Neuropsych- Exam Qs

Apraxia is a(n): A.inability to execute purposeful movements B.uncomfortable feeling of motor restlessness and an inability to sit still C.inability to use or understand language D.condition involving slurred speech and a loss of balance

Correct Answer is: A Apraxia is an inability to execute purposeful movements usually due to damage to the frontal or parietal lobes. uncomfortable feeling of motor restlessness and an inability to sit still Akathesia is motor restlessness. inability to use or understand language Aphasia is an inability or deficit in using or understanding language. condition involving slurred speech and a loss of balance Ataxia is incoordination, often accompanied by slurred speech.

The term "reminiscence bump" refers to the increased number of autobiographical memories older adults have for events that happened between the ages of: Select one: A.40-50 B.35-45 C.25-35 D.15-25

Correct Answer is: D While adults 65 years and older generally report the most memories for events that occurred within the ten years before being evaluated, the next largest recall of autobiographical memories is from adolescence and early adulthood. In other words, recent and remote events are more frequently recalled than intermediate events.

Disinhibition, indifference, and jocularity are most likely caused by damage to the: Select one: A.right frontal lobe B.left frontal lobe C.corpus callosum D.left parietal lobe

Correct Answer is:A Disinhibition/impulsiveness, happy indifference, and jocularity frequently result from damage to the right frontal lobe. Damage to the left frontal lobe most often results in reduced speech, depression, and apathy.

Gerstmann's syndrome is caused by damage to the left parietal lobe and involves which of the following symptoms: A. right left confusion and finger agnosia B. impaired language production and comprehension C. amnesia and confabulation D. cortical blindness

Correct answer: A

In females, the gonadotrophic hormones are released by the ________ on a regular cycle. Select one: A.hypothalamus B.pituitary gland C.gonads D.adrenal glands

Correct Answer is: B The gonadotropic hormones are the same in males and females but they stimulate the gonads to release their own hormones (estrogen in females, androgens in males). The gonadotropic hormones are released by the pituitary gland.

Release of the sex hormones by the gonads depends on signals from the Select one: A.medulla B.amygdala. C.thalamus. D.hypothalamus.

Correct Answer is: D Once again, the hypothalamus is a "good guess" (and the correct response). One of the functions of the hypothalamus is to control the gonads through its influence on the pituitary gland.

Of the following, which would be the most important factor to keep in mind when deciding whether to prescribe tricyclic anti-depressants to a patient? Select one: A.the patient's suicide risk. B.the patient's history of treatment success or failure with tricyclics. C.whether or not the patient's symptoms are atypical. D.whether or not the patient's symptoms are primarily vegetative.

Correct Answer is: A All of these factors would be important to consider in deciding whether to prescribe tricyclics to a patient. However, safety considerations generally supercede all others; thus, choice "the patient's suicide risk" is the best answer. The risk of suicide in depressed patients must always be considered by physicians when writing prescriptions -- particularly for potentially dangerous drugs such as tricyclics.

Impressive aphasia is to Wernicke's area as what type of aphasia is to Broca's area. Select one: A.expressive B.global C.sensory D.receptive

Correct Answer is: A Both expressive aphasia and motor aphasia are alternative names for Broca's aphasia. Global aphasia is due to damage to several regions of the brain including the cortex and basal ganglia. These two options ("sensory" and "receptive") and impressive are all alternative names for Wernicke's aphasia.

Memory impairment is to Alzheimer's disease as _____________ is to Parkinson's disease: Select one: A.bradykinesia/akinesia B.dyspraxia C.hyperkinesia D.hypophonia

Correct Answer is: A Bradykinesia/akinesia refer to slowness and absence of movement, respectively, and is one of the primary symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Other primary symptoms of PD are tremor or trembling in hands, arms, legs, jaw, and face; rigidity or stiffness of the limbs and trunk; and postural instability, or impaired balance and coordination. Other symptoms may include depression and other emotional changes; sleep disruptions; skin problems; difficulty in swallowing, chewing, and speaking; and urinary problems or constipation. Motor planning or "praxis" is the ability of the brain to conceive, organize, and carry out a sequence of unfamiliar actions. Praxis enables us to deal with the physical environment in an adaptive manner. In Dyspraxic Syndrome there is a reduced ability to carry out non-learned movements, even though adequate physical and conceptual capacity exists. Dyspraxia* is a lifelong disorder that affects a person's development in the area of motor development. People with dyspraxia have difficulty planning and completing intended fine motor tasks. It is estimated that as many as 6% of all children show some signs of dyspraxia, and in the general population, about 70% of those affected by dyspraxia are male. Dyspraxia can affect different areas of functioning, varying from simple motor tasks such as waving goodbye to more complex tasks like brushing teeth. Hyperkinesia* refers to abnormally increased motor function or activity; hyperactivity. Hypophonia* refers to a weak voice due to incoordination of the vocal muscles (* incorrect options).

The areas of the brain associated with declarative memory include all of the following except the: Select one: A.striatum B.diencephalon C.prefrontal cortex D.hippocampus

Correct Answer is: A Declarative memory consists of both episodic memory, past and personally experienced events, and semantic memory, knowledge of the meaning of words and how to apply them. In general, declarative memory is associated with the hippocampus* and temporal cortex. More specifically, declarative memory, primarily involves the diencephalon*. The diencephalon, comprised of the thalamus and hypothalamus, is located between the two hemispheres of the brain, sometimes referred to as the "between brain," or the anterior to midbrain regions. The diencephalon contains important connections and relays for sensory, motor as well as limbic pathways that are involved with memory. Additional areas that are associated with declarative memory are the prefrontal cortex, the amygdala and the neocortex. In particular, this includes the right frontal & temporal lobes for the episodic component, and the temporal lobes for the semantic component. The striatum controls various muscular activities such as walking and balance.

Which of the following neurotransmitters is most frequently associated with movement? A.Dopamine B.Serotonin C.Norepinephrine D.Endorphins

Correct Answer is: A Dopamine plays a key role in movement. For example, in Parkinson's Disease, dopamine-secreting cells in the substantia nigra die - causing the nigra to no longer transmit dopamine to the striatum - which controls various muscular activities such as walking and balance. Norepinephrine is mostly related to arousal, wakefulness, and learning. Serotonin affects mood, eating, and sleep onset and endorphins inhibit the transmission of pain.

The neuropsychological term and definition that is incorrectly matched is: Select one: A.hyperphagia - complete cessation of eating. B.aphasia - deficit in the ability to use or comprehend language. C.stereognosis - the process of identifying objects by touch. D.adipsia - complete cessation of drinking

Correct Answer is: A Early research on hunger and satiety focused lesions in the ventromedial and lateral hypothalamus. Lesions to the ventromedial hypothalamus (VMH) in animals produced hyperphagia - excessive eating, and extreme obesity leading to the theory of a VMH satiety center. Lesions to the lateral hypothalamus (LH) were found to produce aphagia, (a complete cessation of eating) and adipisia, (a complete cessation of drinking), and was theorized to be a hunger or feeding center. More recent research indicates a reinterpretation of the effects of VMH and LH lesions, with evidence supporting VMH-lesioned animals overeat because they become obese rather than become obese because they overeat and LH-lesions producing a wide range of severe motor disturbances and general lack of responsiveness to sensory input beyond just food and drink.

An individual is most likely to show theta waves on an EEG recording during which of the following? Select one: A.lightly sleeping B.lying in bed awake with eyes closed C.conversing with someone D.taking a test

Correct Answer is: A Electroencephalogram (EEG) or neurofeedback provides information on brainwave activity and patterns. It is often used in the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder, depression, and epilepsy to improve attention, reduce impulsivity and promote recovery from head injuries and strokes. An individual is most likely to show theta waves on an EEG recording while sleeping lightly. A person lying in bed awake with eyes closed* would most likely to show alpha waves. Beta waves characterize alertness in EEG patterns and would most likely be seen while conversing with someone* or taking a test* (* incorrect options).

A loss of memory for autobiographical information is referred to as: Select one: A.functional amnesia B.anterograde amnesia C.retrograde amnesia D.malingering

Correct Answer is: A Functional amnesia is a condition, caused by a psychological trauma, in which individuals are unable to remember significant events in their lives, i.e., autobiographical information. Anterograde amnesia* is an impaired ability to form new permanent memories. Retrograde amnesia* is an inability to recall previous memories (i.e., for events that occurred prior to a head trauma), and is not necessarily for, or limited to, autobiographical information. Someone who is malingering* could feign memory loss for autobiographical memories; however, most cases of autobiographical memory loss are not due to malingering (* incorrect options).

Starvation in Anorexia is believed to be precipitated by: Select one: A.high levels of serotonin B.low levels of serotonin C.low levels of tryptophan D.low levels of serotonin and tryptophan

Correct Answer is: A High levels of serotonin have been linked to both appetite suppression and anxiety while low levels have been linked to depression and appear to contribute to binge eating. Research by Kaye et al (1997) proposes that anxiety is caused by high levels of serotonin and individuals with Anorexia temporarily relieve anxiety through starvation which reduces tryptophan, which then reduces the level of serotonin. The lowered serotonin fosters a sense of calm and personal control. Inversely, low levels of serotonin are believed to precipitate binge eating in Bulimia as sweets and carbohydrates increase serotonin and elevate mood.

Following a stroke, a patient exhibits right hemiplegia. Other symptoms are likely to include: Select one: A.speech-language deficits and slow-cautious behavior style. B.spatial-perceptual deficits and slow-cautious behavior style. C.speech-language deficits and quick-impulsive behavior style. D.spatial-perceptual deficits and quick-impulsive behavior style.

Correct Answer is: A Note that the individual has right-sided hemiplegia, which makes the left side of the brain the area that has been affected. speech-language deficits and slow-cautious behavior style. speech-language deficits and quick-impulsive behavior style. This should have helped you narrow the choices down to these two responses since the left side of the brain is responsible for language. At that point you may have had to guess. Now you know that left hemisphere damage is associated with a slow-cautious behavioral style (and that right hemisphere damage is associated with a quick-impulsive style). (hemiplegia = paralysis of one side of the body)

Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following? A.sensory systems B.motor systems C.memory D.mood

Correct Answer is: A Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not "shared with" the left hemisphere.

Severing the corpus callosum will have the greatest impact on which of the following? Select one: A.sensory systems B.motor systems C.memory D.mood

Correct Answer is: A Recalling the studies on split-brain patients would have helped you answer this question. Remember that these patients had trouble verbally identifying stimuli received by sensory systems on the left side because those signals were received by the right hemisphere and not "shared with" the left hemisphere.

People with red-green color blindness usually: Select one: A.inherit the condition from their mothers B.inherit the condition from their fathers C.develop the condition during adolescence D.produce daughters who are always color blind

Correct Answer is: A Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. That is, it is carried on the X chromosome. Since males have one X chromosome, donated by the mother, and one Y chromosome, donated by the father, a male child who receives one color blind gene from the mother will be color blind. However, because it is a recessive trait, females (XX) would need to receive the color blind gene from both parents in order to manifest color blindness - which is highly unlikely. This explains why 7% of American males are color blind, but only 0.4% of females are affected by this condition.

A person whose corpus callosum has been severed will be able to do all of the following except Select one: A.name an object he cannot see but has felt with his left hand. B.say "spoon" when a picture of a spoon is flashed to his right visual field at the same time that a picture of a plate is flashed to his left visual field. C.use his left hand to find and match an object that appears in his left visual field. D.repeat a sentence that has been whispered into his right ear.

Correct Answer is: A Remember, the left side of the brain controls the functions of the right side of the body and, in most people, language. Keeping this in mind would have helped you pick the right answer to this question. Much of the original information about the functions of the two hemispheres came from studies of split-brain patients whose corpus callosum had been cut to relieve severe epileptic seizures (Sperry & Gazzaniga, 1967). Although the surgery did not cause noticeable changes in personality or intelligence, it did produce some unusual behaviors. For example, when a picture of an object was presented to a patient's left visual field only (so that information was transmitted to the right hemisphere), the patient could not verbally identify the object or pick out the object from several objects with his/her right hand, but the patient could pick out the object with his/her left hand. In contrast, when a picture of an object was projected to a patient's right visual field only (so that information was transmitted to the left hemisphere), the patient could verbally identify the object and pick out the object with his/her right hand but was unable to do so with his/her left hand.

A seizure that begins with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and gradually spreads throughout one side or the entire body is referred to as: Select one: A.partial B.petit mal C.tonic-clonic D.generalized

Correct Answer is: A Seizures are generally divided into two main types: "partial" or "focal," and generalized. Partial (focal) seizures typically begin with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body, for example, one finger, which may start to jerk, followed by jerking of the entire arm and then the rest of that side of the body, and may lead to jerking of the entire body. Although it can eventually affect the entire body, it is referred to as a "partial" seizure because of how it initially developed. This is sometimes called "partial seizure with secondary generalization." Partial seizures are further subdivided into "simple partial seizures," which have no alteration of consciousness, and "complex partial seizures," which do alter consciousness. The generalized type of seizures include the petit mal and tonic-clonic (grand mal) types. Petit mal (absence) seizures are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Generalized tonic-clonic (grand mal) seizures begin as bilaterally symmetrical at onset and involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes blue and stiff.

Which of the following is not a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor? Select one: A.clomipramine B.escitalopram C.fluoxetine D.paroxetine

Correct Answer is: A Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are the most widely prescribed class of antidepressants in the US and many other countries. They work by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin from the synapse and thereby increasing the level of serotonin available in the brain. They are called selective because they have a negligible effect on other neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine and dopamine. Escitalopram (better known as Lexapro, one of its brand names), fluoxetine (Prozac), and paroxetine (Paxil) are all examples of SSRIs. Clomipramine (brand name Anafranil) is a tricyclic antidepressant. Tricyclics are believed to increase the availability of both serotonin and norepinephrine.

The third and fourth stages of sleep, sometimes referred to as deep sleep is characterized by delta brain waves; however, the first stage of sleep is characterized by: Select one: A.alpha waves B.beta waves C.K-complexes D.sleep spindles

Correct Answer is: A Stage 1 of the sleep cycle is characterized by alpha waves which then give way to the slower theta waves. Stage 2 consists primarily of theta waves and intermittent sleep spindles and K-complexes. The 5th stage is REM sleep, which is also known as paradoxical sleep since the EEG pattern is characteristic of alertness (beta waves) but the sleeper's responsiveness to the environment is low.

When an individual imagines movement or engaging in a motor activity, which part of the brain is most likely to be active? Select one: A.parietal lobe B.frontal lobe C.occipital lobe D.temporal lobe

Correct Answer is: A Studies on motor imagination indicate that the areas of the brain that are active during imagined motor activity are the same as when the activity is engaged in. Depending on the specific nature of the motor activity being imagined, differing areas are activated. The areas most likely to be active include the cerebellum, basal ganglia, the supplementary motor area and the parietal lobe, especially the somatosensory cortex.

Symptoms characteristic of benzodiazepine withdrawal include: A.anxiety, insomnia, nausea, transient hallucinations B.dysphoria, fatigue, insomnia, vivid & unpleasant dreams C.dysphoria, nausea, muscle aches, diarrhea D.depression, ataxia, numbness, muscle rigidity

Correct Answer is: A Symptoms characteristic of Benzodiazepine Withdrawal include anxiety, insomnia, nausea, and transient hallucinations. dysphoria, fatigue, insomnia, vivid & unpleasant dreams Symptoms listed in this choice are characteristic of Cocaine Withdrawal. dysphoria, nausea, muscle aches, diarrhea This is characteristic of Opioid Withdrawal. depression, ataxia, numbness, muscle rigidity This is characteristic of PCP Intoxication.

Depression and chronic pain are both associated with which of the following neurotransmitters? Select one: A.norepinephrine B.epinephrine C.acetylcholine D.dopamine

Correct Answer is: A The brain pathways that process pain signals use some of the same neurotransmitters that are involved in the regulation of mood, notably norepinephrine and serotonin. Pain, as well as anxiety, sadness, and hopelessness, are intensified when regulation fails and both chronic pain and chronic depression can alter the nervous system functioning and perpetuate itself. Antidepressants, especially tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), have proved to be effective in the treatment of diabetic neuropathy, fibromyalgia, chronic low back pain, chronic headache and postherpetic neuralgia. Tricyclics heighten the activity of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin; SSRIs act more selectively on serotonin. Amitriptyline (Elavil), a tricyclic, is one of the antidepressants most often recommended as an analgesic, partly because its sedative qualities. TCAs = imipramine/Tofranil clomipramine/Anafranil amitriptyline/Elavil, Endep doxepin/Adapin, Sinequan

Structural (physical) abnormalities are most likely to occur when a pregnant woman consumes alcohol during the: Select one: A.first trimester B.second trimester C.third trimester D.end of second or beginning of third trimester

Correct Answer is: A The effects of alcohol consumption during the first trimester of pregnancy are most likely to include structural abnormalities in the offspring's central nervous system, external genitalia, heart, legs, arms and eyes. Behavioral and psychological deficits are associated with consumption of alcohol in the second and third trimesters.

As the result of hemorrhage caused by high blood pressure, a middle-aged man experiences hemiplegia involving a loss of voluntary movement and flaccid muscles in the right side of his body. The part of the brain most likely affected is: A.left frontal lobe B.left temporal lobe C.substantia nigra D.cerebellum

Correct Answer is: A The nature of motor symptoms depends on the location of the damage. Damage to the extrapyramidal motor system (basal ganglia, substantia nigra) produces excessive motor activity or, alternatively, rigidity and tremors (as seen in Parkinson's disease). In contrast, damage to the motor cortex and other parts of the pyramidal system produces symptoms like those described in the question.

Research investigating the brain areas that may be linked to the symptoms of ADHD suggests that degree of impulsivity is associated with the Select one: A.size of the caudate nucleus. B.extent of neural abnormalities in the thalamus. C.extent of structural abnormality of the corpus callosum. D.size of the RAS.

Correct Answer is: A The size of the caudate nucleus (especially in the right hemisphere) has been linked to impulsivity in children with ADHD - the smaller the caudate, the greater the impulsivity. (Abnormalities in the corpus callosum are also found at higher-than-normal rates in children with ADHD, but they have not been consistently linked to impulsivity.)

Parkinson's disease is characterized by degeneration of neurons in which of the following brain areas? Select one: A.substantia nigra B.basal ganglia C.hypothalamus D.thalamus

Correct Answer is: A The substantia nigra (which literally means "black substance") is a brain region, located in the brain stem, just above the spinal cord, that produces dopamine, a neurotransmitter involved in the control of movement. Parkinson's Disease involves degeneration of neural cells in this region, resulting in an overall loss of dopamine in the brain and deficits in movement control. Resulting symptoms include slowed movements, tremor, and rigidity. Note that the basal ganglia is also involved in Parkinson's disease. Neurons in the substantia nigra project directly to areas of the basal ganglia, which contains neural circuits that regulate movement. Degeneration of the substantia nigra leads to dopamine deficits in the basal ganglia, which inhibits its communication with the thalamus, which in turn results in deficits in communication between the thalamus and the motor cortex. However, basal ganglia is not the correct answer to this question because, in Parkinson's disease, even though the basal ganglia area suffers from dopamine deficits, its neurons remain intact.

A patient suffers damage to the spinal cord severe enough to cause numbness and tingling. However, the spinal cord is not severed. The patient is most likely experiencing: Select one: A.paresis. B.hemiplegia. C.quadriplegia. D.paraplegia

Correct Answer is: A The term "paresis" means partial paralysis. Paresis can occur as a result of an injury to the spinal cord that does not result in its severation. If the spinal cord is severed, the result could be paraplegia (paralysis of the lower limbs), quadriplegia (paralysis of all four limbs), or hemiplegia (paralysis of one side of the body), depending on the location of the lesion. Note that the term paresis (or "general paresis") has been used to describe a syphilis-caused syndrome characterized by inflammation of cerebral tissue and mental and physical deterioration. However, the term's literal meaning is partial paralysis, and this is how it is often used as well.

Tricyclic antidepressants, as compared to MAO inhibitors, Select one: A.are more effective in the treatment of the vegetative symptoms of depression. B.are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions. C.are less effective in the treatment of panic disorder. D.are associated with a greater range of dangerous side effects.

Correct Answer is: A The tricyclic antidepressants include imipramine, clomimpramine, and amitriptyline. In the treatment of depression, they are most effective in relieving vegetative symptoms such as appetitive, sleep, and motor disturbances. By contrast, the MAO inhibitors are more effective in the treatment of atypical depressions.

Ultrasound techniques are least effective for detecting which type of traumatic brain injury? Select one: A.tearing B.tissue bruising C.swelling D.inter-cranial pressure (ICP)

Correct Answer is: A Traumatic (physical) brain injuries are generally divided into three main types. The two more dangerous types are tissue bruising and swelling, which cause tissues to swell and become compressed within the skull resulting in intercranial pressure (ICP). Shearing, or nerve fiber tearing, occurs from sudden impact of the brain with an object. Unlike tissue bruising and brain swelling, brain injury from nerve tearing is difficult to detect with ultrasound techniques such as x-rays, CT scans and MRIs which are most frequently used in traumatic brain injury cases. A PET (Positron Emission Tomography) scan is more effective in the detection of nerve tearing injuries. A PET scan measures metabolic processes, thus allowing an appraisal of how the brain is functioning. It tracks natural compounds, such as glucose, as the brain metabolizes them. By showing the areas of different metabolic activity, it then becomes easier to make diagnoses, such as determining the areas responsible for epileptic seizures.

Symptoms of Bipolar Disorder are typically treated with lithium and/or any of the following medications EXCEPT: Select one: A.phenelzine B.carbamazepine C.divalproex D.valproic

Correct Answer is: ACurrently, lithium and/or an anti-seizure medication is the drug treatment-of-choice for Bipolar Disorder. Unlike the others, phenelzine is not used for the treatment of Bipolar Disorder as it is an MAOI antidepressant. Carbamazepine (Tegretol), divalproex (Depakote) and valproic acid (Depakene) are anti-seizure drugs that have been found to be useful for treating patients with Bipolar Disorder who have not responded well, or cannot tolerate, other treatments.

A patient with lesions to the frontal lobe of the brain would most likely display A.inability to comprehend language. B.perseveration and stereotyped responses. C.ability to recall but not recognize items previously studied. D.flat affect.

Correct Answer is: B A few different behavioral syndromes associated with frontal lobe damage have been identified, but generally, symptoms of lesions to this area include distractibility, poor attention, concrete thinking, perseveration and stereotypy of responses, personality disturbances, and difficulties with arithmetic calculation. Language difficulties are common, but not usually difficulty in comprehension; instead, patients have difficulty structuring sentences and may speak incoherently. Contrary to this choice ("ability to recall but not recognize items previously studies"), free recall is often affected. And contrary to this choice ("flat affect"), euphoria, disinhibition, and angry outbursts are common. In sum, only the correct choice describes a symptom that is fairly common in patients with frontal lobe lesions: perseveration and stereotyped responses.

Complex Partial Seizure Disorder, formerly known as Temporal Lobe Epilepsy, is known to originate in the temporal lobe. However, absence seizures, formerly known as petit mal seizures, are believed to originate in the: Select one: A.cerebellum B.thalamus C.occipital lobe D.parietal lobe

Correct Answer is: B Absence or Petit Mal Seizures are very brief (30 seconds or less) and are characterized by minimal motor activity and a lack of awareness. Absence seizures usually begin in childhood and most outgrow the condition by adulthood. Researchers believe that absence seizures originate in the thalamus (the central relay station for sensory information going to the cortex).

Which of the following neurotransmitters is most associated with Tourette's Disorder? Select one: A.serotonin B.dopamine C.GABA D.acetylcholine

Correct Answer is: B Although the research findings are mixed, most studies have focused on the role of dopamine in Tourette's Disorder. Antipsychotic medications such as Haloperidol (Haldol) are often used to control the tics in Tourette's Disorder by affecting the dopamine level. The findings suggest that either an excess of dopamine or an increased sensitivity of dopamine receptors is related to Tourette's. However, other studies have also linked serotonin and norepinephrine to the disorder.

Premature ejaculation is most effectively treated with which of the following medications? Select one: A.risperidone B.fluoxetine C.lithium D.bupropion

Correct Answer is: B An estimated 30 to 40 percent of the male population is affected by premature ejaculation (PE), which is categorized into two types based on onset of the problem. The most common form is primary premature ejaculation, with symptoms having been present throughout adulthood. Secondary premature ejaculation begins during adulthood in a man who hasn't experienced the problem before and is sometimes associated with a neurological disorder. The most frequently used therapy for PE are SSRIs and some tricyclic antidepressants as it is well-established they often induce a variable delay in the ejaculatory reflex by increasing central serotoninergic transmission. Fluoxetine (Prozac) is the best choice because it is the only SSRI listed. The only other antidepressant choice in this question is bupropion (Welbutrin), which is an atypical antidepressant known for not causing the same sexual side effects as the SSRIs. In fact, there is some evidence that bupropion increases sexual responsiveness.

Anticholinergic effects include all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: A.constipation B.diarrhea C.blurred vision D.dizziness

Correct Answer is: B Anticholinergic (side) effects occur as a result of interference with acetylcholine in the brain and peripheral nervous system. Tricyclic antidepressants and antipsychotics often have anticholinergic effects which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, dizziness, urinary retention, tachycardia, and confusion.

Which is the most common anticholinergic side-effect? A.Light tremor B.Blurred vision C.Diarrhea D.Weight loss

Correct Answer is: B Anticholinergic effects may be either central or peripheral. Central side effects are cerebral and include impaired concentration, confusion, attention deficit, and memory impairment. Peripheral side effects include dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, bowel obstruction, dilated pupils, blurred vision, increased heart rate, and decreased sweating. Light tremor and diarrhea are not associated side-effects, and while dry mouth may affect appetite and result in weight loss, it is not considered an anticholinergic side-effect either.

Which type of brain waves predominate when a person is awake, alert, and actively processing information? Select one: A.alpha B.beta C.delta D.theta

Correct Answer is: B Brain wave activity is typically described in terms of the following frequency bands, in order from lowest to highest wave repetition per second: delta, theta, alpha, and beta (some researchers also classify higher frequency beta waves as gamma waves). Beta waves are associated with alert wakefulness. They predominate when one's eyes are open and the brain is actively processing information. Alpha waves predominate in states of relaxed wakefulness when the person is not actively processing information; they have also been linked to creative problem solving. Theta waves predominate in the state between wakefulness and sleep, and delta waves predominate during deep sleep.

Which of the following medications would MOST likely cause confusion? Select one: A.fluoxetine B.amitriptyline C.sertraline D.paroxetine

Correct Answer is: B Compared to the SSRIs, the tricyclics are much more likely to cause anticholinergic effects. Confusion is one of several possible anticholinergic effects. Other anticholinergic effects include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia. The only anticholinergic listed in this question is amitriptyline. The other three choices are SSRIs: fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and paroxetine (Paxil).

Head trauma causing damage to the temporal lobes is most likely to produce deficits in Select one: A.procedural memory. B.episodic memory. C.semantic memory. D.implicit memory.

Correct Answer is: B Damage to the temporal lobe produces deficits in declarative memory with episodic memory being affected more than semantic memory. Procedural memory is left relatively undisturbed as is implicit memory.

Perseverating is an indication of damage in the: Select one: A.Temporal lobe B.frontal lobe C.parietal lobe D.occipital lobe

Correct Answer is: B Difficulty in interpreting feedback from the environment is one of the most common characteristics of frontal lobe damage. Perseverating or uncontrollable repetition of a particular response, risk taking, lack of social consciousness and non-compliance with rules are examples of this type of deficit.

Cognex and Aricept are used in the treatment of Alzheimer's Dementia and are believed to Select one: A.increase serotonin levels. B.increase ACh levels. C.decrease glutamate levels. D.decrease serotonin levels.

Correct Answer is: B Don't expect to get this right the first time. What is important is that you now know that tacrine hydrochloride (Cognex) and donepezil hydrochloride (Aricept) have beneficial effects on memory and reasoning for some patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's Dementia. It is hypothesized that these drugs prevent the breakdown of ACh and thus increase the availability in the brain. While these drugs seem to help temporarily, they are not considered a cure. Serotonin has not been shown to be involved in Alzheimer's. While glutamate may be involved, the drugs mentioned do not target this neurotransmitter.

Failure to recognize one's functional deficits is referred to as: A.agnosia B.anosognosia C.apraxia D.receptive aphasia

Correct Answer is: B Failure to recognize one's functional deficits is referred to as anosognosia. It usually results from damage to the right parietal lobe. Agnosia* is an inability to recognize objects. Apraxia* is a loss in ability to perform motor acts. And receptive aphasia*, also known as Wernicke's aphasia, is the loss of the ability to comprehend language, which also results in the production of inappropriate language (* incorrect options).

Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with damage to the: Select one: A.hippocampus B.amygdala C.septum D.thalamus

Correct Answer is: B Kluver-Bucy Syndrome is associated with lesions in the amygdala and characterized by reduced fear and aggression, increased acquiescence, and hypersexuality. Damage to the amygdala, which normally attaches emotional significance to information received from the senses, can also produce a lack of emotional response to stimuli. You may have considered response "septum" since the septum inhibits emotionality; however, animal research on this structure indicates lesions produce hyper-emotionality and vicious behavior, known as "septal-rage syndrome." The hippocampus is associated more with memory than emotion and the thalamus functions as the central relay for all sensory information to and from the cortex except olfaction.

According to Fechner's law, just noticeable differences are Select one: A.physically and psychologically equal intervals. B.psychologically equal intervals. C.physically equal intervals. D.influenced by chance too much to be measured reliably.

Correct Answer is: B Gustav Fechner was a scientist who studied psychophysics, or the relationship between physical stimuli and their subjective correlates, in the 1800s. He is considered to be one of the founders of modern experimental psychology. Extending the work of Ernst Weber, he studied just noticeable differences (jnds), or the smallest difference in a specific modality of sensory input that a person can detect. For example, if a person holding a rock that weighs 20 pounds cannot detect that a heavier rock is in fact heavier unless the latter weighs 22 pounds, the jnd would be two pounds. According to mathematical laws (later found to be imprecise) that Weber and Fechner proposed, the magnitude of a jnd increases in a predictable way as the intensity of the stimulus increases. For example, for a soft sound, the just noticeable difference is not as loud as it would be for a louder sound. Fechner's law holds that even though jnds are not equal across magnitudes of physical stimuli, they are psychologically equivalent; i.e., they are perceived as equal.

The statement "I'm afraid because I run" would be supported by the theory of Select one: A.Cannon and Bard B.James and Lange C.Yerkes and Dodson D.Miller and Dollard

Correct Answer is: B Historically, two competing theories of emotion have been the Cannon and Bard theory and the James and Lange theory. Cannon and Bard* proposed that emotions and thoughts occur more or less simultaneously. William James in America and Lange in Europe had a different idea. They contended that we first observe our behavior and then we make an attribution of that behavior in terms of some emotion. Therefore, the notion that if we observe ourselves running we must have felt afraid is most consistent with the James and Lange theory. Yerkes and Dodson* are known for identifying the inverted "U" relationship between arousal and performance. Miller and Dollard* are known for a few theories including the frustration-aggression hypothesis, which proposed that frustration always precedes aggression (* incorrect options).

The probability of a parent with Huntington's Chorea passing the disorder on to an offspring is: Select one: A.25% in female or male offspring B.50% in female or male offspring C.increased if the offspring is female D.increased if the offspring is male

Correct Answer is: B Huntington's Chorea is a dominant, autosomal disorder. Individuals with autosomal dominant diseases have a 50% chance of passing the mutant gene, and therefore the disorder, onto each of their children. Most dominant traits are due to genes located on the autosomes (the non-sex chromosomes). An autosomal dominant trait typically affects males and females with equal likelihood and similar severity. Although Huntington's usually does not manifest until mid-life, research indicates some variability, with the most severe cases showing up as early as two years of age, and on the other hand, some individuals remain symptomless until age 60. Research shows that the symptoms generally emerge earlier and become worse with each passing generation. Diagnosed by genetic testing, there is presently no cure although medication is used to control affective and motor symptoms.

In most patients, the earliest signs of Huntington's disease are Select one: A.apathy and disorientation to time and place. B.depression and forgetfulness. C.athetosis and chorea. D.slowed movements and resting tremor.

Correct Answer is: B In Huntington's disease, personality and cognitive changes often precede motor symptoms. Athetosis and chorea are characteristic of this disorder but are late-appearing. Slowed movements and resting tremor are characteristic of Parkinson's disease.

Which of the following is a non-stimulant medication that alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms in AD/HD? Select one: A.methylphenidate B.atomoxetine C.pemoline D.dextroamphetamine

Correct Answer is: B In November 2002, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approved a new medication called atomoxetine (Strattera) specifically for AD/HD. This medication is neither a stimulant nor an antidepressant. It alleviates inattention and hyperactivity/impulsivity symptoms of AD/HD by affecting specific aspects of the norepinephrine system. This medication is a reuptake inhibitor that acts on the neurotransmitter norepinephrine (which affects blood pressure and blood flow) in the same way that antidepressants act on the neurotransmitter seratonin, allowing the natural chemical to remain longer in the brain before being drawn back up. Because it is a non-stimulant, it may be less objectionable to some families. Nevertheless, it has similar side effects as other medications used for AD/HD. It is a prescription medication, but it is not a controlled substance like a stimulant. This allows medical professionals to give samples and to place refills on the prescriptions. It does not start working as quickly as the stimulants do. Reports suggest that the full effects are often not seen until the person has been taking atomoxetine regularly for 3 or 4 weeks. Methylphenidate*, i.e., Ritalin, Concerta, Metadate, pemoline*, i.e., Cylert (less commonly prescribed because it can cause liver damage), and dextroamphetamine*, i.e., Dexedrine, Dextrostat, along with amphetamines, i.e., Adderall are four main types of stimulants used for the treatment of AD/HD (* incorrect options).

A person taking an MAO inhibitor must always avoid consuming all of the following, except: Select one: A.beer and wine. B.cottage cheese. C.packaged soup. D.aged cheese.

Correct Answer is: B Individuals taking MAO inhibitors (a class of anti-depressants) must avoid foods that are high in the amino acid tyramine; otherwise, they may experience a life-threatening hypertensive reaction. Foods that these individuals must always avoid include beer and wine, aged cheese, beef or chicken liver, orange pulp, pickled or smoked meats, packaged soups, and yeast vitamin supplements. Cottage cheese is considered safe.

Lashley's ____________________ predicts that, if certain parts of the cortex are damaged, other parts may assume the functions of the damaged parts. Select one: A.principle of mass action B.principle of equipotentiality C.law of effect D.all-or-none principle

Correct Answer is: B Karl Lashley's research on the function of the brain in relation to behavior developed two main principles as a result of his research. The principle of equipotentiality states that certain small areas of the brain can take on the function of larger, related areas that have been destroyed and the principle of mass action*, which states that in many types of learning the cerebral cortex acts as a whole. Thorndike's law of effect* states that feedback either reward or punishment will automatically strengthen or weaken responses. The all-or-none principle* states that the strength of response to a stimulus is not dependent on the strength of the stimulus (* incorrect options). For example, if the stimulus is any strength above threshold, the nerve or muscle fiber will either give a complete response or no response at all.

Korsakoff's Syndrome is characterized by: A.anterograde amnesia without retrograde amnesia. B.anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which remote events are recalled better than recent events. C.anterograde amnesia and retrograde amnesia that involves a temporal gradient in which recent events are recalled better than remote events. D.anterograde amnesia and "flat" retrograde amnesia in which deficits in remote and recent memory are about the same.

Correct Answer is: B Korsakoff's Syndrome involves both anterograde and retrograde amnesia. The retrograde amnesia usually affects recent long-term memories more than remote memories (i.e., the person can recall events from early childhood but not from the last decade or two).

Lesions in the prefrontal association cortex result in: Select one: A.impaired spatial orientation and facial recognition B.impaired "executive functions" C.hallucinations, delusions, and mood disturbances D.loss of depth perception and visual agnosia

Correct Answer is: B Lesions in this area of the frontal lobe disrupt the control and regulation of cognition and planning. Impaired spatial orientation is associated with lesions in the parietal lobe. Damage to the temporal lobe may cause hallucinations, delusions, and mood disturbances. Loss of depth perception and visual agnosia is associated with damage to the occipital lobe which contains the visual cortex.

_____________________ demonstrated that emotion is not a function of any specific brain center but of a circuit that involves four basic structures. Select one: A.James B.Papez C.Canon D.Bard

Correct Answer is: B On the basis of the previous work of Canon and Bard, James Papez (1937) was one of the first to propose a neuroanatomical circuit mediating emotion. The essential error of the Cannon-Bard theory was to consider the existence of an initial "center" for emotions (the thalamus). James Papez (1937) demonstrated that emotion is not a function of any specific brain center but of a circuit that involves four basic structures, interconnected through several nervous bundles: the hypothalamus with its mamillary bodies, the anterior thalamic nuclei, the cingulate gyrus and the hippocampus. Specifically, the cingulate gyrus projects to the hippocampus, the hippocampus projects to the hypothalamus by way of the bundle of axons called fornix and then the hypothalamic impulses reach the cortex via relay in the anterior thlamic nuclei. The Papez circuit, one of the major pathways of the limbic system, acts in a synchronized manner and is responsible for the central functions of emotion or affect and its peripheral expressions or symptoms.

A PET scan of the brain of a patient diagnosed as schizophrenic would be most useful for: Select one: A.obtaining a record of electrical activity in the cerebral cortex. B.assessing blood flow in the frontal lobes. C.detecting a tumor or other structural abnormality in the brainstem. D.distinguishing between schizophrenic subtypes.

Correct Answer is: B Positron Emission Tomography (PET) is a functional (versus structural) brain imaging technique that provides information about the metabolic and chemical activities of the brain such as cerebral blood flow.

Research on sleep patterns in the elderly have generally found that compared to young adults they have: A.decreased non-REM sleep in stages 3 and 4, and increased absolute amounts of REM B.increased non-REM sleep in stages 1 and 2, and decreased absolute amounts of REM C.increased non-REM sleep in stage 4, and decreased absolute amounts of REM D.the same amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, but it is distributed around the clock, with less sleep at night and naps during the day.

Correct Answer is: B Research has shown that in the elderly, the absolute amount of REM sleep decreases and there is an increased amount of non-REM sleep in stages 1 and 2 (lighter sleep) along with decreased amounts of non-REM sleep in stage four (deeper sleep). the same amounts of REM and non-REM sleep, but it is distributed around the clock, with less sleep at night and naps during the day. This choice is partly correct, in that their sleep does tend to be more distributed around the clock, but the amounts of REM and non-REM are still altered

Clonidine, an alpha-noradrenergic drug, is often preferable to dopaminergic blocking agents for treating Tourette's Disorder because it is safer for chronic use. However, clonidine does produce some undesirable side effects including: Select one: A.Parkinsonism, akathesia, and dysphoria. B.dry mouth, headache, and hypotension. C.anorexia, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting. D.vomiting, dizziness, and irritability.

Correct Answer is: B Since the question mentions that clonidine is safer for chronic use, you'd want to look for less serious side effects, which narrows it down to two responses ("dry mouth, headache, and hypotension" and "vomiting, dizziness, and irritability"). In addition to dry mouth, headache, and hypotension, clonidine may also cause sedation and dizziness.

Which of the following medications is least likely to cause anticholinergic symptoms? Select one: A.Imipramine B.Fluoxetine C.Amitriptyline D.Venlafaxine

Correct Answer is: B The anticholinergic effects, which include dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, urinary retention and tachycardia, are much more likely to result from the tricylics or heterocyclics than the SSRI's. Of the choices listed only Fluoxetine (Prozac) is an SSRI. Imipramine (Tofranil) and Amitriptyline (Elavil) are tricyclics and Venlafaxine (Effexor) is a heterocyclic.

The mesencephalon does not contain which of the following? Select one: A.substantia nigra B.hypothalamus C.inferior colliculus D.superior colliculus

Correct Answer is: B The area of the brain referred to as the "midbrain" is also known as the mesencephalon and is divided into two regions: the tectum and the tegmentum. substantia nigra The substantia nigra is located in the tegmentum and is part of the brain's sensorimotor system. inferior colliculus The inferior colliculus is part of the tectum and is involved in audition. superior colliculus The superior colliculus is also part of the tectum and mediates vision. The hypothalamus is located in the diencephalon. The diencephalon and the telencephalon make up the forebrain.

Which of the following structures develops last? Select one: A.cerebellum B.frontal lobe C.occipital lobe D.temporal lobe

Correct Answer is: B The brain develops in a predictable sequence from the least complex functions to the most complex. Although many areas of the brain are nearly fully developed at birth, the frontal lobe, which is responsible for higher-level thinking, motor behavior, and expressive language does not fully develop until young adulthood. The prefrontal cortex, located at the most anterior part of the frontal lobe, is responsible for most executive functions, and is the very last area of the brain to develop.

Which of the following is considered the emotional core of the human nervous system? Select one: A.thalamus B.limbic system C.basal ganglia D.pons

Correct Answer is: B The limbic system is considered the "emotional brain" or emotional core of the nervous system. It consists of the amygdala, septum, and hippocampus (although the hippocampus is more involved with memory than emotion). The other choices are not primarily associated with emotions: The thalamus is the central switching station for sensory information; the basal ganglia codes and relays information associated with voluntary movement; and the pons regulates states of arousal.

Damage to the medial temporal area of the brain would least likely cause deficits in: Select one: A.semantic memory B.short-term memory C.spatial memory D.episodic memory

Correct Answer is: B The medial temporal area contains part of the temporal lobe and the hippocampus. This area is associated with long-term memory. Each of the choices offered in this question are subtypes of long-term memory except, of course, short-term memory. Short-term memory is most associated with the prefontal cortex.

Damage to the prefrontal cortex is most likely to cause: Select one: A.impaired motor coordination B.impaired memory and attention C.alterations in the sleep/wake cycle D."psychic blindness"

Correct Answer is: B The prefrontal cortex is associated with a variety of cognitive functions, including attention and certain aspects of memory. An individual with damage to the prefrontal cortex may exhibit distractibility, impaired working memory, a reduced attention span, and impaired prospective memory. "Psychic blindness" is associated with Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is caused by damage to certain areas of the temporal lobes.

A patient taking clozapine begins exhibiting symptoms of muscle rigidity, tachycardia, sweating, hyperthermia, and altered consciousness. This is most characteristic of: A.Tardive dyskinesia (TD) B.Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) C.Extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) D. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

Correct Answer is: B The symptoms listed are characteristic of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a rare, but serious and potentially lethal syndrome that can result from the use of any neuroleptic. Symptoms usually appear within the first month of use and remit within a month of discontinued use. Extrapyramidal side effects can result from antipsychotic use but include parkinsonism, characterized by muscle stiffness, shuffling gait, slurred speech, as well as, akathesia (restlessness) and dystonia (muscular spasms). Tardive Dyskinesia is a delayed and more serious set of extrapyramidal side effects of typical antipsychotics (while Clozapine is a newer atypical antipsychotic). The symptoms of TD are abnormal involuntary movements, especially of the face, tongue, and jaw.

A patient with right hemisphere damage is most likely to respond to jokes with which of the following reactions? Select one: A.indifference B.indifference or exaggerated jocularity C.frustration and irritation D.rage

Correct Answer is: B The two hemispheres appear to have different functions in terms of emotions - the left hemisphere governs positive emotions, while the right hemisphere governs negative ones. Consequently, damage to the right hemisphere can produce apathy or undue cheerfulness, which may be reflected in the individual's response to humor.

A split-brain patient is shown a picture of an object to his left visual field then told to pick the object out from behind a screen. Which of the following will the patient be able to do? Select one: A.pick the object with either hand B.pick the object with only his left hand C.pick the object with only his right hand D.able to say what the object was however unable to pick it with either hand

Correct Answer is: B The visual information about the object crosses in the patient's optic chiasm and ends up in the right hemisphere so when the person is asked to pick out the object he will be able to correctly pick out the object because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere.

The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include: Select one: A.irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia. B.headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating. C.orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, and edema. D.paresthesias, myoclonus, and muscle pain.

Correct Answer is: B When a person taking an MAOI consumes food containing tyramine, a life-threatening tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis may occur. The prodromal symptoms of a tyramine-induced hypertensive crisis include headache, stiff neck, nausea, vomiting, and sweating. Common side effects of the MAOIs include orthostatic hypotension, insomnia, and edema* as well as paresthesias, myoclonus, and muscle pain*. Irritability, confusion, dizziness, and cardiac arrhythmia* are symptoms of serotonin syndrome, which may occur when an MAOI and an SSRI are taken together (* incorrect options).

The thermal biofeedback technique of hand warming is used to treat migraine headaches. The therapeutic effects of this technique would be primarily mediated by the: A.somatic nervous system. B.sympathetic nervous system. C.parasympathetic nervous system. D.spinal cord.

Correct Answer is: B You might have known that biofeedback seeks to engender control over so-called involuntary processes, which are mediated by the autonomic nervous system. If so, you may have found it frustrating that autonomic nervous system wasn't a choice here. However, if you knew that the autonomic nervous system consists of the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches, you may have been able to narrow it down to these two choices. On questions such as this one, if you are able to narrow it down in this manner, you are doing pretty well for yourself.Anyway, the goal of biofeedback in the treatment of migraine headaches is to reduce pressure on the muscles in the forehead by reducing blood flow to the extracranial arteries. Since blood flow is regulated by body temperature, it is thought that warming the hands, coupled with feedback about finger temperature, can increase blood flow to the fingers, thereby reducing blood flow to the extracranial arteries. The sympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system controls the smooth muscles of the blood vessels; thus, it is the target of thermal hand warming biofeedback.Although biofeedback is used to increase blood flow in the sympathetic nervous system, biofeedback can also be used to affect the parasympathetic nervous system for other physiological processes; for example, biofeedback would be used to induce relaxation by influencing the parasympathetic nervous system.

Deficits in prospective memory is most likely due to damage to which of the following? Select one: A.basal ganglia B.prefrontal cortex C.corpus callosum D.parietal lobe

Correct Answer is: B You were probably unfamiliar with the concept of prospective memory, but you may have been able to guess correctly through the process of elimination. Prospective memory refers to the ability to remember to perform an action at a particular point in the future. For instance, remembering to take cookies out of the oven in 15 minutes. It is not entirely clear which part of the brain is involved in prospective memory, but it has been hypothesized that the prefrontal cortex is most likely involved since it relates to executive functioning. It has also been suggested that the medial temporal area may play a role. basal ganglia The basal ganglia controls voluntary movement. corpus callosum The corpus callosum is a bundle of nerve fibers connecting the right and left hemispheres. parietal lobe The parietal lobe controls somatosensory functions.

The neurotransmitter associated with Alzheimer's Dementia is A.serotonin. B.dopamine. C.acetylcholine. D.epineprine.

Correct Answer is: C Acetylcholine and L-glutamate are two neurotransmitters that have been linked to Alzheimer's Disease.

Chronic pain that is due to a nervous system injury or dysfunction is referred to as neuropathic pain. Which of the following would be most useful for reducing this type of pain? Select one: A.tacrine hydrochloride B.fluoxetine C.amitriptyline D.clozapine

Correct Answer is: C Analgesics, including certain antidepressants, anticonvulsants, opioids, and local anesthetics are the first-line treatments for neuropathic pain. Antidepressants such as tricyclics may follow the failure of conventional analgesics or be used in addition to conventional analgesics. Tricyclic antidepressants, such as amitriptyline (Elavil), have been found to be most effective particularly if the pain is neuropathic (pain in a numb area, burning or shooting pain) or one of the headache syndromes. SSRI antidepressants, such as fluoxetine*, have been found to be effective at preventing headaches, including migraines, but are considered less effective than tricyclics and since they don't have analgesic properties are not useful for alleviating neuropathic pain. Neuroleptics, like clozapine*, are also not useful for reducing neuropathic pain and tacrine hydrochloride*, is a cognitive-enhancer used to reduce cognitive deficits associated with Alzheimer's dementia (* incorrect options).

Anosognosia is most often due to damage to the: A.corpus callosum B.left temporal lobe C.right parietal lobe D.occipital lobe Feedback

Correct Answer is: C Anosognosia is an inability, or unwillingness, to recognize one's own functional impairment. It most often occurs in people who have left-sided hemiplegia due to damage to the right parietal lobe. Many of these patients maintain normal intellectual functioning, despite the serious lack of self-awareness of their physical disability. The parietal lobe contains the somatosensory cortex which is normally responsible for integrating somatosensory information with visual and other sensory information.

A post-menopausal woman is most likely to find that her reduced level of estrogen has Select one: A.decreased her ability to become sexually aroused. B.reduced her overall interest in sex. C.made intercourse uncomfortable. D.made it easier to achieve orgasm.

Correct Answer is: C Because of its effects on vaginal tissues, a lower estrogen level can cause discomfort during intercourse. However, it is not associated with changes in other aspects of sexual functioning including interest, arousal, or drive.

The earliest symptoms of Huntington's Disease are usually: Select one: A.memory impairments. B.mild motor disturbances (e.g., mild tremor, incoordination). C.affective changes (e.g., irritability or depression). D.confusion and disorientation

Correct Answer is: C Because the early signs of Huntington's Disease often involve changes in affect, in the early stages, it may be erroneously diagnosed as a depression or other mental disorder.

The onset of sexual maturation in boys under 9 years old or girls under 7 years old is related to activation of the: Select one: A.adrenal cortex B.thyroid gland C.hypothalamic-pituitary axis D.mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis

Correct Answer is: C Both normal and premature sexual maturation is due to activation of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis (also known simply as the hypothalamic-pituitary axis). However, this system is activated prematurely in precocious puberty. Precocious puberty is defined as any sign of secondary sexual characteristics in boys younger than 9 years old, or in girls younger than 7 years old. Precocious puberty is estimated to occur in 1 in 5,000 to 1 in 10,000 children. adrenal cortex The adrenal cortex is mostly associated with the stress hormone cortisol, which converts energy stores into glucose for fuel. thyroid gland The thyroid gland is related to regulation of overall metabolic rate. mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis And the mesocorticolimbic-dopaminergic axis is considered the brain's reward pathway, which is critical in the reinforcing effects of drug abuse.

A patient who has recently suffered a stroke speaks only with great effort and uses two word sentences such as "eat dinner" to indicate he would like to eat his dinner. He is able to comprehend the speech of others well if they speak in simple sentences. He has weakness on the right side of the body and displays occasional outbursts of anger. The patient is most likely suffering from Select one: A.Vascular Dementia. B.Personality Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition. C.Broca's aphasia. D.Wernicke's aphasia.

Correct Answer is: C Broca's aphasia is caused by damage to an area of the left frontal lobe of the brain called Broca's area. It plays a role in the production of language. People with Broca's aphasia typically speak in short phrases that are produced with great effort. They may use short phrases instead of full sentences, omitting small words such as "is" and "and." Though Broca's area has long been associated only with speech production, recent evidence also suggests that damage to it can impair verbal comprehension as well. Nonetheless, individuals with damage to this area often have at least a moderate ability to understand others, and they are also often aware of their difficulties, which can cause them to become easily frustrated. They also may display right-sided weakness or paralysis of the arm and leg. Of the choices listed, the presentation is most consistent with Broca's aphasia. Wernicke's aphasia, caused by damage to an area in the left temporal lobe of the brain that is known as Wernicke's area, is characterized by fluent but often unintelligible speech, and deficits in understanding speech and written language. Vascular Dementia is caused by cerebrovascular accidents such as stroke, but there is no evidence in this case of the cognitive and memory deficits that characterize Dementia. And though medical conditions can cause personality disturbances, there is no condition with the label Personality Disorder Due to a General Medical Condition.

A relatively common and potentially dangerous side effect of chlorpromazine, especially in the elderly, is: Select one: A.Huntington's Chorea. B.Parkinson's disease. C.tardive dyskinesia. D.hyperactivity.

Correct Answer is: C Chlorpromazine (or Thorazine), like other anti-psychotic (or neuroleptic) medications, is associated with a number of adverse side effects, including tardive dyskinesia. The syndrome, which occurs as a delayed effect of neuroleptics (usually no earlier than six months following the onset of treatment), involves abnormal, involuntary movements of the muscle, head, and trunk. Patients over age 50 are at particularly high risk for tardive dyskinesia. It is also worth noting that Parkinsonian effects sometimes occur as a side effect of neuroleptics. However, they are less common than tardive dyskinesia and they are less commonly associated with chlorpromazine, as compared to the other neuroleptics.

The antidepressant medication in Emsam, the first skin (transdermal) patch for the treatment for major depression disorder in adults, is: A.duloxetine. B.escitalopram. C.selegiline. D.fluvoxamine.

Correct Answer is: C Emsam is a transdermal formulation of selegiline, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) antidepressant. A new patch is applied to the torso, thigh or upper arm each day, allowing the selegiline to be absorbed into the bloodstream over a 24-hour period. An advantage of this MAOI is that at the lowest dose of the patch there are not any dietary restrictions. However higher doses of the patch pose the same dietary risks and require the same dietary restrictions as with oral MAOIs approved for treating major depression. Selegiline is also approved for treatment of some symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Duloxetine (Cymbalta) is a selective serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SSNRI) approved for the treatment of major depressive disorder (MDD) and peripheral neuropathic pain associated with diabetic neuropathy (DN). Escitalopram (Lexapro) and fluvoxamine (Luvox) are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs).

Which of the following is an endogenous opiate? Select one: A.dopamine B.catecholamine C.endorphins D.heroin

Correct Answer is: C Endorphins are endogenous (produced inside the body) peptides which activate opiate receptors in the brain and block the release of Substance P, which results in decreased perception of pain. The term "endorphin" is an abbreviation of "endogenous morphine". The only other opiate listed in the choices is heroin which is derived from the opium poppy - an exogenous substance.

Symptoms of memory impairment, faulty judgment, and impaired concentration would most likely result from lesions to the: A.frontal lobe. B.parietal lobe. C.temporal lobe. D.occipital lobe.

Correct Answer is: C Faulty judgment and problems in concentration could be either frontal lobe- or temporal lobe-related. However, since memory impairment is included in this question, the best answer is the temporal lobe. The subcortical nuclei implicated in memory lie under the temporal lobes. The parietal lobe is responsible for orientation in space. The occipital lobe is where vision is mediated.

Symptoms of memory impairment, faulty judgment, and impaired concentration would most likely result from lesions to the: Select one: A.frontal lobe. B.parietal lobe. C.temporal lobe. D.occipital lobe.

Correct Answer is: C Faulty judgment and problems in concentration could be either frontal lobe- or temporal lobe-related. However, since memory impairment is included in this question, the best answer is the temporal lobe. The subcortical nuclei implicated in memory lie under the temporal lobes. The parietal lobe is responsible for orientation in space. The occipital lobe is where vision is mediated.

Acalculia, agraphia, difficulty distinguishing right from left, and finger agnosia are characteristic of Select one: A.Ganser's Syndrome B.Wernicke's Aphasia C.Gertsmann's Syndrome D.Kluver-Bucy Syndrome

Correct Answer is: C Gerstmann's syndrome is characterized by the symptoms listed in the question. It has been attributed to lesions of the parietal lobe, and it is sometimes observed in stroke victims.

Glutamate is a neurotransmitter associated with Select one: A.alcohol cravings. B.dietary changes. C.cognitive abilities which are correlated with alcohol use. D.social ability which is correlated with alcohol use.

Correct Answer is: C Glutamate is a neurotransmitter that is associated with cognitive functions, more specifically learning and memory.

Huntington's Disease is most associated with decreased amounts of: Select one: A.dopamine B.epinephrine C.GABA D.norepinephrine

Correct Answer is: C Huntington's Disease is believed to begin when cells within the striatum (caudate and putamen) of the basal ganglia begin to be destroyed. The striatum is responsible for producing GABA, which regulates the levels of dopamine in the brain through an inhibitory process. The death of the striatum cells causes decreased amounts of GABA which leads to an overproduction of dopamine and results in chorea (uncontrollable and irregular muscle movements, especially of the arms, legs, and face).

If a left hemisphere language dominant split-brain patient views something in her left visual field she will be: Select one: A.able to say what she saw and point to it with her right hand B.able to say what she saw and point to it with her left hand C.unable to say what she saw but able to point to it with her left hand D.unable to say what she saw but able to point to it with her right hand

Correct Answer is: C If something is viewed in the right visual field, information about what is seen travels to the left hemisphere and, if asked what was seen, the patient has no problem identifying or naming it. In this question however, something was seen in the left visual field so the information would end up in the right hemisphere. If the patient is asked what she saw she won't be able to say, as the information is received in the right hemisphere, but she will be able to point to or pick out what was seen with her left hand because touch information from the left hand crosses over to the right hemisphere. Note that even after pointing out what was seen and if it is in the person's hand, the person will still not be able to say what it is because the right hemisphere typically cannot verbalize or "talk."

our client comes to session and tells you that he is having trouble recognizing your face and those of others familiar to him. You realize that he may be suffering from prosopagnosia which is believed to be due to damage to the Select one: A.central sulcus. B.parieto-occipital sulcus. C.bilateral occipitotemporal area. D.optic chiasm.

Correct Answer is: C Prosopagnosia involves deficits in both visual processing and memory. Since the temporal lobe mediates long term memory and the occipital lobe is involved in visual processing, you may have been able to figure out the correct answer to this question by putting this information together.

Absence seizures are characterized by minimal motor activity (e.g., jerking of the eyelids or facial muscles) and a lack of awareness (e.g., staring unresponsive to the environment) for a brief period of time. Another name for absence seizures is: A.psychomotor seizure B.grand mal seizure C.petit mal seizure D.partial seizure

Correct Answer is: C In general, seizures are divided into two main types: partial (or focal) and generalized. Generalized seizures include the absence (petit mal) and tonic-clonic (grand mal) types. Generalized tonic-clonic, or grand mal, seizures involve episodes of violent shaking, during which the person becomes stiff and blue. Absence, or petit mal, seizures are very brief (usually less than 10 seconds, but can be as long as 30) episodes of staring during which awareness and responsiveness are impaired. Absence seizures usually begin between ages 4 and 14, rarely after age 20 and in almost 70% of cases, stop by age 18. Studies indicate children that have absence seizures before 9 years of age are more likely to outgrow them than those whose seizures start after age 10 and about half of the children with absence seizures also experience infrequent generalized tonic-clonic seizures. Before an absence seizure there is no warning, often the individual doesn't realize they've had one and immediately afterward are fully alert. While simple absence seizures involve just stares, many absence seizures are considered complex, which includes a change in muscle activity such as eye blinks, which is the most common. Some other common movements include hand movements (e.g., rubbing fingers together), muscle contraction or relaxation and tasting movements of the mouth. Absence seizures can resemble episodes of daydreaming and are often confused with complex partial seizures. Partial seizures usually start with uncontrollable twitching of a small part of the body and then can eventually affect the entire body. It is called a partial seizure because of how it initially develops and sometimes is called "partial seizure with secondary generalization." Partial seizures are subdivided into simple, meaning having no alteration of consciousness, and complex partial seizures which means altering consciousness. Unlike complex partial seizures, absence seizures are of briefer duration (seconds rather than minutes), are never preceded by an aura, begin frequently and end abruptly and typically have no confusion following the seizure. Unfortunately, for treatment purposes, the most effective medications for complex partial seizures either increase the frequency of, or are ineffective against, absence seizures and the medications that prevent absence seizures have little or no effect on complex partial seizures.

Marfan syndrome and Von Willebrand disease are due to: Select one: A.an X-linked dominant gene B.an X-linked recessive gene C.an autosomal dominant gene D.an autosomal recessive gene

Correct Answer is: C Like Huntington's disease, these disorders are genetic disorders caused by an autosomal dominant gene, meaning that they occur in the presence of only one gene on a chromosome that is not a sex (X or Y) chromosome. Von Willebrand disease, which causes blood clotting defects, is the most common hereditary bleeding disorder, affecting at least 1% of the population. Marfan syndrome affects the connective tissue and it is estimated that at least 1 in 5,000 people in the United States have the disorder.

During the acute phase, hypoglycemia is most likely to be misdiagnosed as: Select one: A.Schizophrenia. B.Major Depression. C.Panic Disorder. D.Dementia.

Correct Answer is: C Many of the endocrine disorders produce symptoms that can be mistaken for a psychiatric illness. Hypoglycemia has both acute and chronic phases, which involve different symptoms. During the acute phase, which this question is asking about, symptoms include panic and anxiety. However, these are replaced during the chronic phase with depression, psychosis, and/or personality change.

A person's level of consciousness is tracked during the first hours to days after experiencing a severe head trauma by which of the following: Select one: A.Neuropsychiatric Inventory B.Rancho Los Amigos - Revised C.Glasgow Coma Scale D.Global Deterioration Scale

Correct Answer is: C One of the most widely used measure for defining level of consciousness is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) which is a 15-point scale that evaluates level of consciousness through eye, verbal, and motor responses. Neuropsychiatric Inventory The Neuropsychiatric Inventory (NPI) is used to obtain information on the presence of behavioral and psychiatric disturbances among individuals with Alzheimer's disease and other dementias by surveying behaviors and symptoms occurring during the previous month as reported by the informant. Rancho Los Amigos - Revised Rancho Los Amigos - Revised defines ten levels of cognitive functioning from "no response" to "purposeful and appropriate." Global Deterioration Scale The Global Deterioration Scale is used to measure cognitive functioning in individuals with Alzheimer's dementia or other type of primary degenerative dementia.

A patient uses similar phonemes or words instead of the specific words required. What impairment does the patient have? Select one: A.apraxia B.dysarthria C.paraphasias D.dysprosody

Correct Answer is: C Paraphasias involves the production of unintended syllables, words, or phrases during the effort to speak. Verbal paraphasia is a dominant symptom within the more general category of anomia which refers to word finding difficulty. When an individual is unable to evoke, retrieve, or recall a particular word then an incorrect word or phrase is substituted for an intended or target word. Prosody is the variation in stress, pitch, and rhythm of speech by which different shades of meaning are conveyed. apraxia Apraxia of speech (AOS) is a disorder of articulation in which individuals have difficulty planning, initiating, and sequencing speech movements accurately. dysarthria Dysarthria is the collective name for a group of motor speech disorders caused by a disturbance in the neuromuscular control of speech, due to either central or peripheral nervous system damage, and manifested as weakness, slowness, or incoordination of speech. It involves difficulty in articulation, not in word finding or grammar. dysprosody Dysprosody includes difficulties in rhythm and intonation, affecting enunciation, pronunciation and patterns of stress.

The sensation of tingling, pricking, or numbness of an individual's skin, more generally known as the feeling of "pins and needles" or a limb "falling asleep" is referred to as: Select one: A.neuroglycopenia B.hemiparesis C.paresthesia D.hyperglycemia

Correct Answer is: C Paresthesia may be transient or chronic. Transient paresthesia of the hands and feet are common symptoms of hyperventilation syndrome, panic attacks or pressure on a nerve that inhibits or stimulates its function. Chronic paresthesia indicates a problem with the functioning of neurons which may be the result of poor circulation in the limbs, vitamin deficiency or malnutrition, metabolic disorders like diabetes and hypothyroidism, nerve irritation from tissue inflammation, rheumatoid arthritis, carpal tunnel syndrome, muscle cramps as a result of anxiety or excessive stress, poor posture, heavy lifting, or physical trauma or direct damage to the nerves. Chronic paresthesia may also be symptomatic of serious conditions, such as autoimmune disorders (e.g., multiple sclerosis or lupus erythematosus) and herpes zoster or shingles. Neuroglycopenia* refers to a shortage of glucose in the brain, usually due to hypoglycemia, which affects brain functioning and behavior and can cause permanent brain damage if prolonged. Hemiparesis* is weakness on one side of the body (versus hemiplegia, or total paralysis of the leg, arm, and trunk on the same side of the body). Hyperglycemia*, or high blood sugar, is a condition in which an excessive amount of glucose circulates in the blood (* incorrect options).

Following a stroke or head trauma, which of the following memory functions is most likely to be affected? Select one: A.iconic memory B.long-term store C.memory for newly learned information D.verbal memory

Correct Answer is: C Questions like this can be frustrating because it is really impossible to make blanket generalizations. When the brain is compromised by a medical problem (or by substance use), the nature of impairment always depends on the location in the brain of damage and the extent of damage. However, if memory is impaired, the ability to retain newly learned information is most likely to be affected. Impairment in other types of memory, such as long-term episodic memory or verbal (semantic) memory, usually indicates more severe memory damage in which impairment in learning new information is also present.

Some of the atypical antipsychotics such as clozapine are believed to exert their effects by restoring the balance between: Select one: A.dopamine and acetylcholine. B.epinephrine and norepinephrine. C.dopamine and norepinephrine. D.glutamate and GABA.

Correct Answer is: C Recent theories about the cause of Schizophrenia expand the traditional dopamine hypothesis by including other neurotransmitters, especially serotonin and norepinephrine. Several of these theories propose that Schizophrenia is due to an imbalance between dopamine and norepinephrine and/or serotonin and that some antipsychotics work by restoring the balance. Support for this hypothesis comes from studies showing that some schizophrenics (especially paranoid schizophrenics) have higher-than-normal levels of norepinephrine.

Brain imaging indicates repeated exposure to alcohol during prenatal development is most likely to negatively impact the: Select one: A.medulla, thalamus, and temporal lobes B.hypothalamus, thalamus, and parietal lobes C.basal ganglia, hippocampus, and frontal lobes D.brainstem, amygdala, and frontal lobes

Correct Answer is: C Repeated exposure to alcohol during prenatal development most affects the basal ganglia, hippocampus, and frontal lobes. Other commonly affected areas in fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) include the cerebellum, hypothalamus and corpus callosum. Cognitive and behavioral symptoms such as impaired motor coordination, attention and memory, mental retardation, hyperactivity, impulsivity, and poor judgment are characteristic of fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS).

A young man who has been taking a neuroleptic for a long time develops tardive dyskinesia (TD). Slowly withdrawing this drug: A.may produce an irreversible increase in symptoms of TD. B.will result in a quick reduction of symptoms of TD. C.may initially increase symptoms of TD but the increase will be followed by a decrease. D.will have no effect on symptoms of TD.

Correct Answer is: C Tardive dyskinesia, a side effect of the antipsychotic drugs, was considered irreversible for a long time. However, longitudinal studies of patients with TD have found that gradual withdrawal of the antipsychotic may initially exacerbate symptoms but, in many patients, eventually results in a decrease in symptoms.

Testosterone: Select one: A.is normally found in males only. B.is responsible for secondary sex characteristics in males and females. C.increases sex drive in males and females. D.is related to sex drive in males only.

Correct Answer is: C Testosterone is primarily a male sex hormone, but it's also found in females. It mediates the sex drive, to some degree, in both males and females.

The basal ganglia: A.connects the two halves of the cerebellum B.controls sleep, arousal, and attention C.controls voluntary movement D.inhibits emotionality

Correct Answer is: C The basal ganglia codes and relays information associated with the control of voluntary movement. The pons connects two halves of the cerebellum and regulates arousal. The reticular activating system controls sleep, arousal, and attention. The septum inhibits emotionality.

Which of the following brain structures could be described as a "satisfaction center"? Select one: A.hippocampus B.basal gangllia C.cingulate gyrus D.reticular activating system

Correct Answer is: C The cingulate gyrus acts as a "satisfaction center" and mediates the feelings of satisfaction that follow eating and sex. The hippocampus* is more associated with learning and memory consolidation. The basal ganglia* are important in the regulation of muscle tone and fine motor control, and the reticular activating system* is vital to consciousness and arousal (* incorrect options).

A man is paralyzed from the waist down. With regard to his sexual performance, which of the following is most likely to be true? A.He can have an erection and ejaculate with no issues. B.He can neither have an erection nor ejaculate. C.He can have an erection but cannot ejaculate. D.He can ejaculate but cannot have an erection.

Correct Answer is: C The effects of spinal cord injury on sexual functioning will vary from patient to patient, depending on the area of the spinal cord that has been lesioned. Some patients will be able to have erections and ejaculate, whereas others will not be able to do either. However, a majority of paraplegic males are able to attain erections. Ejaculation, by contrast, is more vulnerable to the effects of spinal cord injury, with only a minority of paraplegic patients able to ejaculate following a lesion. Therefore, this ("have an erection but cannot ejaculate") is the best answer, even though it is certainly not right in all cases.

Damage to the hippocampus would most likely result in deficits in: Select one: A.sensory memory B.short-term memory C.long-term memory D.implicit memory

Correct Answer is: C The hippocampus is believed to be responsible for memory consolidation, or the transfer of information from short-term to long-term memory. Sensory memory* is thought to be stored at the sense organs. Short-term memory* is associated with the prefrontal cortex. And implicit memory*, although a type of long-term memory, is less affected by damage to the hippocampus than other types of long-term memory (* incorrect options).

The area of the brain that regulates the sleep/wake cycle is the: A.basal ganglia. B.thalamus. C.hypothalamus. D.limbic system.

Correct Answer is: C The hypothalamus contains the suprachiasmic nucleus (SCN) which controls the circadian rhythms via the pineal gland. The basal ganglia* controls voluntary movement. The thalamus* is the central relay station. And the limbic system*, which includes the amygdala, septum, and hippocampus mediates the emotional components of behavior (* incorrect options).

Mental imaging or visualization, in the absence of external visual stimulation, is believed to be most associated with the: Select one: A.basal ganglia B.frontal lobe C.hippocampus D.parietal lobe

Correct Answer is: C The medial temporal lobe (limbic system) contains the hippocampus, amygdala, and other structures which have recently been associated with the ability to generate mental images

Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to result in: Select one: A.impaired depth perception B.impaired motor coordination C.altered emotional behaviors D.left-right confusion

Correct Answer is: C The orbitofrontal cortex is part of the prefrontal cortex located just above the eye sockets. Damage to the orbitofrontal cortex is most likely to alter emotional behavior. The orbitofrontal cortex is believed to play a role in excitability, behavioral inhibition, personality, and judgment.The famous case of Phineas Gage, the 19th century railroad worker who survived an iron rod shooting through his head, suffered damage to his orbitofrontal cortex which is believed to have caused changes in his emotions and behaviors.

The reticular activating system: Select one: A.inhibits emotionality B.controls voluntary movement C.controls sleep, arousal, and attention D.connects the two halves of the cerebellum

Correct Answer is: C The reticular activating system controls sleep, arousal, and attention. (it is part of the reticular formation which is in the midbrain/mesencephalon) inhibits emotionality The septum inhibits emotionality. controls voluntary movement The basal ganglia codes and relays information associated with the control of voluntary movement. connects the two halves of the cerebellum The pons connects two halves of the cerebellum and regulates arousal.

Excluding the olfactory nerves, sensory afferent nerves run through which part of the brain? Select one: A.caudate nucleus B.cerebellum C.thalamus D.cingulate gyrus

Correct Answer is: C The thalamus acts as a "relay station" for all the senses except smell. That is, it receives impulses from the senses and then transmits the information to other parts of the brain. Olfactory information is projected to various parts of the limbic system.

Dreams occur: Select one: A.Only during REM sleep B.Only during non-REM sleep C.During both REM and non-REM sleep D.Primarily during Stage 1 sleep

Correct Answer is: C The typical sleep cycle begins with Stage One and progresses to Stage Two, Three and Four. This is followed by a period of REM sleep. Initially, it was believed that all dreaming occurred during REM sleep, but it is now known that dreams also occur during non REM sleep. Dreams during REM sleep are much more vivid and more likely to be remembered when the sleeper awakes.

In some plagiarism cases, writers may be using what they perceive to be their original ideas, consequently failing to credit the ideas to the proper source, while they are actually retrieved thoughts from memory. This is an example of a phenomenon known as: Select one: A.source amnesia B.source misattribution C.cryptomnesia D.false fame effect

Correct Answer is: C There are several reasons for errors in memory. Source misattributions* occur when individuals misremember the time, place, person, or circumstances involved with a memory. Cryptomnesia (correct option) is an example which occurs when a person perceives the recovery of information from memory as being an original idea of their own. Another example of source misattribution is the false fame effect* in which subjects remembered the names but could not recall where they had encountered the names so they concluded that the individuals were famous. Source amnesia* is an episodic memory disorder where source or contextual information surrounding facts are severely distorted and/or unable to be recalled (* incorrect options). An individual remembers some factual information, yet forgets the contextual information related to the fact such as when, where, and with whom the fact was learned.

In recent years, the survival rate for children with acute lymphacytic leukemia has risen to as much as 85% due to advances in treatment. Research on the impact of these treatments on cognitive ability in children have generally found that: Select one: A.CNS chemotherapy is associated with cognitive deficits, but irradiation is not B.CNS irradiation is associated with cognitive deficits, but chemotherapy is not C.Both CNS chemotherapy and irradiation are associated with cognitive deficits D.Neither CNS chemotherapy nor irradiation is associated with cognitive deficits

Correct Answer is: C This is a rather obscure question which you probably had to guess the answer to. Research in this area is mixed, but most studies have found that both chemotherapy and irradiation can result in cognitive deficits in children. Deficits in IQ scores have ranged from 5-20 points and have been found to persist for years after the treatments, although often not immediately present.

An MRI of a patient in the early stages of Huntington's disease would indicate: Select one: A.no abnormalities. B.overactivity in the temporal lobes. C.reduced volume of the basal ganglia. D.reduced volume of the ventricles.

Correct Answer is: C To answer this question, you need to know that Huntington's disease is due to degeneration in several areas of the brain including the basal ganglia and that damage can often be detected by an MRI or other brain imaging technique even before the person exhibits symptoms.

A whisper being audible in a library reading room, but not in a busy cafeteria is explained by: A.the all-or-nothing principle B.the "law of effect" C.Weber's law D.the "law of proximity

Correct Answer is: C Weber's law is one of the psychophysical laws that explains the relationship between physical stimuli and their psychological effects. According to Weber's, the "just noticeable difference" in the stimulus is proportional to the magnitude of the original stimulus, explaining why a whisper can be heard in a quiet room but not in a noisy one.

The physiological cause of Wernicke's encephalopathy due to alcoholism is Select one: A.damage to the endocrine system. B.neural damage in the brain due to the toxic effects of alcohol. C.a thiamine deficiency. D.demyelination.

Correct Answer is: C Wernicke's encephalopathy is a syndrome characterized by ataxia, confusion, and impairment and short-term memory loss. It is characterized by lesions in brain areas such as the thalamus and results from inadequate intake or absorption of thiamine (Vitamin B1). Often, the deficiency is associated with prolonged alcohol consumption, but it could be due to other factors such as malnutrition. Untreated, Wernicke's encephalopathy may progress to Korsakoff's psychosis (a behavioral syndrome characterized by symptoms such as anterograde and retrograde amnesia, confabulation, lack of insight, and apathy), coma, and death.

Of the following monoamine neurotransmitters, which is not a catecholamine? Select one: A.dopamine B.norepinephrine C.epinephrine D.serotonin

Correct Answer is: D On the basis of their structures, the four monoamine neurotransmitters are subdivided into two groups, catecholamines and indolamines. Dopamine, norepinephrine, and epinephrine (incorrect options) are catecholamines and each is synthesized from the amino acid tyrosine. In contrast, serotonin (also called 5-hydroxytryptamine or 5-HT) is synthesized from the amino acid tryptophan and is classified as an indolamine.

The condition describing a side-effect of antipsychotic medication that is incorrectly matched with its symptoms is: A.akathisia - inability to sit, constantly pacing, restlessness B.dysarthia - imperfect articulation of speech C.akinesia - appears to be slow moving, indifferent to stimuli, emotionally constricted D.opisthotonus - spasms in the lower extremities

Correct Answer is: D All four terms describe possible short-term side effects of antipsychotic medications, especially the older antipsychotics associated with extrapyramidal syndrome (EPS) which include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, dyskinesia and akathisia. Opisthotonus (correct answer) refers to whole body spasm, oculogyric crisis refers to rapid eye movements and dysarthia* refers to imperfect articulation of speech. These are some of the symptoms of dystonia and dyskinesia. Akathisia* is most common after about a week of treatment and characterized by constant pacing or an inability to sit still. Akinesia* is one of the side effects associated with Parkinsonism, a neurologic side effect of typical antipsychotic medication (* incorrect options).

Alzheimer's Dementia is most often associated with damage to the: Select one: A.frontal lobe B.parietal lobe C.occipital lobe D.temporal lobe

Correct Answer is: D Although it is not known whether the deficits of Alzheimer's Dementia are caused by diffuse damage to the brain or focused in a particular lobe, most research has linked it to damage to the temporal lobe. This is consistent with the important role of the temporal lobe in long-term memory

Which of the following seizures is also known as temporal lobe epilepsy? Select one: A.Absence B.Myoclonic C.Grand mal D.Complex partial

Correct Answer is: D Complex partial seizures begin in the temporal lobe, involve impaired consciousness and involuntary chewing, lip smacking, fidgeting, and walking in circles. "Complex" refers to the seizures which impact consciousness. While partial seizures begin in a limited area of the brain, generalized seizures are caused by electrical impulses throughout the entire brain. The other responses are all types of generalized seizures. Absence Absence seizures involve a brief loss of consciousness with few or no other symptoms. Myoclonic The primary symptom of a myoclonic seizure is brief jerky contractions of muscles in different parts of the body, most often in the legs and arms. Grand mal A grand mal seizure involves convulsions, unconsciousness, and muscle rigidity.

The most accurate statement about anxiolytic drugs is: Select one: A.older adults experience a higher rebound effect than younger adults. B.older adults experience higher effectiveness from anxiolytics with a long half-life. C.the half-life of the drug decreases with increasing age. D.the half-life of the drug increases with increasing age.

Correct Answer is: D Due to age-related decreases in metabolism or reduction in renal functioning, the time it takes for the body to eliminate half of the given dose (half-life) of the anxiolytics and many drugs increases with increasing age. Consequently, lower doses and anxiolytics with a short half-life are usually administered to older adults to avoid toxicity.

The primary symptoms of normal pressure hydrocephalus are: Select one: A.headache followed by vomiting, downward deviation of the eyes and urinary incontinence B.a rapid increase in the size of the head, headache followed by vomiting, gait disturbance C.a rapid increase in the size of the head, downward deviation of the eyes, dementia D.gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, dementia/mental disturbance

Correct Answer is: D Hydrocephalus is a condition primarily characterized by excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the ventricles inside the brain. As the CSF builds up, it causes the ventricles to enlarge or dilate causing the pressure inside the head to increase and potentially harmful pressure on the tissues of the brain. Hydrocephalus may be congenital or acquired. The specific causes of hydrocephalus are unknown. Congenital hydrocephalus is thought to be caused by a complex interaction of environmental factors and a possible genetic disposition or developmental problem. The most common developmental problems that may lead to hydrocephalus include: spina bifida, failure of the tissue surrounding the spinal cord to close properly; aqueductal stenosis, a narrowing of a channel in the brain that connects two ventricles; and encephalocele, herniation of the brain. Acquired hydrocephalus can affect individuals of all ages and may result from a disease or condition such as encephalitis, intraventricular hemorrhage, meningitis, head trauma, stroke, infection, complications of surgery, tumors and cysts. Age, disease progression and how well a person can tolerate increased cerebrospinal fluid pressure all affect the symptoms of hydrocephalus. Common symptoms in infancy include an unusually large head, a rapid increase in the size of the head and a bulging "soft spot" on the top of the head. In older children and adults, symptoms may include headache followed by vomiting, nausea, papilledema or swelling of the optic disk, downward deviation of the eyes, problems with balance, poor coordination, gait disturbance, urinary incontinence, slowing or loss of development (in children), lethargy, drowsiness, irritability, or other changes in personality or cognition, including memory loss. A condition that mainly affects people over 60 years of age is normal pressure hydrocephalus. It is caused by defective absorption of CSF, in which the excess CSF enlarges the ventricles but does not increase pressure on the brain. It may result from injury, illness or infection although many people develop normal pressure hydrocephalus without an obvious cause. It typically starts with difficulty walking. Urinary incontinence often develops, along with a type of dementia marked by slowness of thinking and information processing. Hydrocephalus is diagnosed through clinical neurological evaluation and by using cranial imaging techniques such as ultrasonography, computer tomography (CT), magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or pressure-monitoring techniques. The most effective treatment is surgical insertion of a shunt although endoscopic third ventriculostomy (ETV) is growing in popularity as an alternative treatment method for hydrocephalus.

A potential drawback of the SSRIs is that they Select one: A.are cardiotoxic and, consequently, dangerous in overdose. B.initially cause cognitive impairment, especially in older patients. C.may increase mania. D.may initially worsen sleep and anxiety symptoms.

Correct Answer is: D In general, the SSRIs are safer than the tricyclics. For instance, they are not cardiotoxic and do not cause cognitive impairments. However, they may exacerbate anxiety and sleep symptoms initially.

Research on constructive memory has linked false recollection to lesions in the: Select one: A.occipital lobe B.parietal lobe C.temporal lobe D.frontal lobe

Correct Answer is: D Instead of a literal recollection of past events, the current view of memory is that it is a constructive process - vulnerable to distortions, errors, and factors limiting the accuracy of memories. Neuropsychological research has most consistently identified lesions in the frontal lobes, especially the prefrontal cortex, with false recollections.

Each of the following statements about SSRI discontinuation syndrome are true EXCEPT: Select one: A.Discontinuation symptoms have a typical onset of 1 to 3 days after use of the antidepressant is stopped and can be relieved within 24 hours by restarting anti-depressant therapy. B.The symptoms can be mistaken for physical illness or relapse into the treated illness, thereby promoting unnecessary long-term treatment. C.Discontinuation symptoms are more likely to occur in patients who take an SSRI with a shorter half-life than in patients taking an SSRI with a longer half-life. D.Discontinuation symptoms are more likely to occur in patients who take an SSRI with a longer half-life than in patients taking an SSRI with a shorter half-life.

Correct Answer is: D Intermittent noncompliance, abrupt cessation or, less commonly, tapering of a SSRI dose can result in discontinuation syndrome which manifests as disequilibrium, flulike symptoms, and sleep or sensory disturbances within 24 to 72 hours after use of the antidepressant is stopped. The most common symptoms included dizziness, nausea, lethargy, and headache. Although most discontinuation reactions are mild and short-lived, the symptoms can be mistaken for physical illness or relapse into the treated illness, thereby promoting unnecessary long-term treatment. Symptoms can be alleviated within 24 hours by reintroduction of the medication; however untreated these symptoms can last from 1 to 3 weeks. Psychiatric discontinuation symptoms (depressed mood, agitation, or irritability) in particular may be mistaken for a relapse of depressive symptoms. By comparison, rebound phenomenon (a return of some of the symptoms of depression) or a full depressive relapse usually takes 2 to 3 weeks to become evident and does not remit within 24 hours of restarting the antidepressant. The likelihood of discontinuation syndrome is associated with the duration of SSRI treatment, pharmacokinetic (half-life), and pharmacodynamic factors. The symptoms occur most often with paroxetine (Paxil) and fluvoxamine, which have a short half-life and no active metabolites, and less often with fluoxetine (Prozac) due to its long half-life.

The four main stages of neural development are: Select one: A.meiosis, mitosis, migration, myelination B.mitosis, meiosis, differentiation, myelination C.differentiation, mitosis, migration, myelination D.proliferation, migration, differentiation, myelination

Correct Answer is: D Neural development involves the stages of proliferation, migration, differentiation, and myelination. The proliferation stage includes the production of cells. Migration is the second stage of development during which the cells move or migrate to its ultimate destination in the nervous system. Following migration is differentiation, in which cells develop the unique characteristics of nerve cells. During the fourth stage, myelination, the axons of some cells become surrounded (insulated) by glial cells. Meiosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with one-half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. Mitosis is the process of cell division that produces cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

The hallmark motor triad of Parkinson's disease includes: Select one: A.rigidity, cogwheel rigidity, and spastic gait B.tremor, rigidity, and a wide based gait C.tremor, festination, and over-reaching D.tremor, rigidity, and slowness of movement

Correct Answer is: D Parkinson's disease (PD) belongs to a group of conditions called motor system disorders, which are the result of the loss of dopamine-producing brain cells. PD ordinarily affects people over the age of 50 with early symptoms being subtle and occurring gradually. A definitive diagnosis of PD is based on neuropathological findings of Lewy bodies and degeneration and loss of pigmented neurons of the substantia nigra. The hallmark clinical signs of PD are its motor triad: 1) tremor; 2) rigidity; and 3) slowness or absence of movement. While festination, a manner of walking with an involuntary acceleration of gait, as if trying to catch up with one's displaced centre of gravity, is often experienced by individuals with PD, it isn't considered one of the primary motor hallmark signs.

Side effects of propranolol (Inderol) are most likely to include: Select one: A.tachycardia and mania B.tachycardia and tremor C.bradycardia and hypersomnia D.bradycardia and depression

Correct Answer is: D Propranolol (Inderal) is a beta-blocker often used to treat hypertension, migraine, essential tremors and is also useful in reducing the physical symptoms of anxiety. Side effects of Inderal include bradycardia (slow heart rate), hypotension, fatigue, sexual dysfunction, and depression.

Patients with depression typically have: Select one: A.more rapid onset of REM sleep B.decreased slow wave sleep C.increased percentage of REM sleep D.all of the above

Correct Answer is: D Research has found that depression is most associated with a more rapid onset of REM sleep, decreased percentage of slow wave sleep, and increased percentage of REM sleep. The research also suggests that individuals with no prior history of depression but who have rapid REM onset have an increased risk of developing depression

According to the catecholamine hypothesis, depression is due to a deficiency in: Select one: A.dopamine B.gamma-aminobutyric acid C.acetylcholine D.norepinephrine

Correct Answer is: D Research with drugs led to the formulation of the "catecholamine hypothesis" about the cause of mood disorders. First presented in 1965, Schildkraut et al.'s theory of depression emphasized the association of depression with a decrease in the levels of brain catecholamines dopamine (DA) and norepinephrine (NE), especially norepinephrine. This hypothesis in its simplest form, stated that depression was due to a deficiency of norepinephrine, one of the major catecholamine systems in the brain. This early hypothesis is based on evidence from three groups of drugs: reserpine, monoamine oxidase (MAO) inhibitors, and tricyclics. Reserpine depletes the brain of dopamine and norepinephrine and is used primarily to treat hypertension. It is also used for severe agitation.

An advantage of clozapine (Clozaril) over conventional antipsychotic drugs is that it is Select one: A.significantly more effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia. B.less likely to produce anticholinergic effects. C.less likely to cause agranulocytosis. D.often effective for those who don't respond to conventional drugs.

Correct Answer is: D The atypical antipsychotic clozapine affects different neurotransmitters than conventional antipsychotics and, to some degree, has different side effects. For example, although it doesn't produce tardive dyskinesia, it does cause agranulocytosis, a potentially fatal blood disease. An important advantage of clozapine is that it's often effective when conventional antipsychotic drugs are not. But be careful in thinking answer A is the correct option, as it hasn't been found to be significantly more effective.

Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in: Select one: A.Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder B.Jacob Creutzfeld Disease C.Schizophrenia D.Huntington's Disease

Correct Answer is: D The caudate nucleus is part of the basal ganglia which is responsible for initiating movement. Atrophy of the caudate nucleus is found in patients with Huntington's Disease which is a disorder which includes affective, motor, and cognitive symptoms. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder is believed to be related to an overactive caudate nucleus.

The term "serial lesion effect" refers to the fact that in certain cases: Select one: A.damage to one area leads to malfunction in another area. B.damage to an area in infancy may lead to mild deficits at first and more severe deficits later. C.damage to one area of the brain causes extra growth of another area. D.a number of small lesions produces less deficit than one large lesion.

Correct Answer is: D The observation that lesions sustained over multiple sessions appear to result in less behavioral deficits than single lesions which create equivocal tissue damage. There are several studies showing that following certain types and location of brain damage, a given lesion created on a single occasion will have more detrimental behavioral effects than exactly the same type and size of lesion created in a stepped fashion over a number of occasions.

The term "neuronal threshold" refers to the fact that Select one: A.all nerve cells fire simultaneously. B.the strength of a nerve cell's action is positively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives. C.the strength of a nerve cell's action is negatively correlated with the electrical stimulation it receives. D.a nerve cell's stimulation must reach a certain intensity before it fires.

Correct Answer is: D The term "neuronal threshold" refers to the minimum level of energy required for a neuron to fire. If the energy in the cell is below this threshold level, the cell will not fire at all. And increasing the energy in the cell above the threshold does not increase the intensity of firing. This is referred to as the "all-or-none" law -- either the cell fires at maximum intensity or it does not fire at all.

In most species of animals the differences between males and females in body size and shape is referred to as: Select one: A.androgyny B.sexual bifurcation C.gender dichotomy D.sexual dimorphism

Correct Answer is: D The term "sexual dimorphism" may be new to you, but now you know that it refers to any consistent differences between males and females in size or shape. Sexual dimorphism enables animals to readily identify males and females of their species which serves to facilitate mating.

The "temporal lobe personality" is characterized by Select one: A.inability to attend to details. B.apathy and flat affect. C.inappropriate euphoria. D.paranoia and argumentativeness.

Correct Answer is: D The term "temporal lobe personality" refers to a pattern of personality disturbances seen in people with lesions to the temporal lobe. Signs include an emphasis on trivial aspects of daily life, pedantic speech, perseveration of speech, paranoia, preoccupation with theological or philosophical issues, argumentativeness, and occasional aggressive outbursts. Temporal lobe lesions can be caused by a number of conditions such as stroke, brain tumors, or head trauma; in addition, signs of this personality syndrome are sometimes present in patients with temporal lobe epilepsy.

The part of the brain that is known as a "relay station" because it processes and send sensory information to the cerebral cortex is the Select one: A.hippocampus. B.amygdala. C.hypothalamus. D.thalamus.

Correct Answer is: D The thalamus is a large mass of gray matter located deep in the forebrain. It receives inputs from all sensory modalities except smell. One of its major functions is to process these inputs into a form readable by the cerebral cortex and transfer this information to the cortex. For this reason, it is known as the brain's relay station. It is also involved in regulating levels of arousal, awareness, and activity. Damage to the thalamus can lead to permanent coma.

A female patient had a small tumor removed from the rear part of her right cerebral hemisphere. During the operation, it was necessary to remove the primary visual cortex from the right side of her brain. As a result, she became blind in the: A.right part of the visual field of her right eye. B.left part of the visual field of her left eye. C.right part of the visual field of both eyes. D.left part of the visual field of both eyes.

Correct Answer is: D The visual system, once the neural stimulation leaves the retina, goes back up into the brain and eventually stimulates the visual cortex at the back of the brain (in the occipital lobes). An interesting feature of the visual system is that the images cross over so that on the right side of the brain we are imaging the left visual field, and on the left side of the brain we are imaging the right visual field. Now in this case, the woman has the visual cortex of the right hemisphere removed. Thus, she would not be able to see anything in the opposite visual field, i.e., the left field. The reason that it has to be from both eyes is that by the time the images get up to the cortex, the information from both eyes has already converged, like streams leading into a large river.

A female patient had a small tumor removed from the rear part of her right cerebral hemisphere. During the operation, it was necessary to remove the primary visual cortex from the right side of her brain. As a result, she became blind in the: Select one: A.right part of the visual field of her right eye. B.left part of the visual field of her left eye. C.right part of the visual field of both eyes. D.left part of the visual field of both eyes.

Correct Answer is: D The visual system, once the neural stimulation leaves the retina, goes back up into the brain and eventually stimulates the visual cortex at the back of the brain (in the occipital lobes). An interesting feature of the visual system is that the images cross over so that on the right side of the brain we are imaging the left visual field, and on the left side of the brain we are imaging the right visual field. Now in this case, the woman has the visual cortex of the right hemisphere removed. Thus, she would not be able to see anything in the opposite visual field, i.e., the left field. The reason that it has to be from both eyes is that by the time the images get up to the cortex, the information from both eyes has already converged, like streams leading into a large river.

Gould and Gross (1999) found neurogenesis, the formation of new neurons or nerve cells, in all of the following areas, except: Select one: A.the olfactory system B.the hippocampus C.the prefrontal region D.the striate cortex

Correct Answer is: D Traditionally it has been believed that no new neurons are added to the brain in maturity. In the last decade, evidence has accumulated for neurogenesis in several evolutionarily older parts of the brain such as the olfactory system and the hippocampus, which is believed to play role in memory formation. Gould and Gross, furthermore, identified neurogenesis in three areas of the cerebral cortex: 1) the prefrontal region, which controls executive decision making and short-term memory; 2) the inferior temporal region, which plays a crucial role in the visual recognition of objects and faces; and 3) the posterior parietal region, which is important for the representation of objects in space. The striate cortex, which handles the initial, and more rudimentary, steps of visual processing, had no sign of neurogenesis.

As a treatment for mania, the anticonvulsant carbamazepine: A.has a slower onset of action than lithium. B.does not require plasma blood level monitoring. C.is less likely than lithium to cause severe dermatological reactions. D.may be more effective than lithium for mixed features.

Correct Answer is: D While lithium is more effective for "classic" Bipolar Disorder, carbamazepine has been found to be better for patients with rapid cycling or mixed features. All of the other responses are the opposite of what is true.

The inability to perform complex, purposeful movements, which cannot be explained by problems related to comprehension, coordination, or strength is referred to as: Select one: A.ataxia. B.alexia. C.agnosia. D.apraxia.

Correct Answer is: D You may have been able to answer this one by the process of elimination if you're not familiar with apraxia. There are many forms of apraxia including ideomotor, constructional, and dressing apraxia.

The neuropsychological term and definition that is incorrectly matched is: A.agnosia -- loss of ability to recognize various non-language types of stimulation. B.ataxia -- loss of muscular coordination. C.aphasia -- disturbance of language. D.apraxia -- disturbances in involuntary movement when the person is at rest.

Correct Answer is: D You might be asked on the exam about some perceptual or motor disorder that is organically based. You should know the names for these neuropsychological syndromes. Agnosia refers to the loss of ability to recognize or comprehend various types of stimulation, usually nonlanguage. If the inability to comprehend is in the verbal area, the agnosia is typically called aphasia. Ataxia refers to disorders of a functional system. It is typically used for problems in movement (taxis means movement). So that leaves apraxia as the term that is incorrectly defined. Apraxia refers to problems in voluntary movement. Here the reason it is defined incorrectly is that the statement reads "disturbances of involuntary movement."

The neuropsychological term and definition that is incorrectly matched is: Select one: A.agnosia -- loss of ability to recognize various non-language types of stimulation. B.ataxia -- loss of muscular coordination. C.aphasia -- disturbance of language. D.apraxia -- disturbances in involuntary movement when the person is at rest.

Correct Answer is: D You might be asked on the exam about some perceptual or motor disorder that is organically based. You should know the names for these neuropsychological syndromes. Agnosia refers to the loss of ability to recognize or comprehend various types of stimulation, usually nonlanguage. If the inability to comprehend is in the verbal area, the agnosia is typically called aphasia. Ataxia refers to disorders of a functional system. It is typically used for problems in movement (taxis means movement). So that leaves apraxia as the term that is incorrectly defined. Apraxia refers to problems in voluntary movement. Here the reason it is defined incorrectly is that the statement reads "disturbances of involuntary movement."

Recent longitudinal studies investigating the relationship between menopause and psychological well-being have suggested that: Select one: A.women experiencing menopause are more likely to report significant depression than pre-menopausal or post-menopausal women. B.post-menopausal women are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either pre-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause. C.pre-menopausal are likely to have higher general levels of psychological well-being than either post-menopausal women or women in the midst of menopause. D.there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being.

Correct Answer is: D there is no evidence that menopause is linked to either depression or psychological well-being. This choice describes the results of a longitudinal study published in 1994. Though the study did not concern itself with short-term mood swings that may be caused by the menopausal transition, it did suggest that menopause does not have any effect on long-term psychological functioning.

Apraxia and left-right confusion indicate damage to the: 1. frontal lobe. 2. temporal lobe. 3. parietal lobe. 4. occipital lobe.

Correct Answer: 3. parietal lobe. Feedback: Apraxia (a disturbance in carrying out motor activities) and left-right confusion indicate damage to the parietal lobe. The parietal lobe contains the primary sensory areas that process somatosensory information including light touch, pain, heat, and proprioception (the ability to locate one's body parts). People with parietal lobe damage frequently experience apraxias in dressing. The frontal lobes (Response 1) control planning and initiative, abstract thinking, judgment, and higher mental functions. The temporal lobes (Response 2) contain the primary auditory cortex, and are also involved in emotional behavior and memory. The occipital lobes (Response 4) house the primary visual cortex.

An individual with organic brain damage is able to consistently copy and read sentences from a newspaper, yet has no understanding of the meaning of the sentences. This condition is known as: A.short-term memory loss. B.agraphia. C.agnosia. D.attention deficit.

Correct answer: C

A 65 y/o man who has just started taking lithium as a treatment for bipolar disorder is most likely to exhibit which of the following side effects: A. postural hypotension B. visual spatial problems C. fine hand tremor D. suicidal ideation

Correct answer: C side effects of lithium = nausea, increased thirst and urination, and fine hand tremor

Which of following antidepressants is least likely to produce cardiovascular and anticholinergic side affects? A. amitriptyline B. clomipramine C. imipramine D. fluoxetine

Correct answer: D all the others are TCAs

As a result of head trauma that occurred after a car accident one week ago, a 38 y/o woman has anterograde amnesia as well as retrograde amnesia for events that occurred for the two months prior to the accident. With regard to her retrograde amnesia, when the woman begins to recover her past memories, she will most likely recall which of the following incidents first?: A. what she had for dinner last night B. her arrival at the hospital in an ambulance after the accident C. the meeting she had with her boss three days before the accident D. the promotion she received at work six weeks before the accident

Correct answer: D the first two are anterograde not retrograde amnesia when past memories return, the older or more remote memories return first - phenomenon is called shrinking retrograde amnesia