NCO Sexuality

Which medication of choice would be prescribed for a breast-feeding teenage mother diagnosed with syphilis? Doxycycline Tetracycline Azithromycin Benzathine penicillin

Rationale Benzathine penicillin is safe to use for syphilis in lactating women. Doxycycline and tetracycline are used in the treatment of syphilis in nonpregnant women. Azithromycin is not the medication of choice for the treatment of syphilis.

Which infection is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum in infants? Chlamydia Gonorrhea Human papilloma virus Herpes simplex virus

Ophthalmia neonatorum is a neonatal eye infection that occurs when the infant passes through the birth canal that is infected. Chlamydia is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.

Which adolescent behavior increases the risk of injury? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Poor diet Substance abuse Unprotected sex Sedentary lifestyle Increased screen time

Rationale Behaviors that increase an adolescent's risk for injury include substance abuse and unprotected sexual intercourse. Poor diet, sedentary lifestyle, and increased screen time increase the risk for obesity, not injury.

Which manifestation is associated with hypoestrogenism? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Hot flashes Amenorrhea Gynecomastia Hypermenorrhea Reduced bone density

Rationale Low levels of estrogen may cause hot flashes, amenorrhea, and reduced bone density. Gynecomastia and hypermenorrhea are manifestations of excess estrogen production.

Which test helps identify reproductive tract fibroids, tumors, and fistulas? Mammography Ultrasonography Hysterosalpingography Computed tomography

Rationale A hysterosalpingogram is an x-ray used to evaluate tubal anatomy and patency and is further used to identify uterine problems such as fibroids, tumors, and fistulas. Mammography involves ×-rays of the soft tissue of the breast. Ultrasonography is a technique used to assess fibroids, cysts, and masses. Computed tomography is used to detect and evaluate masses and identify lymphatic enlargement from metastasis.

Which statement describes varicocele? Varicocele occurs most often on the left side. The left testicle is larger when associated varicocele is present. Testicular size increases with increasing duration of a varicocele. Dihydrotestosterone level increases with the duration of a varicocele.

Rationale Varicocele occurs most often on the left side. The left testicle is smaller when associated varicocele is present. Testicular size decreases with increasing duration of varicocele. Dihydrotestosterone levels decrease with increasing duration of a varicocele.

Which client statement indicates the need for further teaching regarding safe sexual practices related to their diagnosis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? "I should use a dental dam during oral sex." "I can participate in anal intercourse safely without using condoms." "I should ask my partner to use a female condom while engaging in sexual activity." '"I should use condoms even while receiving highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)."

"I can participate in anal intercourse safely without using condoms Rationale Having anal intercourse indicates the client needs more teaching because this statement is incorrect. The client should wear a condom or use other genital barriers to prevent the transmission of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). Anal intercourse is a risky sexual practice that allows contact between the seminal fluid and the rectal mucous membranes. Anal intercourse also tears the mucous membranes, making an infection more likely. All the other statements are correct and do not indicate further education is needed. Barriers such as dental dams and female condoms are recommended while participating in sexual activity. Though the viral load may decrease with the use of HAART, the risk for transmission still exists. The client should use condoms during sexual contact.

Which statement would the nurse include in the teaching plan of a client anticipating discharge with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Wash used dishes in hot, soapy water. Let dishes soak in hot water for 24 hours before washing. 'You should boil the client's dishes for 30 minutes after use.' 'Have the client eat from paper plates so they can be discarded'

A person cannot contract human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) by eating from dishes previously used by an individual with AIDS; routine care is adequate. Washing used dishes in hot, soapy water is sufficient care for dishes used by the AIDS client. Dishes do not need to soak for 24 hours before being washed. The client's dishes do not need to be boiled for 30 minutes after use. Paper plates are fine to use but are not indicated to prevent the spread of AIDS.

Which nutrient deficiency in the pregnant adolescent may result in decreased birthweight as a consequence of low bone mineral density in the fetus? Zinc Iron Calcium Folic acid

Calcium Rationale Calcium and vitamin deficiency may result in decreased birthweight as a consequence of low bone mineral density. Zinc deficiency may not lead to a decrease in bone mineral density. Iron deficiency may lead to anemia. Folic acid deficiency may result in neural tube defects.

An adolescent male complains of painful urination and yellow-green mucosal discharge from the urethra without abdominal pain. Which condition would the nurse suspect? Varicocele Testicular torsion Epididymitis Gynecomastia

Epididymitis Rationale Epididymitis is a condition characterized by dysuria, pyuria, scrotal pain, redness, and swelling. Epididymitis is not associated with gastrointestinal symptoms as in testicular torsion. Varicocele is a condition characterized by elongation, dilation, and tortuosity of the veins of the spermatic cord superior to the testicle, which is not associated with urethral discharge. Gynecomastia has no symptoms of abnormal urethral discharge.

Arrange the stages of the menstrual cycle in sequential order. Ovulation Follicular phase Feedback mechanism Follicular involution

Follicular phase Ovulation Follicular involution Feedback mechanism Rationale The menstrual cycle begins with the follicular phase. During this phase, one ovarian follicle becomes dominant and produces a large amount of estrogen. After this phase is ovulation; this occurs when the dominant follicle releases an ovum around day 14 of the cycle. After the ovum is released, the follicle involutes with the decreased production of estrogen and thus progesterone in blood. As a feedback response to this decrease, the pituitary gland increases the production of follicle stimulating hormone, which initiates a new menstrual cycle.

Which factor influences acne in adolescent women the most? Stress Dietary intake Family history Hormonal imbalance

Hormonal imbalance Hormonal imbalances cause premenstrual flares of acne in nearly 70% of women. A clear association between stress and acne has not been demonstrated. Studies show some evidence of an association between the intake of dairy products and high glycemic-index foods and acne. A research study showed that 45% of adolescent men have a family history of acne.

Which sexually transmitted infection causes condylomata acuminate? Chlamydia Gonorrhea Herpes simplex Human papillomavirus (HPV)

Human papillomavirus (HPV) Rationale Condylomata acuminate are genital warts that are caused by HPV. Genital warts are not caused by chlamydia, gonorrhea, or herpes simplex.

Which hormone is crucial for ovulation and complete maturation of the ovarian follicles? Luteinizing hormone Follicle-stimulating hormone Gonadotropin-releasing hormone Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone

Luteinizing hormone Rationale Ovulation and complete maturation of ovarian follicles can only take place in the presence of luteinizing hormone. However, follicle-stimulating hormone initiates maturation of the follicles. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone stimulates the pituitary gland to release follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone. Human chorionic gonadotropin hormone is released after implantation and is responsible for secretion of progesterone and estrogen during pregnancy.

How long will a client's ovum stay viable for fertilization after its release? 72 hours 84 hours 96 hours 112 hours

Rationale An ovum can be fertilized up to 72 hours after its release. The ovum disintegrates after 72 hours, and menstruation begins soon after. The ovum cannot be viable for 84, 96, or 112 hours, and fertilization will not occur.

Which part of the female reproductive system produces testosterone? Uterus Ovary Fallopian tube Ovarian follicle

Ovary Rationale Testosterone is an androgen, and in females, androgens are produced by the ovaries and adrenal glands. The uterus holds the fetus during pregnancy. Fallopian tubes facilitate fertilization of oocyte and sperm. An ovarian follicle is a collection of oocytes in the ovary.

Which behavior pattern may be exhibited by teenagers in late adolescence? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Concealed temper Introspective nature Consistent emotions Feeling of inadequacy Intense daydreaming

Concealed temper Consistent emotions Rationale Psychologically, teenagers in their late adolescence are more likely to conceal their feelings, including anger and exhibit a consistency of emotions. An introspective nature and feelings of inadequacy are expressed by teenagers in their middle adolescence. Intense daydreaming is associated with teenagers in their early adolescence.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by human papillomavirus? Gonorrhea Genital herpes Chlamydia infection Condylomata acuminata

Condylomata acuminata Condylomata acuminata is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the human papillomavirus. Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital herpes is causes by the herpes simplex virus. Chlamydia Infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis.

Which potential complication is important for the nurse to include when teaching prevention strategies to clients with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Infection Depression Social isolation Kaposi sarcoma

Infection Rationale The client has a weakened immune response. Instructions regarding rest, nutrition, and avoidance of unnecessary exposure to people with infections help reduce the risk for infection. Clients can be taught cognitive strategies to cope with depression, but the strategies will not prevent depression. The client may experience social isolation as a result of society's fears and misconceptions; these are beyond the client's control. Although Kaposi sarcoma is related to HIV infection, there are no specific measures to prevent its occurrence.

Which method of contraception may provide adolescents with the longest duration of protection? NuvaRing Levonorgestrel implant Spermicidal suppositories Levonorgestrel intrauterine system

Levonorgestrel intrauterine system Rationale The levonorgestrel intrauterine system is a T-shaped intrauterine system that releases levonorgestrel. It must be placed within 7 days of menses and provides prôtection up to 5 years. The NuvaRing, a flexible, soft, and transparent ring placed in the vagina, must be replaced every 3 weeks. The levonorgestrel implant is a small rod that provides protection for up to 3 years. Spermicidal suppositories are inserted into the vagina to kill sperm and provide protection for only a short duration.

Which congenital disorder may be present in an obese adolescent who has short stature, is hyperphagic, and is diagnosed with hypogonadism? Alström syndrome Prader-Willi syndrome Pseudohypoparathyroidism Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome

Rationale Prader-Willi syndrome is a congenital disorder characterized by hypogonadism. The client may have short stature and be hyperphagic. Alström syndrome, pseudohypoparathyroidism, and Laurence-Moon-Biedl syndrome are congenital disorders characterized by obesity but not hypogonadism.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by protozoa? Scabies Chancroid Pediculosis Trichomoniasis

Trichomoniasis Rationale Trichomoniasis is caused by protozoa. A parasite causes scabies. Bacteria cause chancroid. A parasite also causes pediculosis.

Which diagnostic criterion would the nurse use to explain acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) to a client with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? Contracts HIV-specific antibodies Develops an acute retroviral syndrome Is capable of transmitting the virus to others Has a CD4+T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells/uL (60%)

Has a CD4+T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells/uL (60%) Rationale AIDS is diagnosed when an individual with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) develops one of the following: a CD4+ T-cell lymphocyte level of less than 200 cells/pL (60%), wasting syndrome, dementia, one of the listed opportunistic cancers (e.g., Kaposi sarcoma [KS], Burkitt lymphoma), or one of the listed opportunistic infections (e.g., Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia, Mycobacterium tuberculosis). The development of HIV-specific antibodies (seroconversion), accompanied by acute retroviral syndrome (flulike syndrome with fever, swollen lymph glands, headache, malaise, nausea, diarrhea, diffuse rash, joint and muscle pain) 1 to 3 weeks after exposure to HIV reflects acquisition of the virus, not the development of AIDS. A client who is HIV positive is capable of transmitting the virus with or without the diagnosis of AIDS.

Which conclusion would the school nurse make about a female teenager who has anorexia nervosa and states that she thinks she is pregnant even though she has had intercourse only once, more than a year ago? Is using magical thinking Is submitting to peer pressure Is lying about the last time she had intercourse Is lacking knowledge that the disease can cause amenorrhea

Is lacking knowledge that the disease can cause amenorrhea Rationale The nurse would make the conclusion that the client is lacking knowledge that the disease can cause amenorrhea. The loss of body fat from anorexia can cause amenorrhea; the client needs information. No data are available to support the fact that the client is using magical thinking, which is characterized by the belief that thinking or wishing something can cause it to occur; in light of the client's diagnosis of anorexia, this is not the first conclusion. Submitting to peer pressure is not related to this type of concern. Although the nurse might question the timeline again, the client's nutritional status would be explored first.

Which nursing action would a nurse take to confirm a tentative diagnosis of gonorrhea when obtaining the health history of a 16-year-old boy with a complaint of a thick urethral discharge? Assessing the temperature for fever Collecting a urine sample for a urinalysis Drawing blood for a complete blood count Obtaining a urethral specimen for a culture

Obtaining a urethral specimen for a culture Rationale When the Gonococcus organism is present in the genitourinary tract of a male client, a culture of the urethral exudate provides a definitive diagnosis. Fever is not a specific diagnostic tool, because it occurs with other infections. Although urine may contain Gonococcus organisms, the urine dilutes the concentration; the organisms are more concentrated in the urethral discharge. The Gonococcus organism is in the genitourinary tract, not the blood; a complete blood count will not provide information with which to diagnose gonorrhea.

Which client statement leads the nurse to conclude that the client has been experiencing menorrnagia? 'It hurts when I have intercourse!' "I have a foul-smelling vaginal discharge! 'I have bleeding between my menstrual periods: "I have severe bleeding during my menstrual periods.'

"I have severe bleeding during my menstrual periods.' Rationale Menorrhagia is severe bleeding during a menstrual period. Painful intercourse is the definition of dyspareunia. Foul-smelling vaginal discharge is a sign of a vaginal infection. Metrorrhagia is uterine bleeding that occurs at any time other than during the menstrual period.

Which statement by a male client during a yearly physical examination indicates to a nurse that the client may have a sexual excitement disorder? '1 have no interest in sex.' 'I don't get hard during sex anymore' 'I climax almost before we even get started' 'It takes forever before I finally have an orgasm.'

'I don't get hard during sex anymore Rationale The statement "I don't get hard during sex anymore' indicates a sexual excitement disorder, which is a partial or complete failure to achieve a physiological or psychological response to sexual activity. The statement 'I have no interest in sex' may indicate a sexual dysfunction in which the individual has deficient or absent interest in, or extreme aversion to and avoidance of, sexual activity. 'I climax almost before we even get started' and 'It takes forever before I finally have an orgasm' are both indicative of an orgasmic disorder, which is a delay in or absence of an orgasm or premature ejaculation.

The school nurse would teach the students that the ovum is no longer viable at which time interval after ovulation? 12 hours 24 hours 48 hours 72 hours

24 hours Rationale The ovum is viable for about 24 hours after ovulation; if not fertilized before this time, it degenerates. For this reason, 12 hours, 48 hours, and 72 hours are all incorrect answers.

Which chromosomal abnormality would the nurse suspect in a male adolescent with reduced muscle mass, minimally developed secondary sex characteristics, and gynecomastia? 45,X0 47,XXX 47,XXY 47,XYY

47,XXY Rationale The male child with reduced muscle mass, deficient secondary sex characteristics, and gynecomastia likely has Klinefelter syndrome, denoted as 47,XXY. The chromosonal complement 45, XO is seen in children with Turner syndrome. A child with Turner syndrome will have short stature and a webbed neck. The 47,XXX chromosomal complement indicates that the child has tripleX, or superfemale, chromosomal abnormality. This condition is associated with impaired language and mental capacity. A child with the chromosomal complement 47XY has Jacobs chromosomal abnormality, which is associated with taller than average height, language concerns, and behavioral problems.

Which population would the nurse include in a community education session on sexually transmitted infections (STIs)? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Adolescents Homosexual men Transgender clients Multiple sex partners Intravenous drug users

All Rationale Adolescents, homosexual men, transgender clients, and those with multiple sex partners are at high risk for STIs. Intravenous drug users are also high risk and in need of education on STis, as they are at particular risk for transmitting or contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) through needle sharing.

Which cause may produce abnormal uterine bleeding? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Hypothyroidism Failure to ovulate Bleeding disorders Unidentified pregnancy Use of oral contraceptives Benign lesions of the uterus

All Rationale Common causes for any type of abnormal uterine bleeding include endocrine disorders like hypothyroidism; failure to ovulate or respond appropriately to ovulation hormones; bleeding disorders; pregnancy complications such as an unidentified pregnancy that is ending in spontaneous abortion; breakthrough bleeding, which may occur in the woman taking oral contraceptives; and lesions of the vagina, cervix, or uterus (benign or malignant).

Which risk to the fetus is associated with a maternal diagnosis of chorioamnionitis? Selec all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected Sepsis Bacteremia Pneumonia Cerebral palsy (CP) Respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)

All Rationale If a pregnant client is diagnosed with chorioamnionitis, risks to the fetus include sepsis, bacteremia, pneumonia, CP, and RDS.

Which term is used to indicate an absence of menstruation? Gonorrhea Amenorrhea Dysmenorrhea Ectopic pregnancy

Amenorrhea An absence of menstruation indicates amenorrhea. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted disease. Dysmenorrhea is with painful menstruation associated with abdominal cramps. The formation of a fetus outside the uterus, such as a fallopian tube, is ectopic pregnancy.

Which client may have concerns related to sexuality when hospitalized with a chronic illness? An 8 year old A 10 year old A 12 year old An 18 year old

An 18 year old An 18-year-old client is an adolescent, which is the stage of development where concerns about sexuality may occur when the client is hospitalized with a chronic illness. The other clients are not developmentally characterized as adolescents; therefore, the nurse would not anticipate an 8-year-old, 10-year-old, or 12- year-old child to have this concern.

Which statement is true for attachment in the newborn? Attachment occurs over the first 28 days. Attachment begins in the first week of birth. Attachment is the overlapping of soft skull bones. Attachment is the interaction between parent and child.

Attachment is the interaction between parent and child Rationale Attachment is the interaction between the parent and child. Attachment is a process that evolves over the first 24 months. The newborn is awake and alert for the first half-hour after birth, during which parent-child interaction begins. Molding is the overlapping of the soft skull bones commonly seen in newborns who had vaginal births and allows the fetal head to adjust to the various diameters of the maternal pelvis during birth.

Which term refers to the Cowper gland? Skene gland Prostate gland Bartholin gland Bulbourethral gland

Bulbourethral gland Cowper glands are accessory glands of the male reproductive system; they are also referred to as the bulbourethral glands. The prostate gland is also a gland of the male reproductive system. Bartholin glands are part of the female reproductive system. Skene glands are a part of the female reproductive system.

Which term refers to the Cowper gland? Skene gland Prostate gland Bartholin gland Bulbourethral gland

Bulbourethral gland Rationale Cowper glands are accessory glands of the male reproductive system; they are also referred to as the bulbourethral glands. Skene glands are a part of the female reproductive system. The prostate gland is also a gland of the male reproductive system. Bartholin glands are part of the female reproductive system.

Which additional fact would the nurse teach the client with gonorrhea in addition to being highly infectious? Easily cured Occurs very rarely Can produce sterility Limited to the external genitalia

Can produce sterility Rationale Inflammation associated with gonorrhea may lead to destruction of the epididymis in males and tubal mucosal destruction in females, causing sterility. Many gonococci have become penicillin resistant and difficult to treat. Gonorrhea is a common sexually transmitted infection. Neisseria gonorrhoeae will invade internal structures, particularly the epididymis in males and the fallopian tubes in females.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis? Cervicitis Gonorrhea Genital warts Genital herpes

Cervicitis Rationale Cervicitis is caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Gonorrhea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus. Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus.

Which infection is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum in infants? Chlamydia Gonorrhea Human papilloma virus Herpes simplex virus

Chlamydia Rationale Ophthalmia neonatorum is a neonatal eye infection that occurs when the infant passes through the birth canal that is infected. Chlamydia is the most common cause of ophthalmia neonatorum.

Which complication would the nurse suspect in a client with genital herpes disease? Infertility Cold sores Reactive arthritis Bartholin abscess

Cold sores are the autoinoculation of the virus to extragenital sites, such as the fingers and lips. It is a complication of genital herpes disease. Infertility and reactive arthritis are the complications of chlamydial infection. Bartholin abscess is a complication of gonorrhea.

Which initial action would the nurse take when a client is seen openly masturbating in the recreation room? Restraining the client's hands Putting the client in seclusion Escorting the client from the room Teaching the client acceptable behavior

Escorting the client from the room Rationale The initial action is to escort the client from the room. This accepts the client but rejects the behavior. The nurse would set limits on this behavior when it is not performed in a private area. Restraining the client's hands is unrealistic and violates the client's rights. Putting the client in seclusion is a punishment rather than a setting of limits. The client may be too anxious at this time to understand a conversation about acceptable and unacceptable behavior. The nurse has a responsibility to the other clients to limit the behavior.

Which sexually transmitted infection is caused by a virus? Syphilis Gonorrhea Genital warts Chlamydial infection

Genital warts Strains of the human papillomavirus (HPV) cause the sexually transmitted infection of genital warts. Bacteria cause syphilis, gonorrhea, and chlamydial infections.

Which manifestation indicates tertiary syphilis? Chancre Alopecia Gummas Condylomata lata

Gummas Rationale Gummas are chronic, destructive lesions affecting the skin, bone, liver, and mucous membranes occur during tertiary syphilis. A chancre appears during primary syphilis. Alopecia and condylomata lata occur during secondary syphilis.

A young pregnant adolescent is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy. Which risk factors contribute to ectopic pregnancy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Habit of smoking Irregular menses Use of contraceptive pills Damage to the fallopian tubes History of pelvic inflammatory disease

Habit of smoking Damage to the fallopian tubes History of pelvic inflammatory disease Rationale Adolescents who smoke experience a higher risk for ectopic pregnancy. Inflammation of the fallopian tubes and ovaries and a history of pelvic inflammatory disease are risk factors. The use of contraceptive pills and a history of irregular menses are not associated with ectopic pregnancy.

Which important information would the nurse determine regarding the care provided by a mother diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) who has been caring for her baby despite not feeling well? If she has ever kissed the baby and how If the mother is breast-feeding her baby When the baby last received antibiotics How long she has been caring for the baby

If the mother is breast-feeding her baby Epidemiological evidence has identified breast milk as a source of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) transmission. Kissing is not believed to transmit HIV. When the baby last received antibiotics is unrelated to transmission of HIV. HIV transmission does not occur from contact associated with caring for a newborn. Next

Which over-the-counter medication is used to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis? Select all thi apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Tinidazole Miconazole Clotrimazole Azithromycin Metronidazole

Miconazole Clotrimazole Rationale Miconazole and clotrimazole are standard over-the-counter medications used to treat candidiasis. Tinidazole is used to treat trichomoniasis. Azithromycin is used to treat chlamydia. Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis.

Which over-the-counter medication is used to treat vulvovaginal candidiasis? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Tinidazole Miconazole Clotrimazole Azithromycin Metronidazole

Miconazole and clotrimazole are standard over-the-counter medications used to treat candidiasis. Tinidazole is used to treat trichomoniasis. Azithromycin is used to treat chlamydia. Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis and trichomoniasis.

Which part of the female reproductive system produces testosterone? Uterus Ovary Fallopian tube Ovarian follicle

Ovary Testosterone is an androgen, and in females, androgens are produced by the ovaries and adrenal glands. The uterus holds the fetus during pregnancy. Fallopian tubes facilitate fertilization of oocyte and sperm. An ovarian follicle is a collection of oocytes in the ovary.

Which viral infection will cause the nurse to observe for warts on the hands, feet, or genitals? Poxvirus Rhabdovirus Epstein-Barr virus Papillomavirus

Papillomavirus Warts are caused by papillomavirus and may be located on the hands, feet, or genitals. Poxviruses cause smallpox. Rhabdovirus causes rabies. Epstein-Barr causes mononucleosis and Burkitt lymphoma.

Which structure is included in the external genitalia of the male anatomy? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Penis Testes Scrotum Urethra Seminal vesicles

Penis, scrotum The male reproductive system is divided into primary reproductive organs and secondary reproductive organs. Secondary reproductive organs include ducts, sex glands, and external genitalia. The external genitalia consists of the penis and the scrotum. Testes are the primary reproductive organs. The urethra is the duct, and the seminal vesicles are sex glands.

Which organism is responsible for causing dermatitis related to a sexually transmitted infection (STI)? Phthirus pubis Candida albicans Campylobacter jejuni Ureaplasma urealyticum

Phthirus pubis is responsible for dermatitis related to sexually transmitted infections. Candida albicans may lead to vulvovaginitis. Campylobacter jejuni may cause proctitis. Ureaplasma urealyticum may cause salpingitis, infertility, reproductive loss, and ectopic pregnancies.

Which structure of the penis would the nurse tell the parents is removed when educating new parents about circumcision? Glans Prepuce Epididymis Vas deferens

Prepuce Circumcision is a procedure that involves removal of the prepuce, a skin fold over the glans. The glans is the tip of the penis. The epididymis is the internal structure that promotes transportation of the sperm. The vas deferens carries the sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct.

Which hormone is crucial in maintaining the implanted ovum at its site? Inhibin Estrogen Progesterone Testosterone

Progesterone Progesterone is necessary to maintain an implanted egg. Inhibin regulates the release of follicle-stimulating hormone and gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Estrogen plays a vital role in the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics. Testosterone is important for bone strength and development of muscle mass.

Which hormone is crucial in maintaining the implanted ovum at its site? Inhibin Estrogen Progesterone Testosterone

Progesterone Rationale Progesterone is necessary to maintain an implanted egg. Inhibin regulates the release of follicle-stimulating hormone and gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Estrogen plays a vital role in the development and maintenance of secondary sexual characteristics. Testosterone is important for bone strength and development of muscle mass.

Which is the priority intervention for a 13-year-old girl who reports that she has been sexually abused by her grandfather for almost 2 years? Keeping the extended family unit intact Validating the truth of the child's accusations Providing a safe, nonjudgmental environment Securing psychiatric treatment for the grandfather

Providing a safe, nonjudgmental environment Rationale Victims of sexual abuse need to feel safe and accepted when discussing their histories. The nurse's primary responsibility is toward the child, not the family. The story should initially be accepted as true. The nurse's primary responsibility is toward the child, not the grandfather.

On a routine prenatal visit, which is the sign or symptom that a healthy primigravida at 20 weeks' gestation will most likely report for the first time? Quickening Palpitations Pedal edema Vaginal spotting

Quickening Rationale The recognition of fetal movement or quickening commonly occurs in primigravidas at 18 to 20 weeks' gestation; it is felt about 2 weeks earlier in multigravidas. Palpitations should not occur in the healthy primigravidas. Pedal edema may occur at the end of the pregnancy as the gravid uterus presses on the femoral arteries, impeding circulation. Immediate follow-up care is required when it occurs this early in the pregnancy. Vaginal spotting is abnormal and requires immediate follow-up care.

A deficiency in which hormone causes breast atrophy in female clients? Growth hormone Luteinizing hormone Thyroid-stimulating hormone Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Rationale A luteinizing hormone deficiency causes atrophy of the breasts. A growth hormone deficiency causes decreased bone density and pathological fractures. A thyroid-stimulating hormone deficiency results in hirsutism, weight gain, and menstrual abnormalities. An adrenocorticotropic hormone deficiency causes postural hypotension, hypoglycemia, and anorexia.

Which age-related finding would a nurse expect when performing a male reproductive system assessment of an older adult client? @ Asymmetrical testes Reduced size of testes Absence of pubic hair Foreskin that is difficult to retract

Rationale A reduction in the size of the testes is a characteristic of aging. The testes are symmetrical in shape and length; any change in their symmetry denotes an abnormality. Pubic hair is normally present. For uncircumcised males, a foreskin will be present and should be easily retractable.

The waiting area of a health care facility displays a pink triangle. Which view does this signify? The waiting area is for female dients. The waiting area is for pediatric clients. The health care facility welcomes transwomen. The health care facility welcomes LGBTQ+ clients.

Rationale A waiting room in a health care facility marked with a pink triangle indicates that the health care facility is a safe place for LGBTQ clients, and they can expect respectful and knowledgeable quality care. Other symbolsmight be used to represent areas that are meant for female and pediatric clients. There are no widely used symbols to designate transwomen-specific health care facilities.

Which hormone would the nurse explain as stimulating the release of estrogen and progesterone after fertilization? Inhibin Testosterone Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Rationale After fertilization, human chorionic gonadotropin (hG) stimulates the corpus luteum to produce estrogen and progesterone. Inhibin is a hormone produced by the ovarian follicles; it inhibits the secretion of FSH and gonadotropin-releasing hormone. Testosterone does not affect the release of estrogen and progesterone. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) stimulates the growth and maturity of the ovarian follicle necessary for ovulation.

Which medication of choice would be prescribed for a client who is diagnosed with chlamydia? Imiquimod Ceftriaxone Azithromycin Benzathine penicillin

Rationale Azithromycin is recommended for clients with chlamydia infections. Imiquimod is beneficial for treating genital warts in clients with human papillomavirus infections. Ceftriaxone is the medication of choice for treating gonorrhea. Benzathine penicillin is recommended for treating syphilis.

Which event is considered the first sign of puberty in girls? Breast development Pubic hair distribution First menstrual period Physiologic leukorrhea

Rationale Breast development is considered the first sign of puberty in girls. Pubic hair distribution occurs mid-puberty. The first menstrual period typically occurs approximately 24 months after thelarche (breast development). Physiologic leukorrhea (increased normal vaginal discharge) marks the uterine development early in puberty.

Which client has a higher risk for contracting the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection? © A client who is involved in mutual masturbation © A client who undergoes voluntary prenatal HIV testing A client who shares equipment to snort or smoke drugs © A client who engages in insertive sex with a noninfective partner

Rationale Clients who use equipment to snort (straws) and smoke (pipes) drugs are at the highest risk for becoming infected with HIV because their judgment may be impaired regarding the high-risk behaviors. Safe activities preventing the risk of contracting HIV include mutual masturbation, masturbation, and other activities meeting the 'no contact' requirements. A client who undergoes perinatal HIV voluntary testing may reduce the chances of becoming infected. Insertive sexual activities between partners who are not infected with HIV are not at risk of becoming infected with HIV.

Which complication will occur as the result of administering sildenafil to a client who takes isosorbide dinitrate? Constipation Protracted vomiting Respiratory distress Severe hypotension

Rationale Concurrent use of sildenafil and a nitrate, which causes vasodilation, may result in severe, potentially fatal hypotension. Sildenafil may cause diarrhea; adding a nitrate will not cause constipation. Protracted vomiting and respiratory distress are not medication interaction effects associated with concurrent use of sildenafil and a nitrate.

Which organization has a publication that includes the objective, "Aiming to develop a system to identify clients who are lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and queer/questioning (LGBTQ+)"? U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (USDHHS) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) The joint Commission (T]C) The World Professional Association for Transgender Health (WPATH)

Rationale Developing a system to identify clients who are LGBTQ is a goal stated in the USDHHS's Healthy People 2030. The CDC's publications have goals that differ from this one. TJC's field guide lists recommendations for health care agencies for designing a safe environment for LGBTQ+ client care. WPATH summarizes core principles that nurses and other health care providers should follow when caring for transgender clients.

The nurse understands which medication places a client's offspring at risk for vaginal cancer? Danazol Estrogen Valproic acid Diethylstilbestrol

Rationale DiethyIstilbestrol is a synthetic nonsteroidal estrogen used in the treatment of menopausal and postmenopausal disorders. When it is consumed during pregnancy, it may show the delayed teratogenic effect of vaginal cancer in female offspring by the age of 18 years. Danazol is an androgen that may cause masculinization of the female fetus. Estrogen causes congenital defects of the female reproductive organs. Valproic acid, a medication used to control seizures, may cause neural tube defects.

A medication is administered to a client in her third trimester of pregnancy. Which statement regarding the medication administration is correct? The dose of a medication may need to be increased for pregnant clients. No medications should be administered to the pregnant client. Medication dosages should not be altered for a pregnant client. Medication dosage may need to be decreased for pregnant clients.

Rationale During pregnancy, a client's hepatic metabolism and glomerular filtration are increased. As a result, the excretion rate is faster. The dose of a medication should be increased for the medication action to be optimal. It is true that some medications should not be given to the pregnant client, because of potential teratogenic effects on the fetus. The client should see her health care provider if in doubt. The dose of a medication should be altered for a pregnant client depending on the trimester she is in. How a medication affects the fetus depends on the stage of development of the fetus and the dosage and strength of the medication administered. During the first 3 to 8 weeks after fertilization, the major organs are developing, and the dose of a medication should be decreased or withdrawn for pregnant clients.

Which medication may cause malformations of the male external genitalia? Etretinate Dutasteride Methimazole Propylthiouracil

Rationale Dutasteride is a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor that causes malformations of external genitalia in males. Etretinate is a vitamin A derivative that may cause multiple central nervous system defects. Methimazole and propylthiouracil are antithyroid medications that may cause goiters and hypothyroidism.

Which phase of a woman's sexual response is characterized by elevation of the uterus? Plateau phase Orgasmic phase Excitation phase Resolution phase

Rationale Elevation of the uterus is a characteristic of the plateau phase of a woman's sexual response. The plateau phase occurs after the excitation phase, and excitation is maintained through the plateau phase, wherein the vagina expands and the uterus is elevated. The orgasmic phase is characterized by uterine and vaginal contractions. In the excitation phase the clitoris is congested and vaginal lubrication increases. The resolution phase is characterized by returning to the preexisting state.

An adolescent reports scrotal pain, redness, dysuria, and fever. Which condition is the client most likely experiencing? Varicocele Epididymitis Testicular torsion Testicular cancer

Rationale Epididymitis is a condition associated with scrotal pain, dysuria, redness, and fever. Varicocele can be palpated as a worm-like mass situated above the testicles. Manifestations of testicular torsion include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The presence of a heavy, hard mass that is palpable accompanied by back pain and shortness of breath is associated with testicular cancer.

Arrange the events of an examination of a rape victim for a sexually transmitted infection in correct order. Repetition of serological tests for syphilis and HIV infection Serum sample for HIV infection, hepatitis B, and syphilis Nuclei acid amplified testing for chlamydia and gonorrhea Wet mount and culture or point-of-care testing of a vaginal swab specimen for trichomoniasis

Rationale First, the sexual assault nurse would conduct nucleic acid amplified testing for chlamydia and gonorrhea. Next, the nurse would check for trichomoniasis via a wet mount and culture or point-of-care testing of a vaginal swab specimen. After this, a serum sample for HIV infection, hepatitis B, and syphilis should be conducted. Finally, serological tests for syphilis and HIV infection are repeated every 3 to 6 months after the assault.

Which statement describes gynecomastia? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected Inflammation of epididymis of testis Suspended testis from its vascular structures Bilateral or unilateral enlargement of breast in adolescent boys Elongation and dilation of the veins of the spermatic cord superior to the testicle An unusual physical change during the growth and development of sexual organs

Rationale Gynecomastia is a bilateral or unilateral enlargement of breast seen in adolescent boys. It is an unusual change during growth and development and subsides on its own. Gynecomastia is caused by a hormone imbalance of testosterone and estrogen. Epididymitis is inflammation of epididymis of testis. Intravaginal torsion of the testicle is a condition in which the tunica vaginalis, which normally encases the testicle, fails to do so and the testis hangs free from its vascular structures. A varicocele is characterized by elongation, dilation, and tortuosity of the veins of the spermatic cord superior to the testicle.

Which herbal therapies would be beneficial to a client with menstrual cramping? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected Catnip Fennel Black haw Bugleweed Chamomile

Rationale Herbal therapies such as catnip, fennel, and black haw are used to treat menstrual cramping and dysmenorrhea. Bugleweed and chamomile are used to treat breast pain.

Which factor may be responsible for excessive hair growth in the pubic region and under the arms of a female adolescent? High levels of estrogen Low levels of progesterone High levels of testosterone Low levels of follicle stimulating hormone

Rationale High estrogen levels in the later stages of puberty generally promote the growth of pubic and axillary hair. Progesterone is generally involved in the implantation of the fertilized egg in the uterus and the maintenance of pregnancy. High testosterone levels increase pubic and axillary hair in males. Low follicle stimulating hormone levels reduce estrogen levels.

ent is undergoing highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). Which viral disease Id the client be suffering? Hepatitis Herpes simplex virus (HSV) Human papillomavirus (HPV) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

Rationale Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HART) is a combination of antiretroviral medications used to treat HIV. Because hepatitis, HSV, and HPV are not retroviral, HAART is ineffective for these disorders.

Which is the concentration of estradiol in the blood during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle? 130 pg/mL 159 pg/mL 165 pg/mL 171 pg/mL

Rationale In the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle, 20 to 150 pg/mL of estradiol is released. Therefore 130 pg/mL of estradiol would be its concentration during the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle. Concentrations of 159, 165, and 171 pg/mL are greater than the reference range.

Which gonadotropin-releasing hormone agonist is used to treat endometriosis? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected Trazodone Diclofenac Leuprolide Isotretinoin Nafarelin acetate

Rationale Leuprolide and nafarelin acetate are gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) agonists used to treat endometriosis. Trazodone is used in cases of erectile dysfunction. Diclofenac is a nonsteroidal anti- inflammatory drug used to relieve pain in endometriosis. Isotretinoin is an oral agent that is effective against severe cystic acne.

Which are the medical concerns in adolescent pregnancies? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected Anemia Macrosomia Gestational diabetes Poor maternal weight gain Pregnancy-induced hypertension

Rationale Medical concerns in adolescent pregnancies include maternal anemia, poor weight gain, and pregnancy- induced hypertension. Adolescents often receive delayed or inadequate prenatal care, increasing the risk of a low-birthweight infant, not a large one. Pregnancy-induced diabetes is a risk factor associated with pregnancies involving maternal obesity and maternal age greater than 25 years.

Which statement about levonorgestrel requires correction? Levonorgestrel is an over-the-counter medication. Levonorgestrel is an emergency contraceptive. Levonorgestrel is taken in combination with methotrexate. Levonorgestrel should be taken within 72 hours of intercourse.

Rationale Methotrexate is a medication prescribed for inducing abortion; this medication is used in combination with misoprostol. Levonorgestrel is an over-the-counter medication that is given without a prescription. It is an emergency contraceptive that should be taken within 72 hours of intercourse.

The nurse understands which is the medication of choice for a client who wants to abort her pregnancy at 3 months of gestation? Nifedipine Terbutaline Mifepristone Methylergonovine

Rationale Mifepristone is a progesterone antagonist that stimulates uterine contractions; it is used to selectively terminate a pregnancy. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker that is used to maintain pregnancy in cases of preterm labor. Terbutaline is a medication previously used to inhibit labor and maintain pregnancy, but in 2011 the FDA issued a warning that it should not be used for prevention or prolonged treatment of preterm labor; it is approved to prevent and treat bronchospasm. Methylergonovine is used to reduce postpartum uterine hemorrhage; this medication is not used for abortion.

Which value indicates a normal vaginal pH? 4.2 6.8 7.5 93

Rationale Normal vaginal pH ranges from 3.5 to 5. Clients with a higher vaginal pH (6.8, 7.5, and 9.3) are more prone to infections.

A young pregnant adolescent is diagnosed as having bacterial vaginosis. Which complications related to bacterial vaginosis may occur? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected Neonatal sepsis Cervical dysplasia Preterm labor and birth Intraamniotic infection Postpartum endometritis

Rationale Preterm birth and labor may occur because bacteria that enters the cervix irritates the uterus, which cause contractions. Bacterial vaginosis is associated with high risk of intraamniotic infection and postpartum endometritis. Neonatal sepsis occurs because of gonococcal infections. Cervical dysplasia occurs in clients with human immunodeficiency virus infections.

Which glands help in lubricating the female urinary meatus? Skene glands Prostate glands Cowper glands Bartholin glands

Rationale Skene glands are located along the urinary meats and help lubricate the urinary meatus. The prostate and Cowper gland are glands of the male reproductive system. Bartholin gland lies at the vaginal orifice and contributes in lubricating the vagina during sexual intercourse.

Arrange in order of occurrence the steps involved in the changes during puberty. Stimulation of the gonadal response Movement of GnRH through a network of capillaries to the anterior pituitary gland Triggering of GnRH by the hypothalamus Stimulation of production and secretion of FSH and LH

Rationale Some events trigger the production of gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus. GnRH travels through a network of capillaries to the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the production and secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). When the levels of these hormones increase, they in turn stimulate the gonadal response.

Which stage of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) would a client with a CD4+ T cell count of 325 cells/mm 3 be classified? Stage 1 Stage 2 Stage 3 Stage 4

Rationale Stage 2 describes a client with a CD4+ T cell count between 200 and 499 cells/mm 3. Stage 1 describes a client with a CD4+ T cell count of greater than 500 cells/mm 3. Stage 3 describes a client with a CD4+ T cell count of less than 200 cells/mm 3. Stage 4 describes a client with a confirmed HIV infection but no information regarding CD4+ T cell counts is available.

Which medication may be used for emergency contraception? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Some correct answers were not selected Ulipristal Misoprostol Mifepristone Methotrexate Levonorgestrel

Rationale The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved medications for emergency contraception include ulipristal, levonorgestrel, and a combination of estrogen and progestin. Misoprostol, mifepristone, and methotrexate are used to induce abortion after a pregnancy is confirmed.

Which gland secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone to help control the events of puberty? Hypothalamus Thyroid Anterior pituitary Posterior pituitary

Rationale The hypothalamus releases gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH), which stimulates the anterior pituitary gland. This gland exerts hormonal influence on the events of puberty. GnRH travels through a network of capillaries to the anterior pituitary gland, where it stimulates the production and secretion of follicle- stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone, but the anterior pituitary itself does not secrete GnRH. The posterior pituitary and thyroid glands have no involvement in the neuroendocrine eyents of puberty.

Which risk of adolescent pregnancy would the community nurse teach? Risk for premature birth Risk for having a large baby Risk for chromosomal defects Risk for increased weight gain

Rationale The nurse would teach the community that adolescent pregnancy often leads to premature births. Adolescent pregnancy may lead to low birth weight babies due to lack of nutrition and prematurity. Older women have difficulty in becoming pregnant and they are more likely to have babies with chromosomal defects. An adolescent mother is not at risk for increased weight gain because she is more likely to be affected by lack of nutrition and exposure to alcohol, drugs, and tobacco.

Which part of the female reproductive system secretes androgens? Uterus Ovaries Fallopian tube Ovarian follicle

Rationale The ovaries and adrenal glands produce androgens in women. The fetus develops in the uterus during pregnancy. The fallopian tubes facilitate fertilization of oocyte and sperm. The ovarian follicle is a collection of oocytes in the ovary.

At which age do males typically reach their peak height growth velocity? 12 years 14 years 16 years 18 years

Rationale The peak height growth velocity typically occurs around the age of 14 years in males and is marked by general increase in the growth of skeleton, muscles, and internal organs. The pubertal growth spurt reaches peak around the age of 12 years in females. The middle adolescent period occurs at 15 to 17 years and shows a deceleration in growth. Physical maturity is attained in late adolescent stage around 18 to 20 years.

Which medication is responsible for neonatal hypoglycemia? Warfarin Simvastatin Tolbutamide Methimazole

Rationale Tolbutamide is an oral hypoglycemic agent used in the treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus. It is known to have effects such as neonatal hypoglycemia. Warfarin, a common blood thinner, may cause teratogenic effects such as skeletal and central nervous system defects. Simvastatin, an HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor used for the treatment of high cholesterol, may cause teratogenic effects such as facial malformations and severe central nervous system anomalies. Methimazole, an antithyroid medication administered for the treatment of maternal hyperthyroidism, may cause teratogenic effects such as neonatal goiter, cretinism, and hypothyroidism.

Which point is included in the World Professional Association for Transgender Health (PATH) document regarding core principles of care for transgender clients? Designating unisex or single-stall restrooms Seeking informed consent before providing treatment Posting the client's bill of rights and nondiscrimination policies visibly Reflecting the client's choice of terminology in communication and documentation

Seeking informed consent before providing treatment Rationale The nurse must seek informed consent before providing treatment for a transgender client. This is one of the core principles for health care professionals who care for transgender clients as per the document published by the W/PATH. As per The Joint Commission recommendations for creating a safe and welcoming environment for lesbian, gay, bisexual, transgender, and queer/questioning (LGBTQ+) clients, the nurse would designate unisex or single-stall restrooms, post the client's bill of rights and nondiscrimination policies visibly, and use the client's choice of terminology in communication and documentation.

Which immediate action would the nurse take for an adolescent boy with schizophrenia who exposes his genitals to a nurse? Ignore the client at this time. State that this behavior is unacceptable. Move him to his room for a short time-out. Tell the client to come to the office later to discuss the behavior.

State that this behavior is unacceptable. Rationale The nurse would immediately state that his behavior is unacceptable. When clients enter a new milieu, limits should be set on unacceptable behavior and acceptable behavior should be reinforced. Neither clients nor unacceptable behavior should be ignored. Moving the client to his room for a short time-out is punishment. Unacceptable attention-getting behavior must be addressed immediately; also, the focus should be on appropriate behavior.

Question 63 Why is an infection caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae particularly troublesome for a female client? The medication is expensive. The infection is difficult to treat with antibiotics. Symptoms are often overlooked. Treatment has many adverse effects.

Symptoms are often overlooked. Rationale Many female clients who contract gonorrhea are asymptomatic or overlook the minor symptoms, making possible for the bacteria to remain a source of infection. There is no evidence to support the medication to treat the infection is expensive. The infection can be treated with one intramuscular injection of ceftriaxone. There is no evidence to support the medication to treat this infection has many adverse effects.

Which sexually transmitted infection (STI) is caused by Treponema pallidum? Syphilis Gonorrhea Genital warts Vulvovaginitis

Syphilis is an STI caused by Treponema pallium. Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes gonorrhea. Haemophilus ducreyi and Klebsiella granulomatis cause genital warts. Herpes simplex virus, Trichomonas vaginalis, and Candida albicans may cause vulvovaginitis.

Which response would the nurse make when a female client confides to the nurse that she enjoys engaging in sex with multiple male adult sex partners simultaneously? "I recommend that you seek counseling for this problem! 'Don't you think that having sex with multiple partners is immoral?' These men are abusing you, and you should go to the police to report them.' What are you using for birth control and protection from sexually transmitted infections?'

The nurse would reply, 'What are you using for birth control and protection from sexually transmitted infections?' Adults may have consensual sex as desired, but the nurse would encourage the use of birth control and protection from sexually transmitted infections. The nurse is interjecting personal values by stating that the client should seek counseling for this behavior or that the client's behavior is immoral. If the sex is consensual, it is not abusive.

Which terms might the nurse use to describe a client who was born a man but lives as a woman? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct. Transvestite He-she Transgender Transwoman Transgendered Transman

Transgender Transwoman Rationale A client who was born as a man but lives as a woman can be referred to as transgender or a transwoman. The nurse would also respect and use any other terminology the client prefers. The terms 'transvestite' and 'he-she' are insensitive and offensive. The term 'transgendered' is outdated; using the suffix '-ed' is inappropriate. A client who was born as a woman but lives as a man can be referred to as a transman.

Which organism would the nurse identify as causing syphilis? Treponema pallidum Campylobacter jejuni Trichomonas vaginalis Chlamydia trachomatis

Treponema pallidum Rationale The causative organism for syphilis is Treponema pallidum. Campylobacter jejuni is the causative organism for proctitis. Trichomonas vaginalis is the causative organism for vulvovaginitis. Chlamydia trachomatis is the causative organism for salpingitis.

Which organism would the nurse identify as causing syphilis? Treponema pallidum Campylobacter jejuni Trichomonas vaginalis Chlamydia trachomatis

Treponema pallidum The causative organism for syphilis is Treponema pallium. Campylobacter jejuni is the causative organism for proctitis. Trichomonas vaginalis is the causative organism for vulvovaginitis. Chlamydia trachomatis is the causative organism for salpingitis.

Which intervention would the nurse recommend to relieve symptoms of a yeast infection? Using a sitz bath Sleeping in tight leggings Sitting in a warm bubble bath Using tampons if she is on her period

Using a sitz bath Rationale A sitz bath with or without colloidal oatmeal can be very soothing to irritated skin. It is better to sleep without underwear if possible; tight leggings can worsen symptoms. Use of bath salts or bubble bath is not recommended because it can irritate the already swollen skin. If a woman has her period, treatment should continue, and she should avoid using tampons because they can absorb the vaginal medication that may have been prescribed.

When caring for a transgender client, which factor would the nurse use to decide how to address the client? client's preference Client's appearance client's clothing Client's identity document (e.g., birth certificate)

client's preference Rationale The nurse would ask the client during assessment how the client prefers to be addressed. This prevents ar discomfort or embarrassment. The nurse would not make assumptions based on the client's appearance, which can be misleading. The nurse would also not address the client according to their identity documen because they may contain the client's natal information, which might not be how the client self-identifies.