Nclex review: Pneumonia, COPD, Asthma

2. Clients who have a long history of COPD may retain carbon dioxide (CO2). Gradually the body adjusts to the higher CO2 concentration, and the high levels of CO2 no longer stimulate the respiratory center. The major respiratory stimulant then becomes hypoxemia. Administration of high concentrations of oxygen eliminates this respiratory stimulus and leads to hypoventilation. Oxygen can be drying if it is not humidified, but it does not cause coughing and dyspnea. Increased oxygen use will not create an oxygen dependency; clients should receive oxygen as needed. Oxygen is not contraindicated with the use of bronchodilators.

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing dyspnea and has a low PaO2 level. The nurse plans to administer oxygen as ordered. Which of the following statements is true concerning oxygen administration to a client with COPD? 1. High oxygen concentrations will cause coughing and dyspnea. 2. High oxygen concentrations may inhibit the hypoxic stimulus to breathe. 3. Increased oxygen use will cause the client to become dependent on the oxygen. 4. Administration of oxygen is contraindicated in clients who are using bronchodilators.

1. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter is characteristic of advanced COPD. Air is trapped in the overextended alveoli, and the ribs are fixed in an inspiratory position. The result is the typical barrel-chested appearance. Overly developed, not underdeveloped, neck muscles are associated with COPD because of their increased use in the work of breathing. Distended, not collapsed, neck veins are associated with COPD as a symptom of the heart failure that the client may experience secondary to the increased workload on the heart to pump blood into the pulmonary vasculature. Diminished, not increased, chest excursion is associated with COPD.

Which of the following physical assessment findings are normal for a client with advanced chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? 1. Increased anteroposterior chest diameter. 2. Underdeveloped neck muscles. 3. Collapsed neck veins. 4. Increased chest excursions with respiration.

1. The goal of effective coughing is to conserve energy, facilitate removal of secretions, and minimize airway collapse. The client should assume a sitting position with feet on the floor if possible. The client should bend forward slightly and, using pursed-lip breathing, exhale. After resuming an upright position, the client should use abdominal breathing to slowly and deeply inhale. After repeating this process three or four times, the client should take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough three or four times upon exhalation (" huff" cough). Lying flat does not enhance lung expansion; sitting upright promotes full expansion of the thorax. Shallow breathing does not facilitate removal of secretions, and forceful coughing promotes collapse of airways. A side-lying position does not allow for adequate chest expansion to promote deep breathing.

The nurse is planning to teach a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease how to cough effectively. Which of the following instructions should be included? 1. Take a deep abdominal breath, bend forward, and cough three or four times on exhalation. 2. Lie flat on the back, splint the thorax, take two deep breaths, and cough. 3. Take several rapid, shallow breaths and then cough forcefully. 4. Assume a side-lying position, extend the arm over the head, and alternate deep breathing with coughing.

1. The arterial blood gas reveals a respiratory acidosis with hypoxia. A quick-acting bronchodilator, albuterol, should be administered via nebulizer to improve gas exchange. Ipratropium is a maintenance treatment for bronchospasm that can be used with albuterol. A chest x-ray and sputum sample can be obtained once the client is stable.

A client experiencing a severe asthma attack has the following arterial blood gas: pH 7.33; Pco2 48; Po2 58; HCO3 26. Which of the following orders should the nurse perform first? 1. Albuterol (Proventil) nebulizer. 2. Chest x-ray. 3. Ipratropium (Atrovent) inhaler. 4. Sputum culture.

1. Irregular heartbeats should be reported promptly to the care provider. Metaproterenol (Alupent) may cause irregular heartbeat, tachycardia, or anginal pain because of its adrenergic effect on beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart. It is not recommended for use in clients with known cardiac disorders. Metaproterenol does not cause constipation, pedal edema, or bradycardia.

A client is prescribed metaproterenol (Alupent) via a metered-dose inhaler, two puffs every 4 hours. The nurse instructs the client to report adverse effects. Which of the following are potential adverse effects of metaproterenol? 1. Irregular heartbeat. 2. Constipation. 3. Pedal edema. 4. Decreased pulse rate.

4. Between attacks, breath sounds should be clear on auscultation with good air flow present throughout lung fields. Chest X-rays should be normal. The client should remain afebrile. Arterial blood gases should be normal.

Which of the following is an appropriate expected outcome for an adult client with well-controlled asthma? 1. Chest X-ray demonstrates minimal hyperinflation. 2. Temperature remains lower than 100 ° F (37. 8 ° C). 3. Arterial blood gas analysis demonstrates a decrease in PaO2. 4. Breath sounds are clear.

4. Exacerbations of COPD are commonly caused by respiratory infections. Coarse crackles and rhonchi would be auscultated as air moves through airways obstructed with secretions. In COPD, breath sounds are diminished because of an enlarged anteroposterior diameter of the chest. Expiration, not inspiration, becomes prolonged. Chest movement is decreased as lungs become overdistended.

The nurse assesses the respiratory status of a client who is experiencing an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection. Which of the following findings would be expected? 1. Normal breath sounds. 2. Prolonged inspiration. 3. Normal chest movement. 4. Coarse crackles and rhonchi.

1, 4. The client should shake the inhaler and hold it upright when administering the drug. The head should be tilted back slightly. The client should wait about 1 to 2 minutes between puffs. The mouth should be rinsed following the use of a corticosteroid MDI to decrease the likelihood of developing an oral infection. The client does not need to lie supine; instead, the client will likely to be able to breathe more freely if sitting upright.

The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to administer a corticosteroid. Which of the following client actions indicates that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply. 1. The inhaler is held upright. 2. The head is tilted down while inhaling the medicine. 3. The client waits 5 minutes between puffs. 4. The mouth is rinsed with water following administration. 5. The client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.

1. A client with COPD is at high risk for development of respiratory infections. COPD is slowly progressive; therefore, maintaining current status and establishing a goal that the client will require less supplemental oxygen are unrealistic expectations. Treatment may slow progression of the disease, but permanent improvement is highly unlikely.

When developing a discharge plan to manage the care of a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse should advise the the client to expect to: 1. Develop respiratory infections easily. 2. Maintain current status. 3. Require less supplemental oxygen. 4. Show permanent improvement.

4. Pursed-lip breathing prolongs exhalation and prevents air trapping in the alveoli, thereby promoting carbon dioxide elimination. By prolonging exhalation and helping the client relax, pursed-lip breathing helps the client learn to control the rate and depth of respiration. Pursed-lip breathing does not promote the intake of oxygen, strengthen the diaphragm, or strengthen intercostal muscles.

Which of the following is an expected outcome of pursed-lip breathing for clients with emphysema? 1. To promote oxygen intake. 2. To strengthen the diaphragm. 3. To strengthen the intercostal muscles. 4. To promote carbon dioxide elimination.

3. Corticosteroids have an anti-inflammatory effect and act to decrease edema in the bronchial airways and decrease mucus secretion. Corticosteroids do not have a bronchodilator effect, act as expectorants, or prevent respiratory infections.

A client with acute asthma is prescribed short-term corticosteroid therapy. Which is the expected outcome for the use of steroids in clients with asthma? 1. Promote bronchodilation. 2. Act as an expectorant. 3. Have an anti-inflammatory effect. 4. Prevent development of respiratory infections.

2. Exhaling requires less energy than inhaling. Therefore, lifting while exhaling saves energy and reduces perceived dyspnea. Pursing the lips prolongs exhalation and provides the client with more control over breathing. Lifting after exhaling but before inhaling is similar to lifting with the breath held. This should not be recommended because it is similar to the Valsalva maneuver, which can stimulate cardiac arrhythmias.

When teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease to conserve energy, the nurse should teach the client to lift objects: 1. While inhaling through an open mouth. 2. While exhaling through pursed lips. 3. After exhaling but before inhaling. 4. While taking a deep breath and holding it.

4. The client should eat high-calorie, high-protein meals to maintain nutritional status and prevent weight loss that results from the increased work of breathing. The client should be encouraged to eat small, frequent meals. A low-fat, low-cholesterol diet is indicated for clients with coronary artery disease. The client with COPD does not necessarily need to follow a sodium-restricted diet, unless otherwise medically indicated. There is no need for the client to eat bland, soft foods.

Which of the following diets would be most appropriate for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? 1. Low-fat, low-cholesterol diet. 2. Bland, soft diet. 3. Low-sodium diet. 4. High-calorie, high-protein diet.

1, 2, 3, 4, 5. Utilization of an MDI requires coordination between activation and inspiration; deep breaths to ensure that medication is distributed into the lungs, holding the breath for 10 seconds or as long as possible to disperse the medication into the lungs, shaking up the medication in the MDI before use, and a sufficient amount of time between puffs to provide an adequate amount of inhalation medication.

A client uses a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to aid in management of his asthma. Which action by the client indicates to the nurse that he needs further instruction regarding its use? Select all that apply. 1. Activation of the MDI is not coordinated with inspiration. 2. The client inspires rapidly when using the MDI. 3. The client holds his breath for 3 seconds after inhaling with the MDI. 4. The client shakes the MDI after use. 5. The client performs puffs in rapid succession.

2. The high PaCO2 level causes flushing due to vasodilation. The client also becomes drowsy and lethargic because carbon dioxide has a depressant effect on the central nervous system. Cyanosis is a sign of hypoxia. Irritability and anxiety are not common with a PaCO2 level of 65 mm Hg but are associated with hypoxia.

A client's arterial blood gas values are as follows: pH, 7.31; PaO2, 80 mm Hg; PaCO2, 65 mm Hg; HCO3 −, 36 mEq/ L. The nurse should assess the client for? 1. Cyanosis. 2. Flushed skin. 3. Irritability. 4. Anxiety.

2. Clients with chronic COPD have CO2 retention and the respiratory drive is stimulated when the PO2 decreases. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure should be evaluated to determine if the client is hemodynamically stable. Symptoms, such as dyspnea, should also be assessed. Oxygen supplementation, if indicated, should be titrated upward in small increments. There is no indication that the client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring intubation.

The nurse reviews an arterial blood gas report for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). pH 7.35; PC02 62; PO2 70; HCO3 34 The nurse should: 1. Apply a 100% non-rebreather mask. 2. Assess the vital signs. 3. Reposition the client. 4. Prepare for intubation.

2. The most common precipitator of asthma attacks is viral respiratory infection. Clients with asthma should avoid people who have the flu or a cold and should get yearly flu vaccinations. Environmental exposure to toxins or heavy particulate matter can trigger asthma attacks; however, far fewer asthmatics are exposed to such toxins than are exposed to viruses. Cigarette smoke can also trigger asthma attacks, but to a lesser extent than viral respiratory infections. Some asthmatic attacks are triggered by exercising in cold weather.

The nurse should teach the client with asthma that which of the following is one of the most common precipitating factors of an acute asthma attack? 1. Occupational exposure to toxins. 2. Viral respiratory infections. 3. Exposure to cigarette smoke. 4. Exercising in cold temperatures.

4. Cigarette smoking is the primary cause of COPD. Other risk factors include exposure to environmental pollutants and chronic asthma. Participating in an aerobic exercise program, although beneficial, will not decrease the risk of COPD. Insufficient protein intake and exposure to people with respiratory infections do not increase the risk of COPD.

When instructing clients on how to decrease the risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), the nurse should emphasize which of the following? 1. Participate regularly in aerobic exercises. 2. Maintain a high-protein diet. 3. Avoid exposure to people with known respiratory infections. 4. Abstain from cigarette smoking.

2. The principle behind using postural drainage is that gravity will help move secretions from smaller to larger airways. Postural drainage is best used after percussion has loosened secretions. Coughing or suctioning is then used to remove secretions. Movement of cilia is not sufficient to move secretions. Muscle contractions do not move secretions within the lungs.

When performing postural drainage, which of the following factors promotes the movement of secretions from the lower to the upper respiratory tract? 1. Friction between the cilia. 2. Force of gravity. 3. Sweeping motion of cilia. 4. Involuntary muscle contractions.

1. A cough productive of yellow sputum is the most likely indicator of a respiratory infection. The other signs and symptoms- wheezing, chest tightness, and increased respiratory rate- are all findings associated with an asthma attack and do not necessarily mean an infection is present.

Which of the following findings would most likely indicate the presence of a respiratory infection in a client with asthma? 1. Cough productive of yellow sputum. 2. Bilateral expiratory wheezing. 3. Chest tightness. 4. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/ minute.

1. Physical exercise is beneficial and should be incorporated as tolerated into the client's schedule. Peak flow numbers should be monitored daily, usually in the morning (before taking medication). Peak flow does not need to be monitored after each meal. Stressors in the client's life should be modified but cannot be totally eliminated. Although adequate sleep is important, it is not recommended that sedatives be routinely taken to induce sleep.

Which of the following health promotion activities should the nurse include in the discharge teaching plan for a client with asthma? 1. Incorporate physical exercise as tolerated into the daily routine. 2. Monitor peak flow numbers after meals and at bedtime. 3. Eliminate stressors in the work and home environment. 4. Use sedatives to ensure uninterrupted sleep at night.

4. In an acute asthma attack, diminished or absent breath sounds can be an ominous sign indicating lack of air movement in the lungs and impending respiratory failure. The client requires immediate intervention with inhaled bronchodilators, I.V. corticosteroids and, possibly, I.V. theophylline (Theo-Dur). Administering oxygen and reassessing the client 10 minutes later would delay needed medical intervention, as would drawing blood for an arterial blood gas analysis and obtaining a chest X-ray. It would be futile to encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly without providing the necessary pharmacologic intervention.

A 34-year-old female with a history of asthma is admitted to the emergency department. The nurse notes that the client is dyspneic, with a respiratory rate of 35 breaths/ minute, nasal flaring, and use of accessory muscles. Auscultation of the lung fields reveals greatly diminished breath sounds. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse take to initiate care of the client? 1. Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess the client in 10 minutes. 2. Draw blood for an arterial blood gas analysis and send the client for a chest X-ray. 3. Encourage the client to relax and breathe slowly through the mouth. 4. Administer bronchodilators.

3. Right-sided heart failure is a complication of COPD that occurs because of pulmonary hypertension. Signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure include peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, hepatomegaly, and weight gain due to increased fluid volume. Clubbing of nail beds is associated with conditions of chronic hypoxemia. Hypertension is associated with left-sided heart failure. Clients with heart failure have decreased appetites.

The nurse teaches a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) to assess for signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure. Which of the following signs and symptoms should be included in the teaching plan? 1. Clubbing of nail beds. 2. Hypertension. 3. Peripheral edema. 4. Increased appetite.

4. Increasing dyspnea on exertion indicates that the client may be experiencing complications of COPD. Therefore, the nurse should notify the physician. Extracting promises from clients is not an outcome criterion. Pain is not a common symptom of COPD. Clients with COPD use low-flow oxygen supplementation (1 to 2 L/ minute) to avoid suppressing the respiratory drive, which, for these clients, is stimulated by hypoxia. .

Which of the following indicates that the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who has been discharged to home understands his care plan? 1. The client promises to do pursed-lip breathing at home. 2. The client states actions to reduce pain. 3. The client says that he will use oxygen via a nasal cannula at 5 L/ minute. 4. The client agrees to call the physician if dyspnea on exertion increases.

1. A priority goal for the client with COPD is to manage the signs and symptoms of the disease process so as to maintain the client's functional ability. Chest pain is not a typical symptom of COPD. The carbon dioxide concentration in the blood is increased to an abnormal level in clients with COPD; it would not be a goal to increase the level further. Preventing infection would be a goal of care for the client with COPD.

Which of the following is a priority goal for the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? 1. Maintaining functional ability. 2. Minimizing chest pain. 3. Increasing carbon dioxide levels in the blood. 4. Treating infectious agents.