Next 352 GENE 412

Which of the following generally involves many loci with different biochemical, cellular, or developmental functions? a. Co-dominance, b. Adaptation c. Fitness d. Natural selection e. All of these

D) natural selection

162. Homozygosity for a some or all rare alleles increases with: A) assortative mating, B) inbreeding, C) disassortative mating, D) random mating E) A and B

E) A & B

194. What factor(s) make up reproductive fitness? a) Viability b) Mating success c) Fertility d) Only a and c are important to reproductive fitness e) a, b, and c are important to reproductive fitness

E) A B & C

169. Genetic Architecture refers to: A) the number of loci and their genomic positions B) the number of alleles per locus C) the mutational rates D) rules of inheritance of the genetic elements E) All of the above

E) all of the above

What is the major factor that results in fitness differences among silent codon classes? A) Codon bias, B) transposons, C) Epistasis, D) Independent assortment, E) Polyteny.

A) Codon bias

D= g(AB)-p(A)Xp(B) suggests that: A) D is the deviation of the observed two locus gamete frequencies and the expected frequency based on the product of the individual locus allele frequencies. B) D = 0 shows that no evolution is occurring, C) D≠0, shows that no evolution is occurring D) D < 0 implies the frequency of AB gametes is greater than expected given independent allele frequencies, E) All of the above

A) D is the deviation of the observed two locus gamete frequencies and the expected frequency based on the product of the individual locus allele frequencies.

154. Which of the following shows that the unit of selection is an emergent property of the balance between selection operating to build up epistatic gene complexes and recombinant operating to break down such complexes? a. Drosophila mercatorum experiments b. Meiotic drive, c. Unequal gene conversion, d. Vertical transmission, e. concerted evolution.

A) Drosophila mercatorum

Two related genetic forces that can increase pedigree inbreeding in a finite population: A) Founder effect & bottleneck effect B) Natural selection & bottleneck effect C) Founder effect & natural selection D) Mutation & founder effect E) Gene flow & mutation

A) Founder effect & bottleneck effect

Whether evolution occurs or not through natural selection is determined solely by the value of: a) genotype frequency b) average excess c)adaptive traits d) selection of an allele e)inbreeding

B) average excess

353. The sickle cell trait is harmful when the individual receives two sickle cell alleles. However, if the individual receives only one allele, the individual will be resistant to malaria. This phenomenon can be best described as: A) directional selection B) balancing selection C) Wahlund effect D) system of matting E) fitness

B) balancing selection

A polymorphic gene frequency that is very nearly the same for all human populations across the world is possibly being held constant by: A) assortative mating, B) balancing selection, C) inbreeding, D) drift, e) none of these, it has to be due to migration.

B) balancing selection

The course of adaptation is always constrained by the available: A) phenotypic variation B) mtDNA C) genetic variation D) fitness variation E) none of these

C) genetic variation

The Wahlund effect states that there is less ____ in a natural population than in a randomly mating population: a) Homozygosity b) Dispersal c) Heterozygosity d) Migration e) Gene Flow

C) heterosygosity

Butterfly wings versus bird wings is an example of: A) Syanpomorphies B) Autapomorphies C) Homoplaisy D) Neutral Theory E) Parsimony

C) homoplaisy

The shared trait of hair on both whales and mice is an example of. A) Autopomorphy, B) Synapomorphy C) Homoplaisy D) Natural Selection E) Fashion

C) homoplaisy

When making a gene tree, putting birds and insects on the same branch because they both have the ability to fly would be an example of: A) Synapomorphy. B) Pleisiomorphy. C) Homoplaisy. D) Autapomorphy. E) Parsimony

C) homoplaisy

How would a bottleneck event affect inbreeding, and overall variation in a population? A) decrease, increase B) decrease, decrease C) increase, decrease D) increase, decrease E) no effect on either.

C) increase, decrease

Alan Templeton's example of male butterflies producing two types of sperm, sperm capable of fertilization and sperm not capable of fertilization is an example of: A) intrasexual selection B) kin selection C) intersexual selection D) concerted evolution E) coalescence

C) intersexual selection

What is a quick way to score the presence or absence of a specific mtDNA nucleotide at a specific know locus? A) SNP's B) RAPDs C) AFLPs D) RFLPs, E) SSR's

D) RFLP's

Which of the following is not an assumption for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? A) No selection B) Infinitely large population C) Diploid organism D) Sex-Linkage E) Sexual Reproduction

D) Sex-linkage

285. The level of biological organization that displays the phenotype under selection is the: A) Gene flow B) Fundamental theorem of natural selection C) Metapopulation D) Target of selection E) Quantitative trait loci

D) Target of selection

192. The uses of FST are to: a) show isolation by distance b) estimate migration c) build model based trees d) identify outliers values, which indicate selection e) all of the above

E) all of the above

Assortative mating by itself causes evolutionary change by creating: A) decreasing the homozygotes B) influx of heterozygotes C) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium D) linkage disequilibrium E) both A and B

D) linkage disequilibrium

294. Assortative mating has the largest effect on which of the following: a) Admixture b) Inbreeding c) Single Locus Evolution d) Multi-locus Evolution e) Population Size

D) multi-locus evolution

165. Sickle cell anemia was used in the book as an example of what a balanced polyorphism maintained by? A. Gene flow B. Bottleneck effect C. Founder effect D. Natural SelectionE. non-random mating

D) natural selection

278. System of mating: A) defined for a population as a correlation of gametes B) Deviation from random mating C) ʎ/pq =f, where ʎ = deviation from random mating expected frequencies D) -1< f <1 E) All of the above

E) all of the above

Which of the following terms describes a circumstance in which an organism experiences environmental heterogeneity during the course of its lifetime?: a) Polyteny b) Co-evolution c) Course grained environment d) Altruism e) Fine grained enviroment

e) Fine grained enviroment

Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between natural selection and adaptation ? a. natural selection alone determines the course of adaptation, b) natural selection is not necessary for adaptation, c. natural selection is necessary for adaptation, d)natural selection is not sufficient to determine the course of adaptation, e) C & D are true.

e) C & D are true.

153. Find the estimated time to ultimate coalescence for an X-linked locus and effective inbreeding size of 10,000. a. 4 million years, b. 200,000 years, c. 45,000 years, d. 30,000 years, e. 10,000 years.

D 30,000 years

Given 2 loci, A and B with F(A) = 0.7, F(B) = 0.8 and D = -0.06, find D' = D/Dmax. A) 0.02 B) 0.09 C) 0.2 D) -1.0 E) 0.8

D) -1.0

Migration of 2% from a mainland population with f(A) = .1 into a island population with f(A) = 1 will cause the frequency of the A allele in the recipient population to decrease by: A) 0.9, B) 0.12, C) .45, D) .018, E) can't tell.

D) .018

Find D when Genotype frequency AB = 0.70 Ab = 0.12 aB = 0.10 ab = 0.08 A) 0.21 B) 0.044 C) 0.60 D) 0.44 E) none of the above

D) 0.44

What is the value of relatedness (r) for half-sibs? A) 1/2 B) 1/8 C) 1/16 D) 1/4 E) None of the above

D) 1/4

Altruism is selected for when (c/b) ≤ r. Given that the inbreeding coefficient between cousins is 1/16, calculate the value of r. A) 1, B) 1/2, C) 1/4, D) 1/8, E) 1/16

D) 1/8

Find the inbreeding effective size for a herd with 1 male and 8 females: A) 4.5 B)3.3 C)2.6 D)3.6 E) 4.0

D) 3.6

288. If a harem of walruses has 1 male and 30 females, what is the effective size of the harem? A) 5.67, B) 3.44, C) 2.87, D) 3.87, E) 31

D) 3.87

Calculate the Ne of the population of size 320 and a variance of 0.2. A) 710 B) 580 C) 639 D) 560 E) 320

D) 560

Which of the following is a misconception about the Neutral Theory? A) Only genes that are unimportant can undergo neutral mutations B) Neutral mutations are neutral for all time C) Nucleotides at one site may be neutral while nucleotides at another site may be selected D) A and B E) None of the above

D) A & B

Transposons are repetitive mobile sequences that are dispersed throughout the genome. What type of transmission does a DNA transposon use? A) Horizontal Transmission B) Vertical Transmission C) DNA transposons do not use any type of transmission D) A and B E) None of the above

D) A and B

Which of the following is true regarding natural selection? A) natural selection pushes populations to a local, adaptive peak B) natural selection is sufficient to determine the course of adaptation C) natural selection is necessary for adaptation D) A and C E) all of these are true

D) A and C

Gene flow: A) decreases the allele frequency differences between local populations, B) can introduce new alleles into a population, C) decreases genetic variability within a local population, D) A & B are correct, E) none of the above

D) A&B are correct

115. Which of the following affects the size of the unit of selection? A) recombination, B) Epistasis C) Selection strength D) A,B and C E) A and C but not B

D) A, B and C

Selective equilibrium can only occur when average excesses are: A) All > 1, B) All < 1, C) All < 0, D) All equal to 0, E) None of the above.

D) All equal to 0

According to Dr Templeton adaptive traits are: A) Alteration of the gene pool in a manner that increases the average reproductive fitness of the population B) Increase in reproductive fitness caused by natural selection, C) The increased chance of passing on DNA to the next generation, D) Attributes that aid organisms in living, mating, and reproduction in specific environments, E) All of the Above

D) Attributes that aid organisms in living, mating, and reproduction in specific environments,

What factor(s) build up the unit of selection? A) meiotic factors, exchange and assortment, B) epistasis for fitness, C) strong selection, D) B and C, E) A and B

D) B and C

Which of the following is not a consequence of neutral variation? A) In a population with a neutral allele frequency of P0, the probability of that allele becoming fixed is also P0, B) Average time to fixation is equal to 4Ne generations, C) Without new mutations, random genetic drift will decrease average Heterozygote proportions at a rate of 1/2Ne per generation, D) Expected homozygosity is equal to 1/[4Ne +1], E) all of the above are consequences of variation.

D) Expected homozygosity is equal to 1/[4Ne +1]

Natural Selection always favors the fittest _____. A) population B) Mammal C.) Nev D) Gamete E.) none of these

D) Gamete

The course of adaptive evolution is strongly influence by: A) Gene flow, B) Pseudogenes, C) Nev, D) Genetic architecture, E) Isolation by distance

D) Genetic architecture

184. [A,B,C,D,E] is necessary for adaptation but it's not sufficient to determine the course. A) Genetic Engineering B) Genetic Drift C) Nonrandom mating D) Natural Selection E) None of these

D) Natural Selection

Which of the following describes the average accumulation of identity by descent: A)Nev B)F C)f D) Nef E) D

D) Nef

Population structure is the mechanism of uniting gametes. Which of the following includes population structure? (a) System of mating of the population (b) size of the population (c) presence, amount, and pattern of genetic exchange with other populations (d) age structure of the individuals within the population (e) all of the above

(e) all of the above

Course of (A,B,C,D,E) evolution is strongly influenced by genetic architecture: A. adaptive B. natural C. allele D. gametic E. none of the above

A adaptive

307. Given 2 loci, A and B with f(A) = .6, f(B) = .7 and D = 0.05, find D' = D/Dmax. A) 0.050, B) 0.071, C) 0.278, D) 0.100, E) 1.0

???

211. Migration of 0.5 (m = 0.5) by a population with f(A) = .9 into a recipient population with f(A) = .3 will change the frequency of the A allele in the recipient population by A) 0.30, B) 0.40, C) 0.35, D) 0.33, E) 0.37 (at Equilibium?)

A) .30

160. Migration of 0.2 by a population of f(B) = .9 into a population with f(B) = .4 will change the frequency of the B allele in the recipient population to f(B) = A) 0.5, B) 0.24 C) 0.43 D) 0.62 E) 0.2

A) .5

The autosomal recessive allele for a rare disease occurs in a population at a frequency of q = 0.005. Find the probability of a homozygous recessive disease in a child caused by cousin mating: A) 0.0003359, B) 0.002341, C) 0.0125, D) 0.44201, E) 0.42934

A) 0.0003359

112. Assume h = 0.7 for a mildly deleterious mutation when homozygous (s = 0.05). In this case, the mutation rate to the deleterious form is 10−4. Assuming random mating, what is the equilibrium frequency for the mutant allele? A) 0.00286, B) 0.000314, C) 0.00116, D) 0.00222, E) 0.00346

A) 0.00286

254. The autosomal recessive allele for alcaptoneuria occurs in a population at a frequency of q = 0.002, find the probability of the homozygous recessive disease alcaptoneuria in a child produced by a brother-sister mating: A) 0.0054, B) 0.003451, C) .000503, D) 0.0002, E) answers A - D.

A) 0.0054

Calculate the value for Fst when Hs=0.35 and Ht=0.5. A) 0.3 B) 0.25 C) 0.4 D) 0.12 E) None of the above

A) 0.3

133. Given an Fst value of 0.28, what is the amount of gene flow for an X-linked loci A)0.857 B)2.572 C)0.6428 D)1.2857 E) none of these

A) 0.857

Find Nem for an X-linked gene if Fst = 0.25. A) 1, B) 1.33, C) 3, D) 3.56, E) none of the above.

A) 1

152. The probability an allele will go to fixation if it started out as a single mutation in a population of 200 is: a. 1/400 b. ¼ c. <0.2% d. 2Nef e. Can't predict

A) 1/400

448. Which of the following is the formula for expected average time between neutral autosomal substitutions? A) 1/v B) 4Ne C) (2Ne/N)ln(2N) D) 4Nev

A) 1/v

Find the effective inbreeding size for population that has 5 males and 10 females. A) 13.333, B) 40, C) 15, D) 50, D) 10, E) 6.667

A) 13.333

Given an average probability of identity by decent of .0714 in a population at t=1 , find the effective Inbreeding size of the population after 3 generations A) 7, B) 15, C) 6.8, D) 7.9, E) 8

A) 7

What does principal component analysis show? A) Haplotypes and their relative contribution to overall variation, B) Where variation arose and how it is interrelated, C) If migration and drift effects are in equilibrium, D) Brother-sister and other incestual matings that were common, E) Drift effects.

A) Haplotypes and their relative contribution to overall variation,

145. Which acts on targets of selection below the level of the individual, which is nested within individuals rather than a set of interacting individuals? A) Meiotic Drive B) sexual selection C) frequency dependent selection D) competition E) family selection

A) Meiotic Drive

Fragile X Syndrome was used as an example of: A) Meiotic Drive B) Migration C) Adaptation D) autapomorphy E)None of these

A) Meiotic Drive

Which of the following will have no effect on the bearer's ability to replicate and pass on DNA to the next generation? A) Neutral Mutations B) Fitness C) new mutations D) Both A and C E) None of these

A) Neutral Mutations

Which of the following relates to disassortative mating? A) Produces more than the expected Hardy-Weinberg proportion of heterozygotes B) May increase the expected proportion of rare homozygous diseases C) Creates and maintains linkage disequilibrium D) All of the above E) None of the above

A) Produces more than the expected Hardy-Weinberg proportion of heterozygotes

Natural Selection is necessary for Adaptation but not: A) Sufficient, B) Relevant, C) Informative, D) Fun, E) Favorable

A) Sufficient

An neutral allele is found in a population with a frequency, P, of 0.65. What is the most probable outcome? A) The allele will become fixed B) The allele will be lost C) It depends on FST D) It depends on Nev E) There is no way to predict the outcome of an neutral allele

A) The allele will become fixed

256. The level of genetic organization that allows the prediction of the genetic response to selection can be defined by the term: A) Unit of selection, B) Cells, C) niche, D) Ecosystem, E) None of the above

A) Unit of selection

The 1 : 1 : 3 : 4 ratio is expected for the relative coalescence times of: A) Y-DNA, mtDNA, X-linked DNA, and autosomal DNA, B) mtDNA, autosomal DNA, Y-DNA, X-linked DNA, C) X-linked DNA, autosomal DNA, Y-DNA, mtDNA, D) autosomal DNA, X-linked DNA, mtDNA, Y-DNA, E) X-linked DNA, Y-DNA, mtDNA, autosomal DNA

A) Y-DNA, mtDNA, X-linked DNA, and autosomal DNA,

A value of Fis<0.0. unlike the results for races of man, was found in which population? A. Yanamamo, B. Drosophila malanogaster, C. all human haplotypes introduced by migration events, D. Anabaptists, E. none of the above

A) Yanamamo

How does natural selection interact with gene flow? a) acts as a selective filter that blocks the flow of some genes and accelerates others b) acts as a selective filter that increases the flow of some genes and decelerates others c) it changes the frequency of one allele in the population d) it does not e) all of the above except d

A) acts as a selective filter that blocks the flow of some genes and accelerates others

The increase in reproductive fitness cause by natural selection is called: A) adaptation B) Selection C) mating success D) Fecundity E) viability

A) adaptation

Phenotypic differences between ethnic groups can explained to a large extent as due to: A) assortative mating, B) balancing selection, C) inbreeding, D) drift, e) none of these, it has to be due to migration.

A) assortative mating

For the example of Fragile X syndrome, why is an allele with more than 50 CGG repeats more likely to be passed on than another allele with less than 50 repeats? A) Because of meiotic drive, B) Because the fitness is higher for the alleles with more repeats, C) Because another rare mutation causes abnormal meiosis in these people, D) It is simply a strange coincidence, E) This is not true - from Mendel's law of segregation we know that there is an equal chance of getting either allele.

A) because of meiotic drive

178. Natural Selection: A) can only move a population to highest local adaptive solution, not necessarily the state with the highest fitness. B) cannot exist outside of a laboratory. C) never results in traits that could be seen as mal-adaptive from the onset (such as sickle cell anemia). D) had nothing to do with human evolution. E) does not occur at the molecular level.

A) can only move a population to highest local adaptive solution, not necessarily the state with the highest fitness.

197. Closely linked loci with coadapted combinations of alleles in linkage disequilibrium are called: a) Coadapted gene complexes b) X-linked genes c) Supergenes d) SNP's e) None of the above

A) coadapted gene complexes

255. The chances of an individual passing on its DNA in the context of the environment can be defined as: A) Fitness, B) Lucky, C) genotype, D) Phenotype, E) None of the above

A) fitness

Viability, mating success, fertility and fecundity are all components of: A) fitness B) migration C) assortative mating D) adaptation E) all of the above

A) fitness

Average excess uniquely predicts the expected direction of change in: A) frequency of an allele, B) Fitness, C) adaptation, D) the environment, E) Pleiotropy.

A) frequency of an allele

Which characterizes a phenotypic cline? A) gradual shifts of phenotypic frequencies or mean phenotypes over geographical space B) gradual shifts of genotypic frequencies or mean phenotypes over geographical space C) an individual remains in a single environment throughout its lifetime, but the environment varies between demes occupying different spatial locations or across generations D) when the individual experiences environmental heterogeneity within its own lifetime E) which some factor not related to the genotypes of interest is density limiting in the habitat

A) gradual shifts of phenotypic frequencies or mean phenotypes over geographical space

Alternative states of a homologous DNA region that may or may not correspond to a gene locus refers to what? A) haplotype B) allele C) epistasis D) homology E) all of the above.

A) haplotype

The main idea of neutral theory is: A) If a new allele is equally fit compared to an existing allele then it is selectively neutral and may be fixed in the population because of genetic drift. B) Neutral alleles may arise by mutation, and can be acted on by selection in order to be driven to fixation. C) Most new alleles that arise in populations are driven to higher frequencies by selection because of heterozygote advantage. D) Neutral alleles no longer function. E) Selection never plays a role in altering gene frequency.

A) if a new allele is equally fit compared to an existing allele then it is selectively neutral and may be fixed in the population because of genetic drift

Which of the following statements about inbreeding is False? A) Inbreeding changes allele frequency. B) Most real world populations have some level of inbreeding (FIS> 0.0). C) Inbreeding increases the incidence of a genetic disease, such as cystic fibrosis. D) Inbreeding depression leads to a loss of fertility and/or survival. E) Inbreeding changes genotype frequency.

A) inbreeding changes allele frequency

The extent to which an individual that is concerned with its own survival as much as the survival of relatives that share the same alleles is measured as: A) Inclusive Fitness B) Fitness C) Hardy-Weinberg D) Exclusive fitness

A) inclusive fitness

Fisher's fundamental theorem of natural selection requires populations to evolve under selection only in a manner that _____ average fitness: A) Increases, B) Decreases, C) Eliminates, D) Has no effect on, E) None of the above

A) increases

356. Constructing evolutionary trees by minimizing the number of mutational changes to explain these derived states is known as? A) Maximum Parsimony B) Outgroup rooting C) Homoplasy D) Haplotype network E) Allele tree

A) maximum parsimony

The force that counteracts drift in a structured population is: A) migration B)Random mating C) selection D)All of the above E) none of the above

A) migration

179. According to the Wahlund effect, populations in nature when randomly mated in the lab show ___________ than was present in the wild: A) more heterozygotes, B)more homozygotes, C) less heterozygotes, D) Both B&C, E) Cannot tell.

A) more hets

209. What increases average fitness level on a per generation basis? A) natural selection B) pedigree inbreeding C) mutation D) Drift E) Gene flow

A) natural selection

Which of the following is necessary for adaptation: A) natural selection, B) allele frequency, C) genome architecture, D) population structure, E) none of the above.

A) natural selection

Biased Gene Conversion: A) only occurs in heterozygotes B) plays a large role in populations that actively avoid inbreeding C) plays a large role in self-populating populations D) A and B E) A and C

A) only occurs in heterozygotes

Horizontal gene transmission is between all except a. Parent and offspring b. vertebrate species c. Individuals d. P elements e. bacterial species

A) parent and offspring

Vertical transmission is between a. Parent and offspring b. vertebrate species c. Individuals d. P elements e. bacterial species

A) parent and offspring

Pedigree inbreeding has the largest effect on the frequency of homozygotes for: A) rare recessive alleles B) dominant alleles C) co-dominant alleles D) partially dominant alleles E) alleles in small populations

A) rare recessive alleles

176. A neutral allele is: A) replicated and passed on to the next generation as well as the ancestral allele B) An allele that isn't passed on to the next generation because it has no effect on the replication process what-so-ever. C) Does not have any relevance to any evolutionary processes. D) able to turn into any gene that the body needs during replication. E) none of these; neutral alleles are just a myth.

A) replicated and passed on to the next generation as well as the ancestral allele

The evolutionary force that interacts with gene flow as a selective filter that either blocks or retards the flow of some genes from one population to another, and accentuate the spread of others, is: A) selection, B) linkage disequilibrium plus epistasis, C) pedigree inbreeding in a population with isolation by distance, D) ultimate coalescence, E) recurrent mutation.

A) selection

Which of the following is not a Hardy-Weinberg condition? A) selection B) large population size C) sexual reproduction D) discrete generations E. no migration

A) selection

Natural selection interacts with migration to: A) selectively block or retard some alleles and enhance others, B) select for frequency dependence, C) diverge adaptive responses, D) reduce heterozygosity of subpopulations, E) increase rare alleles

A) selectively block or retard some alleles and enhance others

In construction of gene trees synapamorphies are used to join taxa that: A) share derived characters, B) are separated by small genetic distances C) are most polymorphic D) have the lowest CpG to TpG ratio E) have the highest rates of molecular evolution

A) share derived characters

According to "near" neutral theory, an allele is more likely to behave as neutral allele when the effective inbreeding population size is: A) small B) large C) between 10,000 and 100,000 D) small, but greater than 10 E) None of these.

A) small

193. Frequency dependent selection is an indicator of: a) target of selection above the individual level b) target of selection below the individual level c) unit of selection above the individual level d) unit of selection below the individual level e) none of these

A) target of selection above the individual level

What is hard selection? A) the number of offspring from a population depends upon the genetic composition of the population B) when two or more species mutually adapt to one another through interspecific interactions C) an individual remains in a single environment throughout its lifetime, but the environment varies between demes occupying different spatial locations or across generations D) when the individual experiences environmental heterogeneity within its own lifetime E) which some factor not related to the genotypes of interest is density limiting in the habitat

A) the number of offspring from a population depends upon the genetic composition of the population

Nevt measures: A) the strength of drift to influence species level genetic variation, B) the time to ultimate coalescence, C) the level of homoplaisy in a given population, D) the Walhund effect, E) the level of inbreeding in a population

A) the strength of drift to influence species level genetic variation

180. The unit of selection is also one of the targets of selection for: A) Transposons: B) DNA, C) RNA, D) proteins, E) None of the above.

A) transposons

212. Fitness is composed of what three components? A) viability, fertility, and mate choice B) fertility, mate choice, and life span C) viability, mate success, and fertility D) mate choice, viability and allele frequency E) none of the above All of the following are sources of linkage disequilibrium except: a) finite population size, b) natural selection, c) random mating ,d) mutation, e) gene flow

A) viability, fertility, and mate choice

414. An isolated population with allele frequency of .3 migrates into a population with allele frequency of .7 and a migration frequency of .1. What is the change in allele frequency? A. .04 b. .06 c. .02 d. .1 e. .03

A. .04

UPGMA should never be used because: A. It places the most derived organism as the ancestor, b. It is wholly unrelated to population genetics, c. It only works on microorganisms, d. It only considers certain alleles.

A. It places the most derived organism as the ancestor,

199. You are calculating F values for a particular population to see how it behaves. You calculate the FIS value to be -0.07 and an FST value of 0.0123. What can you conclude about your analysis? A. The population contains more heterozygotes then expected. B. The population is experiencing little migration. C. The population is experiencing a large amount of inbreeding. D. Both A and B are correct. E. All of the above.

A. The population contains more heterozygotes then expected.

321. If 30 out of a hundred individuals with the AA and Aa genotypes survive to reproductive age and 60 out of 100 individuals with the aa genotype survive to reproductive age what are the relative fitnesses of the three genotypes? A.WAA=0.5 WAa=0.5 Waa=1.0 B.WAA=0.5 WAa=0.5 Waa=0.5 C.WAA=1.0 WAa=0.5 Waa=0.5 D.WAA=0.5 WAa=1.0 Waa=0.5, E) none of these. (it could be .3, .3, and .6 as well, but it is common to divide by the most fit so that genotype is assigned a fitness of 1.0.

A.WAA=0.5 WAa=0.5 Waa=1.0

297. Given aA=.46 wbar=.67 and p=.83 , find delta p: a).21667 b).57 c).38765 d).4310 e).6521

B) .57

Given 2 loci, A and B with F(A) = 0.4, F(B) = 0.6, and D = 0.04, find D' = D/Dmax A) 0.11 B) 0.25 C) 0.17 D) -0.11 E) 4

B) 0.25

159. The average time that occurs between consecutive neutral substitutions equals A) 1/µ, B) 1/v, C) 1/2v, D) 2/v, E) v

B) 1/v

How many nieces and nephews would their uncle have to be able to help, given that his fitness would be reduced by half, in order for altruism to be favored? Assume that the nieces and nephews will have a fitness of 1 after receiving their uncles' help. A) 1, B) 2, C) 5, D) 10, E) None of the above, altruism is never favored.

B) 2

Which of the following changes allele frequency? A) Assortative mating, B) Dissassortative mating, C) Inbreeding, D) Random mating, E) Population subdivision.

B) Dissassortative mating,

Interactions between two or more genes that may influencing the unit of selection A) Pleiotropy, B) Epistasis, C) Adaptation, D) Codominance, E) All of the Above

B) Epistasis

183. The population can be considered "selfing" if: FIT=0.1 B) FIS=0.5 C) FST=0.5 D) FIS=1.0 E) FIS=0.0

B) FIS=.5

Which of the following is not true? A) Fst measures the Wahlund effect, B) Fis ranges from 0 to 1, C) Fis is a measure of the system the mating, D) Fst can range from 0 to 1, E) Fit is the combined effect of the Fis and Fst.

B) Fis ranges from 0 to 1,

Bean bag genetics was the idea that: A) Everyone had similar make up of genes, just different amounts. B) Genes are treated as if they are just a bunch of "beans" that act independently to create an individual fitness phenotype. C) Geneticist can pick and choose genes like you would pick beans in a bean bag. D) All genes can be treated the same, like the beans in a bean bag. E) You have a limited number of genes.

B) Genes are treated as if they are just a bunch of "beans" that act independently to create an individual fitness phenotype.

Which of the following is/are true about assortative mating. a. An example is selection on the MHC locus, b. Leads to more homozygotes (at some subset of loci) than random mating, c. Mate selection among redheads is an example of this, d. Leads to more heterozygotes, e. All of the above are true.

B) Leads to more homozygotes (at some subset of loci) than random mating

What do we call a polymorphism at a single nucleotide site in the genome of an organisms? A) RAPD, B) SNP, C) Microsatellite locus or SSR, D) Restriction Enzyme cut sites, E) EST.

B) SNP

Which of the following is the definition of a haplotype? A) Tract of repetitive DNA in which certain DNA motifs are repeated. B) Strand of DNA that has a unique sequence that isn't necessarily transcribed or translated as is expected for an allele. C) Location in genome where short nucleotide sequence is organized as tandem repeats. D) A cut in the DNA visible on a gel, E) another name for an allele.

B) Strand of DNA that has a unique sequence that isn't necessarily transcribed or translated as is expected for an allele.

291. The effective inbreeding size will be less than the census population size when: A) The sex ratio is 1:1. B) The sex ratio is anything other than 1:1. C) The sex ratio is negative D) Both B and C. E) The inbreeding size will never be less than the census population size.

B) The sex ratio is anything other than 1:1.

195. Which of the following is the least effective method to use when building a gene tree? a) Neighbor Joining b) UPGMA c) Maximum Likelihood d) Mr. Bayes e) They are all equally effective

B) UPGMA

In Chapter 1, evolution is defined as: A) change in migration/immigration rates, B) a change through time of the frequencies of various types of genes or gene combinations in the gene pool. C) Change in D (gametic phase disequilibrium), D) Change in f (system of mating), E) None of these.

B) a change through time of the frequencies of various types of genes or gene combinations in the gene pool

An allele "A" is selected against when: A) aA=0 B) aA<0 C) aA>0 D) aA=1 E) aA=∞

B) aA<0

Genome architecture strongly influences: a) Heterosis b) Adaptive Evolution c) Natural Selection d) Allopatric Speciation e) Sympatric Speciation

B) adaptive evolution

When the same allele is associated with traits that have opposite effects on fitness, it is called: A) the neutral theory, B) antagonistic pleiotropy, C) mutation, D) genetic drift, E) gene flow

B) antagonist pleiotropy

What evolutionary force both creates and maintains linkage disequilibrium? A) disassortative mating B) assortative mating C) inbreeding D) Migration E) System of mating

B) assortative mating

177. Sickle cell anemia continues to be present in some populations due to: A) carries of sickle cell reaching puberty faster and having more offspring than those without the allele. B) balancing selection between the sickle cell anemia and the malaria in the population where the heterozygotes are more fit than the homozygotes. C) the presence of a third allele, the C allele, that is completely immune to the effects of malaria. D) the sickle shape of the red blood cells in this condition allow for faster blood flow in higher altitude populations. E) It doesn't persist in any societies. Sickle cell anemia is deadly and would immediately be selected out of a population.

B) balancing selection between the sickle cell anemia and the malaria in the population where the heterozygotes are more fit than the homozygotes.

Which of the following does the inbreeding coefficient (f) NOT measure: a. Loss of heterozygosity as a result of the system of mating b. Change in allele frequency c. The correlation of uniting gametes d. A change in homozygosity as a result of the system of mating e. None of the above

B) change in allele frequency

314. We often see a relationship between parasites and other pathogens and allele frequency. This relationship is likely due to: A) assortative mating, B) directional selection, C) inbreeding, D) drift, e) dissassortative mating.

B) directional selection

318. You observe a 20% change of allele frequency in three loci over a period of only 5 years, which change corresponds with a change in the environment The most likely cause of this change is : A) assortative mating, B) directional selection, C) inbreeding, D) drift, e) mutation.

B) directional selection

Different allele frequencies in isolated populations of humans can be explained to a large extent as due to: A) assortative mating, B) balancing selection, C) inbreeding, D) drift, e) none of these, it has to be due to migration. 314. We often see a relationship between parasites and other pathogens and allele frequency. This relationship is likely due to: A) assortative mating, B) directional selection, C) inbreeding, D) drift, e) dissassortative mating.

B) directional selection

What system of mating maintains genetic variation/heterozygosity? A) Assortive Mating B) Disassortive Mating C) Inbreeding D) Random Mating E) None of these

B) disassortative Mating

Natural selection doesn't optimize any single trait except: Adaptation B) fitness C) antagonistic pleiotropy D) allele frequency E) All of the above

B) fitness

164. The very high frequency of Huntington's disease in Lake Maricaibo in Venzuela is linked to: A) bottleneck effect, B) founder effect, C) gene flow, D) migration E) altruism

B) founder effect

Which of the following is true about the effects of gene flow? A) disassortative mating decreases gene flow, B) gene flow decreases genetic variability between local populations, C) gene flow decreases genetic variability within a local population, D) as m increases, gene flow becomes less powerful , E) all of these

B) gene flow decreases genetic variability between local populations

Shifting balance refers to genetic drift across a fitness valley selection to allow selection to reach a: A) lower peak, B) higher fitness peak, C) new fitness valley, D) A&B can be correct depending on the situation, E) none of the above

B) higher fitness peak,

A trait that is shared by species but not present in common ancestors and creates problems for estimating parsimony is: a) Autapomorphy, b) Homoplaisy, c) Synapomorphy, d) Apomorphy, e) Pleisomorphy

B) homoplaisy

185. Natural Selection acts to [A,B,C,D,E] fitness. A) decrease B) increase C) eliminate D) have no effect on E) none of these

B) increase

173. System of mating: a) operates independent of natural selection b) influences the average excess c) shows that inbreeding populations accumulate more deleterious recessive alleles than a randomly mating population d) has no influence on the level of deleterious recessive alleles e) does not influence adaptive outcomes

B) influences the average excess

Fst is A) more effected by drift than migration B) is a distance measure C) is zero in a randomly mating population D) can be positive or negative values D) the combined result of the Wahlund effect and system of mating E) both A and B are correct

B) is a distance measure

172. The molecular clock: a) is subject to no statistical corrections b) is seen when the alleles are neutral c) is not necessarily seen when the genes are functionally equivalent d) is measured by generation time e) assumes the neutral mutation rate is not constant over time

B) is seen when the alleles are neutral

All of the following are true about Fst except: A) it is used as a distance measure for gene trees B) it is used to estimate inbreeding in a population C) it is used to estimate migration D) outlier Fst values are signature of selection E) all of these are true

B) it is used to estimate inbreeding in a population

Assortitive mating creates and maintains a. Migration b. Linkage Disequilibrium c. Heterozygosity d. Hardy Weinberg e. fitness

B) linkage disequilibrium

333. All of these are examples of a target of selection above the level of the individual except: A) Competition between individuals of the same sex. B) Meiotic Drive C) Family Selection. D) Competition between individuals of the opposite sex. E) Decreased fertility.

B) meiotic Drive

Selection alters the balance between: A) gene flow and population size B) mutations and drift C) neutral mutations and drift D) coalescence and system of mating E) gene frequency and allele frequency

B) mutations and drift

All of the following are true except: A) a recessive allele can become dominant, B) natural selection will always take a population to the highest adaptive peak possible, C) an allele can have different expressions as a homozygote v. a heterozygote, D) natural selection acts to increase the average fitness of a population on a per-generational basis, E) All of the above are true

B) natural selection will always take a population to the highest adaptive peak possible

When is selection predominant? A) If 0.1 < 4Nes < 10 B) If 4Nes < 0.1 C) If 4Nes > 10 E) it does not depend on Nes E) If 4Nes > 15

C) If 4Nes > 10

166. On what basis does Dr. Templeton argue against the separation of 'nature' and 'nurture' as it applies to phenotype? A) nature is the only determinant of phenotype B) nature and nurture are inseparably linked to phenotype C) nurture is too broad a term to be useful when discussing phenotype D) the terms are interchangeable E) it is impossible to know how either affects phenotype, so it is pointless to separate them

B) nature and nurture are inseparably linked to phenotype

302. The molecular clock is part of which theory? A) Hardy-Weinberg B) Neutral Mutation C) Darwinism D) Shifting Balance, E) none of the above

B) neutral mutation

Vertical transmission occurs between: A) two mates, B) parent and offspring, C) siblings, D) all the above, E) none of the above

B) parent and offspring

Antagonistic pleiotropy: A) is derived from no selection whatsoever, B) reflects both beneficial and maladaptive effects in an individual, C) interacts with gene flow as a selective filter, D) keeps natural selection from producing many nonoptimal individual traits, E) only increases fitness.

B) reflects both beneficial and maladaptive effects in an individual

168. The term 'fitness' when used in genetics usually refers specifically to: A) physical fitness B) relative reproductive fitness C) behavioral fitness D) mental fitness E) none of the above

B) relative reproductive fitness

(A,B,C,D,E) populations are affected more by (A,B,C,D,E): A. small, random mating B. small, genetic drift C. large, migration D. large, inbreeding

B) small, genetic drift

Which of the follow can act to increase the size of the unit of selection? A) high recombination rate B) strong selection with or without epistasis C) an increase in chromosome number D) multiple pleiotropic expressions of a given allele, E) drift

B) strong selection with or without epistasis

171. Under genetic drift: a) there is a tendency to go back to ancestral frequencies b) the likelihood of deviation from initial frequencies increases with each generation c) operations as a genetic force only in the absence of genetic variability d) increases genetic variation in a finite population e) ensures that subpopulations evolve in the same direction

B) the likelihodd of deviation from initial frequencies increase with each generation

Natural selection can only operate when: A) All the population have the same level of heterozygosity, B) There is genetic variation associated with phenotypic variation for fitness in the population, C) Fst >0.0, D) There is very large population sizes, E) There is a Wahlund effect

B) there is genetic variation associated with phenotypic variation for fitness in the population

Which of the following is an example of vertical transmission? A) transmission of genetic material from a virus to a host B) transmission of genetic material from a parent to an offspring C) transmission of genetic material between siblings D) transmission of genetic material from one bacterium to another E) A and D

B) transmission of genetic material from a parent to an offspring

Coral and Oysters may have very low levels of genetic variation due to: A) large population size, B) very high variation in offspring number per female, C) rare founder events and bottleneck effects, D) disassortative mating, E) all of these.

B) very high variation in offspring number per female

174. In identifying the unit of selection: a) the individual works well b) you must look for a unit with contiguity across all generations c) the number of loci in the unit can be the sum of all loci in the genome d) is always the same as the target of selection e) all of the above

B) you must look for a unit with contiguity across all generations

Which of the following is/are true ? A). Genetic drift increases variation within a local population B). Gene flow decreases variation between local populations C). Genetic drift decreases variation between local populations D). A and B E). B and C

B). Gene flow decreases variation between local populations

Which of the following terms refers to "The level of biological organization that displays the phenotype"? A). Unit of selection B). Target of selection C). Meiotic drive D). Mitotic drive E). None of the above

B). Target of selection

Find the amount of gene flow for X-Linked DNA when Fst is equal to .15: A. 2.0 B. 1.889 C. 1.667 D. 1.15 E. None of the above.

B. 1.889

216. The unit of selection is A) Natural selection B)Drift C) Level of genetic organization that allows the prediction of the genetic response to selection D) Level of biological organization that displays the phenotype under selection E) C&D

C) Level of genetic organization that allows the prediction of the genetic response to selection

158. What is the level of genetic organization that recurs over time and space? A. Metapopulation B. Unit of selection C. Target of selection D. Natural selection E. Continuity

B. Unit of Selection

Neutral allele intraspecific heterozygosity is equal to ϴ/ (ϴ+1),where ϴ =: A. ϴ=4Ne, B. ϴ=4Neμ, C. ϴ=1/2N, D. ϴ=1/4Nμ, E) can't tell.

B. ϴ=4Neμ

Natural selection acts to increase average (A,B,C,D,E) of a population in a per generation basis: A. inbreeding B. allele frequency C. fitness D. birth rate E. none of the above

C fitness

The theory where an allele is more likely to act like a neutral allele in a population with small effective inbreeding size: A) component analysis theory B) Wahlund effect C) "near" neutral theory D) coalescence theory E) nature and nurture interaction theory

C) "near" neutral theory

190. If the variance of mtDNA allele frequency among four populations in four corners of an island was 0.04 and the overall mtDNA allele frequency was 0.3. The Fst: A) 0.04 B) 0.5 C) 0.190 D) 0.321 E) 0.763

C) .190

Give gametes at frequencies (AB = 40, Ab = 20, aB = 10, ab =30, total =100) find the expected number of Ab gametes when D = 0. a. 40 b. 25 c. 30 d. 16 e. 42

C) .3

A rare autosomal recessive allele, which causes a disease, occurs in a population at a frequency of q=0.002, find the probability of the homozygous recessive disease in an offspring produced by a cousin mating. A) 0.002 B) 0.000258 C) 0.000129 D) 0.00134 E) 0.001

C) 0.000129

An autosomal recessive allele occurs in a population at a frequency of q=. 01. Find the probability of the homozygous recessive form in a child produced by cousin mating. A) 0.007 B) 0.00032781 C) 0.00071875 D) 0.00053894 E) 0.0098367

C) 0.00071875

If f(A)=.6 and observed heterozygosity is .4, what is FIT? A) -0.16667 B) 0 C) 0.16667 D) 0.2 E) 0.25

C) 0.16667

258. Fst=0.102 and Fit=0.418, find Fis. A) 0.648, B) 0.543, C) 0.352, D) 0.724, E) 0 .5468

C) 0.352

Given F(A) = .2 in P1 , F(A) = .8 in P2 , and a migration rate of 0.1 between the two populations, find the frequency of the A allele in P2 for the next generation. A) 0.8 B) 0.2 C) 0.74 D) 0.26 E) None of the above

C) 0.74

Consider the following situation: There is a herd of 1 steer and 10 cows, what is the inbreeding effective size? A) 4.3 B) 2.32 C) 3.63 D) 3.5 E) 4.01

C) 3.63

Find the inbreeding effective size for a population with 3 males and 9 females: A. 3.4 B. 5.7 C. 9 D. 12 E. none of the above

C) 9

What is the effective population size for a breeding population of 60 adult males and 40 adult females? A) 45, B) 48, C) 96, D) 100 E) None of the above

C) 96

In a mating event between two deaf individuals, a shift to more homozygosity is observed in the resulting offspring genotype. This shift is due to: A) Disassortative mating, B) Pedigree inbreeding, C) Assortative mating, D) mutation, E) All of the above.

C) Assortative mating

What is a mutation that is found in only one species? A) Transversion B) Synapomorphy C) Autapomorphy D) Homoplaisy E) None of these

C) Autapomorphy

If the value of D is negative, which of the following is true? A) Dmax is the greater of f(A) x f(B) or F(a) x F(b) B) Dmax is the greater of F(A) x F(b) or F(a) x F(B) C) Dmax is the lesser of F(A) x F(B) or F(a) x F(b) D) Dmax is the lesser of F(A) x F(b) or F(a) x F(B) E) Dmax is 0

C) Dmax is the lesser of F(A) x F(B) or F(a) x F(b)

What value is representative of the system of mating within a population? A) FIT B) FST C) FIS D) F E) None of these

C) FIS

161. Which one of these is NOT a conclusion from the fundamental equations of Natural Selection A) Natural selection can only operate when there is genetic variation associated with phenotypic variation for fitness in the population, B) Natural selection generally does not optimize any individual trait other than fitness itself, even if the trait contributes to fitness in a positive fashion, C) Frequency dependent selection always acts to increase the average fitness of a population on a per generational basis, D) Selective equilibrium can only occur when all the average excesses and all the average effects are zero, that is, when all gametes have the same average fitness impact, E) The adaptive outcome represents an interaction of fitness variation with population structure.

C) Frequency dependent selection always acts to increase the average fitness of a population on a per generational basis

Neutral theory states: a. Selection is relatively unimportant b. All molecules evolve at the same rate c. Molecular evolution occurs equal to the neutral mutation rate d. The time to fixation is 1/(4Nev + 1) e. All of the above

C) Molecular evolution occurs equal to the neutral mutation rate

Which of the following examples from the book illustrates that selection is not simply survival of the fittest? A) Fragile X Syndrome B) Tay-Sachs Disease C) Sickle Cell Anemia D) Myotonic Dystrophy

C) Sickle Cell Anemia

Inclusive fitness is best described as: A) A measurement of fitness that includes both genetics and the interaction of genetics with the environment. B) Fitness related to actions that help preserve all the genes within the individual and that help the individual reproduce. C) The fitness that came about from helping all the copies of your genes, including those within individuals related to you, not just from helping your own survival. D) A term that describes fitness arising from including many individuals in a social group. E) None of the above.

C) The fitness that came about from helping all the copies of your genes, including those within individuals related to you, not just from helping your own survival.

320. Which of the following is true concerning Neutral Theory? A) it only affects unimportant genes B) it diminishes the role of natural selection C) The probability of a new mutation being fixed is the frequency of that new mutation D) Neutral mutations are neutral for all time E) neutral mutations have a selection coefficient defined by s = 0

C) The probability of a new mutation being fixed is the frequency of that new mutation

The relative coalescence times of Y-DNA, mtDNA, X-linked DNA, and autosomal DNA is A) mtDNA < X-linked DNA < Y-DNA < autosomal DNA, B) autosomal DNA < X-linked DNA < Y-DNA < mtDNA, C) Y-DNA < mtDNA < X-linked DNA < autosomal DNA, D) Y-DNA < X-linked DNA < mtDNA < autosomal DNA, E) X-linked DNA < Y-DNA < mtDNA < autosomal DNA

C) Y-DNA < mtDNA < X-linked DNA < autosomal DNA,

191. The increase in reproductive fitness caused by natural selection is called: A) inbreeding B) relative fitness C) adaption D) genetic drift E) dissasortative mating

C) adaption

286. Which of the following is NOT true of assortative mating? A) results in greater than expected homozygotes, B) maintains linkage disequilibrium, C) alters genotype frequencies at all loci, D) creates linkage disequilibrium, E) is a powerful microevolutionary force

C) alters genotype frequencies at all loci

150. What mimics the effects of pedigree inbreeding with respect to increasing the phenotypic frequencies of (not all as with inbreeding, but in this case some set of) recessive traits? A) Disassorative mating, B) autosomal alleles, C) assortative mating, D) admixture, E) None of the above

C) assortative mating

What has the ability to create and maintain linkage disequilibrium? A. inbreeding, B. Dissasortative mating, C. Assortative mating, D. purifying selection, E. all of the above (Selection with epistasis also)

C) assortative mating

Which of the following is not true about assortative mating? A) Assortative mating is a powerful force for evolutionary change at the multilocus system, B) Assortative mating actively generates linkage disequilibrium, C) Assortative mating decreases homozygosity, D) Assortative mating is locus specific, E) All of the above.

C) assortative mating decreases homozygosity

On a gene tree of all mammals, the ability for humans to communicate through language is generally viewed as a(n): A) Synapomorphic trait B) Homoplasy C) Autapomorphic trait D) Neutral trait E) none of the above

C) autapomorphic

What must we know to predict evolution through natural selection? A) reproductive fitness alone B) balanced polymorphism frequencies C) Average excess of fitness D) Transient polymorphism E) Neutral theory.

C) average excess of fitness

151. Natural selection favors an intermediate allele frequency due to a stable balance of positive and negative fitness contributions to the average excesses of polymorphic alleles: A) transient polymorphism, B) unbalanced polymorphism, C) balanced polymorphism, D) selection coefficient, E) none of these

C) balanced polymorphism

Natural selection interacts with migration as a selective filter that: A) blocks all alleles B) enhances all alleles C) Blocks some alleles and enhances others D) blocks only heterozygotic alleles E) none of the above

C) blocks some alleles and enhances others

Assortative Mating: A) decreases homozygocity at the expense of heterozygotes, B) does not cause gametes to have alleles at different loci that cause similar phenotypes, C) can create and maintain disequilibrium, D) cannot discriminate, E) results in stable equilibrium populations with intermediate allele frequencies

C) can create and maintain disequilibrium

FST can be used to A) Identify haplotypes. B) Estimate neutral mutation rates C) construct model based trees D) estimate death rate. E) Estimate fitness

C) construct model based trees

The Unit of Selection: A) is not subject to natural selection B) can be "built-up" by recombination C) depends upon epistasis and the strength of selection D) does not depend on recombination rates E) all of the above

C) depends upon epistasis and the strength of selection

Which of these can produce one-locus evolutionary change? A) Genetic drift, B) Inbreeding, C) Disassortative mating, D) Assortative mating, E) A&C only

C) disassortative mating

In a finite population, loss of variation due to genetic drift is a function of: A) bottleneck effect, B) assortative mating, C) effective variance population size, D) census population size, E) none of the above

C) effective variance population size

What is concerted evolution? A) evolution that traces the fitness of certain haplotypes B) the idea of meiotic drive occurring in only heterozygotes of one sex C) families of genes evolving together D) two populations that evolve at different rates E) two populations that have similar habitats and breeding patterns

C) families of genes evolving together

Which of the three reproductive fitness components emerges inherently from the interaction of a mating pair of individuals? A) Viability, B) Mating success, C) Fertility, D) Natural Selection, E) None of the above

C) fertility

305. Which of the following is false regarding Fisher's view of natural selection? A) fitness effects have to be transmissible through a gamete, B) fitness variation with population structure represents adaptive outcome , C) it will optimizes any individual trait other than fitness itself D) it takes populations to a local adaptive solution, E) none of the above.

C) it will optimizes any individual trait other than fitness itself

The phenomenon that violates the laws of segregation by favoring the transmission of one locus over the other in a given gene is described as: a) Transposons, b) Natural Selection,c) Meiotic Drive, d) Lethal maternal effects, e) Independent Assortment

C) meiotic Drive

Population structure in which species is subdivided into many local demes that are subject to local extinction and recolonization is called (a) dominance (b) codominance (c) metapopulation (d) local population (e) continuous population

C) metapopulation

The effects of drift are exactly opposed by the effects of: A) inbreeding, B) increasing population size, C) migration (gene flow), D) none of the above, E) all of the above

C) migration (gene flow)

316. What two forces introduce genetic variation into a population. A) assortative and dissasortative mating, B) directional and balancing selection, C) mutation and migration, D) small Nef and Nev, e) meiotic drive and copy choice.

C) mutation and migration

To determine the course of evolution, natural selection: A) is not necessary, but sufficient, B) is necessary, and is sufficient, C) is necessary but not sufficient, D) is necessary and sometimes sufficient E) neither necessary nor sufficient.

C) necessary but not sufficient

A synonymous mutation is expected to be: A) fixed within the population B) lost from the population C) neutral D) deleterious E) beneficial

C) neutral

The probability that any given allele will be identical by descent is called: A) selection B) disassortative mating C) pedigree inbreeding D) linkage disequilibrium E) none of these

C) pedigree inbreeding

All of these factors attribute to linkage disequilibrium except: A) Mutation, B) Gene Flow, C) Random Mating, D) Finite Population size, E) Natural Selection

C) random mating

If 4Nes>10 then: A) random genetic drift is predominant B) synonymous mutations are predominant C) selection is predominant D) all of the above are predominant E) none of the above are predominant.

C) selection is predominant

Natural selection interacts with gene flow as a selective filter that blocks or retards the flow of: A) all genes and accelerates others, B) some genes and decelerates others, C) some genes and accelerates others, D) all genes and decelerates others, E) need more information.

C) some genes and accelerates others

289. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the implications of Fisher's fundamental theorem of natural selection. A) natural selection can only operate when there is genetic variation associated with phenotypic variation for fitness in the population, B) natural selection acts to increase the average fitness of a population an a per generation basis, C) the course of adaptive evolution is not strongly influenced by genetic architecture, D) the adaptive outcome represents an interaction of fitness variation with population structure

C) the course of adaptive evolution is not strongly influenced by genetic architecture

281. The inbreeding coefficient (F) is defined as: A) the copying off of a homologous strand B) meiotic drive occurring in one sex and not the other C) the expected homozygosity by descent D) when "like" mates with "like", E) none of these.

C) the expected homozygosity by descent

Variance in frequency of a haplotypes among populations separated by time or space can be used to estimate: A) neutral mutation rate B) time to coalescence C) the standardized Wahlund effect, Fst D) system of mating E) effective migration rates

C) the standardized Wahlund effect, Fst

181. Fragile X Syndrome is caused by: A) missense mutation, B) deletion, C) trinucleotide repeat, D) transversion E) None of the above.

C) trinucleotide repeat

348. Which of the following is/are Not true? A). We inherit alleles and not genotype. B). Phenotype of an organism results from interaction between nurture (genotype) and nature (environment). C). Phenotype of an organism always results only from nurture (genotype). D). A and B E). A and C

C). Phenotype of an organism always results only from nurture (genotype).

Given F(AB) = .6, F(Ab) =.1, F(aB) = .2, F(ab) = .1; Find D: A) 0.06 B)0.2 C)0.04 D)0.0 E)0.4

C)0.04

325. What is concerted evolution? A. evolution that traces the fitness of certain haplotypes, B. the idea of meiotic drive occurring in only heterozygotes of one sex, C. families of genes evolving together, D. two populations that evolve in different rates, E. two populations that have similar habitats and breeding patterns

C. families of genes evolving together,

What is the overall effect of selection? A. Survival of the fittest. B. To maintain the strongest allele at a locus. C. To remove detrimental alleles from a population. D. To maximize fitness in a population. E. All of the above. (local optima)

D) To maximize fitness in a population

186. Inbreeding depression can be defined as: a. Reduction in fecundity, b. Reduced fitness, c. The result of a drastic reduction in population size, d. a deleterious effect of inbreeding, e. All of the above

D) a deleterious effect of inbreeding

341. Natural selection is constrained by which of the following? A) the available variation in a population B) the environment C) the initial state of the population D) A, B, & C E) none of these factors constrain natural selection

D) a, b & c

Natural selection: A) acts to increase the average fitness of a population on a pergenerational basis, B) can only operate when genetic variation and phenotypic variation are associated with each other for fitness in the population, C) does not optimize any individual trait other than fitness itself, D) all of the above, E) none of the above

D) all of the above

What factor(s) determine the unit of selection? A) meiotic factors exchanged and assortments, B) epistasis for fitness, C) Intensity of magnitude of selection, D) all of the above, E) none of the above

D) all of the above

170. Adaptive traits are the attributes that aid organisms in: A) living B) mating C) reproducing D) all of the above, in the context of the environment of that individual E) none of the above, it is described in terms of morphology of the species.

D) all of the above, in the context of the environment of that individual

______evolves in a population when the benefit of protecting others related to you while endangering yourself outweighs the cost to your own fitness. a) Hybridogenesis, b) Frequency Dependent Selection, c) Balancing selection, d) Altruism, e) relatedness.

D) altruism

198. You perform a Chi-Square test on a population to see if it is out of Hardy-Weinburg Equilbrium. Your level of signifigance is 0.05 and you calculate a p-value to be .0645. What do you conclude? A. The population is in Hardy Weinburg equilibrium. B. You fail to reject the Null Hypothesis. C. You reject the null hypothesis. D. Both A and B. E. Not enough information has been given

D) both A & B

What is true of the T locus in mice? A. Involved with strong miotic drive B. recessive lethal in males C. Y linked gene D. Both A and B E. All of the above

D) both A & B

Fst is: A) a balance between drift and migration, B) is a genetic distance measure, C) can have both positive and negative values, D) the combined result of the Wahlund effect and system of mating, E) both A and B are correct.

D) both A & B are correct

167. Which of these is true regarding altruism as it relates to genetic fitness? A) a trait may be deleterious for a single individual but may increase the overall fitness of a population B) altruism directly contradicts evolutionary theory C) altruism relies on less fit 'altruists' increasing the fitness of other genetically similar, 'non-altruist' individuals D) Both A & C E) none of the above

D) both A & C

189. In order to save Speke's gazelle, Nef and Nev needed to: A) Nef increase and Nev decrease, B) Nef decrease and Nev increase C) both decrease D) both increase E) no changes to Nef and Nev needed to be done

D) both increase

Fisher's fundamental theorem of Natural Selection does not hold when the target of selection is: A) the individual, B) a transposon, C) a trinucleotide repeat, D) competing individuals, E) All of these.

D) competing individuals

The tendency of different genes in a gene family to evolve together describes which of the following? A) co-adapted gene complex B) frequency-dependent selection C) average excess D) concerted evolution E) fitness

D) concerted evolution

284. Which describes how natural selection operates upon the phenotype of fitness when fitness is regarded as a heritable but genetically unmeasured trait? A) Disequilibrium B) Fundamental theorem of natural selection C) Hardy-Weinberg D) Gene flow E) Quantitative trait loci

D) fundamental theorem of natural selection

Natural selection favors: A) Survival of the fittest B) Migration C) Dissassortative mating D) Gametes with positive average excesses of fitness E) None of the above

D) gametes with positive average excesses of fitness

113. A storm causes a handful of sparrows to become stranded on an island. In the following generations we should see, A) an decrease in Fis, B) an increase is Nef, C) an decrease in Fst, D) genetic drift become a strong force in the population, E) variation will be maintained

D) genetic drift become a strong force in the population

. _____ is the number needed to make the rate of accumulation of identity by descent due to drift equal to that of that of the rate found in and idealized population of the size ____. A) Variance effective size, Nev, B) eigenvalue effective size, F, C) Inbreeding Coefficient, F`, D) Inbreeding Effective Size, Nef, E) Bottleneck effect, B

D) inbreeding Effective Size, Nef

Which of the following is not true concerning assortative mating? A) defined as mating on the basis of phenotype B) Increases homozygosity at the loci of the associated traits C) Creates and maintains gametic phase (linkage) disequilibrium D) Is a phenomenon evident in the history of the alleles involved in HLA E) All of the above are true

D) is a phenomenon evident in the history of the alleles involved in HLA

309. The best marker for a QTL is one that: A) is closest to that QTL, B) is not too close to the QTL, C) is independent of that QTL, such that the expected frequencies are equal to the two locus HW expectations, D) is most associated with that QTL, as indicated by D' = 1.0 or 1.0, E) is another QTL

D) is most associated with that QTL, as indicated by D' = 1.0 or 1.0,

Which of the following about natural selection is true? A) It is sufficient to determine the course of adaptation, B) It does not change allele frequency, C) It optimizes all possible traits,D) It increases the average fitness, E) It is not necessary for adaptation

D) it increases the average fitness

Which of the following is true of natural selection? A) natural selection optimizes a specific trait B) natural selection can only works when selecting for a trait C) natural selection only works when selecting against a trait D) natural selection optimizes fitness E) natural selection has no effect on fitness. Note: (local or global optima)

D) natural selection optimizes fitness

_________ interacts with ________ as a selective filter that blocks or retards the flow of some genes from one population to another but accentuates the speed of others. A) founder effect; natural selection B) genetic drift; gene flow C) genetic drift; natural selection D) natural selection; gene flow E) fitness; genetic drift

D) natural selection; gene flow

Dr. Templeton would argue that the acidity of urine in children with PKU is due to A) nature, B) nurture, C) God, D) nature and nurture, E) sex of the child.

D) nature and nurture

Fisher's Fundamental Theorem of Natural Selection states: A) fitness is a product of evolution and natural selection B) at the bare minimum, a fit population must survive C) a new mutation will be lost rather quickly, no matter the population size D) selection acts to increase fitness E) natural selection can be measured by the Wahlund effect

D) selection acts to increase fitness

196. In Chapter 11, Dr. Templeton discusses a condition caused by an allele that is considered to be a balanced polymorphism. What was the condition? a) PKU b) Deafness c) Hemophilia d) Sickle cell anemia e) None of the above

D) sickle cell anemia

210. Viability is: A) capable of having offspring in the environment , B) the ability of a living individual to find a mate in the environment, C) the inability of the individual to survive in the environment, D) the ability of the individual to survive in the environment, E) None of the above

D) the ability of the individual to survive in the environment,

Which of the following is not an implication of the fundamental equations of natural selection? A) Natural selection can only operate when there is genetic variation associated with phenotypic variations for fitness in the population, B) Natural selection acts to increase the average fitness of a population on a per-generational basis, C) Natural selection generally does not optimize, even in a local sense, any individual trait other than fitness itself, even if the trait contributes to fitness in a positive fashion, D) The course of adaptive evolution is independent of genetic architecture, E) None of the above.

D) the course of adaptive evolution is independent of genetic architecture

What does effective population size measure? A) allele frequencies in a population, B) the strength of drift in influencing some pop. gen. feature of interest, C) inbreeding within a pedigree, D) the strength of the bottleneck effect, E) all of the above,

D) the strength of drift in influencing some pop gen feature of interest

Coalescent event occurs when two lineages of DNA molecules merge back into a single DNA molecule at some time in the past, so it is: A) equal to disassortative mating, B) twice the time of DNA replication, C) equal to assortative mating in humans, D) the time inverse of a DNA replication event, E) equal to assortative mating in mice.

D) the time inverse of a DNA replication event

217. The only fitness effects that influences the response to natural selection are A) Drift B) Migration C) Inbreeding D) those transmissible through a gamete E) those when genetic variation is associated with phenotypic variation

D) those transmissible through a gamete

Fst can be used for all of the following EXCEPT: A) to estimate the number of individuals exchanged between populations B) to construct model based trees C) to show isolation by distance D) to estimate gene flow in newly admixed populations, E) all of these are uses of Fst

D) to estimate gene flow in newly admixed populations,

155. Examples of targets and units of selection below the level of the individual, and often found dispersed throughout the genome, are? a. Multigene families b. Genetic homologies c. Protected polymorphisms d. Transposons e. Supergenes

D) transposons

What is the level of genetic organization that allows the prediction of the genetic response to selection? A) target of selection B) non-synonymous mutations C) inbreeding D) unit of selection E) genetic homology

D) unit of selection

292. Given 2 loci, A and B with f(A)=.7, f(B)=.8 and D=.06, find D'. A) 0 B) .250 C).758 D).429 E).001

D).429

175. The generations are decreasing in number as follows: 4000, 400, 40, 4. What is the effective population size? A) 10.81 B) 108.1 C) 1.081 D) 4 E) 14.4.

E) 14.4

275. What is the rate of substitution of one SNP for another equal to? A. The rate of migration. B. The rate of natural selection. C. The neutral mutation rate multiplied by the frequency of the SNP in the population. D. The neutral mutation rate. E. There is no way to determine this rate.

D. The neutral mutation rate.

350. A human genetic disease is said to expressed only in the homozygous recessive condition; with q = 0.1 Given a cousin mating, what is the expected frequency of the carriers of this genetic disease ? A) 0.103 B) 0.128 C) 0.111 D) 0.254 E) 0.169

E) 0.169

Given that population 1 consists of 600 homozygous A, 800 homozygous a, and 600 heterozygotes, and population 2 consists of 600 homozygous A, 600 homozygous a, and 800 heterozygotes, find Fis. a) 1 b) 0.421429 c) 0.4975 d) 0.856423 e) 0.296482

E) 0.296482

Fst measures the ratio of drift to gene flow to drift and how this ratio influences population structure in a process-oriented sense. In terms of patterns, A) a high value of Fst indicates that there little genetic variation in a local population relative to the total population B) a high value indicates that there much genetic variation in a local population relative to the total population C) a small value indicates little local variation relative to the total D) a small value indicates much local variation relative to the total E) A and D are both correct

E) A and D are both correct

Assortative mating: A) increases frequency of homozygosity of a few loci with similar phenotypic effects. B) Creates and maintains gametic phase (linkage) disequilibrium C) Gametes have alleles at different loci that cause similar phenotypic effects. D) A&B only E) A, B &C.

E) A, B &C.

The following factors that determine the unit of selection: A)meiotic factors exchange assortment B)epistasis for fitness C) intensity of magnitude selection D) A and C E)A, B, C

E) A, B, C

The factor(s) that determine(s) the unit of selection is (are): A) meiotic factors, such as exchange and assortment, B) epistasis for fitness, C) intensity of selection, D) only A & C, E) A, B, and C

E) A, B, and C

What may transposons do? A) infect individual without depending on gametic transmission (horizontal transmission) B) pass down from vertical transmission C) replicate via RNA intermediate D) move within genome (as DNA pieces) E) All of the above

E) All of the above

Which of the following are magnified by selection? A) Mutation B) Drift) C) Migration D) Inbreeding E) All of the above

E) All of the above

Which of these statements about natural selection is true? A) It tends to function on a per-generation basis, B) It optimizes local adaptive peaks C) It does not necessarily optimize any one trait, D) It cannot act unless genetically-based, phenotypic variation is present, E) All of the above

E) All of the above

Which of the following is NOT an implication of Fisher's Fundamental Theorem of Natural Selection? A) The only fitness effects that influence the response to natural selection are those transmissible through a gamete B) The adaptive outcome represents an interaction of fitness variation with population structure C) Natural selection acts to increase the average fitness of a population on a per-generational basis D) The course of adaptive evolution is strongly influenced by genetic architecture E) All of the above are implied by Fisher's Fundamental Theorum of Natural Selection, although we find they don't all hold when the target of selection is above that of the individual.

E) All of the above are implied by Fisher's Fundamental Theorum of Natural Selection, although we find they don't all hold when the target of selection is above that of the individual.

Bottleneck events do not: A) increase homozygosity to more than the expected Hardy-Weinberg proportions, B) increase heterozygosity to more than the expected Hardy-Weinberg proportions, C) cause the loss of a rare allele, D) cause fixation of an allele at 100%, E) All of the above may be a consequence of a bottleneck event

E) All of the above may be a consequence of a bottleneck event

279. Regarding Altruism what of the following is FALSE: A) When the cost equals one, that means death B) r = relatedness C) B is the benefit to your genotype D) r = 2 X F, where F is the (theoretical) inbreeding in a child of the two being compared for relatedness E) B is the benefit to others

E) B is the benefit to others

Selection for Altruism would be positive if one sacrificed their life for: A) 2 brothers, B) 8 brothers, C) 2 cousins, D) 8 cousins, E) B or D.

E) B or D

In the process of selection, what genetic factors "build up" the unit of selection? A) Epistasis B) Recombination C) Strong selection D) Assortment E) Both A and C

E) Both A and C

A large overall excess of homozygotes (FIT >> 0.0) may be due to: A) Wahlund effect B) System of Mating C) Isolation by distance D) Population structure E) It could be any of these.

E) It could be any of these.

Which of the following is true about natural selection? A) Natural selection always maximizes fitness, B) Natural selection is necessary for adaptation, but not sufficient for predicting the course of adaptation, C) With constant selection pressure, the outcome would be the same regardless of the alleles present and the allele frequencies, D) Natural selection will always cause unfavorable traits to disappear, E) None of the above are true.

E) None of the above are true

328. The single largest source of mental retardation, Fragile X (a misnomer) is maintained by A) selection below the level of the individual, B) Selection at the level of the individual, C) Selection above the level of the individual, D) frequency dependent selection, E) Selections acts at both A & B (and possible C&E as well, if one considers mate selection).

E) Selections acts at both A & B (and possible C&E as well, if one considers mate selection).

In what instance would you use UPGMA? A) To illustrate the number of different species in collected data. B) To find why heterozygosity was reduced in a population. C) To take in data and produce a gene tree D) To show how variation arose in a population E) UPGMA is not a reliable tree building method and should not be used

E) UPGMA is not a reliable tree building method and should not be used

Which of the following is not a component of fitness? A) Viability B) Mating Success C) Fertility D) Fecundity E) Acquired characteristics

E) acquired characteristics

Which if the following is NOT true of Natural Selection: A) Natural Selection can only operate when there is genetic variation B) The only fitness effects that influence the response to Natural Selection are those transmissible through the gamete C) The adaptive outcome represents an interaction of fitness variation with population structure D) Natural Selection acts to increase the average fitness of a population on a per generational basis E) All are true.

E) all are true

114. Transposons can: A) move within a genome as pieces of DNA, B) replicate through an RNA intermediate, C) be passed down from parents (vertical transmission), D) can "infect" a new individual independent of gametic transmission (horizontal transmission), E) all of the above are possible

E) all of the above

301. Fitness is defined as: A) the relative contribution of the genotype to the next generation B) the ability of an individual to survive and reproduce C) viability and mating success D) fertility and fecundity E) all of the above are fitness or components of fitness.

E) all of the above

327. Which of the following is correct about the Neighbor Joining tree building methods. a. It construct trees based on pairwise genetic distances, b. It construct trees with minimum genetic distances, c. It is a model based approach, d. It uses synapomorphies and autapomorphies e. All of the above

E) all of the above

357. Which of the following traits can be measured? A) Viability B) Mating Success C) Fecundity D) Fertility E) All of the above

E) all of the above

A factor that can create linkage disequilibrium is: A) mutation, B) nonrandom mating, C) finite population size, D) natural selection, E) all of the above

E) all of the above

A factor that determines the unit of selection is a) Meiotic factors b) Epistasis for fitness c) Intensity of the magnitude of selection d) None of the above e) All of the above

E) all of the above

Examples of frequency dependent selections are: A) Fertility, B) Competition, C) Kin Selection, D) sexual selection, E) All the Above

E) all of the above

Many factors can create linkage disequilibrium including: A) Mutation B) nonrandom mating C) Finite population size D) Gene flow and natural selection E) All of the above

E) all of the above

Pedigree inbreeding deals with A) Probability B) The individual rather than the deme C) A range of 0≤F≤1 D) An identity by descent from biological relatedness E) All of the above

E) all of the above

Successful passing on of the DNA to the next generation requires A) aviability B) mating success C) fertility D) fecundity E) all of the above

E) all of the above

The Hardy-Weinberg law: A) can explain variation, B) allows a population to maintains variation, C) is used for model building, D) is historically important, E) all of the above.

E) all of the above

What does neutral theory show? a. Drift is an important force in large and small populations b. New neutral mutations will be lost quickly regardless of population size c. New mutations are neutral if the chance it will replicate and be passed down to the next generation is equal to the chance for the ancestral allele type d. Predicts the highest rate of molecular mutation will be found for pseudogenes and in exons at the third position of the codon e. All of the above

E) all of the above

Which of the following is TRUE for gene flow? A) decreases allele frequencies between local populations B) can introduce new alleles into a population C) decreases genetic variability between local populations D) increases genetic variability within a local population E) all of above

E) all of the above

Which of the following potentially support the evolution of altruistic-like social interactions? A) Kin Selection (if the behavior sufficiently increases the fitness of close relatives) B) Increases inclusive fitness by increasing the fitness of close relatives of the altruistic actor C) br-c > 0 D) even if altruistic act benefits a non-related individual relatives may experience an increased access to mates E) All of the above

E) all of the above

Which of these can be measured? A.) the phenotype of viability B.) the phenotype of mating success C.)The phenotype fertility D) The phenotype of fecundity E) All the above

E) all of the above

When natural selection takes the population to a local adaptive peak and not to the global max, Wright's shifting balance theory predicts: A) genetic drift moves between peaks B) Selection moves up the next peak C) Population at highest peak grows and sends out migrants D) average fitness of that generation will increase E) All of the above are part of Wright's shifting balance theory.

E) all of the above are part of Wright's shifting balance theory

Which of the following is NOT true of natural selection? a. Natural selection favors the fittest gamete, b. Selection alters the gene pool to increase the reproductive fitness of a population, c. Natural selection arises from the interaction of genotypes with the environment d. Selection does not optimize individual traits e. All of these are true

E) all of the above are true

Transposons: A) are a repetitive mobile sequences that are dispersed throughout the genome B) are units of selection that can have multiple targets of selection C) often affect fitness at the individual level D) can "infect" an individual via horizontal transmission E) all of the above describe transposons.

E) all of the above describe transposons.

287. Which of the following scenarios are possible in a population structure? A) FST > 0, B) FIS < 0, C) FIT < 0, D) NefM < FST, E) All of the following scenarios are possible

E) all of the following scenarios are possible

163. Natural selection and what other mechanisms can change allele frequency: A) genetic drift, B) gene flow, C) founder effect, D) dissasortative mating E) all of these

E) all of these

Assortative mating: A) increases homozygosity, B) creates linkage disequilibrium, C) at equilibrium when P(A) = P(B) produces either AAbb or aaBB D) maintains linkage disequilibrium, E) all of these.

E) all of these

In Templeton & Johnston's studies with Drosophila mercatorum in Hawaii, abnormal abdomen could be seen as a consequence of: A) a supergene made up of a number of closely linked variants on and y chromosomes B) transposon insertion in rDNA C) phenotype retention of juvenile abdomen D)behavior to wind response E) all of these

E) all of these

What can F statistics be used for? A) quantify genetic distance as needed to build gene trees, B) Quantify effect of genetic drift, C) Find system of mating, D) Find signatures of selection in the population, E) All of these.

E) all of these

Which of the following is true about natural selection? A) Natural selection can only operate when there is genetic variation associated with phenotypic variation, B) only effects transmissible through a gamete influence response to natural selection, C) selective equilibria can only occur when the average excesses are zero, D) Natural selection acts to increase the average fitness, E) all of these

E) all of these

While natural selection is necessary for adaptation, adaptation is also affected by: A) initial allele frequencies, B) genetic architecture and degree of dominance C) existing genetic variation D) population structure E) all of these

E) all of these

331. A fallacy of neutral theory is: A) the neutral theory of molecular evolution diminishes the role of natural selection. B) Only genes that are unimportant can undergo neutral mutations. C) Nucleotides that can undergo neutral mutation are not subject to selective constraints. D) Neutral alleles are neutral for all time. E) All of these are fallacies.

E) all of these are fallacies

340. Which of the following is NOT a property of migration (gene flow)? A) migration alters allelic frequencies between and among conspecific populations B) the two components of migration are dispersal of gametes and system of mating C) two populations with 4 or more individuals exchanged per generation are functionally one population D) migration has the exact opposite effect on a population as genetic drift E) all of these are properties of migration

E) all of these are properties of migration

257. FST can be used for all of the following EXCEPT: A) construct model based trees B) estimate migration C) show isolation by distance D) measure of the deficiency homozygosity E) all of these can be uses of FST

E) all of these can be uses of Fst

201. Calculate the change in fitness of a population when wbar = 0.9 and the variation of replacing one allele for a newly discovered allele =0.02. A. 0.02222. B. 45. C. 0.045. D. 0.0004.E. Cannot be determined with the information given. (Need frequency or pop size)

E) cannot be determined with the information given

What two forces maintain genetic polymorphisms within a population. A) assortative and dissasortative mating, B) directional and balancing selection, C) inbreeding and founder effects, D) drift and founder events, e) dissassortative mating and balancing selection.

E) disassortative mating and balancing selection

A highly beneficial mutation is introduced to a population. Over time, the frequency of this beneficial new allele is found increases. An increased frequency of a neutral allele, found near the beneficial mutation, is also discovered. This is an example of: A) directional selection B) balancing selection C) meiotic drive D) transposon E) hitch hiking

E) hitch hiking

339. The following are properties of inbreeding EXCEPT: A) inbreeding does not change allelic frequencies B) inbreeding occurs due to finite size and genetic drift C) inbreeding increases the incidence of rare recessive genetic diseases D) inbreeding does not reduce the variation in a population E) inbreeding actively generates linkage disequilibrium

E) inbreeding actively generates linkage disequilibrium

Which of the following is sufficient to determine the course of adaptation: A) natural selection, B) polymorphic allele frequency, C) genome architecture, D) population structure, E) no one of the above is sufficient.

E) no one of the above is sufficient

306. Natural Selection A) has an inevitable consequence, B) only acts on the genotype, C) maximizes fitness in all circumstances, D) selects for the best fit individual and makes it dominant in all populations, E) none of the above.

E) none of the above

What is the basis of calling an allele nearly neutral? a) If populations have less hetorzygosity than if they were randomly mating b) if an allele moves between two populations c) if the selection coefficients are smaller in relation to the effective population size d) if the selection coefficients are larger in relation to the effective population size e) none of the above

E) none of the above

Fst is defined as: A) genetic relatedness between two populations B) difference in allele frequency between two populations due to distance and migration C) the process opposite to speciation D) the number of individuals in a population that actually contribute to the next generation E) none of these

E) none of these

The coefficient of inbreeding for a first cousin mating is: A) 1/2 B) 1/64 C) 1/8 D) 1/32 E) none of these

E) none of these

What is the inbreeding coefficient for an uncle-niece mating? A) 1/4, B) 1/16, D) 1/32, E) None of these.

E) none of these

Allele frequency is changed little or not at all by the sole action of: A) random mating, B) assortative mating, C) Pedigree inbreeding, D) large Neft or large Nevt, E) none of these have a large effect over any 2 or 3 generation.

E) none of these have a large effect over any 2 or 3 generation

Pleiotrophy (as in antagonistic pleiotropy) can best be defined as: A) one gene that influences one phenotypic trait B) the idea that a geneotype influences the phenotype C) phenotypes are not related to one's genotype D) the genotype is dependent upon the phenotype E) one gene influences multiple phenotypic traits

E) one gene influences multiple phenotypic traits

Why did Templeton score COII nucleotide change in N-terminal silent and N-terminal replacement and C-terminal silent and C-terminal replacement? A) to determine population structure, B) to determine gene flow, C) to determine effective populations size, D) to estimate the rate of molecular evolution, E) to test if selection changed the expected outcome of neutral evolution.

E) to test if selection changed the expected outcome of neutral evolution.

MtDNA "Eve" was a real person. Was Y-chromosome "Adam" a real person? A) yes, and "Adam" was the only male alive at that time and thus the only one with that particular Y haplotype. B) no, C) maybe, D) the question is nonsense, neither person was real. E) yes, but "Adam" was not necessarily the only male alive at that time, and probably not the only male alive at that time with that particular Y haplotype.

E) yes, but "Adam" was not necessarily the only male alive at that time, and probably not the only male alive at that time with that particular Y haplotype.

Which of these best describes inbreeding: A. Inbreeding reduces the number of heterozygotes by changing allele frequencies. B. Pedigree inbreeding can be shown as a number between -1 and 1, where 0 is representative of random mating. C. Population inbreeding can be shown as a number between 0 and 1. D. All of these correctly describe inbreeding. E. None of these correctly describe inbreeding.

E. None of these correctly describe inbreeding.

411. What is the average excess of the S allele given the following fitness values: AA-.89 AS-1 SS-.2 AC-.89 SC-.7 CC-1.31? a) .11 b. 1 c. 0 d. .5 e. .15

a) .11

337. What is a coalescence event? a) A point in the evolutionary history of a species in which a single ancestral allele diverges into multiple alleles that are present in the current population. b) It is the evolution of a common feature (for example: ability to fly) among different lineages. c) A point in the evolutionary history of several species in which they shared a bottleneck effect and have decreased number of alleles for common characteristics. d) A bottleneck event for a species in which there was a drastic loss in allelic diversity resulting in a relatively small number of alleles for a specific gene. E) all of these.

a) A point in the evolutionary history of a species in which a single ancestral allele diverges into multiple alleles that are present in the current population.

Drift causes _____ of genetic differences between populations. a) an increase b) a decrease c) change d) no change e) can't tell

a) an increase

338. When growing Drosophila in tubes, there are two versions of an allele that tell the female where to lay eggs. One version tells the females to lay the eggs near the top, while the other tells the female to lay the eggs on the bottom near the food source. Alone, these strategies are neutral. However, when one of the alleles is rarer, it confers higher fitness because of crowding conditions. What is this phenomena known as? a) frequency dependent selection, b) directional selection, c) Reproductive plasticity, d) Inclusive fitness, e) anticipation.

a) frequency dependent selection

What is the major difference between gene flow and mutation as sources of new genetic variation for a local deme? a) gene flow can introduce variation at many loci simultaneously whereas mutation generally affects only one locus or nucleotide site at a time, b) new mutations occur as multiple copies & gene flow introduces single copies of new variants, c) Only mutations bring a massive influx of genetic variability ,d) A and C are true, e) None are true.

a) gene flow can introduce variation at many loci simultaneously whereas mutation generally affects only one locus or nucleotide site at a time

Genes are identical by descent if: a) the identical copies of a single gene are due to ancestry, b) the identical copies of a single gene are due to recurrent mutations from different ancestral genes, c) the alleles are identical are a result of asexual, rather than sexual reproduction, d) A and C are true, e) none are true.

a) the identical copies of a single gene are due to ancestry

Given the frequency of heterozygosity in a population is 0.41 (Hi), pi=0.61, and qi=0.39, calculate the value for Fis: a) 0, b) -0.138 c) 0.138 d) -0.723 e) 0.250

b) -0.138

The autosomal recessive allele for PKU occurs in a population at a frequency of q = 0.002, what is the probability of the homozygous recessive disease PKU in a child produced by a half-sib mating? a) 1.25875E-4 b) 2.535E-4 c) 3.090E-7 d) 8.097345E-2 e) 7.3453E-4

b) 2.535E-4

Microevolutionary theory relies on the all of the following except: a) Phenotypes are the product of genetic and environmental interactions b) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is maintained throughout generations c) DNA mutates and recombines creating variability d) DNA replicates e) All listed are requirements for the theory of microevolutionary change.

b) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is maintained throughout generations

The phenomenon that a single genotype can give rise to a variety of phenotypes depending on environmental conditions is best known as: a) epistasis b) phenotypic plasticity c) pleiotropy d) natural selection e) adaptation:

b) phenotypic plasticity

What does natural selection do to gametes only found in genotypes with lower than average fitness (like the C allele)? A. It increases the allele frequency b. It decreases the allele frequency until it is eliminated from the population c. It has the same effect on them as "survival of the fittest" d. Natural selection has no effect on gametes with lower than average fitness e. None of the above

b. It decreases the allele frequency until it is eliminated from the population

188. Fecundity is: the ability of the individual to survive in the environment, b. the number of offspring the fertile, mated, living individual can produce in the environment, c. the ability of a living individual to find a mate in the environment, d. the presence of a strong immune system and the ability to fight disease

b. the number of offspring the fertile, mated, living individual can produce in the environment,

If p=0.4 and the variance is 0.2 what is the Fst value? A) 0.677777 b) 0.24 c) 0.8333 d) 0.1111 e) none of these

c) 0.8333

Adaptation through natural selection includes all of the following except: a) Many loci with different biological functions b) Divergent responses as a result of random factors c) Direct creation of new genetic variation d) All of the above e) None of the above

c) Direct creation of new genetic variation

141. Which of the following is not true about Average excess of fitness? a) if A has a positive average excess of fitness the A allele increase in frequency, b) if A has a negative excess of fitness its frequency is decreasing,c) it describes change due to selection effects at the level of the individual, but not above or below that level. d) If A has an average excess of 0 then the frequency is held constant by natural selection. e) All of the above are true

c) it describes change due to selection effects at the level of the individual, but not above or below that level.

A/an ______ is functionally equivalent to its ancestral allele in terms of its chances of being replicated and passed on to the next generation. a) homologous gene b) silent mutation c) neutral allele d) synonymous gene e) all of the above

c) neutral allele

A process of adaptation resulting in the evolution of seemingly maladaptive traits is called a. synapomorphy b. dominance c. antagonistic pleiotrophy d. drift e. equilibrium

c. antagonistic pleiotrophy

152. Although population are next expected to fit Hardy Weinberg frequencies exactly in nature, the equilibrium is still studied because it models a situation where: a. the rate of origin of new species is maximized. b. outcrossing is maximized. c. evolution is not occurring. d.maladapted species will be eliminated. e. all the above

c. evolution is not occurring

The ratio of genetic variance to phenotypic variance is called: a) genetic variance b) phenotypic variance c) narrow-sense heritability d) broad-sense heritability e) genetic heritability

d) broad-sense heritability

Which one of the following is NOT true of assortative mating ? a. It increases the phenotypic frequencies of recessive traits, b. causes evolutionary change by creating linkage disequilibrium , c. it does not alter allele frequencies, d. it is an evolutionary force at the single- locus level, e.increases the frequency of homozygotes at the expense of heterozygotes.

d. it is an evolutionary force at the single- locus level

Natural selection at one locus can increase the frequency of a nearby neutral mutation when there is:: a) gene flow b) no fitness c) genetic variation for fitness d) a high Fis value e) positive gametic phase disequilibrium

e) positive gametic phase disequilibrium