Nclex Cram

A young adult is involved in a motorcycle accident and is brought to the emergency room. The physician diagnoses a closed head injury with suspected subdural hematoma. Although complaining of a severe headache, the client is alert and answers questions appropriately. The nurse should question which of the following orders? 1. "Promethazine (Phenergan) 25 mg IM 3 h." 2. "Morphine sulfate 10 mg IM q3 4h." 3. "Docusate sodium (Colace) 50 mg PO bid." 4. "Ranitidine (Zantac) 50 mg IVPB q12h."

(1) H1 receptor blocker, used as an antiemetic (2) correct—narcotic analgesic, causes CNS and respiratory depression, contraindicated in head injury because it masks signs of increased intracranial pressure (3) stool softener, used for an immobilized patient (4) H2 histamine antagonist, reduces acid production in stomach, prevents stress ulcers

A client received six units of regular insulin 3 hours ago. The nurse is MOST concerned if which of the following is observed? 1. Kussmaul respirations and diaphoresis. 2. Anorexia and lethargy. 3. Diaphoresis and trembling. 4. Headache and polyuria.

(1) Kussmaul respirations are signs of hyperglycemia (2) not indicative of hypoglycemia (3) correct—regular insulin peaks in 2 to 4 hours; indicates hypoglycemia; give skim milk (4) not indicative of hypoglycemia

The physician orders ranitidine hydrochloride (Zantac) 150 mg PO daily for the client. The nurse should advise the client the BEST time to take the medication is which of the following? 1. Prior to breakfast. 2. With dinner. 3. With food. 4. At hour of sleep.

(1) absorption is not affected by food (2) absorption is not affected by food (3) absorption is not affected by food (4) correct—best results when taking once a day

A client diagnosed with AIDS is seen in the emergency room with complaints of mouth pain, difficulty swallowing, and a white discharge in the back of the throat. The nurse expects the physician to order which of the following? 1. Metronidazole (Flagyl) 7.5 mg/kg q6h. 2. Ketoconazole (Nizoral) 200 mg daily. 3. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) 800 mg PO q12h. 4. Rifampin (Rifadin) PO 10 mg/kg daily.

(1) anti-infective, used in treatment of intestinal amebiasis, trichomoniasis, inflammatory bowel disease (2) correct—drug of choice for treatment of candidiasis (3) treatment for PCP; symptoms of dyspnea, tachypnea, persistent dry cough, fever, fatigue (4) treatment for tuberculosis; symptoms of fever, chills, night sweats, weight loss, anorexia

The nurse monitors a client's EKG strip and notes coupled premature ventricular contractions greater than 10 per minute. The nurse should expect to administer which of the following? 1. Atropine sulfate (Atropine) IV. 2. Isoproterenol (Isuprel) IV. 3. Verapamil (Calan) IV. 4. Lidocaine hydrochloride (Xylocaine) IV.

(1) antidysrhythmic, used for bradycardia (2) antidysrhythmic, used for heart block, ventricular dysrhythmias (3) antihypertensive, calcium-channel blocker (4) correct—lidocaine is the drug of choice for frequent premature ventricular contractions (PVC) occurring in excess of 6 to 10 per minute; for coupled PVCs or for a consecutive series of PVCs that may result in ventricular tachycardia

An elderly client returns from surgery after a hysterectomy due to cancer, and there is an order for antiembolism stockings. Which of the following should the nurse include when instructing the client about wearing the support stockings? 1. "Wear the stockings when your legs cramp." 2. "Wear the stockings during your hospitalization." 3. "Put the stockings on prior to going to bed." 4. "Put the stockings on after you get out of bed in the morning."

(1) antiembolism stockings should be worn to prevent any discomfort and to increase the blood flow (2) correct—stockings should be worn the entire time that client is in the hospital; should be removed for baths and replaced after the skin is dry, and before the client gets out of bed (3) stockings should be worn during the day and when client is nonambulatory (4) stockings should be applied before getting out of bed

A client takes perphenazine (Trilafon) by mouth for 2 days and now displays the following: head turned to the side, neck arched at an angle, and stiffness and muscle spasms in neck. The nurse expects to give which of the following as a PRN medication? 1. Promazine (Sparine). 2. Biperiden (Akineton). 3. Thiothixene (Navane). 4. Haloperidol (Haldol).

(1) antipsychotic medication, would not relieve the side effects (2) correct—antiparkinsonian agent, used to counteract extrapyramidal side effects the client is experiencing (3) antipsychotic medication, would not relieve the side effects (4) antipsychotic medication, would not relieve the side effects

The nurse cares for clients in outpatient surgery. The mother of a 4-year-old asks the nurse how to prepare her daughter for eye surgery. Which of the following statements by the nurse is BEST? 1. "Draw a picture of the eye to explain what will happen." 2. "Tell your daughter that the procedure will take 1 hour." 3. "Use dolls or puppets to explain how to get ready for surgery." 4. "Read an age-appropriate illustrated book about eye surgery to your daughter."

(1) appropriate for school-aged child (2) preschooler can't relate to the concept of 1 hour (3) correct—use puppet or doll to show where procedure is performed; explain procedure in simple terms and what the child will see, hear, taste, smell, and feel (4) appropriate for school-aged child

The nurse observes care given to a client experiencing severe to panic levels of anxiety. The nurse should intervene in which of the following situations? 1. The staff maintains a calm manner when interacting with the client. 2. The staff attends to client's physical needs as necessary. 3. The staff helps the client identify thoughts or feelings that occurred prior to the onset of the anxiety. 4. The staff assesses the client's need for medication or seclusion if other interventions have failed to reduce anxiety.

(1) appropriate nursing action for this level of anxiety (2) appropriate nursing action for this level of anxiety (3) correct—at this level of anxiety, client is unable to process thoughts and feelings for problem solving (4) appropriate nursing action for this level of anxiety

The nurse recognizes which of the following as a positive response to fluoxetine HCl (Prozac)? 1. The nurse notes hand tremors and leg twitching. 2. The client states that he is able to sleep for longer periods of time. 3. The client has an increased energy level and participates in unit activities. 4. The nurse observes that the client is hypervigilant and scans the environment.

(1) can be side effect of the medication (2) not an effect of Prozac, can actually inhibit sleep; is useful with clients who experience increased sleeping and psychomotor retardation and lethargy (3) correct—fluoxetine HC (Prozac) is an "energizing" antidepressant; as client begins to demonstrate a positive response, he has an increased energy level, is able to participate more in milieu (4) can be side effect of medication

The nurse returns to the desk and finds four phone messages to return. Which of the following messages should the nurse return FIRST? 1. A woman in the first trimester of pregnancy complains of heartburn. 2. A man complains of heartburn that radiates to the jaw. 3. A woman complains of hot flashes and difficulty sleeping. 4. A boy complains of knee pain after playing basketball.

(1) caused by reflux of gastric contents into esophagus, treatment is small, frequent meals, don't consume fluids with food, don't wear tight clothing (2) correct—indicates chest pain, needs to seek medical attention immediately (3) caused by menopause, treat with hormone replacement therapy (HRT) (4) should treat with rest and ice

A client diagnosed with a peptic ulcer has a partial gastrectomy and vagotomy (Billroth I). In planning the discharge teaching, the nurse should caution the client about which of the following? 1. Sit up for at least 30 minutes after eating. 2. Avoid fluids between meals. 3. Increase the intake of high-carbohydrate foods. 4. Avoid eating large meals that are high in simple sugars and liquids.

(1) client should recline for 30 minutes after eating (2) fluids should be given between meals (3) intake of carbohydrates should be reduced along with highly spiced foods (4) correct—basic guidelines to teach a postgastrectomy client are measures to prevent dumping syndrome, which include: lying down for 30 minutes after meals, drinking fluids between meals, and reducing intake of carbohydrates

If a client develops cor pulmonale (right-sided heart failure), the nurse expects to observe which of the following? 1. Increased respiration with exertion. 2. Cough producing large amount of thick, yellow mucus. 3. Peripheral edema and anorexia. 4. Twitching of extremities.

(1) common assessment finding of the patient with chronic lung disease (2) describes a complication of pneumonia (3) correct—right-sided heart failure is manifested by congestion of the venous system, resulting in peripheral edema; also, there is congestion of the gastric veins, resulting in anorexia and eventual development of ascites (4) is not seen with this client

An older client undergoes the second exchange of intermittent peritoneal dialysis (IPD). Which of the following requires an intervention by the nurse? 1. The client complains of pain during the inflow of the dialysate. 2. The client complains of constipation. 3. The dialysate outflow is cloudy. 4. There is blood-tinged fluid around the intra-abdominal catheter.

(1) common complaint, moderate pain is frequently experienced as fluid is instilled during first few exchanges (2) common complaint due to inactivity, decreased nutrition, use of medications; high-fiber diet and stool softeners help prevent (3) correct—indicates peritonitis, also will see nausea and vomiting, anorexia, abdominal pain, tenderness, rigidity (4) caused by subcutaneous bleeding, common during first few exchanges

A school-aged child injured his right knee yesterday during a soccer game. He is brought to the outpatient clinic by his mother. The child's right knee is painful, swollen, and bruised. During the interview, the nurse learns that the boy is diagnosed with hemophilia A. The nurse identifies which of the following medications is BEST for this patient? 1. Oxycodone terephthalate (Percodan). 2. Ibuprofen (Motrin). 3. Enteric-coated aspirin. 4. Codeine phosphate (Paveral).

(1) contains aspirin, contraindicated for persons with bleeding disorders (2) increases bleeding time by decreasing platelet aggregation, contraindicated for persons with bleeding disorders (3) increases bleeding time by decreasing platelet aggregation, contraindicated for persons with bleeding disorders (4) correct—analgesic used for moderate to severe pain

A client at 32 weeks' gestation is seen in the outpatient clinic. Which of the following findings, if assessed by the nurse, indicates a possible complication? 1. The client's urine test is positive for glucose and acetone. 2. The client has 1+ pedal edema in both feet at the end of the day. 3. The client complains of an increase in vaginal discharge. 4. The client says that she feels pressure against her diaphragm when the baby moves.

(1) correct—abnormal finding, could indicate gestational diabetes (GDM), hazard of placental insufficiency (2) not unusual, caused by pressure of enlarging uterus on veins returning blood from lower extremities (3) common near term with increased vascularity of vagina and perineum, only abnormal if bloody, foul-smelling, or abnormally colored (4) not unusual, due to pressure of enlarging uterus

An extremely agitated client receives haloperidol (Haldol) IM every 30 minutes while in the psychiatric emergency room. It is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions? 1. Monitor blood pressure every 30 minutes. 2. Remain at the client's side to provide reassurance. 3. Tell the client the name of the medication and its effects. 4. Assess for anticholinergic effects of the medication.

(1) correct—assessment; monitoring vital signs is of utmost importance to ensure client safety and physiological integrity; rapid neuroleptization is a pharmacological intervention used to rapidly diminish severe symptoms that accompany acute psychosis; alpha-adrenergic blockade of peripheral vascular system lowers BP and causes postural hypotension (2) implementation; should be done but is not highest priority (3) implementation; should be done but is not highest priority (4) assessment; circulatory system takes priority

A child returns to the recovery room after a bronchoscopy. The nurse should position the client in which of the following positions? 1. Semi-Fowler's position. 2. Prone with the head turned to the side. 3. Head of the bed elevated 45° with the neck extended. 4. Supine with the head in the midline position.

(1) correct—check vital signs every 15 minutes until stable, assess for respiratory difficulty (stridor and dyspnea resulting from laryngeal edema or laryngospasm) (2) would limit respiratory excursion and assessment of breathing (3) extension of neck could obstruct airway because tongue falls in back of mouth (4) not best position after procedure

A client has a history of oliguria, hypertension, and peripheral edema. Current lab values are BUN 25 and K+ 4.0 mEq/L. The nurse should restrict which of the following in the client's diet? 1. Protein. 2. Fats. 3. Carbohydrates. 4. Magnesium.

(1) correct—decreased production of urea nitrogen can be achieved by restricting protein; metabolic wastes cannot be excreted by the kidneys (2) decreases the nonprotein nitrogen production; these foods are encouraged (3) decreases the nonprotein nitrogen production; these foods are encouraged (4) should not be restricted

The nurse cares for clients in the skilled nursing facility. Which of the following clients requires the nurse's IMMEDIATE attention? 1. A client admitted for a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) whose prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) expired 2 days ago. 2. A client in pain who was receiving morphine in an acute care institution and was transferred with a prescription for acetaminophen with codeine. 3. A client who has dysuria and foul-smelling, cloudy, dark amber urine. 4. An immunosuppressed client who has not received an influenza immunization.

(1) correct—duration of Coumadin 2 to 5 days, client at risk for a repeat CVA (2) anticoagulant takes priority, client still receiving pain medication (3) painful urination, may indicate infection (4) anticoagulant takes priority

The nurse cares for patient placed in balanced suspension traction with a Thomas splint and Pearson attachment because of a fractured right femur. The nurse notes that the patient's left leg is externally rotated. The nurse should take which of the following actions? 1. Place a trochanter roll on the outer aspect of the thigh. 2. Perform resistive range of motion of the left leg. 3. Adduct and internally rotate the left leg. 4. Instruct the patient to maintain the left leg in a neutral position.

(1) correct—holds hip in neutral position and leg in normal alignment, entire weight of leg cannot be held by props placed below knee (2) exercise would not prevent future external rotation of the leg (3) adduction (add to midline of body) does not change external rotation, internal rotation is not beneficial, normal alignment is required (4) leg will externally rotate unless propped in proper alignment

A client returns to his room following a myelogram. The nursing care plan should include which of the following? 1. Encourage oral fluid intake. 2. Maintain the prone position for 12 hours. 3. Encourage the client to ambulate after the procedure. 4. Evaluate the client's distal pulses on the affected side.

(1) correct—implementation; fluids should be encouraged to facilitate dye excretion and to maintain normal spinal fluid (2) implementation; clients are not placed in the prone position (3) implementation; bed rest is maintained for several hours after the test (4) assessment; an extremity was not used for injection of the dye

Which of the following assessment findings indicates to the nurse the need for more sedation for a client withdrawing from alcohol dependence? 1. Steadily increasing vital signs. 2. Mild tremors and irritability. 3. Decreased respirations and disorientation. 4. Stomach distress and inability to sleep.

(1) correct—indication that the client is approaching delirium tremens, which can be avoided with additional sedation (2) describes normal mild withdrawal symptoms (3) would contraindicate giving more sedation (4) describes expected symptoms of alcohol withdrawal, which will subside as the alcohol is excreted from the body

The nurse cares for a patient following an appendectomy. The patient takes a deep breath, coughs, and then winces in pain. Which of the following statements, if made by the nurse to the patient, is BEST? 1. "Take three deep breaths, hold your incision, and then cough." 2. "That was good. Do that again and soon it won't hurt as much." 3. "It won't hurt as much if you hold your incision when you cough." 4. "Take another deep breath, hold it, and then cough deeply."

(1) correct—most effective way of deep breathing and coughing, dilates airway and expands lung surface area (2) should splint incision before coughing to reduce discomfort and increase efficiency (3) partial answer, should take three deep breaths before coughing (4) implies coughing routine is adequate, incision needs to be splinted

A 4-month-old child is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of meningitis. To confirm the diagnosis, a lumbar puncture (LP) is ordered. While assisting the physician with the procedure, it is MOST important for the nurse to take which of the following actions? 1. Appropriately restrain the child. 2. Instruct the parents about the procedure. 3. Provide support to the child. 4. Elevate the head of the bed.

(1) correct—primary objective is to prevent trauma to child during the procedure; child must be restrained (2) not as high a priority as preventing injury to the child (3) should be done before and/or after the procedure (4) elevating the head of the bed for a 4-month-old will not expose the spinal column

The newborn infant of an HIV-positive mother is admitted to the nursery. The nurse should include which of the following in the plan of care? 1. Standard precautions. 2. Testing for HIV. 3. Transfer to an acute care nursery facility. 4. Request AZT from the pharmacy.

(1) correct—provides immediate protective care for the staff members (2) might be employed, safety is the priority (3) might be employed, is not a priority (4) this medication is not used in infancy

The clinic nurse performs diet teaching for an older client with acute gout. The nurse should teach the client to limit the intake of which of the following? 1. Red meat and shellfish. 2. Cottage cheese and ice cream. 3. Fruit juices and milk. 4. Fresh fruits and uncooked vegetables.

(1) correct—should be on low-purine diet, should avoid red and organ meats, shellfish, oily fish with bones (2) calcium-rich foods are not limited with gout (3) no restriction with gout (4) high-roughage foods are not limited with gout

The nursing team includes two RNs, one LPN/LVN, and one nursing assistant. The nurse considers the assignments appropriate if the nursing assistant is assigned to care for which of the following clients? 1. A client diagnosed with Alzheimer's requiring assistance with feeding. 2. A client diagnosed with osteoporosis complaining of burning on urination. 3. A client diagnosed with scleroderma receiving a tube feeding. 4. A client diagnosed with cancer who has Cheyne-Stokes respirations.

(1) correct—standard, unchanging procedure (2) requires assessment; should assign to an RN (3) stable patient with expected outcome; should assign to an LPN/LVN (4) unstable patient, requires assessment and nursing judgment; should assign to an RN

When assisting with a bone marrow aspiration, the nurse should take which of the following actions? 1. Drop additional sterile supplies onto a sterile tray. 2. Unwrap all sterile packs for the procedure in case they are needed. 3. Reach over the tray, and remove contaminated supplies. 4. Place the bottle of sterile liquid on the sterile field so that it does not splash.

(1) correct—sterile articles should be dropped at a reasonable distance from the edge of the sterile area (2) sterile packs should be opened only as needed (3) never reach an unsterile arm over a sterile field (4) outside of a bottle containing sterile liquid is not considered to be sterile

The home care nurse visits a client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes. The physician orders include 1,200-calorie ADA diet, 15 units of NPH insulin before breakfast, and check blood sugar qid. When the nurse visits the client at 5 PM, the nurse observes the client perform a blood sugar analysis. The result is 50 mg/dL. The nurse should observe for which of the following? 1. Confusion; cold, clammy skin; and an elevated pulse. 2. Lethargy; hot, dry skin; rapid deep respirations. 3. Alert and cooperative, blood pressure and pulse within normal limits. 4. Shortness of breath, distended neck veins, and a bounding pulse of 96.

(1) correct—symptoms of hypoglycemia, normal blood sugar 70-110 mg/dL (2) symptoms of hyperglycemia, blood sugar above 110 mg/dL (3) normal appearance and vital signs (4) symptoms of fluid overload caused by heart failure, rapid infusion of IV fluids

The nurse identifies which of the following is MOST likely to help the family of an emotionally disturbed client manage behaviors at home after discharge from inpatient treatment? 1. Refer the family to Alliance for the Mentally Ill meetings for educational programs and support groups. 2. Provide the family with pamphlets that describe the desired action and side effects of medications the client is taking. 3. Tell the family that it is not their fault that the client behaves inappropriately. 4. Involve the family in the assessment of the client when he/she is first admitted to the hospital.

(1) correct—this group provides ongoing support and educational information; people who attend have common needs and goals focused on managing the clients' behavior at home (2) would be helpful but will not have the ongoing impact of the support group (3) would be helpful but will not have the ongoing impact of the support group (4) would be helpful but will not have the ongoing impact of the support group

The nurse performs an assessment of an 8-year-old girl diagnosed with scoliosis. Which of the following observations is expected with scoliosis? 1. The girl's thoracic area is asymmetrical. 2. The girl walks with a waddling gait. 3. The girl's lower legs are edematous. 4. The girl has a protruding sternum.

(1) correct—thoracic area becomes noticeably distorted (2) seen with hip dislocation (3) seen with circulatory or inflammatory processes (4) seen with pigeon breast, or pectus carinatum

The multidisciplinary team decides to implement behavior modification with a client. Which of the following nursing actions is of primary importance during this time? 1. Confirm that all staff members understand and comply with the treatment plan. 2. Establish mutually agreed-upon, realistic goals. 3. Ensure that the potent reinforcers (rewards) are important to the client. 4. Establish a fixed interval schedule for reinforcement.

(1) correct—to implement a behavior modification plan successfully, all staff members need to be included in program development, and time must be allowed for discussion of concerns from each nursing staff member; consistency and follow-through is important to prevent or diminish the level of manipulation by the staff or client during implementation of this program (2) not of primary importance in designing an effective behavior modification program (3) not of primary importance in designing an effective behavior modification program (4) not of primary importance in designing an effective behavior modification program

The nurse prepares a patient for a cesarean section. The patient says that she had major surgery several years ago and asks if she will receive a similar "shot" before surgery. The nurse's response should be based on an understanding that the preoperative medication given before a cesarean section 1. contains a lower overall dosage of medication than is given before general surgery. 2. contains lower amounts of sedatives and hypnotics than are given before general surgery. 3. contains lower amounts of narcotics than are given before general surgery. 4. contains medications similar in type and dosages to those given before general surgery.

(1) decreased dosage of narcotics are used (2) dosages of sedatives and hypnotics will be similar (3) correct—decreased so that less narcotic crosses the placental barrier, causing respiratory depression in the infant (4) dosages of narcotics are reduced

A psychiatric nurse is assigned to conduct an admission nursing history on a new client. The admission should include which of the following? 1. The nurse's opinion regarding the mental and emotional status of the client. 2. Data addressing the client's emotional state. 3. Data addressing a biopsychosocial approach, including a family system assessment. 4. Specific data detailing the client's mental status.

(1) depends on opinions that are not based on a complete assessment (2) limits the degree of information that is obtained from the client (3) correct—complete nursing history includes biopsychosocial data; client's psychosocial and physical status are evaluated along with an assessment of the client's family system and social support network; evaluation of the client's cognitive ability is important during the physiological status assessment (4) is necessary information about mental status but is also an incomplete assessment

An elderly client returns to the room after an open reduction and internal fixation of the left femoral head after a fracture. It is MOST important for the nursing care plan to include which of the following? 1. High-protein, low-residue diet. 2. Position client on unaffected side. 3. Exercise the client's arms and legs. 4. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe.

(1) diet should be high residue to prevent constipation due to inactivity (2) may be positioned on affected side after incision heals (3) foot flexion exercises should be done every hour to prevent complications (4) correct—prevents respiratory complications due to immobility following surgery

The home health care nurse cares for a client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. The client is maintained on a regimen of NPH and regular insulin and a 1,800-calorie diabetic diet with normal blood sugar levels. Morning self-monitoring blood sugar (SMBG) readings the past 2 days were 205 and 233 mg/dL. The nurse expects the physician to take which of the following actions? 1. Reduce the client's diet to 1,500 calorie ADA. 2. Order three additional units of NPH insulin at 10 P.M. 3. Order an additional 10 units of regular insulin at 8 P.M. 4. Eliminate the client's bedtime snack.

(1) diet should not be reduced (2) correct—dawn phenomena, treatment is to adjust evening diet, bedtime snack, insulin dose, and exercise to prevent early morning hyperglycemia (3) peaks in 4 to 6 hours, would not prevent dawn phenomena (4) would adjust snack, not eliminate it

The nurse assesses the development of a 3-month-old boy in the well-child clinic. Which of the following behaviors, if observed by the nurse, is UNEXPECTED? 1. The boy holds his head erect when sitting on the examination table. 2. The boy tries to grasp a toy just out of reach. 3. The boy turns his head to try to locate a sound. 4. The boy smiles spontaneously when he sees his mother.

(1) expected at 3 months (2) correct—unexpected until 6 months of age (3) expected at 3 months of age (4) expected at 3 months of age

The nurse supervises the staff caring for four clients receiving blood transfusions. Which of the four clients should the nurse see FIRST? 1. A client complaining of a headache. 2. A client vomiting. 3. A client complaining of itching. 4. A client with neck vein distention.

(1) febrile reaction; symptoms include fever, chills, nausea, headache; treatment is to stop blood and administer aspirin (2) correct—hemolytic reaction; most dangerous type of transfusion reaction, symptoms include nausea, vomiting, pain in lower back, hematuria; treatment is to stop blood, obtain urine specimen, and maintain blood volume and renal perfusion (3) allergic reaction; symptoms include urticaria, pruritus, fever; treatment is to stop blood, give Benadryl, and administer oxygen (4) circulatory overload; treatment is to stop blood, position in an upright position, and administer oxygen

A client diagnosed with bipolar disorder receives haloperidol (Haldol) 2 mg PO tid. The client tells the nurse, "Milk is coming out of my breasts." Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST? 1. "You are seeing things that aren't real." 2. "Why don't we go make some fudge?" 3. "You are experiencing a side effect of Haldol." 4. "I'll contact your physician to change your medication."

(1) hallucinations usually not seen with patients with bipolar disorder; seen with psychotic disorders (2) assumption that patient just wants attention (3) correct—side effects include galactorrhea (excessive or spontaneous flow of milk), lactation, gynecomastia (excessive growth of male mammary glands) (4) indicates a side effect, not effectiveness of medication

A patient is admitted to the surgical unit with a diagnosis with rule out (R/O) intestinal obstruction. The nurse prepares to insert a Salem sump NG tube as ordered. It is BEST for the nurse to place the patient in which of the following positions? 1. Head of bed elevated 30-45°. 2. Head of bed elevated 60-90°. 3. Side-lying with head elevated 15°. 4. Lying flat with head turned to the left side.

(1) head of bed not elevated enough (2) correct—facilitates swallowing and movement of tube through gastrointestinal tract (3) not the best position (4) not the best position

Which of the following is a correctly stated nursing diagnosis for a client with an abruptio placentae? 1. Infection related to obstetrical trauma. 2. Potential for fetal injury related to abruptio placentae. 3. Potential alteration in tissue perfusion related to depletion of fibrinogen. 4. Fluid volume deficit related to bleeding.

(1) inaccurate for the situation (2) incorrectly stated (3) incorrectly stated (4) correct—abruptio placentae is premature separation of a normally implanted placenta leading to hemorrhage; fluid volume deficit is a major nursing concern with these clients

A 2-month-old with a temperature of 102°F (39°C) is brought to the emergency department by his mother. The mother tells the nurse that the infant had a DPaT injection 1 week ago, and asks if this fever is related to the immunization. The nurse's response should be based on which of the following? 1. If a fever does occur in a child after a DPaT, it usually occurs within the first 2 hours. 2. An elevated temperature is very rarely seen in a child after a DPaT immunization. 3. If there is a fever after a DPaT, it is usually low-grade and appears within the first 48 hours. 4. The child's high fever is a direct response to the DPaT immunization and should be treated.

(1) inaccurate; low-grade fever is expected within 24 to 48 hours (2) inaccurate; low-grade fever is expected within 24 to 48 hours (3) correct—low-grade fever and irritability frequent response to immunization (4) symptoms should be reported to physician, antipyretic usually prescribed

A client is admitted diagnosed with a subdural hematoma and cerebral edema after a motorcycle accident. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to see INITIALLY? 1. Unequal and dilated pupils. 2. Decerebrate posturing. 3. Grand mal seizures. 4. Decreased level of consciousness.

(1) indicates brainstem damage (2) late sign of brainstem damage (3) late sign of increased intracranial pressure (4) correct—may be confused and stuporous

The nurse monitors the fluid status of an older patient receiving IV fluids following surgery. Which of the following symptoms suggests to the nurse that the patient has fluid volume overload? 1. Temperature 101°F (38.3°C), BP 96/60, pulse 96 and thready. 2. Cool skin, respiratory crackles, pulse 86 and bounding. 3. Complaints of a headache, abdominal pain, and lethargy. 4. Urinary output 700 ml/24 h, CVP of 5, and nystagmus.

(1) indicates dehydration (2) correct—will see bounding pulse, elevated BP, distended neck veins, edema, headache, polyuria, diarrhea, liver enlargement (3) symptoms could be from causes other than volume overload (4) slightly reduced output, CVP would be elevated, normal CVP 3 to 12 mm/H2O, involuntary eye movements not seen

A client takes gemfibrozil (Lopid) 600 mg PO bid. It is MOST important for the nurse to monitor which of the following? 1. Serum creatine. 2. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). 3. Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) (or formerly SGOT). 4. Arterial blood gases (ABG).

(1) indicates renal function, normal 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL (2) indicates inflammation, normal 0 to 20 mm/h (3) correct—indicates liver function, normal 8-20 units/L; lipid-lowering agent used with patients with high serum triglyceride levels, side effects include abdominal pain, cholelithiasis; take 30 minutes before breakfast and supper (4) indicates acid/base balance

The nurse in the outpatient clinic instructs the mother of a school-aged child diagnosed with asthma how to prevent future asthmatic attacks. The nurse is MOST concerned if the mother states which of the following? 1. "My son plays the tuba in the grade school band." 2. "My son loves to help his dad rake leaves." 3. "My son participates in after-school activities 3 days a week." 4. "My son walks 1 mile to school every day with his friends."

(1) involves forced expiration; would not cause problems with asthma (2) correct—main cause of asthma is inhaled allergens (animal dander, mold, pollen, dust), would expose child to pollen and dust from leaves (3) school activities should be encouraged to help development (4) walking is good exercise; running could be a problem if he has exercise-induced asthma

A client who is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is to be discharged and will be taking zidovudine (AZT) at home. Which of the following actions by the nurse is BEST? 1. Review the importance of adhering to a 4-hour schedule. 2. Advise the client to buy a timed pill dispenser. 3. Write the schedule of when the medicine should be taken. 4. Encourage self-medication prior to discharge.

(1) less helpful in the overall teaching-learning process (2) less helpful in the overall teaching-learning process (3) correct—planned and written schedule of administration is more effective for adherence to time frames (4) less helpful in the overall teaching-learning process

The nurse counsels an elderly client who comes to the outpatient clinic for a routine examination. The history indicates the client takes a laxative tablet twice a day and a laxative suppository once a day. The nurse should suspect which of the following about the client? 1. The client has an anal fixation resulting from recent loss of a spouse. 2. The client is depressed because of alterations in intestinal absorption and excretion. 3. The client is experiencing excessive concern with body function because of physical changes. 4. The client has regressed because of a fear of losing the ability to have bowel movements.

(1) makes judgment without information (2) constipation common finding in elderly; no information about depression (3) correct—physical changes occur in late adulthood causing changes in body image; constipation frequent problem of elderly, but reaction by this client is excessive (4) no information provided about regression

A woman has been recently diagnosed with systemic lupus (SLE) and shares with the nurse, "I am thinking about getting pregnant, but I don't know how I will be able to tolerate a pregnancy because I have lupus." Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST? 1. "Most women find that they feel better when they are pregnant." 2. "How long have you been in remission?" 3. "Women with lupus frequently have slightly longer gestations." 4. "It is best to become pregnant within the first 6 months of diagnosis."

(1) maternal morbidity and mortality are increased with SLE (2) correct—should be in remission for at least 5 months prior to conceiving (3) gestation not affected by SLE (4) recommended that a woman wait 2 years following diagnosis before conceiving

After a client has a positive Chlamydia trachomatis culture, the client and partner return for counseling. It is MOST important for the nurse to ask which of the following questions? 1. "Do you have contacts to identify?" 2. "What is your understanding regarding how chlamydia is transmitted?" 3. "Do you have questions about the culture and its validity?" 4. "Do you have allergies to the medications?"

(1) may be part of follow-up (2) correct—means of transmission of chlamydia may or may not have been made clear to both partners; nurse should assess this first; is a sexually transmitted disease (3) most cultures used today have few false positives (4) would be done later in the nursing assessment

A client is scheduled for a left lower lobectomy. The physician orders diazepam (Valium) 2 mg IM for anxiety. The nurse determines the medication is appropriate if the client displays which of the following symptoms? 1. Agitation and decreased level of consciousness. 2. Lethargy and decreased respiratory rate. 3. Restlessness and increased heart rate. 4. Hostility and increased blood pressure.

(1) more indicative of preoperative complications, should be reported before medications are given (2) more indicative of preoperative complications, should be reported before medications are given (3) correct—observation most indicative for antianxiety drugs is restlessness and increase in heart rate due to circulating catecholamines (fight or flight) (4) hostility may be treated best by ventilating feelings

The nurse performs triage on a group of clients in the emergency department. Which of the following clients should the nurse see FIRST? 1. A 12-year-old oozing blood from a laceration of the left thumb due to cut on a rusty metal can. 2. A 19-year-old with a fever of 103.8°F (39.8°C) who is able to identify her sister but not the place and time. 3. A 49-year-old with a compound fracture of the right leg who is complaining of severe pain. 4. A 65-year-old with a flushed face, dry mucous membranes, and a blood sugar of 470 mg/dL.

(1) no indication of hemorrhage, will require a tetanus shot (2) correct—disoriented, requires immediate assessment to determine underlying cause (3) splint; cover wound with sterile dressing; check temperature, color, sensation; give narcotic (4) hyperglycemic, give IV fluid, regular insulin

The nurse prepares a 5-year-old child for surgery. The nurse notes that the child's parents are divorced and have joint legal custody. The informed consent for surgery has been signed by the mother. Which of the following actions by the nurse is BEST? 1. Notify the physician. 2. Inform surgery. 3. Contact the father to obtain consent. 4. Continue the child's preoperative preparation.

(1) no reason to notify the physician (2) no reason to call the OR (3) consent from either divorced parent is sufficient (4) correct—parent or legal guardian required to give informed consent prior to surgical procedure

After a client develops left-sided hemiparesis from a cerebral vascular accident (CVA), the nurse notes a decrease in muscle tone. The nurse determines which of the following nursing diagnoses is priority? 1. Alteration in mobility related to paralysis. 2. Alteration in skin integrity related to decrease in tissue oxygenation. 3. Alteration in skin integrity related to immobility. 4. Alteration in communication related to decrease in thought processes.

(1) not a priority (2) correct—leading cause of skin breakdown is a decrease in tissue perfusion (3) not a priority (4) would be more relevant to right-sided hemiparesis

A woman is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in a sickle cell crisis. Which of the following nursing actions is the HIGHEST priority? 1. Administer oxygen. 2. Turn her to the right side. 3. Provide adequate hydration. 4. Start antibiotics.

(1) not a priority (2) not a priority (3) correct—adequate hydration is a priority for any client with sickle cell crisis (4) not a priority

The nurse performs discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with Addison's disease. It is MOST important for the nurse to instruct the client about which of the following? 1. Signs and symptoms of infection. 2. Fluid and electrolyte balance. 3. Seizure precautions. 4. Steroid replacement.

(1) not most important (2) not most important (3) not most important (4) correct—steroid replacement is the most important information the client needs to know

After sustaining a closed head injury and numerous lacerations and abrasions to the face and neck, a 5-year-old is admitted to the emergency room. The client is unconscious and has minimal response to noxious stimuli. Which of the following assessments, if observed by the nurse 3 hours after admission, should be reported to the physician? 1. The client has slight edema of the eyelids. 2. There is clear fluid draining from the client's right ear. 3. There is some bleeding from the child's lacerations. 4. The client withdraws in response to painful stimuli.

(1) not priority (2) correct—indicates a rupture of meninges and presents a potential complication of meningitis (3) not priority (4) is not a change in assessment

When a nurse is using restraints for an agitated/aggressive patient, which of the following items should NOT influence the nurse's actions during this intervention? 1. The restraints/seclusion policies set forth by the institution. 2. The patient's competence. 3. The patient's voluntary/involuntary status. 4. The patient's nursing care plan.

(1) nurse should follow the policies of the institution (2) must get written permission from the patient for restraints; if patient has been judged incompetent, permission is obtained from the legal guardian (3) correct—the need for restraints is based on patient's behavioral status and condition, not the patient's voluntary/involuntary status (4) must first try less restrictive means to control patient before using restraints

The nurse cares for clients in the pediatric clinic. A mother reports that her infant's smile is "crooked". The nurse should assess which of the following cranial nerves? 1. III. 2. V. 3. VII. 4. XI.

(1) oculomotor; provides innervation for extraocular movement (2) trigeminal; provides sensation to facial muscles (3) correct—facial; provides motor activity to the facial muscles (4) spinal accessory; provides innervation to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles

The home care nurse instructs a client recently diagnosed with tuberculosis. It is MOST important for the nurse to include which of the following as a part of the teaching plan? 1. The client should cover the mouth and nose when coughing or sneezing during the first 2 weeks of treatment. 2. It is necessary for the client to wear a mask at all times to prevent transmission of the disease. 3. The family should support the client to help reduce feeling of low self-esteem and isolation. 4. The client will be required to take prescribed medication for 6 to 9 months.

(1) on airborne precautions during hospitalization; can send home with family because they are already exposed (2) not required (3) important, but not as important as taking medication (4) correct—necessary to take medication for 6 to 9 months

Which of the following observations BEST indicates to the nurse that a client diagnosed with paraplegia can adequately carry out activities of daily living at home after discharge? 1. The client shaves and brushes his teeth. 2. The client transfers himself into and out of his wheelchair. 3. The client maneuvers the wheelchair without difficulty. 4. The client prepares well-balanced meals.

(1) paraplegic has full use of his upper body, so this activity presents no problem (2) correct—essential if client is to perform ADLs (3) done with the arms and presents no real problem (4) is a necessary requisite for living alone and performing ADLs but is not directly hindered by paraplegia

A client is transferred to a psychiatric crisis unit with a diagnosis of a dissociative disorder. The nurse identifies which of the following comments by the client is MOST indicative of this disorder? 1. "I keep having recurring nightmares." 2. "I have a headache, and my stomach has bothered me for a week." 3. "I always check the door locks three times before I leave home." 4. "I don't know who I am, and I don't know where I live."

(1) posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by anxiety and stress symptoms that occur after an intense traumatic event; characteristic symptoms are hypervigilance, insomnia, and recurring nightmares (2) somatoform disorder (or hypochondria) is concerned with physical and emotional health, accompanied by various bodily complaints for which there is no physical basis (3) reflects the compulsive checking behavior of the anxiety associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (4) correct—dissociative disorders characterized by either a sudden or a gradual disruption in the integrative functions of identity, memory, or consciousness; disruption may be transient or may become a well-established pattern; development of these disorders is often associated with exposure to a traumatic event

A client in the ICU is given procainamide HCl (Pronestyl) slowly by IV push. The nurse should withhold the next dose if which of the following is observed? 1. Presence of premature ventricular contractions. 2. Occurrence of severe hypotension. 3. Recurring paroxysmal atrial tachycardia. 4. A sedimentation rate of 10.

(1) procainamide is given to treat premature ventricular contractions or atrial tachycardia (2) correct—severe hypotension or bradycardia are signs of an adverse reaction to this medication (3) procainamide is given to treat premature ventricular contractions or atrial tachycardia (4) lab value is within normal limits

Which of the following nursing actions has the HIGHEST priority for a teenager admitted with burns to 50% of the body? 1. Counseling regarding problems of body image. 2. Maintain airborne precautions. 3. Maintain aseptic technique during procedures. 4. Encourage peers to visit on a regular basis.

(1) psychosocial, not highest priority (2) physical, use standard precautions (3) correct—safety is a priority for the client who is at high risk for infection (4) psychosocial, important for an adolescent but is not highest priority

The nurse in a psychiatric emergency room cares for a client who is a victim of interpersonal violence. The INITIAL priority of the nurse is which of the following? 1. Encourage the client to verbalize feelings. 2. Assess for physical trauma. 3. Provide privacy for the client during the interview. 4. Help the client identify and mobilize resources and support systems.

(1) psychosocial, priority is physical injury (2) correct—physical, victim may have physical trauma and concealed injuries; assessment is of utmost importance so that the client's physiologic integrity is maintained (3) psychosocial, done concurrently as the nurse is assessing for physical injury (4) psychosocial, priority is physical injury

The nurse in the outpatient clinic instructs a client diagnosed with a sprained right ankle to walk with a cane. What behavior, if demonstrated by the client, indicates to the nurse that teaching is effective? 1. The client advances the cane 18 inches in front of the foot with each step. 2. The client holds the cane in the left hand. 3. The client advances the right leg, then the left leg, and then the cane. 4. The client holds the cane with elbows flexed 60°.

(1) should advance cane 6-10 inches with body weight on both legs (2) correct—should hold cane on strong side, widens base of support, reduces stress on affected side (3) should advance cane, weaker leg, stronger leg (4) should flex no more than 30°

The nurse administers morphine 6 mg IV push to a patient for postoperative pain. Following administration of the drug, the nurse observes the following: BP 100/68, pulse 68, respirations 8, client sleeping quietly. Which of the following nursing actions is MOST appropriate? 1. Allow the client to sleep undisturbed. 2. Administer oxygen via face mask or nasal prongs. 3. Administer naloxone (Narcan). 4. Place epinephrine 1:1,000 at the bedside.

(1) should be given Narcan for low respiratory rate (2) problem is low respirations; this may be administered after medication (3) correct—IV naloxone (Narcan) should be given to reverse respiratory depression; respiratory rate of 8 is too low and necessitates a nursing action (4) unnecessary

An adolescent client is ordered to take tetracycline HCL (Achromycin) 250 mg PO bid. Which of the following instructions should be given to the client by the nurse? 1. "Take the medication on a full stomach or with a glass of milk." 2. "Wear sunscreen and a hat when outdoors." 3. "Continue taking the medication until you feel better." 4. "Avoid the use of soaps or detergents for 2 weeks."

(1) should be taken on an empty stomach (2) correct—photosensitivity occurs with the use of this medication (3) should be taken as directed (4) unnecessary

The nurse observes an LPN/LVN perform a wet-to-dry dressing change on a 2-inch abdominal incision. Which of the following behaviors, if performed by the LPN/LVN, indicates an understanding of proper technique? 1. A clean cotton ball is used to cleanse from the top of the incision to the bottom of the incision using long strokes. 2. The incision is packed with sterile gauze, and then sterile saline is poured over the dressing. 3. The nurse packs wet gauze into the incision without overlapping it onto the skin. 4. The old dressing is saturated with sterile saline before it is removed.

(1) should clean from the center of wound to the outside using sterile equipment (2) dressings should be soaked before application (3) correct—if wet dressing touches skin, it could cause skin breakdown (4) should be removed dry so that wound debris and necrotic tissue are removed with old dressing

Prochlorperazine maleate (Compazine) 10 mg IM is ordered for a client. The client is also to receive butorphanol (Stadol) 2 mg IM. Before administering these medications, the nurse should take which of the following actions? 1. Obtain respirations and temperature. 2. Dilute with 9 ml of NS. 3. Draw the medications in separate syringes. 4. Verify the route of administration.

(1) should monitor blood pressure and heart rate for orthostatic hypotension; respiration and temperature are not as high a priority (2) inappropriate (3) correct—Compazine should be considered incompatible in a syringe with all other medications (4) unnecessary

The nurse prepares to administer an injection of haloperidol decanoate (Haldol D) to a client. Which of the following actions by the nurse is MOST appropriate? 1. Massage the injection site. 2. Give deep IM in a large muscle mass. 3. Use a 2 inch 25 gauge needle. 4. Administer the medication in divided doses.

(1) should not be done because medication is very irritating to subcutaneous tissue (2) correct—medication is very irritating to subcutaneous tissue (3) should use a 2 inch 21 gauge needle (4) should administer in single dose; patient should lie in recumbent position for one-half hour after administration of IM haloperidol decanoate

The nurse cares for a manic client in the seclusion room, and it is time for lunch. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions? 1. Take the client to the dining room with 1:1 supervision. 2. Inform the client that he may go to the dining room when he controls his behavior. 3. Hold the meal until the client is able to come out of seclusion. 4. Serve the meal to the client in the seclusion room.

(1) should remain in the seclusion room (2) should have meal at regular time (3) should have meal at regular time (4) correct—should eat at regular time; remain in the seclusion room for client's safety

During a first aid class, the nurse instructs clients on the emergency care of partial thickness burns. The nurse identifies which of the following interventions for partial thickness burns of the chest and arms BEST prevents infection? 1. Wash the burn with an antiseptic soap and water. 2. Remove clothing, and wrap the victim in a clean sheet. 3. Leave the blisters intact and apply an ointment. 4. Take no action until the victim arrives in a burn unit.

(1) soaps and ointments should not be applied to second-degree burns in an emergency situation (2) correct—after fire is out, remove clothing and cover victim with a clean sheet (3) soaps and ointments should not be applied to second-degree burns in an emergency situation (4) does not prevent infection

A young adult patient constantly seeks attention from the nurses, stomping away from the nurses' station and pouting when requests are refused. Which of the following responses by the nurse is MOST appropriate? 1. Encourage the patient to establish trust with one staff person with whom therapeutic interventions should occur. 2. Give the patient unsolicited attention when the patient is exhibiting acceptable behaviors. 3. Ignore the patient when the patient exhibits attention-seeking behavior. 4. Rotate the staff so that the patient will learn to relate to more than one nurse.

(1) staff should use a consistent undivided approach (2) correct—reward non-attention-seeking behaviors by giving the patient unsolicited attention (3) remain nonjudgmental, carry out limit-setting (4) staff should use a consistent undivided approach

A mother brings her 2-year-old to the pediatrician's office. Which of the following symptoms suggests to the nurse that the child has strabismus? 1. The child places his head close to the table when drawing. 2. The child rubs his eyes frequently. 3. The child closes one eye to see a poster on the wall. 4. The child is unable to see objects in the periphery of his visual field.

(1) suggestive of refractive error, myopia (nearsightedness), able to see objects at close range (2) suggestive of refractive error (3) correct—visual axes are not parallel, so the brain receives two images (4) suggestive of cataracts or problem with peripheral vision

An older woman comes to the outpatient clinic because she has not been feeling well for several days. During the admission interview, the nurse learns that the client has a history of heart failure (HF), is on a low-sodium diet, and has been taking chlorothiazide (Diuril) 500 mg PO daily for 6 months. Diagnostic tests indicate sodium 127 mEq/L, potassium 3.8 mEq/L, glucose 110 mg/dL, and normal chest x-ray. It is MOST important for the nurse to assess for which of the following? 1. Sticky mucous membranes; decreased urinary output; and firm, rubbery tissues. 2. Cool, moist skin; fine hand tremors; and mental confusion. 3. Headache, apprehension, and lethargy. 4. Shortness of breath, chest pain, and anxiety.

(1) symptoms of hypernatremia, along with restlessness, weakness, coma, tachycardia, flushed skin, oliguria, fever (2) symptoms of hypoglycemia, normal blood sugar 70-110 mg/dL (3) correct—symptoms of hyponatremia along with muscle twitching, convulsions, diarrhea, fingerprinting of skin (4) symptoms of CHF, chest x-ray clear, no other information provided

The nurse cares for a client receiving IV antibiotics for 4 days. Which of the following should cause the nurse to be concerned about postinfusion phlebitis? 1. Tenderness at the IV site. 2. Increased swelling at the insertion site. 3. Reddened area or red streaks at the site. 4. Leaking of fluid around the IV catheter.

(1) tenderness at the IV site is common (2) increased swelling at the insertion site may indicate infiltration (3) correct—characterized by inflammation and reddened areas around site and up length of vein (4) not indicative of phlebitis

The nurse's INITIAL priority when managing a physically assaultive client is which of the following? 1. Restrict the client to the room. 2. Place the client under one-to-one supervision. 3. Restore the client's self-control and prevent further loss of control. 4. Clear the immediate area of other clients to prevent harm.

(1) time out or room restriction might be a useful strategy before the client becomes assaultive; once client is assaultive, he/she may continue this behavior in his/her room without any redirection and support (2) may not stop assaultive behavior (3) correct—most important priority in the nursing management of an assaultive client is to maintain milieu safety by restoring the client's self-control; a quick assessment of situation, psychological intervention, chemical intervention, and possibly physical control are important when managing the physically assaultive client (4) is helpful but may not be realistic if the situation escalates quickly

After abdominal surgery, a client has a nasogastric tube attached to low suctioning. The client becomes nauseated, and the nurse observes a decrease in the flow of gastric secretions. Which of the following nursing interventions is MOST appropriate? 1. Irrigate the nasogastric tube with distilled water. 2. Aspirate the gastric contents with a syringe. 3. Administer an antiemetic medicine. 4. Insert a new nasogastric tube.

(1) tube would be irrigated with normal saline after the position of the tube was evaluated (2) correct—to confirm placement, nurse should aspirate and test the pH of the aspirate; results should be 0 to 4 (3) does not assess status of nasogastric tube (4) does not assess status of nasogastric tube

The nurse should explain to a client that glipizide (Glucotrol) is effective for diabetics who 1. can no longer produce any insulin. 2. produce minimal amounts of insulin. 3. are unable to administer their injections. 4. have a sustained decreased blood glucose.

(1) type 1 insulin-dependent diabetic is unable to produce insulin (2) correct—oral hypoglycemic agents are administered to type 2 (non-insulin-dependent) clients who are able to produce minimal amounts of insulin (3) type 1 diabetics who cannot administer their injections need alternate plans to be made for them to receive the injection from a family member (4) Glucotrol is administered for an increase in blood glucose

The nurse in the well-baby clinic observes a group of children. The nurse notes that one child is able to sit unsupported, play "peek-a-boo" with the nurse and is starting to say "mama" and "dada". The nurse determines the infant's behaviors are consistent with which of the following ages? 1. 5 months of age. 2. 6 months of age. 3. 9 months of age. 4. 12 months of age.

(1) unable to sit unsupported until 8 months (2) unable to sit unsupported until 8 months (3) correct—can pull self up and assume a sitting position at 8 months, can say few words (4) would be able to say three to five words in addition to dada and mama

The nurse cares for an elderly client diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which of the following nursing goals is MOST realistic and appropriate in planning care for this client? 1. Return the client to usual activities of daily living. 2. Maintain optimal function within the client's limitations. 3. Prepare the client for a peaceful and dignified death. 4. Arrest progression of the disease process in the client.

(1) unrealistic (2) correct—irreversible disease that leads to permanent physical limitations (3) unnecessary; disease usually is not terminal (4) unrealistic; disease is progressive, cannot be arrested

A nurse cares for a client diagnosed with metastatic ovarian cancer admitted for nausea and vomiting. The physician orders total parenteral nutrition (TPN), a nutritional consult, and diet recall. Which of the following is the BEST indication that the patient's nutritional status has improved after 4 days? 1. The patient eats most of the food served to her. 2. The patient has gained 1 pound since admission. 3. The patient's albumin level is 4.0 g/dL. 4. The patient's hemoglobin is 8.5 g/dL.

Strategy: Determine how each answer choice relates to nutritional status. (1) appetite is not the best indicator (2) weight gain may be fluid retention (ascites) (3) correct—albumin levels are best indicators of long-term nutritional status (4) low levels are caused by chemotherapy or cancer, not a good indicator because it takes long time to increase levels

The nurse cares for clients on a medical/surgical unit and determines that several situations need to be addressed. Which of the following situations should the nurse attend to FIRST? 1. An angry daughter is threatening to sue the hospital because her confused mother fell out of bed during the previous shift. 2. The nursing assistant is 30 minutes overdue from a dinner break in the cafeteria for the third time this week. 3. The physician calls the unit to ask the nurse to obtain a client's latest serum electrolyte results from the lab. 4. The husband of a client reports to the nurse that his wife's nose began bleeding after she returned from radiation therapy.

Strategy: Determine the least stable situation (1) important issue that needs to be addressed after tending to the client who is bleeding (2) patients take priority over personnel issues (3) can be delegated to another staff member (4) correct—should assess client to determine amount and cause of bleeding

The school nurse instructs a group of preschool mothers about poison prevention in the home. Which of the following statements, if made by a mother to the nurse, indicates further teaching is necessary? 1. "The poison control center number is stored on all the phones in our house." 2. "I should induce vomiting if my child swallows lighter fluid." 3. "If I carry medication in my purse, it should be in a child-proof container." 4. "Proper storage is the key to poison prevention in the home."

(1) Appropriate action; terminate exposure to the poison and then contact poison control for further instructions (2) correct—vomiting contraindicated when child ingests hydrocarbons because of danger of aspiration (3) 'poison-proofs' the medication (4) store in locked cabinets

A middle-aged woman, mother of two, has a mastectomy for breast cancer. When she returns to the physician's office a month later for a routine checkup, the nurse asks the client how she has been. Which of the following responses, if made by the client to the nurse, indicates that the client is experiencing a normal reaction to the surgery? 1. "I have been helping my family deal with their feelings about the surgery." 2. "I have been having difficulty coping with the surgery and cry frequently." 3. "I have been unable to leave the house or talk to my friends about the surgery." 4. "I am doing just great since the surgery and have gone back to work at my job."

(1) will not be able to help others this soon after surgery (2) correct—normal reaction 1 month later (3) excessive, abnormal reaction (4) indicates integration, too early for this stage

The parents of a 1-month-old boy bring their son to the clinic for evaluation of a possible developmental dysplasia of the right hip. The nurse should observe for which of the following? 1. Limited adduction of the right leg. 2. Uneven gluteal fold and thigh creases. 3. Increase in length of the right limb. 4. Internal rotation of the right leg.

(1) will see limited abduction (2) correct—folds and creases will be longer and deeper on affected side (3) will be decrease in limb length (4) may or may not see internal rotation

An older man is seen in the outpatient clinic for treatment of an acute attack of gout. Which of the following nursing interventions is MOST beneficial in decreasing the client's pain during ambulation? 1. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises before walking. 2. Encourage partial weight bearing while ambulating. 3. Immobilize the extremity between activities. 4. Restrict the amount of time and the distance the man walks.

(1) would aggravate pain (2) correct—would relieve weight, pressure, and stress on affected leg, may use walker (3) would increase stiffness (4) immobility would aggravate pain and inflammation

A 48-year-old woman is seen in the outpatient clinic for complaints of irregular menses. The client's history indicates an onset of menses at age 14, para 2 gravida 2, and regular periods every 28 to 30 days. The client is divorced and works full time as a bank teller. The nurse identifies the MOST probable cause of the client's symptom is which of the following? 1. Emotional trauma and stress. 2. Onset of menopause. 3. Presence of uterine fibroids. 4. Possible tubal pregnancy.

.(1) not enough information given in question to assume that symptoms are caused by stress (2) correct—ovarian function gradually decreases and then stops, usually 45 to 50 years old (3) benign tumors arising from muscle tissue of uterus, menorrhagia (excessive bleeding) most common symptom along with backache, constipation, dysmenorrhea (4) usually see history of missed periods or spotting with abdominal pain

The nurse cares for clients on the neurology unit. What is the MOST appropriate action for the nurse to take after noting that a client suddenly develops a fixed and dilated pupil? 1. Reassess in 5 minutes. 2. Check the client's visual acuity. 3. Lower the head of the client's bed. 4. Contact the physician.

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Is this a situation that requires assessment or validation? No. Determine the outcome of the implementations. (1) assessment; situation does not require validation (2) assessment; has symptoms of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) (3) implementation; would increase the ICP (4) correct—implementation; fixed and dilated pupil represents a neurological emergency

A woman at 38 weeks' gestation comes to the emergency room with complaints of vaginal bleeding. Which of the following statements, if made by the client, suggests to the nurse placenta previa as the cause of the bleeding? 1. "I feel fine, but the bleeding scares me." 2. "I've been more nauseated during the past few weeks." 3. "The bleeding started after I carried four bags of groceries." 4. "I've been having severe abdominal cramps."

Strategy: All answers are assessments. Think about what each phrase is describing and how it relates to a placenta previa. (1) correct—placenta previa is characterized by painless vaginal bleeding (2) nausea not a symptom of placenta previa (3) bleeding is not necessarily related to activity (4) pain not characteristic of placenta previa

The nurse supervises the staff providing care for an 18-month-old hospitalized with hepatitis A. The nurse determines that the staff's care is appropriate if which of the following is observed? 1. The child is placed in a private room. 2. The staff removes a toy from the child's bed and takes it to the nurse's station. 3. The staff offers the child french fries and a vanilla milkshake for a midafternoon snack. 4. The staff uses standard precautions.

Strategy: All answers are implementations. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. Is it desired? (1) correct—contact precautions required for diapered or incontinent clients (2) do not remove toys from room, possibly contaminated (3) diet should be high in carbohydrates and protein and low in fat (4) contact precautions required in addition to standard precautions

A client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) is at 39 weeks' gestation. The client is admitted to the labor and delivery unit in active labor. The client's vital signs are BP 127/72; pulse 72 bpm; cervix is 4 cm dilated; FHT 124 bpm; moderate contractions are 4 minutes apart. The nurse should anticipate the need for which of the following? 1. Prepare to administer IV Pitocin to the client. 2. A reduction in the amount of pain medication administered. 3. Check the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes. 4. Prepare an isolette for the infant.

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does the assessment make sense? No. Determine the outcome of each intervention. (1) uterine contractions not affected by MS (2) correct—less pain medication is required because of overall decrease in pain perception due to MS (3) no reason to assess this frequently (4) baby's outcome not affected by MS

The nurse cares for a postcholecystectomy client who had the T-tube removed this morning. Two hours after removal of the T-tube, the nurse notes that the 4 × 4 dressing covering the stab site is saturated with dark, greenish-yellow drainage. It is MOST appropriate for the nurse to take which of the following actions? 1. Remove the dressing, and replace it with a more absorbent dressing. 2. Collect a culture and sensitivity specimen of the drainage. 3. Observe the wound for dehiscence. 4. Reinforce the dressing with an 8 × 10 dressing.

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require assessment? No. Determine the outcome of each implementation. (1) correct—expected that a stab wound will continue to drain until the wound seals; nurse should keep wound clean and dry (2) drainage described is bile, which is expected; no indication of infection (3) doesn't usually occur (4) reinforcing dressing might cause infection; change dressing to keep site clean and dry

The nurse cares for a child several hours after the application of a hip spica cast. The patient turns on the call light and complains of pain in the left foot. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST? 1. Elevate the left leg on two pillows. 2. Palpate the cast for warmth and wetness. 3. Administer pain medication as ordered. 4. Check the blanching sign on both feet.

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require assessment? Yes. (1) implementation; done to prevent swelling and venous congestion, not helpful to reduce pain due to circulatory impairment (2) assessment; not helpful to reduce pain due to circulatory impairment, should not palpate wet cast, would result in depressions causing pressure (3) implementation; pain important diagnostic symptom, should not be suppressed or masked (4) correct—assessment; pain main symptom of circulatory impairment from cast; pressing nail of great toe indicates circulatory function, compare speed with which color returns with result on the opposite side; sluggish return indicates circulatory impairment, too rapid return indicates venous congestion

The nurse is assigned to work with the parents of a child diagnosed with mental retardation. Which of the following should the nurse include in the care plan for the parents? 1. Interpret the grieving process for the parents. 2. Discuss the reality of institutional placement. 3. Assist the parents in making decisions and long-term plans for the child. 4. Perform a family assessment to assist in the planning of intervention.

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require assessment? Yes. (1) inappropriate before the assessment; action can be taken only when the circumstances are known (2) inappropriate before the assessment; action can be taken only when the circumstances are known (3) inappropriate before the assessment; action can be taken only when the circumstances are known (4) correct—assessment; this will help the nurse to know where the family is in regard to grieving, coping, etc.

The nursing assistant reports to the nurse that a client who is 1 day postoperative after an angioplasty refuses to eat and states, "I just don't feel good." Which of the following actions by the nurse is BEST? 1. Talk with the client about how the client is feeling. 2. Instruct the nursing assistant to sit with the client while the client eats. 3. Contacts the physician to obtain an order for an antacid. 4. Evaluate the most recent vital signs recorded in the chart.

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require assessment? Yes. Is the assessment appropriate? Yes. (1) correct—assessment required; monitor for closure of vessel, bleeding, hypotension, dysrhythmias (2) assess cause of problem before implementing (3) assess cause of problem before implementing (4) more important to assess what is happening now

The nurse cares for clients in the student health center. A client confides to the nurse that the client's boyfriend informed her that he tested positive for hepatitis B. Which of the following responses by the nurse is BEST? 1. "That must have been a real shock to you." 2. "You should be tested for hepatitis B." 3. "You'll receive the hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG)." 4. "Have you had unprotected sex with your boyfriend?"

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Does this situation require assessment? Yes. Is there an appropriate assessment? Yes. (1) nurse is interjecting own feelings (2) will require testing; not best response initially (3) implementation; receive HBIG for postexposure prophylaxis; may also receive HBV vaccine (4) correct—assessment

The nurse administers terbutaline (Brethine) to a client in labor. Prior to administration of the medication, the nurse assesses the client's pulse to be 144. Which of the following actions should the nurse take FIRST? 1. Withhold the medication. 2. Decrease the dose by half. 3. Administer the medication. 4. Wait 15 minutes, and then recheck the rate.

Strategy: Answers are a mix of assessments and implementations. Is this a situation that requires validation? No. Determine the outcome of each answer choice. (1) correct—maternal tachycardia is a side effect of Brethine; other maternal side effects include nervousness, tremors, headache, and possible pulmonary edema; fetal side effects include tachycardia and hypoglycemia; Brethine is usually preferred over ritodrine (Yutopar) because it has minimal effects on blood pressure (2) should never change a prescribed dosage of medication (3) should not be given with a high pulse rate (4) assessment; maternal tachycardia is a side effect of Brethine; medication should be withheld