NCLEX 4000 Pediatrics

A child with sickle cell anemia is being treated for a crisis. The physician orders morphine sulfate, 2 mg I.V. The concentration of the vial is 10 mg/1 ml of solution. How many milliliters of solution should the nurse administer? Record your answer using one decimal place. Answer: milliliters

0.2 milliliters RATIONALE: The nurse should calculate the volume to be given using this equation: 2 mg/X ml = 10 mg/1 ml 10X = 2 X = 0.2 ml

A nurse is teaching a parent how to administer antibiotics at home to a toddler with acute otitis media. Which statement by the parent indicates that teaching has been successful? 1. "I'll give the antibiotics for the full 10-day course of treatment." 2. "I'll give the antibiotics until my child's ear pain is gone." 3. "Whenever my child is cranky or pulls on an ear, I'll give a dose of antibiotics." 4. "If the ear pain is gone, there's no need to see the physician for another examination of the ears."

1. "I'll give the antibiotics for the full 10-day course of treatment." RATIONALE: The mother demonstrates understanding of antibiotic therapy by stating she'll give the full 10-day course of treatment. Antibiotics must be given for the full course of therapy, even if the child feels well. Otherwise, the infection won't be eradicated. Antibiotics should be taken at ordered intervals to maintain blood levels and not as needed for pain. A reexamination at the end of the course of antibiotics is necessary to confirm that the infection is resolved.

A child with iron deficiency anemia is ordered ferrous sulfate (Ferralyn), an oral iron supplement. When teaching the child and parent how to administer this preparation, the mother asks why she needs to mix the supplement with citrus juice. Which response by the nurse is best? 1. "The vitamin C in the citrus juice helps with iron absorption." 2. "Having food and juice in the stomach helps with iron absorption." 3. "The citrus juice counteracts the unpleasant taste of the iron." 4. "There isn't a specific reason for it."

1. "The vitamin C in the citrus juice helps with iron absorption." RATIONALE: Administering an oral iron supplement such as ferrous sulfate with citrus juice or another vitamin C source enhances its absorption. Preferably, doses should be administered between meals because gastric acidity and absence of food promote iron absorption. Although citrus juice may improve the taste of an oral iron supplement, this isn't the primary reason for mixing the two together. Telling the mother that there isn't a specific reason for mixing the supplement with citrus juice is inappropriate and inaccurate.

A toddler develops acute otitis media and is ordered cefpodoxime proxetil (Vantin) 5 mg/kg P.O. every 12 hours. If the child weighs 22 lb (10 kg), how many milligrams will the nurse administer with each dose? 1. 50 mg 2. 100 mg 3. 110 mg 4. 220 mg

1. 50 mg RATIONALE: The dose is 5 mg/kg and the child weighs 10 kg. To determine the dose, the nurse would calculate: 5 mg/1 kg × 10 kg = 50 mg per dose.

A 14-year-old adolescent with type 1 diabetes checks his blood glucose level at 9:00 p.m. before going to bed. It has been 4 hours since his dinner and his regular insulin dose. His blood glucose level is 60 mg/dl, and he states that he feels a little shaky. What should the nurse suggest? 1. A bedtime snack of an 8-oz glass of milk and graham crackers with peanut butter 2. Going to sleep to decrease the metabolic demands on the body 3. Taking a dose of glucagon 4. Doing nothing because the glucose level is unreliable because the adolescent measured it himself

1. A bedtime snack of an 8-oz glass of milk and graham crackers with peanut butter RATIONALE: Milk is a readily absorbed form of carbohydrate and will elevate blood glucose level rapidly, thus alleviating hypoglycemia. Crackers and peanut butter contain complex carbohydrates and will maintain blood glucose level. Decreased activity and sleep aren't effective for hypoglycemia. Glucagon should be reserved for more severe signs of hypoglycemia, such as disorientation and unconsciousness. To avoid rapid deterioration, steps should be taken whenever hypoglycemia is suspected, regardless of who performed the measurement.

A nurse is teaching an adolescent with inflammatory bowel disease about treatment with corticosteroids. Which adverse effects are concerns for this client? Select all that apply. 1. Acne 2. Hirsutism 3. Mood swings 4. Osteoporosis 5. Growth spurts 6. Adrenal suppression

1. Acne 2. Hirsutism 3. Mood swings 4. Osteoporosis 6. Adrenal suppression RATIONALE: Adverse effects of corticosteroids include acne, hirsutism, mood swings, osteoporosis, and adrenal suppression. Steroid use in children and adolescents may cause delayed growth, not growth spurts.

A 14-year-old male reports having right lower quadrant pain, nausea, vomiting, and a low-grade fever for the past 12 hours. A physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a positive psoas sign. Based on these findings, what should the nurse suspect? 1. Appendicitis 2. Pancreatitis 3. Cholecystitis 4. Constipation

1. Appendicitis RATIONALE: Right lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, nausea, vomiting, a positive psoas sign, and a low-grade fever are findings consistent with acute appendicitis. Pancreatitis, cholecystitis, and constipation may mimic appendicitis; however, the pain of pancreatitis is usually localized in the left upper quadrant. Cholecystitis is associated with right upper quadrant pain. Constipation wouldn't cause a fever.

A nurse is conducting an examination of a 6-month-old baby. During the examination, the nurse should be able to elicit which reflex? 1. Babinski's 2. Startle 3. Moro's 4. Dance

1. Babinski's RATIONALE: The nurse should be able to elicit the Babinski's reflex because it may be present the entire first year of life. The startle reflex actually disappears around 4 months of age; the Moro's reflex, by 3 or 4 months of age; and the dance reflex, after the third or fourth week.

A nurse is working on the pediatric unit. Which assignment best demonstrates primary care nursing? 1. Caring for the same child from admission to discharge 2. Caring for different children each shift to gain nursing experience 3. Taking vital signs for every child hospitalized on the unit 4. Assuming the charge nurse role instead of participating in direct child care

1. Caring for the same child from admission to discharge RATIONALE: Primary care nursing requires that the primary nurse care for the same child (to whom she's assigned) during her scheduled shift. The associate nurse is assigned to the child care assignment when the primary nurse has a day off or during the evening and night shifts. Caring for different children each shift doesn't promote continuity of care. Taking vital signs for every child on the floor is an example of team nursing, in which each member of the team is assigned one specific task for each child. The charge nurse may be directly involved in child care.

An infant boy has just had surgery to repair his cleft lip. Which nursing intervention is important during the immediate postoperative period? 1. Cleaning the suture line carefully with a sterile solution after every feeding 2. Laying the infant on his abdomen to help drain fluids from his mouth 3. Allowing the infant to cry to promote lung reexpansion 4. Giving the baby a pacifier to suck for comfort

1. Cleaning the suture line carefully with a sterile solution after every feeding RATIONALE: To avoid an infection that could adversely affect the cosmetic outcome of the repair, the suture line must be cleaned very gently with a sterile solution after each feeding. Laying an infant on his abdomen after a cleft lip repair isn't appropriate because doing so will put pressure on the suture line, causing damage. The infant can be positioned on his side to drain saliva without affecting the suture line. Crying puts tension on the suture line and should be avoided by anticipating the baby's needs, such as holding and cuddling him. Hard objects such as pacifiers should be kept away from the suture line because they can cause damage.

A hospitalized infant, age 10 months, begins to choke while eating and quickly becomes unconscious. A foreign object isn't visible in the infant's airway, but respirations are absent and the pulse is 50 beats/minute and thready. The nurse attempts rescue breathing, but the ventilations are unsuccessful. What should the nurse do next? 1. Deliver five back blows. 2. Deliver five chest thrusts. 3. Perform chest compressions. 4. Deliver five abdominal thrusts.

1. Deliver five back blows. RATIONALE: If rescue breathing is unsuccessful in a child younger than age 1, the nurse should deliver five back blows, followed by five chest thrusts, to try to expel the object from the obstructed airway. The nurse shouldn't perform chest compressions because the infant has a pulse and because chest compressions are ineffective without a patent airway for ventilation. The nurse shouldn't use abdominal thrusts for a child younger than age 1 because they can injure the abdominal organs.

An 8-year-old child has just returned from the operating room after having a tonsillectomy. The nurse is preparing to do a postoperative assessment. The nurse should be alert for which signs and symptoms of bleeding? Select all that apply. 1. Frequent clearing of the throat 2. Breathing through the mouth 3. Frequent swallowing 4. Sleeping for long intervals 5. Pulse rate of 98 beats/minute 6. Bright red vomitus

1. Frequent clearing of the throat 3. Frequent swallowing 6. Bright red vomitus RATIONALE: A classic sign of bleeding after tonsillectomy is frequent swallowing; this sign occurs because blood drips down the back of the throat, tickling it. Other signs include frequent clearing of the throat and vomiting of bright red blood. Vomiting of dark blood may be seen if the child swallowed blood during surgery but doesn't indicate postoperative bleeding. Breathing through the mouth is common because of dried secretions in the nares. Sleeping for long intervals is normal after a client receives sedation and anesthesia. A pulse rate of 98 beats/minute is in the normal range for this age-group.

In developing a security plan for a pediatric unit, a nurse must consider which factors? Select all that apply. 1. Identification of neonates, infants, toddlers, children, and adolescents at all times 2. The facility's physical layout 3. The climate in which the hospital is located 4. Available resources to obtain and maintain the security plan 5. Methods for educating all staff regarding the security plan

1. Identification of neonates, infants, toddlers, children, and adolescents at all times 2. The facility's physical layout 4. Available resources to obtain and maintain the security plan 5. Methods for educating all staff regarding the security plan RATIONALE: When developing a security plan for a pediatric unit, the nurse should consider the identification of neonates, infants, toddlers, children, and adolescents; the facility's physical layout; available resources; and methods for educating staff. She needn't consider the climate in which the hospital is located.

A nurse practicing in a nurse-managed clinic suspects that an 8-year-old child's chronic sinusitis and upper respiratory tract infections may result from allergies. She orders an immunoglobulin assay. Which immunoglobulin would the nurse expect to find elevated? 1. Immunoglobulin E 2. Immunoglobulin D 3. Immunoglobulin G 4. Immunoglobulin M

1. Immunoglobulin E RATIONALE: The nurse would expect elevated immunoglobulin (Ig) E levels because IgE is predominantly found in saliva and tears as well as intestinal and bronchial secretions and, therefore, may be found in allergic disorders. IgD's physiologic function is unknown and constitutes only 1% of the total number of circulating immunoglobulins. IgG is elevated in the presence of viral and bacterial infections. IgM is the first antibody activated after an antigen enters the body, and is especially effective against gram-negative organisms.

A 10-month-old infant with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) experiences a cyanotic episode. To improve oxygenation during such an episode, the nurse should place the infant in which position? 1. Knee-to-chest 2. Fowler's 3. Trendelenburg's 4. Prone

1. Knee-to-chest RATIONALE: TOF involves four defects: pulmonary stenosis, right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular-septal defect (VSD), and dextroposition of the aorta with overriding of the VSD. Pulmonary stenosis decreases pulmonary blood flow and right-to-left shunting via the VSD, causing desaturated blood to circulate. The nurse should place the child in the knee-to-chest position because this position reduces venous return from the legs and increases systemic vascular resistance, maximizing pulmonary blood flow and improving oxygenation status. Fowler's, Trendelenburg's, and the prone positions don't improve oxygenation.

A child, age 5, is diagnosed with chronic renal failure. When teaching the parents about diet therapy, the nurse should instruct them to restrict which foods from the child's diet? 1. Meats 2. Carbohydrates 3. Fats 4. Dairy products

1. Meats RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the parents to restrict meats because they contain a large amount of protein. Dairy products, carbohydrates, and fats are appropriate food choices for this child.

A 15-month-old toddler has just received his routine immunizations, including diphtheria, tetanus, and acellular pertussis; inactivated polio vaccine; measles, mumps, and rubella; varicella; and pneumococcal conjugate vaccine. What information should the nurse give to the parents before they leave the office? Select all that apply. 1. Minor symptoms can be treated with acetaminophen (Tylenol). 2. Minor symptoms can be treated with aspirin (A.S.A.). 3. Call the office if the toddler develops a temperature above 103° F (39.4° C), seizures, or difficulty breathing. 4. Soreness at the immunization site and mild fever are common. 5. The immunizations prevent the toddler from contracting their associated diseases. 6. The toddler should restrict his activity for the remainder of the day.

1. Minor symptoms can be treated with acetaminophen (Tylenol). 3. Call the office if the toddler develops a temperature above 103° F (39.4° C), seizures, or difficulty breathing. 4. Soreness at the immunization site and mild fever are common. RATIONALE: The nurse should tell the parents that minor symptoms, such as soreness at the immunization site and mild fever, can be treated with acetaminophen or ibuprofen. Aspirin should be avoided in children because of its association with Reye's syndrome. The parents should notify the clinic if serious complications (such as a temperature above 103° F, seizures, or difficulty breathing) occur. Minor discomforts, such as soreness and mild fever, are common after immunizations. Immunizing the child decreases the health risks associated with contracting certain diseases; it doesn't prevent the toddler from acquiring them. Although the child may prefer to rest after immunizations, it isn't necessary to restrict his activity.

Which finding in a 3-year-old child with acute renal failure requires immediate follow-up? 1. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L 2. Blood pressure in right leg of 90/50 mm Hg 3. Abdominal cramps 4. No albumin in the urine

1. Potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L RATIONALE: A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L requires immediate follow-up because it's considered critically high, making the child prone to cardiac arrhythmias. Whereas a blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg should be recorded and monitored, it doesn't require immediate follow-up. Abdominal cramping may be caused by several conditions and can be observed over time.

A child who was hospitalized for sickle cell crisis is being discharged. Which parent outcome demonstrates effective teaching regarding prevention of future crises? 1. The parent verbalizes the need to stay away from persons with known infections. 2. The parent verbalizes appropriate dietary restrictions. 3. The parent verbalizes the need to restrict fluid intake. 4. The parent participates in an aerobic exercise program.

1. The parent verbalizes the need to stay away from persons with known infections. RATIONALE: Preventing infections through proper hand washing and staying away from persons with known infections is an important measure in preventing sickle cell crises. Dietary restrictions aren't significant in preventing these crises. The client should maintain adequate hydration, not restrict fluid intake, and should avoid strenuous activity such as aerobics.

Before performing an otoscopic examination on a child, where should the nurse palpate for tenderness? 1. Tragus, mastoid process, and helix 2. Helix, umbo, and tragus 3. Tragus, cochlea, and lobule 4. Mastoid process, incus, and malleus

1. Tragus, mastoid process, and helix RATIONALE: Before inserting the otoscope, the nurse should palpate the child's external ear, especially the tragus and mastoid process, and should pull the helix backward to determine the presence of pain or tenderness. The umbo, incus, and malleus (parts of the middle ear) and the cochlea (part of the inner ear) aren't palpable.

A school-age child presents to the office for a routine examination. Given the child's developmental level, a nurse should give highest priority to: 1. allowing the child to change into a gown while she isn't in the room. 2. allowing the child to play with medical equipment before the examination begins. 3. asking the parents to leave the room during the child's examination. 4. encouraging the child to hold a stuffed animal during the examination.

1. allowing the child to change into a gown while she isn't in the room. RATIONALE: School-age children tend to be very modest. The nurse should allow them to change into gowns while she isn't in the examination room. Children shouldn't have to take off their underwear for routine medical examinations. Playing with medical equipment is characteristic of younger children. The nurse shouldn't ask parents to leave the room unless the child requests that they not be present. A school-age child may feel too old to hold a stuffed animal during the examination.

A nurse in the pediatric intensive care unit is caring for the only survivor of a house fire that killed seven people. Reporters from local newspapers and television stations are at the hospital, trying to obtain information about the child's condition. The nurse knows that she: 1. may not disclose information regarding the child's condition. 2. may disclose the child's condition, but not his name. 3. may make a statement about how sad she feels for the little boy's family and friends. 4. should contact an attorney because of the legal issues involved in caring for the child.

1. may not disclose information regarding the child's condition. RATIONALE: According to Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act standards, a nurse can't provide information regarding a child's care unless the child's parent or guardian authorizes her to do so. It wouldn't be appropriate for the nurse to contact an attorney at this time. Although not legally wrong, it wouldn't be appropriate for the nurse to make a statement about her feelings about the situation.

When making ethical decisions about caring for preschoolers, a nurse should remember to: 1. provide beneficial care and avoid harming the child. 2. make decisions that will prevent legal trouble. 3. do what she would do for her own child or loved ones. 4. be sure to do what the physician says.

1. provide beneficial care and avoid harming the child. RATIONALE: Nurses must provide beneficial care and avoid harming all clients. A nurse shouldn't base any decision solely on the desire to prevent legal trouble, on her own feelings for her loved ones, or what the physician says.

A mother of a 4-year-old child asks the nurse how to talk with her daughter about strangers. The little girl is very friendly and her mother is concerned that her child could be abducted. The nurse should tell the mother: 1. to talk with her daughter about what she should do if a stranger talks to her. 2. that she lives in a safe town and shouldn't worry. 3. to talk with her daughter about bad people and remind her to tell Mommy if someone she doesn't know talks to her. 4. contact social services, which is better equipped to respond to her questions.

1. to talk with her daughter about what she should do if a stranger talks to her. RATIONALE: Preschoolers can begin to take a role in their own safety. They must be taught what a stranger is and what to do if a stranger approaches them. Living in a safe town doesn't eliminate the need to warn a child about talking to strangers. Although it's appropriate for the mother to talk with her daughter about strangers and have the daughter tell her if a stranger approaches her, the child needs to be aware of what to do at the time that the situation occurs, not only afterward. Contacting social services isn't appropriate because the nurse is capable of answering the mother's questions.

An infant who weighs 7.5 kg is to receive ampicillin (Omnipen) 25 mg/kg I.V. every 6 hours. How many milligrams should the nurse administer per dose? Record your answer using one decimal place. Answer: milligrams

187.5 milligrams RATIONALE: The nurse should calculate the correct dose using the following equation: 25 mg/kg × 7.5 kg = 187.5 mg

A 44-lb preschooler is being treated for inflammation. The physician orders 0.2 mg/kg/day of dexamethasone (Decadron) by mouth to be administered every 6 hours. The elixir comes in a strength of 0.5 mg/5 ml. How many teaspoons of dexamethasone should the nurse give this client per dose? Record your answer using a whole number. Answer: teaspoons

2 teaspoons RATIONALE: To perform this dosage calculation, the nurse should first convert the child's weight from pounds to kilograms: 44 lb ÷ 2.2 lb/kg = 20 kg Then she should calculate the total daily dose for the child: 20 kg × 0.2 mg/kg/day = 4 mg Next, the nurse should calculate the amount to be given at each dose: 4 mg ÷ 4 doses = 1 mg/dose The available elixir contains 0.5 mg of drug per 5 ml (which is equal to 1 teaspoon). Therefore, to give 1 mg of the drug, the nurse should administer 2 teaspoons (10 ml) to the child for each dose.

A teenage mother brings her 1-year-old child to the pediatrician's office for a well-baby checkup. She says that her infant can't sit alone or roll over. An appropriate response by the nurse would be: 1. "This is very abnormal. Your child must be sick." 2. "Let's see about further developmental testing." 3. "Don't worry, this is normal for her age." 4. "Maybe you just haven't seen her do it."

2. "Let's see about further developmental testing." RATIONALE: Stating that further developmental testing is necessary is appropriate because at age 12 months a child should be sitting up and rolling over. Therefore, this child may have developmental problems. Saying the infant's behavior is abnormal or suggesting that the mother hasn't seen her infant do these milestones isn't therapeutic and can cut off communication with the mother. Telling the mother that the infant's behavior is normal misleads the mother with false reassurance.

After being hospitalized for status asthmaticus, a child, age 5, is discharged with prednisone (Deltasone) and other oral medications. Two weeks later, when the child comes to the clinic for a checkup, the nurse instructs the mother to gradually decrease the dosage of prednisone, which will be discontinued. The mother asks why prednisone must be discontinued. How should the nurse respond? 1. "Steroids increase the appetite, leading to obesity with prolonged use." 2. "Long-term steroid therapy may interfere with a child's growth." 3. "The child may develop a hypersensitivity to steroids with continued use." 4. "Prolonged steroid use may cause depression."

2. "Long-term steroid therapy may interfere with a child's growth." RATIONALE: Steroids suppress release of adrenocorticotropic hormone from the pituitary gland, stopping production of endogenous hormones by the adrenal cortex. Because prolonged adrenal suppression may cause growth retardation in a child, the duration and dosage of steroid therapy must be kept to a minimum. Steroids also may cause central nervous system effects, such as euphoria, insomnia, and mood swings. Although steroids increase the appetite, this effect isn't the reason for limiting their use in children. Steroids are present in the body, so hypersensitivity isn't a problem, and they're likely to cause euphoria, not depression.

A child has just been admitted to the facility and is displaying fear related to separation from his parents, the room being too dark, being hurt while in the hospital, and having many different staff members come into the room. Based on the nurse's knowledge of growth and development, the child is likely: 1. 7 to 12 months old (an infant). 2. 1 to 3 years old (a toddler). 3. 6 to 12 years old (a school-age child). 4. 12 to 18 years old (an adolescent).

2. 1 to 3 years old (a toddler). RATIONALE: Toddlers show fear of separation from their parents, the dark, loud or sudden noises, injury, strangers, certain persons, certain situations, animals, large objects or machines, and change in environment. Infants show fear of strangers, the sudden appearance of unexpected and looming objects (including people), animals, and heights. School-age children show fear of supernatural beings, injury, storms, the dark, staying alone, separation from parents, things seen on television and in the movies, injury, tests and failure in school, consequences related to unattractive physical appearance, and death. Adolescents show fear of inept social performance, social isolation, sexuality, drugs, war, divorce, crowds, gossip, public speaking, plane and car crashes, and death.

A nurse is teaching the parents of a 6-month-old infant about usual growth and development. Which statements about infant development are true? Select all that apply. 1. A 6-month-old infant has difficulty holding objects. 2. A 6-month-old infant can usually roll from prone to supine and supine to prone positions. 3. A teething ring is appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. 4. Stranger anxiety usually peaks at 12 to 18 months. 5. Head lag is commonly noted in infants at age 6 months. 6. Lack of visual coordination usually resolves by age 6 months.

2. A 6-month-old infant can usually roll from prone to supine and supine to prone positions. 3. A teething ring is appropriate for a 6-month-old infant. 6. Lack of visual coordination usually resolves by age 6 months. RATIONALE: Gross motor skills of the 6-month-old infant include rolling from front to back and back to front. Teething usually begins around age 6 months; therefore, a teething ring is appropriate. Visual coordination is usually resolved by age 6 months. At age 6 months, fine motor skills include purposeful grasps. Stranger anxiety normally peaks at 8 months of age. The 6-month-old infant also should have good head control and no longer display head lag when pulled up to a sitting position.

A nurse is reviewing an adolescent's immunization record. Which immunization is inappropriate for an adolescent as a component of preventative care? 1. A tetanus-diphtheria (Td) vaccine, given 7 years after the most recent childhood diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, and acellular pertussis (DTaP) vaccine 2. A second measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine 3. A tuberculin skin test every other year 4. The hepatitis B vaccine, if not received earlier

2. A second measles-mumps-rubella (MMR) vaccine RATIONALE: A second MMR vaccine is a recommended immunization for an adolescent. A Td vaccine is given 10 years after the most recent childhood DTaP vaccination (not 7 years after). A hepatitis B vaccine is recommended only if the adolescent hasn't received one earlier. A tuberculin skin test is necessary for adolescents who have been exposed to active tuberculosis, have lived in a homeless shelter, have been incarcerated, have lived in or come from an area with a high prevalence of tuberculosis, or are currently working in a health care setting. It isn't routinely administered every other year.

A nurse is reviewing her shift assignment. Which child should she assess first? 1. A 5-month-old infant with I.V. fluids infusing 2. An 11-month-old infant receiving chemotherapy through a central venous catheter 3. An 8-year-old child in traction with a femur fracture 4. A 14-year-old child who is postoperative and has a nasogastric tube and an indwelling urinary catheter

2. An 11-month-old infant receiving chemotherapy through a central venous catheter RATIONALE: The nurse should assess the 11-month-old infant with a central venous catheter first. This child takes priority because he has an invasive line and is receiving chemotherapy, which may cause toxic effects. Next, the nurse should assess the 5-month-old infant with an I.V. infusion and then the 14-year-old postoperative child. Because he's the most stable, the nurse can assess the 8-year-old child in traction last.

The mother of an 11-month-old infant reports to the nurse that her infant sleeps much less than other children. The mother asks the nurse whether her infant is getting sufficient sleep. What should be the nurse's initial response? 1. Reassure the mother that each infant's sleep needs are individual. 2. Ask the mother for more information about the infant's sleep patterns. 3. Instruct the mother to decrease the infant's daytime sleep to increase his nighttime sleep. 4. Inform the mother that her infant's growth and development are appropriate for his age, so sleep isn't a concern.

2. Ask the mother for more information about the infant's sleep patterns. RATIONALE: The nurse needs more information about the infant's sleep patterns to rule out potential problems before determining whether the infant is getting enough sleep. The nurse shouldn't offer advice or reassurance without knowing more about the infant's specific sleep habits.

A preschool child presents with a history of vomiting and diarrhea for 2 days. Which assessment finding indicates that the child is in the late stages of shock? 1. Tachycardia 2. Bradycardia 3. Irritability 4. Urine output 1 to 2 ml/kg/hour

2. Bradycardia RATIONALE: Bradycardia is a sign of late shock in a child. Cardiovascular dysfunction and impairment of cellular function lead to lowered perfusion pressures, increased precapillary arteriolar resistance, and venous capacitance. Decreased cardiac output occurs in late shock if the circulating volume isn't replaced. Sympathetic nervous innervation has limited compensation mechanisms if the volume isn't replaced. Tachycardia and irritability occur during the early phase of shock as compensatory mechanisms are implemented to increase cardiac output. Normal pediatric urine output is 1 to 2 ml/kg/hour; volumes less than this would indicate a decrease in renal perfusion and activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system to decrease water and sodium excretion.

When teaching a parent of a school-age child about signs and symptoms of fever that require immediate notification of the physician, which description should the nurse include? 1. Burning or pain with urination 2. Complaints of a stiff neck 3. Fever disappearing for longer than 24 hours, then returning 4. History of febrile seizures

2. Complaints of a stiff neck RATIONALE: The nurse should discuss complaints of a stiff neck because fever and a stiff neck indicate possible meningitis. Burning or pain with urination, fever that disappears for 24 hours then returns, and a history of febrile seizures should be addressed by the physician but can wait until office hours.

A nurse is assessing a 3-year-old child who has ingested toilet bowl cleaner. What finding should the nurse expect? 1. Reddish colored skin 2. Edematous lips 3. Hypertension 4. Lower abdominal pain

2. Edematous lips RATIONALE: A child who has ingested a caustic poison such as lye (found in toilet bowl cleaners) may develop edema, ulcers of the lips and mouth, pain in the mouth and throat, excessive salivation, dysphagia, and burns of the mouth, lips, esophagus, and stomach. Bleeding from burns in the GI tract can lead to pallor, hypotension (not hypertension), tachypnea, and tachycardia. The nurse would not expect to find reddish colored skin and lower abdominal pain because they don't commonly occur in caustic poisoning.

The physician suspects tracheoesophageal fistula in a 1-day-old neonate. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate for this child? 1. Avoiding suctioning unless cyanosis occurs 2. Elevating the neonate's head and giving nothing by mouth 3. Elevating the neonate's head for 1 hour after feedings 4. Giving the neonate only glucose water for the first 24 hours

2. Elevating the neonate's head and giving nothing by mouth RATIONALE: Because of the risk of aspiration, a neonate with a known or suspected tracheoesophageal fistula should be kept with the head elevated at all times and should receive nothing by mouth (NPO). The nurse should suction the neonate regularly to maintain a patent airway and prevent pooling of secretions. Elevating the neonate's head after feedings or giving glucose water are inappropriate because the neonate must remain on NPO status.

When assessing a child for impetigo, the nurse expects which assessment findings? 1. Small, brown, benign lesions 2. Honey-colored, crusted lesions 3. Linear, threadlike burrows 4. Circular lesions that clear centrally

2. Honey-colored, crusted lesions RATIONALE: In impetigo, honey-colored, crusted lesions develop once the pustules rupture. Small, brown, benign lesions are common in children with warts. Linear, threadlike burrows are typical in a child with scabies. Circular lesions that clear centrally characterize tinea corporis.

A nurse is reviewing a teaching plan with parents of an infant undergoing repair for a cleft lip. Which instructions are the most appropriate for the nurse to give? Select all that apply. 1. Offer a pacifier as needed. 2. Lay the infant on his back or side to sleep. 3. Sit the infant up for each feeding. 4. Loosen the arm restraints every 4 hours. 5. Clean the suture line after each feeding by dabbing it with saline solution. 6. Give the infant extra care and support.

2. Lay the infant on his back or side to sleep. 3. Sit the infant up for each feeding. 5. Clean the suture line after each feeding by dabbing it with saline solution. 6. Give the infant extra care and support. RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct the parents to lay the infant on his back or side to sleep to prevent trauma to the surgery site. She should also instruct them to feed the infant in the upright position with a syringe and attached tubing to prevent stress to the suture line from sucking. In addition, to prevent crusts and scarring, the suture line should be cleaned after each feeding by dabbing it with half-strength hydrogen peroxide or saline solution. The parents should give the infant extra care and support because he can't meet emotional needs by sucking. Extra attention may also prevent crying, which stresses the suture line. Offering a pacifier isn't appropriate. Pacifiers shouldn't be used during the healing process because they stress the suture line. Arm restraints keep the infant's hands away from his mouth. They should be loosened every 2 hours, not every 4 hours.

An adolescent is admitted for treatment of bulimia nervosa. When developing the care plan, the nurse anticipates including interventions that address which metabolic disorder? 1. Hypoglycemia 2. Metabolic alkalosis 3. Metabolic acidosis 4. Hyperkalemia

2. Metabolic alkalosis RATIONALE: In a client with bulimia nervosa, metabolic alkalosis may occur secondary to hydrogen loss caused by frequent, self-induced vomiting. Typically, the blood glucose level is within normal limits, making hypoglycemia unlikely. In bulimia nervosa, hypokalemia is more common than hyperkalemia and typically results from potassium loss related to frequent vomiting.

An infant is diagnosed with a congenital hip dislocation. On assessment, the nurse expects to note: 1. symmetrical thigh and gluteal folds. 2. Ortolani's sign. 3. increased hip abduction. 4. femoral lengthening.

2. Ortolani's sign. RATIONALE: In a child with a congenital hip dislocation, assessment typically reveals Ortolani's sign, asymmetrical thigh and gluteal folds, limited hip abduction, femoral shortening, and Trendelenburg's sign.

A nurse observes a 2½-year-old child playing with another child of the same age in the playroom on the pediatric unit. What type of play should the nurse expect the children to engage in? 1. Associative play 2. Parallel play 3. Cooperative play 4. Therapeutic play

2. Parallel play RATIONALE: Two-year-olds engage in parallel play, in which they play side by side but rarely interact. Associative play is characteristic of preschoolers, in which they are all engaged in a similar activity but there is little organization. School-age children engage in cooperative play, which is organized and goal-directed. Therapeutic play is a technique that can be used to help understand a child's feelings; it consists of energy release, dramatic play, and creative play.

A nurse is developing a plan to teach a mother how to reduce her infant's risk of developing otitis media. Which direction should the nurse include in the teaching plan? 1. Administer antibiotics whenever the infant has a cold. 2. Place the infant in an upright position when giving a bottle. 3. Avoid getting the infant's ears wet while bathing or swimming. 4. Clean the infant's external ear canal daily.

2. Place the infant in an upright position when giving a bottle. RATIONALE: Feeding an infant a bottle in an upright position reduces the pooling of formula or breast milk in the nasopharynx. Formula, in particular, provides a good medium for the growth of bacteria, which can travel easily through the short, horizontal eustachian tubes. Administering antibiotics whenever the infant has a cold, avoiding getting the ears wet, and cleaning the external ear canal daily don't reduce the risk of an infant developing otitis media.

A nurse notes that an infant develops arm movement before fine-motor finger skills and interprets this as an example of which pattern of development? 1. Cephalocaudal 2. Proximodistal 3. Differentiation 4. Mass-to-specific

2. Proximodistal RATIONALE: Proximodistal development progresses from the center of the body to the extremities, such as from the arm to the fingers. Cephalocaudal development occurs along the body's long axis; for example, the infant develops control over the head, mouth, and eye movements before the upper body, torso, and legs. Mass-to-specific development, sometimes called differentiation, occurs as the child masters simple operations before complex functions and moves from broad, general patterns of behavior to more refined ones.

A nurse is conducting an infant nutrition class for parents. Which foods are appropriate to introduce during the first year of life? Select all that apply. 1. Sliced beef 2. Pureed fruits 3. Whole milk 4. Rice cereal 5. Strained vegetables 6. Fruit juice

2. Pureed fruits 4. Rice cereal 5. Strained vegetables RATIONALE: The first food provided to a neonate is breast milk or formula. Between ages 4 and 6 months, rice cereal can be introduced, followed by pureed or strained fruits and vegetables, then strained, chopped or ground meat. Infants shouldn't be given whole milk until they are at least age 1. Fruit drinks provide no nutritional benefit and shouldn't be encouraged.

A nurse is planning care for a 10-year-old child in the acute phase of rheumatic fever. Which activity is most appropriate for the nurse to schedule in the care plan? 1. Playing ping-pong 2. Reading books 3. Climbing on play equipment in the playroom 4. Ambulating without restrictions

2. Reading books RATIONALE: During the acute phase of rheumatic fever, the child should be placed on bed rest to reduce the workload of the heart and prevent heart failure. Therefore, an appropriate activity for this child would be reading books. Playing ping-pong, climbing on play equipment, and ambulating without restrictions are too strenuous during the acute phase.

A child is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of clinical depression. Which assessment finding is most significant in confirming this diagnosis? 1. Irritability 2. Sadness 3. Weight gain 4. Fatigue

2. Sadness RATIONALE: Clinical depression is diagnosed if the child exhibits a depressed mood (sadness) or loss of interest. Irritability isn't diagnostic for depression. Although a depressed child may gain weight and report fatigue, these findings aren't essential to the diagnosis.

A child is diagnosed with pituitary dwarfism. Which pituitary agent will the physician most likely order to treat this condition? 1. Corticotropin zinc hydroxide (Cortrophin-Zinc) 2. Somatrem (Protropin) 3. Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) 4. Vasopressin (Pitressin)

2. Somatrem (Protropin) RATIONALE: Somatrem is used to treat linear growth failure stemming from hormonal deficiency. Corticotropin zinc hydroxide is used to treat adrenal insufficiency and a variety of other conditions; desmopressin acetate and vasopressin are used to treat diabetes insipidus.

A nurse provides privacy to the infants in her care. This approach is an example of which international concept? 1. Individualization of nursing care 2. The infant's right to privacy 3. The parental expectation for nursing behavior 4. The hospital's liability protection

2. The infant's right to privacy RATIONALE: All clients are entitled to privacy; providing it doesn't represent individualization of nursing care. Nurses provide privacy to minors without regard to their parents' expectations. Provision of privacy is every client's right and isn't specifically related to institutional liability.

When developing a care plan for an adolescent, the nurse considers the child's psychosocial needs. During adolescence, psychosocial development focuses on: 1. becoming industrious. 2. establishing an identity. 3. achieving intimacy. 4. developing initiative.

2. establishing an identity. RATIONALE: According to Erikson, the primary psychosocial task during adolescence is to establish a personal identity while overcoming role or identity confusion. The adolescent attempts to establish a group identity by seeking acceptance and approval from peers, and strives to attain a personal identity by becoming more independent from his family. Becoming industrious is the developmental task of the school-age child; achieving intimacy is the task of the young adult; and developing initiative is the task of the preschooler.

A mother tells the nurse that her preschool-age daughter with spina bifida sneezes and gets a rash when playing with brightly colored balloons, and that recently she had an allergic reaction after eating kiwifruit and bananas. The nurse would suspect that the child may have an allergy to: 1. bananas. 2. latex. 3. kiwifruit. 4. color dyes.

2. latex. RATIONALE: If a child is sensitive to bananas, kiwifruit, and chestnuts, she's likely to be allergic to latex. Children with spina bifida commonly develop an allergy to latex and shouldn't be exposed to it. Some children are allergic to dyes in foods and other products, but dyes aren't a factor in a latex allergy.

A child is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). During TPN therapy, the most important nursing action is: 1. assessing vital signs every 30 minutes. 2. monitoring the blood glucose level closely. 3. elevating the head of the bed 60 degrees. 4. providing a daily bath.

2. monitoring the blood glucose level closely. RATIONALE: Most TPN solutions contain a high glucose content, placing the client at risk for hyperglycemia. Therefore, the most important nursing action is to monitor the child's blood glucose level closely. A child receiving TPN isn't likely to require vital sign assessment every 30 minutes or elevation of the head of the bed. A daily bath isn't a priority.

An emergency department nurse suspects neglect in a 3-year-old boy admitted for failure to thrive. Signs of neglect in the child would include: 1. slapping, kicking, and punching others. 2. poor hygiene and weight loss. 3. loud crying and screaming. 4. pulling hair and hitting.

2. poor hygiene and weight loss. RATIONALE: Signs of neglect include poor hygiene and weight loss because neglect can involve failure to provide food, bed, shelter, health care, or hygiene. Slapping, kicking, pulling hair, hitting, and punching are examples of forms of physical abuse, not neglect. Loud crying and screaming are normal findings in a 3-year-old boy.

A school nurse is evaluating a 7-year-old child who is having an asthma attack. The child is cyanotic and unable to speak, with decreased breath sounds and shallow respirations. Based on these physical findings, the nurse should first: 1. monitor the child with a pulse oximeter in her office. 2. prepare to ventilate the child. 3. return the child to class. 4. contact the child's parent or guardian.

2. prepare to ventilate the child. RATIONALE: The nurse should recognize these physical findings as signs and symptoms of impending respiratory collapse. Therefore, the nurse's top priority is to assess airway, breathing, and circulation, and prepare to ventilate the child if necessary. The nurse should then notify the emergency medical systems to transport the child to a local hospital. Because the child's condition requires immediate intervention, simply monitoring pulse oximetry would delay treatment. This child shouldn't be returned to class. When the child's condition allows, the nurse can notify the parents or guardian.

A child's physician orders a drug for home use. Before the child is discharged, the nurse should: 1. teach the family how to adjust the drug dosage according to the child's needs. 2. provide the family with the drug's name, dosage, route, and frequency of administration. 3. instruct the family to encourage the child to take responsibility for ensuring timely drug administration. 4. tell the family to avoid explaining the purpose of the medication to the child.

2. provide the family with the drug's name, dosage, route, and frequency of administration. RATIONALE: Before the child is discharged, the nurse should provide the family with essential facts: the drug's name, dosage, route, and frequency of administration. Generally the physician, not the family or nurse, adjusts dosages. It's unrealistic and unsafe to expect a child to take responsibility for ensuring timely administration of any drug. A child has a right to know the reasons for taking the drug.

A child, age 15 months, is admitted to the health care facility. During the initial nursing assessment, which statement by the mother most strongly suggests that the child has a Wilms' tumor? 1. "My child has grown 3" in the past 6 months." 2. "My child seems to be napping for longer periods." 3. "My child's abdomen seems bigger, and his diapers are much tighter." 4. "My child's appetite has increased so much lately."

3. "My child's abdomen seems bigger, and his diapers are much tighter." RATIONALE: The most common presenting sign of a Wilms' tumor is abdominal swelling or an abdominal mass. Therefore, the mother's observation that her child's abdomen seems bigger suggests a Wilms' tumor. A rapid increase in length (height) isn't associated with this type of tumor. Although lethargy may accompany a Wilms' tumor, abdominal swelling is a more specific sign. Children with a Wilms' tumor usually have a decreased, not increased, appetite.

An 8-month-old infant is admitted with a febrile seizure. The infant weighs 17 lb (7.7 kg). The physician orders ceftriaxone (Rocephin), 270 mg I.M. every 12 hours. (The safe dosage range is 50 to 75 mg/kg daily.) The pharmacy sends a vial containing 500 mg, to which the nurse adds 2 ml of preservative-free normal saline solution. The nurse should administer how many milliliters? 1. None because this isn't a safe dosage 2. 0.08 ml 3. 1.08 ml 4. 1.8 ml

3. 1.08 ml RATIONALE: Because the infant weighs 17 lb (7.7 kg), the safe dosage range is 385 to 578 mg daily. The ordered dosage, 540 mg daily, is safe. To calculate the amount to administer, the nurse may use the following fraction method: 500 mg/2 ml = 270 mg/X ml 500X = 270 × 2 500X = 540 X = 540/500 X = 1.08 ml

When discharging a 5-month-old infant from the hospital, the nurse checks to see whether the parent's car restraint system for the infant is appropriate. Which restraint system would be safest? 1. A front-facing convertible car seat in the middle of the back seat 2. A rear-facing infant safety seat in the front passenger seat 3. A rear-facing infant safety seat in the middle of the back seat 4. A front-facing convertible car seat in the back seat next to the window

3. A rear-facing infant safety seat in the middle of the back seat RATIONALE: Infants from birth to 20 lb (9.1 kg) and younger than age 1 must be in a rear-facing infant or convertible seat in the back seat, preferably in the middle. Infants and small children should never be placed in the front seat because of the risk of injuries from a breaking front windshield and an expanding airbag. Positioning a car seat next to the window isn't preferred.

When administering gentamicin (Garamicin) to a preschooler, which monitoring schedule is best for determining the drug's effectiveness? 1. A serum trough level every morning 2. A serum peak level after the second dose 3. A serum trough and peak level around the third dose 4. Serial serum trough levels after three doses (24 hours)

3. A serum trough and peak level around the third dose RATIONALE: Aminoglycosides such as gentamicin have a narrow range between therapeutic and toxic serum levels. A serum peak and trough level (taken half an hour before the dose and half an hour after the dose has been administered) around the third dose is the most accurate way to determine the correct serum values because the third dose provides enough medication buildup in the blood stream to be measured. A trough level every morning, a serum peak level after the second dose, and serial serum trough levels won't provide sufficient data about the effectiveness of the antibiotic.

A nurse is reviewing a care plan for an adolescent girl who's receiving chemotherapy for leukemia who was admitted for pneumonia. The adolescent's platelet count is 50,000 μl. Which item in the care plan should the nurse revise? 1. Keep a sign over the bed that reads "NO NEEDLE STICKS AND NOTHING PER RECTUM." 2. Use two peripheral I.V. intermittent infusion devices, one for blood draws and one for infusions. 3. Administer oxygen at a rate of 4 L/minute using a nonhumidified nasal cannula. 4. Use a tympanic membrane sensor to measure her temperature at the bedside.

3. Administer oxygen at a rate of 4 L/minute using a nonhumidified nasal cannula. RATIONALE: Oxygen should be humidified to assure that irritation of the mucosa doesn't occur. This adolescent's platelet level is decreased, so she's at risk for bleeding. The nose is a vascular region that can bleed easily if the mucosa is dried by the oxygen. Therefore, the nurse should revise the care plan to reflect use of humidified oxygen. A sign to remind others to avoid needle sticks and to not give anything via the rectum, the presence of two peripheral I.V.s, and the use of a tympanic temperature device are all aspects of care that would decrease the adolescent's risk of bleeding.

A chronically ill school-age child is most vulnerable to which stressor? 1. Mutilation anxiety 2. Anticipatory grief 3. Anxiety over school absences 4. Fear of hospital procedures

3. Anxiety over school absences RATIONALE: The school-age child is becoming industrious and attempts to master school-related activities. Therefore, school absences are likely to cause extreme anxiety for a school-age child who's chronically ill. Mutilation anxiety is more common in adolescents. Anticipatory grief is rare in a school-age child. Fear of hospital procedures is most pronounced in preschool-age children.

Which item in the care plan for a toddler with a seizure disorder should a nurse revise? 1. Padded side rails 2. Oxygen mask and bag system at bedside 3. Arm restraints while asleep 4. Cardiorespiratory monitoring

3. Arm restraints while asleep RATIONALE: The nurse should revise a care plan that includes restraints. Restraints should never be used on a child with a seizure disorder because they could harm him if a seizure occurs. Padded side rails will prevent the child from injuring himself during a seizure. The bag and mask system should be present in case the child needs oxygen during a seizure. Cardiopulmonary monitoring should be readily available for checking vital signs during a seizure.

To establish a good interview relationship with an adolescent, which strategy is most appropriate? 1. Asking personal questions unrelated to the situation 2. Writing down everything the teen says 3. Asking open-ended questions 4. Discussing the nurse's own thoughts and feelings about the situation

3. Asking open-ended questions RATIONALE: Open-ended questions allow the adolescent to share information and feelings. Asking personal questions not related to the situation jeopardizes the trust that must be established because the adolescent may feel as though he's being interrogated with unnecessary questions. Writing everything down during the interview can be a distraction and doesn't allow the nurse to observe how the adolescent behaves. Discussing the nurse's thoughts and feelings may bias the assessment and is inappropriate when interviewing any client.

A toddler is receiving an infusion of total parenteral nutrition via a Broviac catheter. As the child plays, the I.V. tubing becomes disconnected from the catheter. What should the nurse do first? 1. Turn off the infusion pump. 2. Position the child on the side. 3. Clamp the catheter. 4. Flush the catheter with heparin.

3. Clamp the catheter. RATIONALE: First, the nurse must clamp the catheter to prevent air entry, which could lead to air embolism. If an air embolism occurs, the nurse should position the child on the side after clamping the catheter. The nurse may turn off the infusion pump after ensuring the child's safety. If blood has backed up in the catheter, the nurse may need to flush the catheter with heparin; however, this isn't the initial priority.

When meeting with a family who'll learn that their 3-year-old is seriously ill, which action demonstrates the nurse's role as collaborator of care? 1. Providing the parents with information about financial assistance programs. 2. Informing the family of the diagnosis and recently discovered findings. 3. Coordinate the multidisciplinary services and providing information about them. 4. Referring and consulting with other specialties to help in treating the diagnosis.

3. Coordinate the multidisciplinary services and providing information about them. RATIONALE: Coordinating the multidisciplinary services and providing information about them demonstrate collaboration because the nurse will be explaining the functions of social service, case management, and so forth. Providing parents with information about financial assistance programs is the responsibility of social services, not a nursing role. Informing the family of the diagnosis and recently discovered findings is a physician's responsibility as is referring and consulting with other specialties.

A child with hemophilia is hospitalized after falling. Now the child complains of severe pain in the left wrist. What should the nurse do first? 1. Perform passive range-of-motion (ROM) exercises on the wrist. 2. Massage the wrist and apply a warm compress. 3. Elevate the affected arm and apply ice to the injury site. 4. Notify the physician.

3. Elevate the affected arm and apply ice to the injury site. RATIONALE: Severe joint pain in a child with hemophilia indicates bleeding; therefore, the nurse should first elevate the affected extremity and apply ice to the injury site to promote vasoconstriction. ROM exercises may worsen discomfort and bleeding. Massage and warm compresses also may increase bleeding. The nurse should notify the physician only after taking measures to stop the bleeding.

An adolescent is diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. After emphasizing the importance of consuming dietary iron, the nurse asks him to select iron-rich breakfast items from a sample menu. Which selection demonstrates knowledge of dietary iron sources? 1. Grapefruit and white toast 2. Pancakes and a banana 3. Ham and eggs 4. Bagel and cream cheese

3. Ham and eggs RATIONALE: Good sources of dietary iron include red meat, egg yolks, whole wheat breads, seafood, nuts, legumes, iron-fortified cereals, and green, leafy vegetables. Fresh fruits and milk products contain only small amounts of iron. White bread isn't a good iron source.

Which relaxation strategy would be effective for a school-age child to use during a painful procedure? 1. Having the child keep his eyes shut at all times 2. Having the child hold his breath and not yell 3. Having the child take a deep breath and blow it out until told to stop 4. Being honest with the child and telling him the procedure will hurt a lot

3. Having the child take a deep breath and blow it out until told to stop RATIONALE: Having the child take a deep breath and blow it out is a form of distraction and will help the child cope better with the procedure. A child may prefer to keep his eyes open, not shut, during a procedure so he can see what is going on and can anticipate what is going to happen. Letting a child yell during a procedure is a form of helpful distraction. In addition, holding the breath isn't beneficial and could have adverse effects (such as feeling dizzy or faint). The nurse should prepare a child for a procedure by using nonpain descriptors and not suggesting pain. For example, the nurse might say, "Sometimes this feels like pushing or sticking, and sometimes it doesn't bother children at all."

According to Erikson's psychosocial theory of development, an 8-year-old child would be in which stage? 1. Trust versus mistrust 2. Initiative versus guilt 3. Industry versus inferiority 4. Identity versus role confusion

3. Industry versus inferiority RATIONALE: In middle childhood, the 6- to 12-year-old child is mastering the task of industry versus inferiority. The trust versus mistrust task is in infancy (birth to 1 year). In early childhood, the 1- to 3-year-old child is in the stage of initiative versus guilt. Identity versus role confusion occurs during adolescence.

A 4-year-old has just returned from surgery. He has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place and is attached to intermittent suction. The child says to the nurse, "I'm going to throw up." What should the nurse do first? 1. Notify the physician because the child has an NG tube. 2. Immediately give the child an antiemetic I.V. 3. Irrigate the NG tube to ensure patency. 4. Encourage the mother to calm the child down.

3. Irrigate the NG tube to ensure patency. RATIONALE: The nurse should first irrigate the NG tube because if the tube isn't draining properly or is kinked, the child will experience nausea. There's no reason to notify the physician immediately because a nurse should be able to handle the situation. Giving the child an antiemetic doesn't really address the problem. Encouraging the mother to calm the child is always a good intervention but isn't the first thing to do in this case.

An 8-year-old child is suspected of having meningitis. Signs of meningitis include: 1. Cullen's sign. 2. Koplik's spots. 3. Kernig's sign. 4. Chvostek's sign.

3. Kernig's sign. RATIONALE: Signs and symptoms of meningitis include Kernig's sign, stiff neck, headache, and fever. To test for Kernig's sign, the client is in the supine position with knees flexed; a leg is then flexed at the hip so that the thigh is brought to a position perpendicular to the trunk. An attempt is then made to extend the knee. If meningeal irritation is present, the knee can't be extended and attempts to extend the knee result in pain. Cullen's sign is the bluish discoloration of the periumbilical skin caused by intraperitoneal hemorrhage. Koplik's spots are reddened areas with grayish blue centers that are found on the buccal mucosa of a client with measles. Chvostek's sign is elicited by tapping the client's face lightly over the facial nerve, just below the temple. A calcium deficit is suggested if the facial muscles twitch.

A nurse has just administered a drug to a child. Which organ is most responsible for drug excretion in children? 1. Heart 2. Lungs 3. Kidneys 4. Liver

3. Kidneys RATIONALE: The kidneys are most responsible for drug excretion in children. Less commonly, some drugs may be excreted via the lungs or liver. Drugs are never excreted by the heart in children or adults.

A 6-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit for evaluation of recurrent abdominal pain. The child has been admitted to the pediatric unit with similar complaints several times in the past few months. The child's symptoms are vague, yet his mother provides detailed information about the problem. The nurse is suspicious of the situation. What should the nurse do next? 1. Request that the parent leave the hospital unit immediately. 2. Ask to speak with the child without the parent being present. 3. Notify the physician and request assistance from the interdisciplinary team. 4. Contact the authorities immediately.

3. Notify the physician and request assistance from the interdisciplinary team. RATIONALE: The child's clinical presentation and the mother's behavior suggest Munchausen syndrome by proxy, a condition in which an individual fabricates or induces symptoms of a disorder in another person. Suspicion of this condition mandates a coordinated evaluation by the health care team. Rather than asking the parent to leave, the nurse should establish a rapport with her. Doing so will prevent the parent from becoming suspicious and leaving the health care organization, which would potentially allow the cycle to continue. The nurse must contact authorities when she obtains additional evidence.

A 4-year-old child is being treated for status asthmaticus. His arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.28, PaCO2 of 55 mm Hg, and HCO3− of 26 mEq/L. What condition do these findings indicate? 1. Respiratory alkalosis 2. Metabolic acidosis 3. Respiratory acidosis 4. Metabolic alkalosis

3. Respiratory acidosis RATIONALE: A pH less than 7.35 and a PaCO2 greater than 45 mm Hg indicate respiratory acidosis. Status asthmaticus is a medical emergency that's characterized by respiratory distress. Persistent hypoventilation leads to the accumulation of carbon dioxide, resulting in respiratory acidosis.

During a well-baby visit, a mother asks the nurse when she should start giving her infant solid foods. The nurse should instruct her to introduce which solid food first? 1. Applesauce 2. Egg whites 3. Rice cereal 4. Yogurt

3. Rice cereal RATIONALE: The nurse should instruct her to introduce rice cereal first because it's easy to digest and is associated with few allergies. Next, the infant can receive pureed fruits, such as bananas, applesauce, and pears, followed by pureed vegetables, egg yolks, cheese, yogurt and, finally, meat. Egg whites shouldn't be given until age 9 months because they may trigger a food allergy.

A physician orders an antibiotic for a child, age 6, who has an upper respiratory tract infection. To avoid tooth discoloration, the nurse expects the physician to avoid prescribing which drug? 1. Penicillin 2. Erythromycin 3. Tetracycline 4. Amoxicillin

3. Tetracycline RATIONALE: Tetracycline should be avoided in children younger than age 8 because it may cause enamel hypoplasia and permanent yellowish gray to brownish tooth discoloration. Penicillin, erythromycin, and amoxicillin don't discolor the teeth.

When developing a care plan for a child, the nurse identifies which Eriksonian stage as corresponding to Freud's oral stage of psychosexual development? 1. Initiative versus guilt 2. Autonomy versus shame and doubt 3. Trust versus mistrust 4. Industry versus inferiority

3. Trust versus mistrust RATIONALE: Freud defined the first 2 years of life as the oral stage and suggested that the mouth is the primary source of satisfaction for the developing child. Erikson posited that infancy (from birth to age 12 months) is the stage of trust versus mistrust, during which the infant learns to deal with the environment through the emergence of trustfulness or mistrust. Initiative versus guilt corresponds to Freud's phallic stage. Autonomy versus shame and doubt corresponds to Freud's anal/sensory stage. Industry versus inferiority corresponds to Freud's latency period.

A child, age 5, has acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) and is receiving induction chemotherapy consisting of vincristine (Oncovin), asparaginase (L-asparaginase [Elspar]), and prednisone (Deltasone). When teaching the parents about the adverse effects of this regimen, the nurse should stress the importance of promptly reporting: 1. hair loss. 2. moon face. 3. blindness. 4. bone pain.

3. blindness. RATIONALE: Neurotoxicity, the primary adverse effect of vincristine, may manifest as blindness that the parents must report promptly. Neurotoxicity may also cause peripheral neuropathy. Hair loss and moon face are expected adverse effects of this chemotherapy regimen and will resolve once therapy ends. Bone pain is common in clients with ALL and results from invasion of the periosteum by leukemic cells.

A 4-year-old child is having a sickle cell crisis. The initial nursing intervention should be to: 1. place ice packs on the client's painful joints. 2. administer antibiotics. 3. provide oral and I.V. fluids. 4. administer folic acid supplements.

3. provide oral and I.V. fluids. RATIONALE: Initial nursing interventions for the child in a sickle cell crisis include providing hydration and oxygenation to prevent more sickling. Pain relief is also a concern. However, painful joints are treated with analgesics and warm packs because cold packs may increase sickling. Antibiotics will be given to treat a sickle cell crisis if it's thought to be bacterial but only after hydration and oxygenation have been addressed. Daily supplements of folic acid will help counteract anemia but they aren't a priority during sickle cell crisis.

A toddler is in the hospital. The parents tell the nurse they're concerned about the seriousness of the child's illness. Which response to the parents is most appropriate? 1. "Please try not to worry. Your child will be fine." 2. "If you look around, you'll see other children who are much sicker." 3. "What seems to concern you about your child being hospitalized?" 4. "It must be difficult for you when your child is ill and hospitalized."

4. "It must be difficult for you when your child is ill and hospitalized." RATIONALE: Expressing concern is the most appropriate response because it acknowledges the parents' feelings. False reassurance, such as telling parents not to worry, isn't helpful because it doesn't acknowledge their feelings. Encouraging parents to look at how ill other children are also isn't helpful because the focus of the parents is on their own child. Asking what the concern is merely reinforces the parents' concern without addressing it.

A nurse is preparing a child, age 4, for cardiac catheterization. Which explanation of the procedure is appropriate? 1. "Don't worry. It won't hurt." 2. "The test usually takes an hour." 3. "You must sleep the whole time that the test is being done." 4. "The special medicine will feel warm when it's put in the tubing."

4. "The special medicine will feel warm when it's put in the tubing." RATIONALE: To prepare a 4-year-old child without increasing anxiety, the nurse should provide concrete information in small amounts about nonthreatening aspects of the procedure. Therefore, saying the special medicine will feel warm is most appropriate. Saying that it won't hurt may prevent the child from trusting the nurse in the future. Explaining the time needed for the procedure wouldn't provide sufficient information. Stating that the child will need to sleep isn't true and could provoke anxiety.

A parent asks the nurse for advice on disciplining a 3-year-old child. Which statement made by a parent indicates understanding of accepted discipline techniques? 1. "I don't think children younger than 5 understand the purpose of time-out." 2. "My husband uses one form of punishment and I use a different form." 3. "I don't listen to excuses." 4. "We try to be united and consistent in our approach to discipline."

4. "We try to be united and consistent in our approach to discipline." RATIONALE: To deal with misbehavior most successfully, parents should be firm and consistent when taking appropriate disciplinary action. Usually, parents should begin setting limits and implementing discipline, such as using time-outs for inappropriate behavior, around age 1, or when the child begins to crawl and explore the environment. Rigidly enforcing rules wouldn't allow the development of autonomy and could lead to self-doubt. The parent should never be encouraged to withdraw attention or affection as a result of the child's behavior, or any other reason.

A child, age 3, who tests positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is placed in foster care. The foster parents ask the nurse how to prevent HIV transmission to other family members. How should the nurse respond? 1. "Make sure the child uses disposable plates and utensils." 2. "Use isopropyl alcohol to clean surfaces contaminated with the child's blood or body fluids." 3. "Don't let the child share toys with other children." 4. "Wear gloves when you're likely to come into contact with the child's blood or body fluids."

4. "Wear gloves when you're likely to come into contact with the child's blood or body fluids." RATIONALE: HIV is transmitted by blood and body fluids. Therefore, the nurse should respond by telling family members they should wear gloves when anticipating contact with the child's blood or body fluids. Standard household methods for cleaning dishes and utensils are adequate, so the child needn't use disposable plates and utensils. To disinfect HIV-contaminated surfaces, the nurse should instruct the foster parents to use a solution of 1 part bleach to 10 parts water. The child may share toys; any toys that become soiled with the child's blood or body fluids should be disinfected with the bleach solution.

A nurse is assessing a severely depressed adolescent. Which finding indicates a risk of suicide? 1. Excessive talking 2. Excessive sleepiness 3. A history of cocaine use 4. A preoccupation with death

4. A preoccupation with death RATIONALE: An adolescent who demonstrates a preoccupation with death (such as by talking frequently about death) should be considered at high risk for suicide. Although depression, excessive sleepiness, and a history of cocaine use may occur in suicidal adolescents, they also occur in adolescents who aren't suicidal. Verbal and emotional withdrawal, not excessive talking, are signs of possible depression and suicide risk in an adolescent.

A 13-year-old girl is being evaluated for possible Crohn's disease. The nurse expects to prepare her for which diagnostic study? 1. Genetic testing 2. Cystoscopy 3. Myelography 4. Colonoscopy with biopsy

4. Colonoscopy with biopsy RATIONALE: Crohn's disease is an inflammatory bowel disorder characterized by inflammation, ulceration, and edema of the bowel wall (typically involving the terminal ileum). Colonoscopy with biopsy are the primary procedures used to establish the diagnosis; a barium enema also may be indicated. Although genetics may play a role in Crohn's disease, genetic testing isn't part of the diagnostic workup. Cystoscopy visualizes the bladder and urinary tract and isn't indicated for this client. Myelography is a radiographic procedure used to evaluate the spinal cord.

How should a nurse position a 4-month-old infant when administering an oral medication? 1. Seated in a high chair 2. Restrained flat in the crib 3. Held on the nurse's lap 4. Held in the bottle-feeding position

4. Held in the bottle-feeding position RATIONALE: The nurse should hold an infant in the bottle-feeding position when administering an oral medication by placing the child's inner arm behind the back, supporting the head in the crook of the elbow, and holding the child's free hand with the hand of the supporting arm. A 4-month-old infant can't sit unsupported in a high chair. Administering medication to an infant lying flat could cause choking and aspiration. Holding the infant in the lap may cause the medication to spill.

A nurse is providing care to a 5-year-old child with a fractured femur whose nursing diagnosis is Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements. Which change is most likely to occur with this condition? 1. Decreased protein catabolism 2. Increased calorie intake 3. Increased digestive enzymes 4. Increased carbohydrate need

4. Increased carbohydrate need RATIONALE: Increased carbohydrate need is most likely because healing and repair of tissue requires more carbohydrates. Increased — not decreased — protein catabolism is present and decreased appetite — not increased — is a problem. Digestive enzymes are decreased — not increased.

A child, age 15 months, is recovering from surgery to remove a Wilms' tumor. Which finding best indicates that the child is free from pain? 1. Decreased appetite 2. Increased heart rate 3. Decreased urine output 4. Increased interest in play

4. Increased interest in play RATIONALE: A behavioral change is one of the most valuable clues to pain. A child who's pain-free likes to play. In contrast, a child in pain is less likely to play or to consume food or fluids. An increased heart rate may indicate increased pain. Decreased urine output may signify dehydration.

A mother is discontinuing breast-feeding after 5 months. What should the nurse advise the mother to include in her infant's diet? 1. Iron-rich formula and baby food 2. Whole milk and baby food 3. Skim milk and baby food 4. Iron-rich formula alone

4. Iron-rich formula alone RATIONALE: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends iron-rich formula for 5-month-old infants and cautions against giving infants solid food — even baby food — until age 6 months. The Academy doesn't recommend whole milk before age 12 months or skim milk before age 2 years.

An infant is hospitalized for treatment of inorganic failure to thrive. Which nursing action is most appropriate for this child? 1. Encouraging the infant to hold a bottle 2. Keeping the infant on bed rest to conserve energy 3. Rotating caregivers to provide more stimulation 4. Maintaining a consistent, structured environment

4. Maintaining a consistent, structured environment RATIONALE: The nurse caring for an infant with inorganic failure to thrive should strive to maintain a consistent, structured environment because it reinforces a caring feeding environment. Encouraging the infant to hold a bottle would reinforce an uncaring feeding environment. The infant should receive social stimulation rather than be confined to bed rest. The number of caregivers should be minimized to promote consistency of care.

Which intervention takes priority when admitting an infant with acute gastroenteritis? 1. Obtaining a stool specimen 2. Weighing the infant 3. Offering the infant clear liquids 4. Obtaining a history of the illness

4. Obtaining a history of the illness RATIONALE: Obtaining a history of the infant's illness takes priority because the history helps with developing a treatment plan. Getting a stool specimen and weighing the infant can follow taking the history. The nurse shouldn't offer clear liquids because they increase the risk of vomiting, which may worsen the infant's dehydration.

A female adolescent client refuses to allow male nurses to care for her while she's hospitalized. Which of these health care rights is this adolescent exerting? 1. Right to competent care 2. Right to have an advance directive on file 3. Right to confidentiality of her medical record 4. Right to privacy

4. Right to privacy RATIONALE: This adolescent is exhibiting her right to privacy when she requests that she doesn't want a male nurse to care for her. She also has a right to competent care, the right to have an advance directive on file, and a right to confidentiality. However, she isn't exercising these rights in this scenario.

A 9-year-old boy with diabetes mellitus tests his glucose level in the nurse's office before lunch. According to this sliding scale of insulin, he's due for 1 unit of regular insulin. What steps should a nurse follow after confirming the medication order, washing her hands, drawing up the appropriate dose, verifying the boy's identity, and putting on gloves? Put the following steps in chronological order. 1. Pinch the skin around the injection site 2. Release the skin and give the injection. 3. Clean site with an alcohol pad; loosen needle cover. 4. Select appropriate injection site with the child. 5. Cover the site with an alcohol pad. 6. Uncover needle; insert at 45- to 90- degree angle.

4. Select appropriate injection site with the child. 3. Clean site with an alcohol pad; loosen needle cover. 1. Pinch the skin around the injection site 6. Uncover needle; insert at 45- to 90- degree angle. 2. Release the skin and give the injection. 5. Cover the site with an alcohol pad. RATIONALE: To give a subcutaneous injection of insulin to a child, the nurse should first select an appropriate injection site, being sure to discuss the selection with the child to ensure that injection sites are rotated. She should then clean the injection site with an alcohol pad and loosen the needle cover. The next step is to pinch the skin around the site. She should then uncover the needle and insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle, release the skin, and give the injection. When finished, the nurse should cover the injection site with an alcohol pad and avoid rubbing the site.

A 5-year-old child returns to the pediatric unit following a cardiac catheterization using the right femoral vein. The child has a thick elastoplast dressing. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention? 1. One leg is slightly cooler than the other leg. 2. The leg used for the catheter insertion is slightly paler than the other leg. 3. A small amount of bright red blood is seen on the dressing. 4. The pedal pulse of the right leg isn't detectable.

4. The pedal pulse of the right leg isn't detectable. RATIONALE: Using the femoral vein during catheterization can cause the affected blood vessels to spasm or cause a blood clot to develop, altering circulation in the leg. The inability to detect the pedal pulse in the affected leg is an ominous sign and requires immediate intervention. Small amounts of coolness or pallor are normal. These findings should improve. Although the nurse should continue to monitor a dressing with a small amount of blood on it, this finding isn't the priority in this situation.

Which intervention provides the most accurate information about an infant's hydration status? 1. Monitoring the infant's vital signs 2. Accurately measuring intake and output 3. Monitoring serum electrolyte levels 4. Weighing the infant daily

4. Weighing the infant daily RATIONALE: Weighing an infant daily provides the most accurate information about the infant's hydration status. Vital signs, intake and output, and electrolyte levels provide helpful information about an infant's hydration status, but they aren't as accurate as weighing daily.

The parents of a healthy infant request information about advance directives. The nurse's best response is to: 1. suggest that the parents discuss the matter with an attorney. 2. tell the parents that they should discuss advance directives with the physician. 3. provide the parents with a brochure about advance directives. 4. ask open-ended questions about the parents' concerns.

4. ask open-ended questions about the parents' concerns. RATIONALE: Asking open-ended questions about the parents' concerns will help the nurse understand why they're asking for information. Advance directives are rarely prepared for healthy infants. The parents' request for information may indicate distress, and the nurse should obtain more details before giving them information. Although suggesting the parents talk to their attorney or to the physician and providing the parents with a brochure about advance directives are appropriate actions, the nurse must obtain additional information before implementing these choices.

When assessing a child's cultural background, the nurse should keep in mind that: 1. cultural background usually has little bearing on a family's health practices. 2. physical characteristics mark the child as part of a particular culture. 3. heritage dictates a group's shared values. 4. behavioral patterns are passed from one generation to the next.

4. behavioral patterns are passed from one generation to the next. RATIONALE: The nurse should keep in mind that a family's behavioral patterns and values are passed from one generation to the next. Cultural background commonly plays a major role in determining a family's health practices. Physical characteristics don't indicate a child's culture. Although heritage plays a role in culture, it doesn't dictate a group's shared values, and its effect on culture is weaker than that of behavioral patterns.

A nurse is teaching parents about accident prevention for a toddler. Which guideline is most appropriate? 1. Always make the toddler wear a seat belt when riding in a car. 2. Make sure all medications are kept in containers with childproof safety caps. 3. Never leave a toddler unattended on a bed. 4. Teach rules of the road for bicycle safety.

RATIONALE: Making sure all medications are kept in containers with childproof safety caps is the most appropriate guideline because poisoning accidents are common in toddlers owing to the toddler's curiosity and his increasing mobility and ability to climb. When riding in a car, a toddler should be strapped into a car seat, not a seat belt. A seat belt is an appropriate guideline for a school-age child. Never leaving a child alone on a bed is an appropriate guideline for parents of infants. Toddlers already have the ability to climb on and off of beds and other furniture by themselves. Note, however, that toddlers should never be left unattended on high surfaces, such as an examining table in a physician's office. Teaching the rules of the road for bicycle safety is an appropriate safety measure for a school-age child. Toddlers shouldn't be allowed in the road unsupervised.

When assessing an infant for changes in intracranial pressure (ICP), a nurse must palpate the fontanels. Identify the area where the nurse should palpate to assess the anterior fontanel.

RATIONALE: The anterior fontanel is formed by the junction of the sagittal, frontal, and coronal sutures. It's shaped like a diamond and normally measures 4 to 5 cm at its widest point. A widened, bulging fontanel is a sign of increased ICP.

A 15-year-old adolescent is admitted to the telemetry unit because of suspected cardiac arrhythmia. A nurse applies five electrodes to his chest and then attaches the lead wires. Identify the area where the nurse should place the chest lead (V1).

RATIONALE: The nurse should place the V1 lead in the fourth intercostal space to the right of the sternum.