?

a. What makes you think you are not at risk?

When discussing suspended bodyweight training, which of the following is the most accurate statement? Select one: a. It increases muscular hypertrophy. b. It increases flexibility and joint mobility. c. It decreases core muscle activation. d. It decreases challenges to balance and stability.

It increases flexibility and joint mobility.

Which muscle would be considered overactive, leading to arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Select one: a. Latissimus dorsi b. Rhomboids c. Posterior deltoid d. Middle and lower trapezius

Latissimus dorsi

Which of these is one of the major curvatures of the spine? Select one: a. Posterior thoracic curve b. Posterior lumbar curve c. Anterior cervical curve d. Anterior lumbar curve

Posterior lumbar curve

Which of the following examples of training exercises is not a form of cardiorespiratory fitness? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Sports competition c. Rowing d. Jogging/running

Resistance Training

Which of the following contributes the most to the total calories burned in a day? Select one: a. Resting metabolic rate b. Thermic effect of food c. Exercise d. Nonexercise activity thermogenesis

Resting metabolic rate

Which component contributes the most to total energy expenditure? Select one: a. Thermic effect of activity b. Exercise c. Resting metabolism d. Thermic effect of food

Resting metabolism

What is the peripheral heart action system? Select one: a. A system that involves performing a series of exercises, one after the other, with minimal rest b. A system that incorporates a slight pause between repetitions within a series of sets c. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit d. A system that involves breaking up the body into parts to be trained on separate days

c. A variation of circuit training that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit

What are the recommended training variables for dynamic stretching? Select one: a. 4 to 6 sets, 10 to 15 repetitions, 1 or 2 exercises b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises c. 15 sets, hold each stretch for 3 to 6 seconds, repeat for 2 to 5 repetitions d. 3 to 9 sets, hold each stretch for 4 to 15 seconds, repeat for 5 to 20 repetitions

b. 1 set, 10 to 15 repetitions, 3 to 10 exercises

How many B vitamins are there? Select one: a. 12 b. 8 c. 3 d. 21

b. 8

What ideally should follow a day of high-intensity training in stage 3? Select one: a. Two days of no exercise to reduce the risk of overtraining b. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day. c. At least two days of training in stage 1 to recover d. Another stage 3 day to optimize training adaptations

b. A stage 1 day (recovery day) should follow a hard stage 3 training day.

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with lower crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Hip flexors b. Abdominals c. Adductor complex d. Lower trapezius

b. Abdominals

Which of the following reflects the characteristics of moderate-intensity exercise? Select one: a. Ability to talk easily during exercise without any indication of breathlessness in the average untrained individual b. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual c. The inability to talk at all during exercise with breathlessness in the average untrained individual d. Inability to talk comfortably during exercise with some breathlessness in the average untrained individual

b. Ability to talk comfortably during exercise without breathlessness in the average untrained individual

Which of the following vitamins or groups of vitamins plays a key role in energy metabolism? Select one: a. Water-soluble vitamins b. B vitamins c. Fat-soluble vitamins d. Vitamin C

b. B vitamins

The role of psychology in fitness and wellness is strongly rooted in which area? Select one: a. Social physique anxiety b. Behavioral change c. Eating disorders d. Depression

b. Behavioral change

Which of the following exercises is typically used to measure maximum strength of the upper extremities during a pushing movement? Select one: a. Overhead press assessment b. Bench press strength assessment c. Pulling assessment d. Pushing assessment

b. Bench press strength assessment

Which of the following is a behavior change technique where clients list potential barriers and make plans to overcome them? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Coping responses c. Implementation intentions d. Resisting social pressure

b. Coping responses

Which of the following muscles are responsible for normal resting state (quiet) breathing? Select one: a. Internal intercostals b. Diaphragm c. Abdominals d. Scalenes

b. Diaphragm

In a group exercise setting within a fitness facility, which person should greet all members, make everyone feel welcome, and ensure that participants have the right equipment and attire to participate safely? Select one: a. General manager b. Exercise leader c. Certified Personal Trainer d. Fitness manager

b. Exercise leader

Which communication technique allows the fitness professional to show appreciation of a client's strengths? Select one: a. Affirmations b. Collecting summaries c. Transitional summaries d. Reflections

a. Affirmations

Which of the following is iron considered to be? Select one: a. Trace mineral b. Performance supplement c. Macromineral d. Vitamin

a. Trace mineral

When a client makes a plan, such as, "When I am done with work, I will run for 30 minutes," what are they doing? Select one: a. Creating a coping plan b. Forming an implementation intention c. Self-monitoring d. Stating an outcome expectation

b. Forming an implementation intention

What involves reacting to a stimulus and then changing the body's sprinting direction in response to that stimulus? Select one: a. Power b. Quickness c. Agility d. Speed

c. Agility

Competitive athletes who performed balance training exercises reduced the risk of which injury by 46%? Select one: a. Ankle sprains b. Anterior cruciate ligament injuries c. Medial collateral ligament injuries d. Concussions

a. Ankle sprains

What is an example of an individual in the exhaustion stage of the general adaptation syndrome? Select one: a. The person has suffered an ACL sprain. b. The person is experiencing delayed-onset muscle soreness. c. The person is experiencing an increase in muscular power. d. The person is experiencing improvement in muscular strength.

a. The person has suffered an ACL sprain.

Which term best describes when someone has mixed feelings about exercise and can see both the pros and cons of participating? Select one: a. Ambiguity b. Ambivalence c. Confusion d. Unequivocal

b. Ambivalence

Which of the following is a question that may promote change? Select one: a. What makes you think that you're not at risk? b. What might you want to change? c. Why can't you make this change to your schedule? d. Why don't you just do this?

b. What might you want to change?

Which of the following statements defines the chest skinfold location for men? Select one: a. A diagonal fold taken immediately superior to and in line with the natural angle of the iliac crest (top portion of the hip bone), aligned with the anterior axillary line b. A diagonal fold, 1 to 2 centimeters below the inferior angle of the scapula c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple d. A vertical fold taken on the mid-axillary line at the level of the xiphoid process (which is typically just below the nipple line)

c. A diagonal fold taken half the distance between the anterior axillary line and the nipple

Which of the following is an example of a client's intrinsic motivation for exercise? Select one: a. Exercising because a doctor tells them to b. Exercising because they value the health benefits c. Exercising because it is fun d. Exercising because they feel guilty

c. Exercising because it is fun

Most exercises and motions of the body regularly occur in which plane of motion? Select one: a. Frontal b. Transverse c. Sagittal d. Axial

c. Sagittal

A client plans to go for a 10-mile run, but they become fatigued after 7 miles, so they stop. What is the most likely cause of this fatigue? Select one: a. Phosphocreatine was depleted. b. Fatty acid stores were exhausted. c. ADP was depleted. d. Glycogen stores were exhausted.

d. Glycogen stores were exhausted.

Which of the following effects may be experienced with overtraining? Select one: a. Elevated levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment b. Lower levels of cortisol, which lead to an anabolic environment c. Low levels of cortisol, which lead to an environment that is catabolic d. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

d. High levels of cortisol, which lead to a catabolic environment

Which core exercise is most appropriate for an obese client to maximize comfort and to avoid potential hypotensive or hypertensive reactions to the exercise? Select one: a. Supine reverse crunches b. Supine floor crunches c. Stability ball Russian twist d. Incline plank

d. Incline plank

How does the stretch-shortening cycle improve concentric force production? Select one: a. Eccentric contractions are minimized. b. The amortization phase helps generate additional forces. c. It builds up extra heat in the muscles, which makes them more powerful. d. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

d. It builds up elastic energy during the eccentric phase, preloading the muscle.

Which of the following exercises provides the most challenge for the antirotational stabilizing muscles? Select one: a. Stability ball abdominal crunches b. Sandbag rotational lunge c. Cable machine single-arm row d. Kettlebell RDL

d. Kettlebell RDL

What is a characteristic of a type I muscle fiber? Select one: a. Larger in size b. Quick to fatigue c. Fewer capillaries d. Less force production

d. Less force production

Which form of SAQ training is characterized by the ability to start, stop, and change direction in response to a signal or stimulus quickly while maintaining postural control? Select one: a. Stride rate b. Speed c. Agility d. Quickness

c. Agility

What RPE range (on a scale of 1 to 10) aligns with training in zone 2? Select one: a. An RPE of 7 to 8 b. An RPE of 3 to 4 c. An RPE of 5 to 6 d. An RPE of 9 to 10

c. An RPE of 5 to 6

Which of the following has been used specifically as part of a protocol to improve balance? Select one: a. Stable floor environment b. Weight training c. Biomechanical ankle platform system d. Aqua therapy

c. Biomechanical ankle platform system

Mobility is a combination of which two musculoskeletal components? Select one: a. Neuromuscular efficiency and quickness b. Flexibility and joint ROM c. Muscle strength and neuromuscular efficiency d. Muscle strength and power

b. Flexibility and joint ROM

From the list of assessments provided, which should be conducted first to preserve its validity? Select one: a. Flexibility b. Muscular fitness c. Body composition d. Cardiorespiratory fitness

c. Body composition

During short, high-intensity exercise, what is the primary fuel source for the body? Select one: a. Amino acids b. Proteins c. Carbohydrates d. Lipids

c. Carbohydrates

When designing a 4-zone model for cardiorespiratory training, what range of intensity defines zone 2? Select one: a. Below VT1 b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 c. Above VT2 d. From the midpoint between VT1 and VT2 up to VT2

b. From VT1 to the midpoint between VT1 and VT2

Which hip muscle helps maintain a level pelvis in the frontal plane? Select one: a. Hip flexor b. Gluteus medius c. Gluteus maximus d. Erector spinae

b. Gluteus medius

If someone were performing repeated sprints with each sprint lasting between 30 and 90 seconds, which energy system would be contributing the most to ATP production during this activity? Select one: a. The electron transport chain b. Glycolysis c. The ATP-PC system d. Oxidative phosphorylation

b. Glycolysis

What is the correct order of segments for the spine, starting at the top? Select one: a. Lumbar, cervical, and thoracic b. Thoracic, cervical, and lumbar c. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar d. Cervical, lumbar, and thoracic

c. Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar

Which of the following hormones have an anabolic function and have been shown to increase up to 48 hours following resistance training? Select one: a. Cortisol b. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF) c. Calcitonin d. Glucagon

b. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)

Which principle states that soft tissue will model along the lines of stress? Select one: a. Wolff's law b. Archimedes' principle c. Davis's law d. Overload principle

c. Davis's law

What type of movements should be used before progressing to single-foot plyometric exercises? Select one: a. Side-to-side hops b. Depth jumps c. Dual-foot drills d. Sport skills

c. Dual-foot drills

Clients with chronic lung disease often have shortness of breath, also known as which of the following? Select one: a. Pneumonia b. Pulmonary hypoplasia c. Dyspnea d. Hypoxia

c. Dyspnea

What muscles work with the obliques will assist a client in completing a standing cable rotation movement? Select one: a. Rectus abdominis b. Latissimus dorsi c. Erector spinae d. Gluteus medius

c. Erector spinae

Which of the following is considered a superficial muscle of the core? Select one: a. Transverse abdominis b. Pelvic floor muscles c. Erector spinae d. Multifidus

c. Erector spinae

Which governmental agency regulates dietary supplements in the United Kingdom? Select one: a. Dietary Supplement Health and Education Act (DSHEA) b. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) c. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) d. Therapeutic Goods Administration (TGA)

c. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA)

Which of the following describes a benefit of high-intensity interval training (HIIT)? Select one: a. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time with a similar volume of work b. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. c. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time, but with a larger volume of work. d. It can produce superior results to traditional cardio exercise in the same period of time, but with a smaller volume of work.

b. It can produce comparable results to traditional cardio exercise in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work.

Identify a movement limitation for an individual who walks or runs on a treadmill if he or she presents with an anterior pelvic tilt. Select one: a. Limitations to hip flexion may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back. c. Limitations to hip extension may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. d. Limitations to hip flexion may reduce low-back extension which can decrease ventilation. Feedback

b. Limitations to hip extension may require hyperextension in the low-back, placing increased stress on the low-back.

Which muscles are typically underactive in association with upper crossed syndrome? Select one: a. Abdominals b. Lower trapezius c. Upper trapezius d. Hip flexors

b. Lower trapezius

Which of the following muscle groups work both eccentrically and concentrically in the sagittal plane during a squat? Select one: a. Adductor longus b. Quadriceps c. Biceps brachii d. Gluteus medius

b. Quadriceps

Which of the following is not a skill-related concept that would enhance core training? Select one: a. Coordination b. Quickness c. Balance d. Agility

b. Quickness

During the standing cable chest press, the resistance should be positioned to do what? Select one: a. Resist shoulder extension and scapular retraction b. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction c. Pull the shoulders into flexion and scapular protraction d. Pull the elbows into extension

b. Resist shoulder horizontal adduction

Performing a hop-training program on a firm surface would be an example of which type of balance? Select one: a. Stable balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Dynamic balance

b. Semi-dynamic balance

Which of the following types of balance occurs when an individual seeks to maintain postural control within a stationary limit of stability but with a moving base of support? Select one: a. Dynamic balance b. Semi-dynamic balance c. Static balance d. Moderate-level balance

b. Semi-dynamic balance

A client is taking prescription beta-blockers for hypertension. Which exercise is the safest for him to perform? Select one: a. Floor bridge b. Standing cobra c. Knee-up d. Reverse crunch

b. Standing cobra

An obese client who has been diagnosed with peripheral artery disease (PAD) should be advised to do which of the following? Select one: a. Substitute self-myofascial release for static stretching. b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily. c. Avoid walking and jogging and opt for cycling. d. Avoid aerobic exercise for lower extremities.

b. Strive for 20 to 30 minutes of continuous aerobic exercise daily.

How is Fartlek training best described? Select one: a. In Fartlek training, the total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max. b. Fartlek training is aerobic exercise that remains at a relatively constant intensity, including a stable heart rate and oxygen consumption. c. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout. d. Fartlek training is an exercise method defined by intervals of near-maximal intensity broken up by relatively short rest periods.

c. Fartlek training targets many different physiological systems by combining different formats into one workout.

What term is used to describe the premise that increased ventricular filling improves contractile force of the heart as a result of greater stretch of cardiac fibers? Select one: a. Peripheral resistance b. Valsalva maneuver c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart d. Venous pooling

c. Frank Starling Law of the Heart

Which of the following is a limiting factor for how long anaerobic glycolysis can proceed? Select one: a. Lack of pyruvate b. Lack of fatty acids c. Free hydrogen ions d. Depletion of phosphocreatine

c. Free hydrogen ions

Strength-training machines provide training primarily in which planes of motion? Select one: a. All planes of motion b. Transverse and frontal c. Frontal and sagittal d. Sagittal and transverse

c. Frontal and sagittal

What is a safe flexibility modification that you can recommend to a client who has varicose veins? Select one: a. Deep soft-tissue massage b. General cardiovascular exercise c. Gentle static stretching d. Pilates

c. Gentle static stretching

An important aspect of an established exercise group includes which of the following? Select one: a. Once the group is formed, no other participants are allowed in. b. The group feels distinct from other people. c. Groups rely only on the leader for support. d. Groups function only when all members are present.

b. The group feels distinct from other people.

When it comes to exercise, older adults find which of the following to be the most motivating? Select one: a. Competition with others b. Being a part of a social group c. Health and well-being d. Improved physical appearance

c. Health and well-being

What behavior change technique is a specific plan that drives behavior by identifying cues toward action? Select one: a. Self-monitoring b. Coping plan c. Implementation intention d. Guided practice

c. Implementation intention

How should the amortization phase of the stretch-shortening cycle be described? Select one: a. The transition between the isometric and eccentric phases b. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading c. The transition from concentric loading to eccentric unloading d. The transition between the concentric and isometric phases

b. The transition from eccentric loading to concentric unloading

Which exercise is a total-body power-focused movement? Select one: a. Soccer throw b. Two-arm push press c. Front medicine ball oblique throw d. Medicine ball chest pass

b. Two-arm push press

A client is performing a dumbbell overhead press exercise. How should the fitness professional spot their client? Select one: a. The dumbbell overhead press exercise should be spotted to increase client safety. b. The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists. c. The fitness professional should avoid spotting this exercise. d. The fitness professional should spot their client at the elbows.

The fitness professional should spot their client at the wrists.

What does BMI (body mass index) assess for? Select one: a. An accurate measure of obesity status for all individuals b. Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height c. Overall level of physical fitness d. Body fat and lean mass composition

b. Whether a person's weight is appropriate for their height

What is plyometric training also known as? Select one: a. Resistance training b. Strength training c. Reactive training d. Stability training

c. Reactive training

Which of the following modalities will provide the most benefits to Phases 1, 4 and 5 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Strength machines b. Battle ropes c. Sandbags d. TRX Rip Trainer

c. Sandbags

What is the purpose of a professional personal training certification? Select one: a. To ensure gyms and health clubs follow rules established by OSHA b. To demonstrate that an individual is committed to the field of personal training c. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category d. To abide by federal guidelines that require certification for fitness professionals

c. To ensure that individual job candidates can demonstrate the ability to perform the tasks required for this job category

Which of the following is the most highly progressed plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Sagittal plane box jump-down b. Sagittal plane box jump-up c. Transverse plane box jump-down d. Frontal plane box jump-up

c. Transverse plane box jump-down

Current sports nutrition guidelines from the International Society of Sports Nutrition recommend what range of protein for most exercising individuals? Select one: a. 1.0 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight b. 1.5 to 2.5 g/kg of body weight c. 1.6 to 2.2 g/kg of body weight d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

d. 1.4 to 2.0 g/kg of body weight

What are the fat-soluble vitamins? Select one: a. C, D, and K b. A, B12, C, and D c. B12, B6, and C d. A, D, E, and K

d. A, D, E, and K

What key term would best describe an overactive hip flexor complex decreasing neural drive to the hip extensor complex? Select one: a. Synergistic dominance b. Altered length-tension relationship c. Reciprocal inhibition d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

d. Altered reciprocal inhibition

For someone training in the Muscular Development phase, which of the following changes would be optimal? Select one: a. Decreased volume and intensity b. Muscle mass atrophy c. Muscle mass increase with no body fat loss d. Body fat loss

d. Body fat loss

Which of the following muscles is primarily targeted when performing a biceps curl exercise with the thumb up? Select one: a. Triceps brachii b. Biceps brachii c. Brachialis d. Brachioradialis

d. Brachioradialis

A client performs a heavy squat exercise followed by a set of squat jumps. What type of resistance training system is being used? Select one: a. Drop set b. Giant set c. Pyramid system d. Complex training

d. Complex training

How is VT1 identified when using the talk test during a cardio workout? Select one: a. Inability to speak at all b. Normal conversation is maintained. c. Only a few words can be produced between breaths d. Continuous talking becomes challenging

d. Continuous talking becomes challenging

Which scenario best demonstrates companionship support? Select one: a. Making time to talk to clients about how their exercise program is going b. Taking someone shopping to purchase attire for exercise c. Creating handouts for clients that cover topics about fitness and wellness d. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

d. Coordinating group events that are centered around physical activities

Which of these is considered the most advanced plyometric exercise? Select one: a. Ice skaters b. Box jumps c. Single-leg hops d. Depth jumps

d. Depth jumps

Which of the following modality/exercise combinations provides the most freedom of movement in the transverse plane? Select one: a. Dumbbell lat row b. Seated abdominal crunch machine c. Suspended chest press d. Elastic band woodchop

d. Elastic band woodchop

According to the "iceberg effect," which of the following training adaptations are considered "surface level"? Select one: a. Proper movement b. Stability c. Mobility d. Endurance

d. Endurance

Which mechanoreceptor is sensitive to changes in muscular tension and rate of that tension change, causing the muscle to relax, which prevents the muscle from excessive stress and possible injury? Select one: a. Muscle spindles b. Joint receptors c. Interneurons d. Golgi tendon organs

d. Golgi tendon organs

The center of gravity moves in which direction when the knees and hips are equally flexed bilaterally? Select one: a. Inferiorly b. Medially c. Superiorly d. Laterally

d. Laterally

How is a general warm-up best defined? Select one: a. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the exercise immediately following. b. High-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. c. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that mimic those to be included in the more intense exercise immediately following. d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

d. Low-intensity exercise consisting of movements that do not necessarily relate to the more intense exercise immediately following.

The intensity and direction of someone's effort describes which of the following? Select one: a. Aspiration b. Ambition c. Initiative d. Motivation

d. Motivation

Which of the following does plyometric training help increase? Select one: a. Overall base strength b. Balance c. Core stability d. Motor unit recruitment

d. Motor unit recruitment

Why can personal trainers be considered among the most important employees within a health club? Select one: a. Personal trainers are very outgoing and can help create a fun atmosphere in a fitness facility. b. Personal trainers are often in great physical shape, which demonstrates that belonging to a health club can produce results members want. c. Personal trainers study exercise science and have the knowledge to help members get results. d. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

d. Personal trainers come in direct contact with members and can have the greatest influence on whether members achieve results.

Ambivalent people may be reluctant to start an exercise program. What should the fitness professional focus on when helping a potential client overcome this barrier? Select one: a. Let them know that you will not take no for an answer because exercise is good for everyone. b. Provide information about the benefits of participating and hope they decide to participate. c. Let them know you understand it is a difficult decision to participate and you will give them time to think about it. d. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

d. Probe further to determine other barriers they are experiencing and possible motives to participate.

Changing leadership style based on the size of a group would be an example of which component of leadership? Select one: a. Leader's qualities b. Follower's qualities c. Leadership styles d. Situational factors

d. Situational factors

Which subtopic of psychology deals with how the environment affects exercise behavior? Select one: a. Health psychology b. Social psychology c. Developmental psychology d. Sport and exercise psychology

d. Sport and exercise psychology

If forward head posture is permitted during the drawing-in maneuver, what muscle may be preferentially activated, leading to poor muscle balance throughout the spine? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Rhomboids c. Upper trapezius d. Sternocleidomastoid

d. Sternocleidomastoid

What is end-diastolic volume? Select one: a. The volume of blood pumped by the heart per minute b. The amount of blood remaining in the ventricle after contraction c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each contraction d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

d. The amount of blood in the ventricle before contraction

What is the intended outcome of stage 2 training? Select one: a. To introduce individuals to exercise and improve general health and fitness, or to provide recovery following higher-intensity exercise sessions b. To increase the capacity of aerobic and anaerobic energy systems for clients seeking further improvements in exercise capacity c. To increase the capacity of the anaerobic energy system for high-level athletes and fitness enthusiasts seeking improvements in anaerobic capacity and power d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

d. To increase the workload (e.g., speed, incline) in a way that helps clients exercise at higher intensities and achieve greater levels of aerobic fitness

How far down should a client squat during the barbell squat exercise? Select one: a. Knees at 80 degrees of flexion b. Knees at 90 degrees of flexion c. As far as can be controlled without compensating d. Thighs parallel to the ground

As far as can be controlled without compensating

Stored energy from an efficiently functioning stretch-shortening cycle is released during which muscle action? Select one: a. Concentric b. Isokinetic c. Eccentric d. Isometric

Concentric

What type of muscle action would expend the highest amount of energy at a fixed resistance level over a comparable duration? Select one: a. Isotonic b. Eccentric c. Concentric d. Isometric

Concentric

What surrounds the skeletal muscles and connects them to other surrounding muscles? Select one: a. Connective tissues b. Muscle spindles c. Tendons d. Fascia

Fascia

The hip hinge is an important fundamental movement. During a hip hinge, what movements are occurring? Select one: a. Flexion and extension b. Supination and pronation c. Adduction and abduction d. Abduction and extension

Flexion and Extension

The impact that family members, peers, or coworkers have over someone's decision to exercise describes which of the following terms? Select one: a. Group influence b. Societal influence c. Health influence d. Peer pressure

Group Influence

Which of the following would make a person better at oxidizing fat? Select one: a. Having less oxygen delivery to the muscle b. Having more glycogen stored in their muscle c. Having more mitochondria in their muscle d. Having more fat stored on their body Feedback

Having more mitochondria in their muscle

The most well-known and well-researched effect of omega-3 fats relates to which of the following? Select one: a. Athletic performance b. Endocrine health c. Heart health d. Bone health

Heart health

Which of these joint movements is part of backside mechanics? Select one: a. Knee flexion b. Hip extension c. Ankle dorsiflexion d. Hip flexion

Hip Extension

Which statement best defines the concept of relative flexibility? Select one: a. Ability to stretch in small increments b. Altered movement patterns c. Ability to stretch only one muscle d. Inability to stretch multiple muscles for long periods

Altered movement patterns

During what phase of the stretch-shortening cycle is stored elastic energy converted to explosive force production? Select one: a. Eccentric b. Concentric c. Stabilization d. Amortization

Amortization

Kettlebells were first used in which setting? Select one: a. The Russian military b. By the Greeks and Egyptians as a training tool for gladiators c. Eastern European gymnastic programs d. As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

As a unit of measurement on market and farming scales

The standard Jackson and Pollock 3-Site protocol for women requires skinfold measurements at which of the following sites? Select one: a. Triceps, abdomen, and thigh b. Chest, suprailiac, and abdomen c. Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps d. Abdomen, thigh, and suprailiac

Suprailiac, thigh, and triceps

In most individuals, to what pressure is the blood pressure cuff inflated when measuring resting blood pressure? Select one: a. The cuff is inflated to a value 45 to 55 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. b. The cuff is inflated to a value 70 to 80 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. c. The cuff is inflated to a value 5 to 10 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist. d. The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist.

The cuff is inflated to a value of 20 to 30 mm Hg above the point at which the pulse can no longer be felt at the wrist

What is the ventilatory threshold 1 (VT1)? Select one: a. The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise b. The point at which the body uses mostly protein as fuel for exercise c. The point at which the body switches to using mostly fat as fuel for exercise d. The point at which a person can no longer talk during exercise

The point at which the body switches to using carbohydrates to provide at least half the fuel for exercise

Proper extensibility of which of these global core muscles is important prior to performing the medicine ball pullover throw? Select one: a. Diaphragm b. Quadriceps c. Latissimus dorsi d. Multifidus

c. Latissimus dorsi

What best defines a Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? Select one: a. A screening tool used to evaluate the benefits and the risks associated with starting any type of exercise that is strenuous in nature b. A screening where the results indicate a need for medical clearance, when one is not, in fact, needed c. A questionnaire with lists of questions that pertain to health history and habits, such as exercise history, eating behaviors, and general lifestyle d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

d. A detailed questionnaire designed to assess an individual's physical readiness to engage in structured exercise

Calcium is often associated with bone health, but why is it also important for muscular function? Select one: a. It helps transmit the motor signal. b. It converts ADP back to ATP. c. It helps the nerve impulse cross from the synapse into the muscle. d. It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

It stimulates actin and myosin activity.

Which of the following is magnesium classified as? Select one: a. Vitamin b. Trace mineral c. Macromineral d. Macronutrient

Macromineral

Which of the following statements pertaining to high-intensity interval training (HIIT) is incorrect? Select one: a. Measuring intensity by performance (objective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. b. It can produce results in a compressed period of time with a smaller volume of work. c. Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity. d. Intervals are performed at higher intensities and use longer recovery periods.

Measuring intensity by one's "effort" (a subjective measure) is an accurate measure of intensity.

The development of muscular endurance of the legs requires light weights and high repetitions when performing leg-related exercises. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Neuromuscular specificity b. Metabolic specificity c. Mechanical specificity d. Posture specificity

Mechanical specificity

Which modality allows for movements to occur as explosively as possible without the need for eccentric deceleration? Select one: a. Kettlebell b. Resistance band c. Suspended bodyweight training d. Medicine ball

Medicine Ball

What is best defined as the action of expanding the diameter of a blood vessel near the surface of the skin, which helps remove heat from the body? Select one: a. Peripheral vasodilation b. Heart rate c. Blood pressure d. Thermoregulation

Peripheral vasodilation

Which term describes the act of lightly pushing on a client's shoulders when they are balancing on one foot so they can learn to maintain or recover balance? Select one: a. Neuromuscular control b. Somatosensation c. Perturbation d. Sensorimotor function

Perturbation

Which postural distortion is characterized by flat feet, knee valgus, and adducted and internally rotated hips? Select one: a. Pes planus distortion syndrome b. Knee valgus c. Upper crossed syndrome d. Lower crossed syndrome

Pes planus distortion syndrome

Heavy battle rope training is an ideal training modality for which of the following phases? Select one: a. Phases 3 and 4 b. Phases 2 and 3 c. Phases 1 and 3 d. Phases 4 and 5

Phases 4 and 5

Kettlebell exercises have proven extremely beneficial in the development in which plane or of which chain? Select one: a. Posterior chain b. Sagittal plane c. Transverse plane d. Anterior chain

Posterior Chain

What type of input may provide a runner with a cue to contract the evertor muscles to avoid an inversion injury? Select one: a. Proprioception b. Stretch-shortening cycle c. Force velocity d. External feedback

Proprioception

The difference between the end-diastolic and end-systolic volumes is referred to as what? Select one: a. Cardiac output b. Stroke volume c. Venous return d. Resting heart rate

Stroke volume

Which organization must approve a supplement prior to it being sold? Select one: a. World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) b. European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) c. Supplements do not require approval prior to sale. d. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

Supplements do not require approval prior to sale.

A client is performing a push-up exercise with a 4-3-2-1 repetition tempo. For how many seconds is the concentric muscle contraction performed? Select one: a. 2 seconds b. 3 seconds c. 4 seconds d. 1 second

2 seconds

What statement best describes the main benefit for establishing a brand identity? Select one: a. A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence. b. A brand identity provides more opportunities for being featured in magazines. c. A brand identity could make it easier to create a social media profile. d. A brand identity allows a fitness professional to design a colorful logo that attracts attention.

A brand identity establishes a top-of-mind presence.

What is forecasting? Select one: a. A rapport-building technique where fitness professionals walk around the gym floor talking to members without overtly presenting a sale b. A relationship in which two people understand each other's ideas, have respect for one another, and communicate well c. A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal d. A system for learning about the needs of a potential client to be able to identify and present a number of solutions for those needs

A business management technique that helps predict how much work is needed to meet a revenue goal

What is a primary difference between a food label and a supplement label? Select one: a. A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts. b. There is no difference. c. A supplement label is more detailed than a food label. d. Supplement labels only list active ingredients.

A supplement label only needs to list what is present, not specific amounts.

Which of the following would occur during intermittent exercise? Select one: a. Fat would be the main energy source. b. Carbohydrates would not be a major energy source. c. A steady-state intensity would be used. d. All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

All three energy systems would be used at some point during the activity.

A Certified Personal Trainer wants to improve a client's outcome expectations for resistance training. What behavior change technique might they use? Select one: a. Providing information on the health benefits b. Improving their confidence for their technique c. Helping them make a plan d. Helping make the exercises fun

Providing information on the health benefits

What is defined as the ability to react and change body position with maximal force production, in all planes of motion, and from all body positions? Select one: a. Speed b. Quickness c. Strength d. Agility

Quickness

Which heart chamber gathers deoxygenated blood returning to the heart from the superior and inferior vena cava veins? Select one: a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle

Right Atrium

If someone repeatedly lifts heavy weights, that person will produce higher levels of maximal strength. What is this an example of? Select one: a. Archimedes' principle b. Theory of general relativity c. SAID principle d. Law of thermodynamics

SAID principle

Which of the following options would be the correct superset for back exercises during Phase 2 of the OPT model? Select one: a. Stability ball dumbbell rows followed by bench press b. Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row c. Seated cable row followed by single-leg squat d. Seated cable row followed by lat pulldown

Seated cable row followed by stability ball dumbbell row

The upper trapezius works with what muscle as a force couple to create upward rotation of the scapula? Select one: a. Rotator cuff muscles b. Serratus anterior c. Deltoid d. Rhomboids

Serratus anterior

When a Certified Personal Trainer wants to enhance a client's self-efficacy by breaking down exercises or goals into easier-to-achieve tasks, what behavior change technique are they using? Select one: a. Experience mastery b. Set specific tasks c. Provide instructions d. Verbal persuasion

Set specific tasks

The lengthening reaction is often seen with what type of flexibility technique? Select one: a. Ballistic stretching b. Static stretching c. Dynamic stretching d. Active stretching

Static stretching

The addition of balance training to a strengthening program can enhance what? Select one: a. Vestibular senses b. Strength c. Vision d. Somatosensation

Strength

Why is the hurdler's stretch considered to be a controversial lower-body stretch? Select one: a. The stretch is too advanced for the average person. b. The stretch provides excessive stress to the hamstring muscles. c. The stretch is too complicated for the new client. d. The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

The stretch provides excessive stress to the inside of the knee.

Which of the following statements regarding true Tabata training is considered accurate? Select one: a. The total duration of the workout is 20 minutes long and performed at near maximal effort. b. The work-to-recovery intervals are 3:1 (30 sec work + 10 sec recovery) for a total of 12 intervals. c. The work-to-recovery intervals are 1:2 (20 sec work + 40 sec recovery) for a total of 10 intervals. d. The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

The total duration of the workout is 4 minutes long and performed at 170% of VO2max.

Which of the following best describes the role of micronutrients in the body? Select one: a. They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism. b. They are the primary source of energy for all physiologic processes. c. They provide some calories, and they are required for the regulation of muscle protein synthesis and glucose metabolism. d. They are the primary energy source during short, high-intensity training.

They regulate various metabolic processes, including energy metabolism.

Rotational movement of the torso should primarily occur where? Select one: a. Frontal plane b. Thoracic spine c. Sagittal plane d. Lumbar spine

Thoracic Spine

What are common physical characteristics of those with emphysema? Select one: a. Those with emphysema frequently display high oxygen content in the blood. b. Those with emphysema frequently display knee valgus and pes planus. c. Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles. d. Those with emphysema are frequently overweight and may exhibit atrophied neck muscles.

Those with emphysema are frequently underweight and may exhibit hypertrophied neck muscles.

What is the purpose of the Current Good Manufacturing Practices? Select one: a. To ban illegal substances b. To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products c. To set prices for supplements d. To set regulations on what ingredients can and cannot be used

To provide guidelines to help ensure quality and purity of products

Which of the following is the most accurate statement regarding proprioceptive modalities? Select one: a. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities has been shown to be safe and effective. b. Proprioceptive modalities should be used only with the most advanced clients. c. Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous. d. Proprioceptive modalities have not been shown to help improve balance.

Using heavy weights while performing exercises on proprioceptive modalities is considered dangerous.