NHA Study Exam
When answering the telephone, other than taking a patient's name, what other piece of information should be gathered at the beginning of the call? A. Telephone number B. Date of birth C. Reason for the call D. Address
A. Telephone number In order to make sure that the office can return a call to a patient in the event they are disconnected, medical assistants should ask for a caller's name and telephone number when answering a call.
A male physician often asks a female medical assistant to remain in the room during an examination of a female patient. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A medical assistant is expected to know the basic structure and functions of the eyes and ears. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A medical assistant may administer a narcotic injection: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
A medical assistant must be prepared to answer the patient's questions about a drug the doctor is prescribing. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
A medical assistant must inform the physician of any signs of suspected domestic violence in a patient. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A medical assistant needs additional training to be able to perform microbiologic tests, such as sensitivity tests, and to interpret cultures of specimens. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
A patient can recover physically from abuse, but the emotional and psychological scars may last a lifetime. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A patient who is claustrophobic or unable to lie still may require sedation during an MRI. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
A person who completely lacks cones cannot see colors and is said to be color-blind. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A physician may instruct a medical assistant to give medication by injection. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
After symptoms have occurred, nearly 100% of people who are infected with rabies die. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Although a phlebotomist's main job is to draw blood from patients for analysis, she may also be trained to perform patient care functions. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
An Adverse Event in healthcare is an incident in which a patient is harmed. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined. D. None of the above.
A. True
An ICD-10 has already been published by the WHO. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
An increase in specific gravity causes the urine to become more concentrated. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Anabolism and catabolism are both part of the body's metabolism. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Anatomy is the study of the structure of the body. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Another name for a barium swallow is an upper GI series. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Bacteria can multiply in a specimen that is allowed to sit at room temperature, causing a false-positive test result. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Being aware of how long it takes a vendor to deliver is the best way to avoid rush orders. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Billing programs can be used to exchange health information with health plans: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Bipolar leads monitor two electrodes. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Blood tests for determining glucose levels, sickle cell anemia, infectious mononucleosis, and rheumatoid arthritis are performed through the use of a dipstick. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
California law allows a medical assistant to draw blood in the clinic setting if they have completed proper training: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
Certification as a medical coding specialist is gained through classes and examination. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Certification as an ophthalmic assistant requires passing an examination, endorsement from the supervising ophthalmologist, and a current CPR card. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Chemistry is the study of what matter is composed of and how matter changes. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Children under the age of two need more fat in their diet than do older children and adults. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Cryosurgery is often used to remove skin lesions and lesions on the cervix. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes are mandated by HIPAA to report physicians' Services. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Currently, treatment goals for those with AIDS includes increasing the time between infection and symptomatic disease. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm during mitosis. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Differences in tissue densities produce the x-ray image. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Disposable instruments are often referred to as supplies. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Dysphagia is the inability to swallow. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Ear lavage may be performed by a medical assistant if the physician is on site: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
Essential fatty acids cannot be produced by the body and must be supplied by food. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Frayed electrical wires present a danger of electrical shock and fire. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined.
A. True
Fungal infections or hormonal imbalances can cause alopecia. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
HIPAA mandates have decreased the popularity of filing paper claims. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Herpes simplex type 2 is sexually transmitted. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
If a child has a fever, postpone an immunization until the fever has subsides. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
If a physician is present on the site, a medical assistant may apply bandages: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
If bone conduction is normal, a hearing problem likely involves the middle or external ear rather than the inner ear. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
If the skin area that was intradermally injected with tuberculin becomes red, raised, and hard, the test is classified as positive. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
If there is any doubt as to whether an item is sterile or not, consider it unsterile. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
If you are exposed to hepatitis B and have not been vaccinated, you can receive a post-exposure inoculation of hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG). A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
In Fowler's position, the head of the examination table is usually elevated to a 90° angle. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
In case where the patient enrolled in a PPO through employment but is also on Medicare, the PPO is considered the primary insurer: A. True B. False
A. True
Individuals who have anorexia nervosa have usually suffered from a childhood trauma. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Infants need seven well-baby examinations during their first year, at 2 weeks, 1 month, 2 months, 4 months, 6 months, 9 months, and 1 year. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Instructions to take a medication pc means it should be taken after meals. A. True B. False
A. True
Irregular heartbeats are called arrhythmia. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
It is almost certain that insurance processing in the twenty-first century will be entirely on-line, with insurers, hospitals and doctors all contributing electronically to a patient's record: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
It is not acceptable to erase a portion of a medical record to correct an error. A. True B. False
A. True
Make sure the room is well lit when working with a patient with a hearing-impairment. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Managed care plans control the delivery of health care to policyholders: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Medicaid is not an insurance program: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Medical assistants may assist with minor surgery: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
Medical assistants may remove orthopedic casts: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
Medicare, since October, 2003, requires most claims to be submitted electronically: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Medication may be given orally by medical assistants: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
Metabolism is the sum of all cellular processes that build, maintain, and supply energy to living tissue. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Most bruising is caused by a hematoma. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Most minerals are absorbed in the intestines, and any excess is eliminated. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Narcan is the antidote for morphine. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Neglect is a form of child abuse. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Normal specific gravity is 1.005 to 1.030. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Only one diagnosis at a time should be coded to prevent coding errors. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Organic matter contains carbon and hydrogen. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Over a period of time and in most cases, HIV infection develops into AIDS, which results in death. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Patient education helps patients stay healthy. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Periodic supplies are usually ordered only once or twice a year and in small quantities. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Personal Protective Equipment includes gloves, gowns, masks, and protective eyewear or face shields. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Phagocytes protect the body from infection by finding, surrounding, and digesting intruding microorganisms. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Physicians cannot prescribe drugs that are Schedule I of controlled substances. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Postural abnormalities, such as osteoporosis, are common in the elderly. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Pre-operative education increases the patient's overall satisfaction with his care. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Pre-operative means prior to surgery. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Pregnancy tests are used to measure human chorionic gonadotropin (HGC), which is produced during pregnancy. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Prison sentences are actually possible consequences of inaccurate and/or incorrect billing. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Proteins that lack one or more essential amino acids are called incomplete proteins. A. True B. False C. None of above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Reproductive cells divide by the process of meiosis. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Reputable vendors fulfill orders accurately with quality items and deliver products in good condition for a fair price. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Scoliosis is a lateral curvature of the spine. A. True B. False
A. True
Sebum prevents bacteria from growing on the skin. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Shave the surgical site in the direction in which the hair grows. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Side effects of radiation therapy include nausea, vomiting, hair loss, ulceration of mucous membranes, weakness, and malaise. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Skin color is determined primarily by the amount of melanin. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Smoking should be prohibited anywhere in a medical facility. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Some insurers will not pay a claim unless it is filed within 6 months of the date of service: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Special color-coded stoppers on collection tubes indicate which additives are present and, therefore, which types of laboratory tests may be performed on each blood specimen. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Standard Precautions must be used in hospitals. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Surgery for cancer is usually followed by either chemotherapy or radiation. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The "Swiss Cheese" model represents well the multifactorial nature of a patient safety incident. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
The T wave is the recovery or repolarization of the ventricles. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The U wave may be seen in patients who have low potassium levels or other metabolic disturbances. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The abbreviation for "hour of sleep" or "at bedtime" is HS. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The eyelids are part of the blinking reflex. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The first vaccine for hepatitis B is given to a newborn the day after birth. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The heart sounds are heard most strongly over the apex of the heart. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The most common device for obtaining cultures is the sterile swab. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The most common system for identifying blood types is the ABO system. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The most common type of culture medium used in the laboratory is blood agar. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The most reliable and timely method of transporting microbiologic specimens is pickup by the laboratory. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The most specific diagnostic representation is achieved by using a five digit code, when available. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The nail bed provides nutrients to the nail. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The normal paper speed for an adult having an ECG is 25 mm per second. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The optimal temperature to promote growth of bacteria in a culture medium is 37° C. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The presence of crystals in the urine does not indicate a specific disorder. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The standard machine is a 12 lead electrocardiograph, which simultaneously records the electrical activity of the heart from 12 different views. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The study of anatomy includes recognizing the position of the various body structures. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The subcutaneous layer of the skin contains mostly fat. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The supine position may be uncomfortable for patients who experience shortness of breath and lower-back pain. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The telephone policy in the patient information packet informs patients of the office's policy for billing for physician's telephone calls to patients. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The typical American diet contains 2 to 5 grams of sodium daily. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The use of soap in the process of disinfection is less important than the scrubbing and rinsing steps. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
There is a new career developing in health care called a medical coding specialist. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Tinnitus is ringing in the ears. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
To confirm a patient's health status, physicians usually perform examinations on a routine basis, such as once a year. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Tuberculosis infection must be confirmed by a Mantoux tuberculin skin test. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Unsaturated fats tend to lower blood cholesterol. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
Vital signs may be taken by a medical assistant: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
A. True
Water is a molecule. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Water is an inorganic compound found in the body. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
When a baby is delivered with the aid of forceps, there may be resultant injury to the mother's urinary and genital structures. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
When filling a claim, the documentation in the patient's medical record must support the reported services. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
When investigating a vendor, obtain information on prices, quality, service, and payment policies. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
When performing an examination of the abdomen, the physician begins with inspection and auscultation, followed by percussion and palpation. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
When using transfer forceps, touch only the handles. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
When you work with a patient who has infectious tuberculosis, wear a personal respirator to prevent inhalation of the bacteria. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Repolarization is a period of electrical recovery when polarity is restored and follows depolarization. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True During repolarization, K+ leaves.
Interphase is the time in the life of a cell when it is performing its normal functions and not dividing.
A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
With regard to sexual maturity, females generally mature: A. Two years earlier than males do. B. Four years earlier than males do. C. Two years later than males do. D. Four years later than males do. E. At approximately the same age as males.
A. Two years earlier than males do.
Aging accounts are addressed: A. Typically every thirty days until payment is received. B. Only by the office manager. C. Mainly when patients visit the office. D. None of the above.
A. Typically every thirty days until payment is received. Aging accounts are given attention at thirty day intervals.
A premature ventricular contraction (PVC) where the QRS have the same configuration each time they appear is called _________________. A. Uniform B. Malignant C. Fused D. Bigeminy
A. Uniform
Components of normal urine include: A. Urea, uric acid, and ammonia. B. Chloride, potassium, and sugar. C. Red blood cells, sperm, and H202. D. Hydrogen ions, urochrome, and uranium.
A. Urea, uric acid, and ammonia.
The prescription signature: "ss tab TID x 14 d" means: A. ½ tablet three times a day for 14 days. B. ½ tablet every 3 hours for 14 days. C. ½ tablet every 6 hours for 14 days. D. ½ tablet four times a day for 14 days.
A. ½ tablet three times a day for 14 days. The signature "ss tab TID x 14 d" means take ½ tablet three times a day for 14 days. The signature of the prescription tells the patient directions on how to take the drug.
Excitability or irritability:
Ability of cardiac cells to respond to external stimulus.
Contractility:
Ability of cardiac cells to shorten (muscle contraction) in response to electrical stimulus.
When ventricular rhythm is extremely slow and irregular and it becomes slower to the point of asystole, it is called?
Acardiac rhythm
When ventricular rhythm is extremely slow and irregular, and it becomes slower to the point of asystole, it is called?
Acardiac rhythm
What information is obtained from a completed day sheet?
Accounts receivable data
Physicians are required to keep payroll data for how many years? A. 3 years B. 4 years C. 5 years D. For all years the physician owns the practice.
B. 4 years By law, a physician is required to keep payroll data for 4 years. These include social security numbers of the employees, the number of withholding allowances claimed, gross salary or hourly wage, and deductionsfor Social Security tax, Medicare tax, federal state, and other tax, as well as state disability insurance, and state unemployment tax
A baby rolls over and sits up. What is the stage of growth and development of this baby? A. 0-3 months B. 4-7 months C. 8-12 months D. 13-18 months
B. 4-7 months At age 4-7 months, the infant can roll over and sit up. The infant can also grasp objects, and has good eye coordination.
A benefit period for Medicare begins the day a patient goes into the hospital and ends when that patient has not been hospitalized for_________ days. A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120
B. 60 days
When giving a presentation, how long will it take to present a talk (without visual aids) that is 1,000 words long? A. 5 minutes B. 8 minutes C. 20 minutes D. One half hour
B. 8 minutes A 500 word essay, when read aloud, takes approximately 4 minutes to complete if read at a normal speaking pace. When visual aids are used such as PowerPoint slides or graphics, the pace is slightly slower.
A patient weighs 200 pounds. How much does he weigh in kilograms? A. 100 kg B. 90 kg C. 80 kg D. 200kg
B. 90 kg The conversion factor from pounds to kilograms is 0.45. To find out how many kilograms in a pound, multiply the number of pounds by the factor, 0.45. The patient weighs 90 kg.
A thrombus is: A. An enlarged heart. B. A blood clot in the vein. C. A common bacterial infection. D. An acute infection of the lungs.
B. A blood clot in the vein.
Ghost surgery is a term describing which of the following: A. The patient was not the one who signed the consent. B. A different physician performed the surgery on the patient. C. The patient died during surgery. D. The surgery did not actually happen.
B. A different physician performed the surgery on the patient. Ghost surgery is when a surgeon other than the one consented by the patient performs the surgical procedure. Surgical ghosts are ethically questionable. Misleading the patient defeats the informed consent of the patient.
The most accurate reading for a temperature is done: A. Orally. B. Aurally through a clean canal. C. Rectally. D. Axially.
B. Aurally through a clean canal. Aural readings are done in the ear. The tympanic membrane shares a blood supply with the hypothalamus, which is an area of the brain that controls body temperature. Provided the ear canal is clean and free from debris, the tympanic temperature is the most accurate.
The purpose of using a paper towel to turn off the faucet is to: A. Keep the faucet dry. B. Avoid contaminating your clean hands with microorganisms. C. Save on the cost of paper towels by using the one you dried your hands with. D. Eliminate the risk of contracting HIV/AIDS.
B. Avoid contaminating your clean hands with microorganisms.
A wound where tissue is not just separated but torn away from the body is referred to as: A. Laceration B. Avulsion C. Abrasion D. Gangrene
B. Avulsion An avulsion is a type of wound where the tissue is not just separated but torn away from the body, forming a flap. Avulsion wounds may take longer to heal because they cannot be closed with tape or stitches.
Which of the following terms is spelled incorrectly? A. Bacterial B. Bacteriolagy C. Bacteriocidal D. Bacterium
B. Bacteriolagy
The amount of information that can be sent over a connection at one time, or how many bits can be processed in a single instruction? A. Clock speed B. Bandwidth C. Instruction set D. Network
B. Bandwidth Bandwidth is the amount of information that can be sent over a connection at one time or how many bits can be processed in a single instruction. Bandwidth is usually expressed in bits per second.
Which of the following is NOT considered an asset? A. Money B. Bank debts C. Medical and office equipment D. Land, buildings, furniture
B. Bank debts. Bank debts are considered a liability. Assets are property owned and controlled by a business, including land, building, equipment, money, stocks, bonds and investments.
Which of the following are granular leukocytes that produce the chemical histamine and aid the body in controlling allergic reactions and other exaggerated immunologic responses? A. Eosinophils B. Basophils C. Lymphocytes D. Neutrophils
B. Basophils
What is a category III code used for?
Assigning a temporary code
The PNS or parasympathetic nervous system affects:
Atria only by decreasing heart rate, conduction and irritability.
What is a P-wave?
Atrial Depolarization (contraction)
The sudden rush of blood pushed into the ventricles as a result of atrial contraction is known as:
Atrial kick
Which of the following questions would you ask a patient before a chest x-ray? A. "Did you eat before coming for the test?" B. "Do you have a pacemaker?" C. "Do you have health insurance?" D. "Did someone come with you to drive you home?"
B. "Do you have a pacemaker?"
An example of a closed-ended question is: A. "Tell me about yourself." B. "Do you have asthma in your family?" C. "What are you thinking about?" D. "What brings you to the clinic today?"
B. "Do you have asthma in your family?" An example of a close-ended question is "Do you have asthma in your family?" Close-ended questions are those which can be answered by a simple yes or no. Open-ended questions are those which require more than just a yes or no answer.
Which statement would be appropriate for the medical assistant to include when teaching a patient about the proper use of medications? A. "You may mix medications without checking with your physician." B. "If you do not take your medications as instructed, you may experience dangerous side effects." C. "If you miss a dose of your medication, take two doses when you remember it." D. "A prescription is just a guideline and does not have to be followed exactly."
B. "If you do not take your medications as instructed, you may experience dangerous side effects."
Which of the following statements is an example of an open-ended question? A. "Do you have more than 1 symptom?" B. "Tell me more about your symptoms." C. "Do you have hypertension?" D. "Does your family have diabetes?"
B. "Tell me more about your symptoms." Opened-ended questions are questions which require more explanation than a simple "yes" or "no" answer. Closed-ended questions are questions which can be answered by a simple "yes" or "no",.
The modifier that notes, "Bilateral Procedure," is: A. -26 B. -50 C. -53 D. -24
B. -50 Modifiers are used with CPT manual, codes to add additional information to a procedural code. A common modifier is -50 which denotes that a procedure that was performed was done on both right and left sides, or bilaterally.
Which domain extension is used by Harvard University? A. .net B. .edu C. .org D. .gov
B. .edu The .edu domain is one of the top-level subdivisions of the Internet Domain Name System (DNS). The .edu domain is intended for accredited post-secondary educational U.S. institutions.
The large squares on the ECG paper are equal to? A. 0.10 sec. B. 0.20 sec. C. 0.04 sec. D. 0.09 sec.
B. 0.20 sec.
In a business letter, what margin is commonly used? A. ½ inch B. 1 inch C. 2 inches D. 3 inches
B. 1 inch The commonly used margin in a business letter is 1 inch to 1¼ inches on all sides. This is also the default setting of most word processors.
Shock is likely to occur after a burn injury of about: A. 5% B. 10% C. 20% D. 50%
B. 10%
What year did Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR) start? A. 1990 B. 1995 C. 2000 D. 2005
B. 1995
The number of lines between the inside address and the salutation in a full block style professional letter is: A. 1 line B. 2 lines C. 4 lines D. There are no lines between these parts.
B. 2 lines The professional letter using a full block style will have 2 empty lines between the inside address and the salutation. There are 4 lines between the date line and the inside address.
The physician has ordered ampicillin 1000 mg, on hand 500 mg tablets, what is the number of tablets to be administered to the patient? A. 1 tablet B. 2 tablets C. 0.5 tablet D. 2.5 tablet
B. 2 tablets Number of Tablet to be administered: desired dose _________________________________________ dose on hand X Quantity of dose on hand = 2 Tablet
The standard ECG paper speed is: A. 25 mm/min B. 25 mm/sec C. 50 mm/min D. 50 mm/sec
B. 25 mm/sec The standard ECG paper speed is 25 mm per second. Each small box horizontally is 0.04 seconds and 0.1 mV vertically.
According to the Labor Standards Act, employee health records are required to be retained for: A. 10 years B. 3 years C. Varies by state, but usually 10 years after last date of employment. D. Permanently
B. 3 years The Labor Standards Act requires employee health records be retained by the health care facility for a period of 3 years.
The appropriate temperature for the food refrigerator should be maintained between: A. 24 and 28° F. B. 32 and 40° F. C. 46 and 50° F. D. 52 and 56° F.
B. 32 and 40° F.
Arguments exist about the "art" of communication versus the "science" of communication. Select the item below which supports the position that there is a science of communication. A. Research with medical students indicates benefits from communication training persist for years. B. Communication skills are nonspecific and difficult to observe. C. Communication skills cannot be evaluated objectively. D. Communication is a natural talent with which one is or is not born.
A. Research with medical students indicates benefits from communication training persist for years.
The temperature of laboratory refrigerators should be maintained between: A. 24 and 28° F. B. 36 and 46° F. C. 50 and 56° F. D. 60 and 65° F.
B. 36 and 46° F.
A nurse says to the patient "just so I understand, you said that ...". This type of communication is: A. Restating B. Reflecting C. Focusing D. Probing
A. Restating Restating is to state something again or in a different way. It lets the patient know how the message was interpreted by the health provider.
A computer's hardware serves four main functions including: inputting data, processing data, outputting data, and: A. Storing data B. Word processing C. Application D. DOS
A. Storing data
The abbreviation for suppository is ___________. A. Supp B. Supt C. SSUP D. SPT
A. Supp
A medical assistant has two part-time positions. One for a pediatrician and the other position is for a surgeon. When completing the X12 837, which of the following would be a major difference? A. Taxonomy information B. HIPAA identifiers C. Provider information
A. Taxonomy information The taxonomy information would be very different since the physician preparations and licensing is very different.
The intentional touching of, or application of force to the body of another person in a harmful manner: A. Assault B. Battery C. Fraud D. Larceny
B. Battery Battery is the unlawful touching or doing bodily harm without consent. Assault is the threat or the perceived threat of doing bodily harm by another person. Larceny is the unauthorized taking of the personal property of another by an individual who intends to permanently deprive the owner of it. Fraud is the intentional deception of a person or entity by another made for monetary or personal gain.
Which of the following would you include when teaching a patient how to lift a heavy object properly? A. Avoid letting your legs do the lifting. B. Bend at the knees, not at the waist. C. Carry the object away from your body. D. Let your back muscles do the lifting
B. Bend at the knees, not at the waist.
A sum of money provided in an insurance policy, payable for covered services is called: A. Deductible. B. Benefits. C. Dues payable. D. Premium.
B. Benefits
A deficiency of thiamine (Vitamin B-1): A. Osteopenia B. Beri-beri C. Protein malnutrition D. Scurvy
B. Beri-beri Beri-beri is rarely seen in the United States because many foods are fortified with thiamine. Persons at risk of developing beri-beri include those who abuse alcohol, persons on dialysis, and those taking high doses of diuretics as well as infants breastfed by mothers who lack sufficient thiamine.
The abbreviation for two times a day is ______. A. Tid B. Bid C. Qid D. Qh
B. Bid
Lead II is a(n): A. Chest or precordial lead B. Bipolar limb lead C. Augmented or unipolar limb lead D. Intercostal lead E. None of these
B. Bipolar limb lead
Which of the following occurs during the lag phase of healing? A. New tissue forms. B. Bleeding is reduced as blood vessels in the affected area constrict. C. Formation of scar tissue. D. Skin cells at the edge of the wound begin to move together to close off the wound.
B. Bleeding is reduced as blood vessels in the affected area constrict.
Vital signs include the temperature, pulse, respirations, and: A. Weight B. Blood pressure C. Height D. Circumference
B. Blood pressure
The general meaning of "corpus" is best described by which of the following? A. Abdomen B. Body C. Chest D. Head E. Trunk
B. Body
A new medical assistant was asked to check for the pulse of a 10 month old baby. What pulse site should the medical assistant use to check for the pulse of this baby? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Carotid D. Femoral
B. Brachial The recommended pulse site to check for circulation in an infant is the brachial pulse. The brachial pulse is located in the inner aspect of the upper arm.
You plan to teach patients about bone health and diet. Which of the following will you recommend that your patients eat regularly? A. Lean chicken B. Broccoli, kale, and spinach C. Legumes D. Egg whites
B. Broccoli, kale, and spinach
A 56 year old patient was seen in the clinic because of coughing with blood. An x-ray was done which showed a mass in the hilar area of the lungs. Which of the following will be the next step of the doctor? A. Thoracentesis B. Bronchoscopy C. Spirometry D. Thoracotomy
B. Bronchoscopy A mass in the hilar area is suggestive of lung cancer. To determine if the mass is cancerous or benign, the physician would most likely do a bronchoscopy to visualize the bronchi and perform a biopsy if a mass is accessible.
What regulatory standard requires clinical laboratories to be certified before they accept human samples for diagnostic testing? A. OSHA B. CLIA C. TJC D. HIPAA
B. CLIA The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act of 1988 or CLIA'88 regulates laboratory testing, and requires clinical laboratories to be certificated before they can accept human samples for diagnostic testing.
Major minerals the body needs in fairly large quantities include: A. Iron and zinc. B. Calcium, magnesium, and phosphorus. C. Selenium, copper, and chromium. D. Fluoride, manganese, and molybdenum.
B. Calcium, magnesium, and phosphorus.
The best way to determine the number of parking spaces a medical office needs is to: A. Ask patients if they found a place to park. B. Calculate the average length of time a patient spends in the office and the number of appointments scheduled during that time. C. Measure the dimensions of the parking lot and divide by the number of patients seen per day to determine how many spaces are available. D. Send out a survey form to all patients, families, and office staff for suggestions for improvement.
B. Calculate the average length of time a patient spends in the office and the number of appointments scheduled during that time.
A patient with a verruca (Choose the BEST answer.): A. Is infected with the HCV virus. B. Can be treated with an OTC medication. C. Is not contagious. D. None of the above.
B. Can be treated with an OTC medication. Plantar warts are caused by a strain of the Human Papilloma Virus and can be highly contagious but treated with an over the counter medication such as Compound W.
Strep throat: A. Is not contagious B. Can lead to rheumatic fever C. Is caused by the bacteria Streptobacillus pyogens. D. All of the above
B. Can lead to rheumatic fever A contagious bacteria infection caused by the bacteria, Streptococcus pyogens. Infections of this type can lead to rheumatic fever, an inflammatory condition that could lead to death.
Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints? A. Adipose B. Cartilage C. Epithelial D. Muscle E. Nerve
B. Cartilage
A voluntary credential process usually made by a nongovernment agency is: A. Registration B. Certification C. Licensure D. Physicians Agreement
B. Certification Certification is a voluntary process and under most circumstances it is usually made by a nongovernment agency. The purpose of certification is to ensure that the standards met are those necessary for safe and ethical practice of the profession.
The following are included in the rules on charting, EXCEPT: A. Check carefully the name on the chart B. Chart in pencil C. Do not chart assumptions D. Date each entry and sign with your complete name and title.
B. Chart in pencil When documenting the medical history of the patient, a non-erasable ink should be used. Erasable ink or pencils are not recommended for documenting legal documents such as the medical chart.
Outguides are used when: A. Charts need to be labeled appropriately for ease of retrieval. B. Charts have been removed from their filing location. C. Two patients have the same name and their charts must have distinguishing marks. D. None of the above.
B. Charts have been removed from their filing location. An outguide is a marker that is put in place of a chart that is pulled from a filing cabinet. The outguide notifies office employees that a chart is missing and aids employees in refiling the chart.
A sphygmomanometer is used to: A. Check for heart disease B. Check blood pressure C. Check for pulse D. Check for vital signs
B. Check blood pressure A sphygmomanometer is an instrument for measuring arterial blood pressure. There are 3 types of sphygmomanometer: aneroid, electronic, and manual.
When supplies are delivered to the office, a medical assistant accepting the delivery should: A. Place the supplies in storage. B. Check the supplies with the packing slip. C. Get the physician. D. Open it when you find free time to check it.
B. Check the supplies with the packing slip. When a new supply delivery arrives, the first step is to check the packing slip against the supplies to make sure that the delivery was accurate. This prevents misunderstanding between the deliverer and the facility.
What is the annual amount an insured must pay toward the cost of medical services before insurance policy benefits will begin covering medical costs? A. Copayment B. Deductible C. Fee for service D. Coinsurance
B. Deductible A deductible is an annual amount to be paid by the insured toward the cost of service before the insurance policy benefits are started.
Lyme disease is caused by: A. Dog B. Deer tick C. Rat D. Bat
B. Deer tick
During Carole's yearly review, her supervisor complimented her on being trustworthy and reliable. Choose the term that fits this compliment. A. Flexible B. Dependable C. Respectful D. Tactful
B. Dependability Dependability is an extremely important quality in a medical assistant. This shows reliability and trustworthiness to your employer and will help the medical assistant to further his/her career.
A patient's diagnosis as established by the physician: A. Includes all of the conditions the patient is treated for. B. Describes the primary condition for which the patient is receiving treatment. C. Is the chief complaint of the patient. D. Must comply with WHO terminology guidelines to be accepted by third-party payers.
B. Describes the primary condition for which the patient is receiving treatment.
A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) __________________. A. Solution B. Emulsion C. Elixir D. Tinctures
B. Emulsion
The adrenal glands are part of the: A. Immune system B. Endocrine system C. Lymphatic system D. Respiratory system
B. Endocrine system The adrenal glands are part of the endocrine system. They sit on the kidneys and produce hormones that regulate salt and water balance and influence blood pressure and heart rate.
When entering data in medical billing programs, always: A. Use prefixes such as Mr., Mrs. or Ms. B. Enter information in CAPS. C. Use "see above" for repeated data. D. Hyphens, commas and apostrophes as appropriate.
B. Enter information in CAPS.
Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing? A. Alveoli B. Epiglottis C. Larynx D. Uvula E. Vocal cords
B. Epiglottis
Which of the following is used for anaphylaxis? A. Adenosine B. Epinephrine C. Lasix D. Narcan
B. Epinephrine Epinephrine is the medication of choice in the first-aid treatment of anaphylaxis. Epinephrine reverses the effects of anaphylaxis on the heart, lungs, skin and skeletal muscles.
______________ lead to misinformation which can lead to mistreatment. A. Patient Documentation B. Errors C. Rumors D. Consultations
B. Errors Errors lead to misinformation which can lead to mistreatment.
Which disease, called fifth disease, is caused by human parvovirus B19 and occurs mainly in children? A. Cytomegalovirus B. Erythema infectiosum C. Listeriosis D. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus
B. Erythema infectiosum
All of the following statements regarding vital signs are true, EXCEPT: A. Vital signs give essential information that guide the health provider. B. Estimation of vital signs is always allowed. C. Vital signs can indicate if a patient has a disease. D. Vital signs are also called the cardinal signs.
B. Estimation of vital signs is always allowed. Vital signs are objective findings. Accurate reporting of readings are a must in vital signs. The medical assistant should avoid estimation of the readings because treatment of patients rely on these vital signs.
An area of study that deals with ideas about what is good and bad behavior: A. Law B. Ethics C. Tort D. Malfeasance
B. Ethics Ethics is an area of study that deals with ideas about what is good and bad behavior. Medical ethics helps to improve patient care and public health by promoting professionalism.
A performance appraisal can be based on the following, EXCEPT: A. Teamwork B. Ethnicity C. Dependability D. Attitude
B. Ethnicity A performance appraisal assesses an employees' work ethics, teamwork, and attitude. Ethnicity is not a way of assessing employee performance.
In the CPT manual, codes in the range of 99201-99600 are: A. Surgical Codes B. Evaluation and Management Codes C. Radiology Codes D. All of the above.
B. Evaluation and Management Codes. E&M codes are CPT codes that are used when a patient is being evaluated and treated. These codes are assigned based on the type of appointment that is done. For example, a patient who is new to the practice would receive an E&M code that designates a new office visit that allows time for a thorough history and examination.
The AAMA requires CMA's to be recertified how often? A. Every three years B. Every five years C. Every seven years D. Every ten years
B. Every five years. The AAMA requires CMA's to be recertified every five years.
Which of the following are signs of cocaine and amphetamine abuse? A. Muscle weakness, hearing loss, nausea, and dizziness. B. Excitation, increased pulse rate, respirations, and blood pressure, and dilated pupils. C. Poor coordination and reflexes, poor vision and depth perception. D. Depressed pulse rate, respirations, and blood pressure, and constipation.
B. Excitation, increased pulse rate, respirations, and blood pressure, and dilated pupils.
A recap sheet that accompanies a Medicare or Medicaid check, showing breakdown and explanation of payment on a claim is a(n): A. Fee for service. B. Explanation of benefits. C. Coordination of benefits. D. Dual choice.
B. Explanation of benefits.
Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following structures? A. Cervix B. Fallopian tube C. Ovary D. Uterus E. Vagina
B. Fallopian tube
A "near miss" is defined as the probability of harm to a patient. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
A Hematologist specializes in treating patients with diseases of the liver. A. True B. False
B. False
A cervical scraper is a reusable supply. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A generic drug is usually more expensive than a trade name drug. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
A hearing-impairment patient also has a mental impairment. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A high pulse rate never correlates with high respirations. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A medical assistant is at a bar with her close friend and they get to talking about work. The medical assistant informs her friend that the friend's teacher was in the doctor's office getting checked out for kidney stones. This is not a breach of confidentiality since it was a private communication between the medical assistant and her friend. A. True B. False
B. False
A medical assistant may telephone a prescription for a Schedule III drug. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
A medical assistant permitted to use a laser: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
A patient information packet deals mainly with medical issues rather than administrative matters. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
A patient's bill has been unpaid for more than 90 days. A telephone call to the patient must be made by a lawyer. A. True B. False
B. False
A penlight provides an additional source of light during an examination. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A properly collected sputum specimen should contain both mucus coughed up from the respiratory tract and saliva. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
A sensorineural hearing loss is caused by an interruption in the transmission of sound waves to the inner ear. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A stool specimen that is mixed with urine is an appropriate specimen for examination. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
A subclinical case is a severe infection with all manifestations present. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A surgeon performs an open biopsy by removing tissue with a needle inserted through the skin into the growth or the surrounding tissue. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A urine specimen must be processed within 20 minutes of the collection time. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
A vendor will never raise the price of an item without proper notification. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
A wet dressing inhibits bacteria from access to the wound and promotes healing. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
After a antimicrobial sensitivity test, a result of "resistant" means no growth. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
An example of a group buying pool is several medical offices associated with a nearby hospital that may order through the hospital. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Another name for surgical asepsis is clean technique. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Approximately 15% of people have the Rh factor in their blood and are considered to be Rh positive. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Bacteria placed in a culture plate grows sufficiently within one hour. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Body temperature above a patient's normal range is afebrile. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Breast-feeding is permitted in a woman who has HIV infection. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Cataracts are a condition in which fluid pressure builds up inside the eye. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Catheterization is recommended to prevent infection. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Charting is done primarily for "in house" use by the practitioner(s), so use of shorthand abbreviations is acceptable practice. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Children born to women who are HIV-positive have a greater than 50% chance of being infected. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Consumable supplies are items that are used only once and discarded. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Coughing and sneezing increase an individual's susceptibility to disease. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Depression affects primarily adolescents. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Depression is not common in the elderly. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Each cardiac cycle lasts an average of 30 seconds. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Each gram of carbohydrate contains 9 calories. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Echocardiography is an x-ray examination of an artery after the injection of a contrast medium. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Evaluating the effectiveness of your teaching plan is not of developing an educational plan. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Feeding a child during an examination is recommended to calm him down.
B. False
Female patients should be taught to wipe and cleanse the perineal area from back to front. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Fill the water reservoir of the autoclave with tap water. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Following a clinical leaders direction is considered to be a teamwork behavior critical to improving patient safety. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
Generally, disability insurance is less expensive than life, home, or automobile insurance: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
HIPAA requirements only apply to doctors and nurses, not to other staff of the care provider. A. True B. False
B. False
HIV is the condition that results from the advanced stages of AIDS. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Health is just the absence of illness. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Hyperopia is a condition in which nearby objects can usually be seen clearly, but objects far away are unclear. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
If directed, a medical assistant may insert a urinary catheter: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
In every case, the evacuation system is the best choice for drawing blood. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Injection collagen or Botox is within the medical assistant's scope of practice: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
Keeping the examination table clean is the priority in infection control. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Killed-virus vaccines provide protection for a longer period of time than do live- virus vaccines. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Medical asepsis depends on a completely sterile environment that eliminates all microorganisms. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Medical assistants are allowed to inject anesthetics: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
Medical assistants are allowed to interpret laboratory results: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
Medical assistants are permitted to start intravenous therapy: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined D. None of the above
B. False
Menstrual cycles are prompted by changes in the testosterone levels. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Metabolism in children and the elderly is the same as in all other patients. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Most gastrointestinal radiologic examinations are performed in a physician's office. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Most surgical instruments are made of hard plastic and are disposable. A. True B. False C. Determined
B. False
Never tell a patient that drawing blood will hurt. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Non-surgical wounds often involve conditions that promote fast, effective healing. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Normal vision is referred to as 20/40. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Obese patients weigh 10% more than is recommended for their height and weight. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Occult blood is blood that is visible to the naked eye. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Octic medications are used in the eye. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Out-of-label prescribing is illegal. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Passive listening is listening to and thinking about what the patient says and responding. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Precordial leads are placed on the arms and legs and are bipolar. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Procedure codes and ICD codes are the same. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Specific fees for services are always listed in the payment policy section of the patient information packet. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Substance abusers are called addicts. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Surgery, cryosurgery, and electrocauterization require medical asepsis. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Surgical asepsis is based on maintaining cleanliness to prevent the spread of microorganisms and to ensure that there are as few microorganisms in the medical environment as possible. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Symptoms are objective findings as measured or perceived by the examiner A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The Americans With Disabilities Act accessibility guidelines require a clearance space in rooms and hallways that is 36 inches in diameter, to allow a patient in a wheelchair to make a 180° turn. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The action of an anti-tussive is to inhibit the growth of microorganisms. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The correct abbreviation for carbon dioxide is CO. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The device for reading blood pressure is a sphygmomanometer. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The effects of radiation exposure from x-rays are not related to total exposure over an individual's lifetime. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The information contained in the patient's chart is used primarily to guide the physician during future office visits. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The medical assistant should teach patients that alcohol is permitted during the first two trimesters of pregnancy. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The sensitivity control allows you to place marking codes on the ECG paper to identify the lead during each run. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The six C's of charting include cohesiveness. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Total cost is the price per piece for an item. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Treatment for depression in elderly patients is seldom effective. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Untreated strep throat is not serious and does not lead to complications. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
Vital signs are not usually taken at every office visit. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
When recording in a patient's chart, summarize what the patient says in your own words. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
While gaining access to an affected area of a patient's brain in a stereotaxis procedure, neurosurgeons typically cause severe brain damage. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The Internal Revenue Service issues a(n) _____________to medical groups or solo practices for income tax purposes. A. Social Security number. B. Federal tax identification number. C. State tax number. D. Insurance ID number.
B. Federal tax identification number.
A method or charging whereby a physician presents a bill for each service rendered is a(n): A. Non duplication of benefits. B. Fee for service C. Monthly statement D. None of the above.
B. Fee for service.
Which bone is found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium? A. Calcaneus B. Femur C. Ulna D. Tibia
B. Femur
Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the ischium? A. Calcaneus B. Femur C. Symphysis pubis D. Tibia E. Ulna
B. Femur
A patient has been receiving care from your office while fighting cancer. The patient dies before the payment is received in the office. The best way to ensure that the office receives payment for services rendered is: A. Contact the next of kin listed in the patient chart. B. File a claim against the patient's estate. C. Initiate a claim with a collections agency. D. There is no way to receive payment once a patient has expired.
B. File a claim against the patient's estate. The only legal recourse for collecting a debt from a patient after he is deceased is to work through the patient's estate. Next of kin is not responsible for a patient's outstanding balance.
The patient says "I have many responsibilities in my life: my parents, my children, and my job." The medical assistant responds by saying "Of all the responsibilities you have pointed out, which is causing you the most stress?" What communication technique is the medical assistant using? A. Clarifying B. Focusing C. Reflecting D. Summarizing
B. Focusing Focusing concentrates attention on a single point. It is useful if patient jumps from one topic to the other.
Surgical hand washing is performed in this way: A. By scrubbing for 4 minutes B. For 10 minutes using a sterile hand brush. C. For 15 minutes with germicidal soap. D. For a full 20 minutes.
B. For 10 minutes using a sterile hand brush. For surgical hand washing (often called a "surgical scrub") it is very important to remove dirt and microorganisms from the surface of the skin. Included in materials needed would be surgical soap, orange sticks, sterile towels, and a sterile surgical scrub brush. The total hand washing should be approximately 10 minutes.
Choose the BEST answer. To ensure adequate protection for legal issues, offices should maintain patient's charts for: A. 10 years B. Forever C. Until the age of majority D. 2 years after the patient was last seen in the office.
B. Forever Keeping medical charts forever will ensure that the charts are available in the event of litigation.
A health care provider who practices under false qualifications/credentials is guilty of: A. Slander B. Fraud C. Misrepresentation D. Liable
B. Fraud
When washing hands, the three most important factors include: A. Antibacterial soap, length of time spent, and hot water. B. Friction, soap and warm running water. C. Position of the hands, friction, and water temperature. D. Length of time spent, type of soap, and running water.
B. Friction, soap, and warm running water.
Which of the following terms is spelled correctly? A. Gastrointestinel B. Gastrointestinal C. Gastrointestinol D. Gastrointestinul
B. Gastrointestinal
A 56 yr old female complained of dizziness, weakness and diaphoresis. The patient is a known diabetic. You took the patient's blood sugar and it showed hypoglycemia. What is the next best step? A. Give her Nitroglycerin B. Give juice, candy or soda C. Assess the patient's airway D. Perform ECG
B. Give juice, candy or soda. In diabetic emergencies, such as hypoglycemia, giving a sugar source is the next best step. A sugar source can be a juice, candy or soda.
Which of the following can be disinfected and reused without sterilization? A. Needles and syringes B. Glassware and enamelware C. Vaginal specula D. Curettes
B. Glassware and enamelware
Which of the following describes the cluster of blood capillaries found in each nephron in the kidney? A. Afferent arteriole B. Glomerulus C. Loop of Henle D. Renal pelvis E. Renal tubule
B. Glomerulus
An interval after a payment is due to the insurance company in which the policy holder may make payments, and still the policy remains in effect is called: A. Extended benefits. B. Grace period. C. Coordination of benefits. D. Lapse time.
B. Grace period.
Which of the following stains classify bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative? A. PAP B. Gram C. Hematoxylin D. Wright's
B. Gram
To help classify bacteria into two groups; gram-positive and gram-negative is a special stain called? A. Glass-stain B. Gram-stain C. Germicide D. Bacteria-stain
B. Gram-stain
Which of the following is characteristic of an oil-immersion objective? A. There is an air space between the specimen under examination and the objective. B. It is used for specimens that need extreme magnification. C. It has a low-power lens with magnification factor of 10x. D. Condensed light passes through the specimen and the air space above the specimen as it travels toward the objective lens.
B. It is used for specimens that need extreme magnification.
A disadvantage of gas sterilization is: A. It raises the temperature in the unit to 270 degrees F. B. It uses ethylene oxide which is hazardous to humans and to the environment. C. The instruments must be placed in a small chamber. D. It generally takes up to 10 hours to complete the process.
B. It uses ethylene oxide which is hazardous to humans and to the environment.
When making travel arrangements for the physician to attend a medical seminar or convention, the medical assistant should provide the physician with details of the entire trip, including dates and times of arrival and departure, flight and hotel confirmation numbers, and other details all in one document. This detailed description is called: A. Locum tenens. B. Itinerary. C. Agenda. D. None of the above.
B. Itinerary
The Latin term meaning, "the thing has been decided," is: A. Meant by the phrase, "Res ipsa loquitor, " and says that a claim cannot be retried between two parties. B. Meant by the phrase, "Res judicata," and says that a claim cannot be retried between two parties. C. Meant by the phrase, "Subpoena duces tecum." D. Meant by the phrase, "Respondeat superior."
B. Meant by the phrase, "Res judicata," and says that a claim cannot be retried between two parties. A lawsuit that has been decided in the courts cannot be retried. This is described by the Latin term, "Res judicata."
A health program for people age 65 and older under social security is: A. Tri-care. B. Medicare. C. Champva. D. Worker's compensation.
B. Medicare.
A medical assistant is performing ECG. Where should the V3 electrode be placed? A. 4th ICS left sterna border. B. Midway between V2 and V4. C. 5th intercostals space right sterna border. D. Right bicep
B. Midway between V2 and V4. Electrode V3 is placed between V2 and V4. Electrode V2 is placed on 4th ICS left sterna border, and V4 is placed on the 5th ICS mid clavicular line.
A sudden loud noise made in the vicinity of a newborn infant is likely to elicit which of the following reflexes? A. Babinski B. Moro C. Rooting D. Palmar grasp E. Stepping
B. Moro
The trackball, the TouchPad, and the________________are types of pointing devices. A. Scanner B. Mouse C. Cursor D. Template
B. Mouse
Which of the following best describes the human body's defense mechanism against environmental bacteria? A. Hair in the nose. B. Mucous membranes. C. Osteoblasts. D. Saliva. E. Tears.
B. Mucous membranes.
Drugs that are administered intramuscularly are absorbed through the: A. Skin B. Muscle C. Stomach D. Intestine
B. Muscle
A drug that causes the pupil of the eye to dilate is called a _______________. A. Myotic B. Mydriatic C. Placebo D. Vaccine
B. Mydriatic
What license must a physician have to dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances? A. Lawyers B. Narcotics C. Business D. Occupational
B. Narcotics
The brain is part of the: A. Integumentary system B. Nervous system C. Endocrine system D. Respiratory system
B. Nervous system The brain is part of the nervous system.
Which of the following drugs would be used to treat GERD? A. Claritin B. Nexium C. Nuprin D. Celebrex
B. Nexium Nexium is a medication used to control acid secretions of the stomach and can help to decrease the symptoms of acid reflux.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for heart disease? A. Diabetes B. No immunizations C. Inactivity D. Hypertension
B. No immunizations Risk factors for heart disease include the following: diabetes, smoking, high cholesterol, inactivity, family history, obesity, and hypertension. Immunization is not a risk factor for heart disease.
What is the most widely used regular envelope size? A. No. 9 B. No. 10 C. No. 11 D. No. 12
B. No. 10 envelope The cost commonly used envelope size is the number 10. Regular envelope is a closed face envelope with no window. They are the most common used in business to send letters and other mailings.
Which is not part of effective communication? A. Message B. Noise C. Sender D. Feedback
B. Noise
Beneficial bacteria found in the body that create a barrier against pathogens are called: A. Antigens. B. Normal flora. C. Immunity. D. Virulence
B. Normal flora
Voucher checks are commonly used for: A. Insurance payments B. Payroll C. Cash converted to foreign currency D. To obtain petty cash
B. Payroll A voucher check allows additional information such as deductions to be on the check for the employee's information. These checks are commonly used for payroll. Even if the check is directly deposited, the employee will receive a copy of the voucher check.
The most common keyboard layout is: A. DVORAC B. QWERTY C. AZERTY D. MALTRON
B. QWERTY QWERTY layout is the most common keyboard layout in the English language. The name QWERTY was derived from the first six letters on the keyboard on the top left.
Adult height should be measured to the nearest: A. Eighth of an inch B. Quarter of an inch C. Half-inch D. Inch
B. Quarter of an inch
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Reschedule is: A. c/o B. RS C. STD D. Pap
B. RS
When taking a patient's pulse, the most commonly used artery is: A. Apical B. Radial C. Carotid D. Axillary
B. Radial The radial artery is found in the groove on the thumb side of the inner wrist. This is the most commonly used side and very easily accessible.
Which of the following is the most common type of urine sample and can be taken at anytime of the day? A. Timed urine specimen B. Random urine specimen C. First morning urine specimen D. Clean-catch midstream urine specimen
B. Random urine specimen
Red marked glass thermometers are used to take what temperature? A. Axillary B. Rectal C. Tympanic Membrane D. Oral
B. Rectal Red tip thermometers are rectal thermometers. Blue tip thermometers are used orally or axillary.
How should a 24-hour urine specimen be stored during collection? A. At body temp. B. Refrigerator C. At room temp. D. In a freezer
B. Refrigerator
A patient who was diagnosed with lung cancer starts sucking his thumb and assumes a fetal position. What defense mechanism is she manifesting? A. Sublimation B. Regression C. Repression D. Denial
B. Regression Regression is escaping back into an earlier developmental stage when confronted with a distressing event. Regression is one of Anna Freud's defense mechanisms.
What does RIDDOR stand for? A. Risk of Injury, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Reporting. B. Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations. C. Reporting of Information on Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Risk. D. Risk of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations.
B. Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations.
A patient with both a visual and hearing impairment requires pre-operative teaching by the medical assistant. What would be most essential in such a situation? A. Be sure to speak loud and slow to the patient. B. Request that the patient repeats to you, in his/her own words, the pre-operative information. C. Insist that someone accompany the patient to the office.
B. Request that the patient repeats to you, in his/her own words, the pre-operative information.
A patient sues a physician for malpractice. The judge awards in the favor of the physician. The patient cannot re-sue the physician due to: A. Res ipsa loquitor B. Res judicata C. Respondeat superior D. Subpoena duces tecum
B. Res judicata The Latin phrase, "Res judicata," means that once a case is tried and a ruling is put down, the case cannot be retried by either party
The payment system used by Medicare is based on: A. Prevailing rates in the region. B. Resources. C. The value of the service rendered. D. Fee for service.
B. Resources
What principle of law stands for the proposition that a physician is liable for her employees while working under her supervision? A. Res ipsa loquitor B. Respondeat superior C. Negligence D. Malpractice
B. Respondeat superior A physician can be held liable for his or her employees while working under his or her supervision. Respondeat superior means "let the master answer." It is a form of vicarious liability.
Over summer vacation, Gwen sees a boy she knows from school, but she has difficulty remembering his name. Which of her memory processes is failing in this situation? A. Storage B. Retrieval C. Encoding D. Short-term memory E. Sensory memory
B. Retrieval
When reading the CPT manual, a 🔺️ triangle next to a code notes: A. A new procedure. B. Revised code description. C. Add-on codes. D. Codes that are not to be used with modifier -51.
B. Revised code description. Symbols added to CPT codes give the codes additional information. A 🔺️ triangle will denote that a code has recently been revised.
Which of the following is NOT considered a mineral? A. Iodine B. Riboflavin C. Magnesium D. Zinc
B. Riboflavin Riboflavin is the common name of Vitamin B2. It is a vitamin, not a mineral. Iodine, Magnesium, and Zinc are all minerals.
A 21 year old patient came in complaining that he had been exposed to poison ivy. What initial step should be taken? A. Call 911. B. Rinse the affected area immediately with copious amount of water. C. Apply antibiotic cream right away. D. Call poison center and ask for antidote.
B. Rinse the affected area immediately with copious amount of water. The initial treatment for someone who has recently been exposed to Poison Ivy includes rinsing the affected area with generous amounts of water to flush the resin. Cleaning the clothing that may have come into contact with the plant should be done next.
First aid for frostbite includes: A. Running cold water over the affected area. Warm or hot water will shock the area. And cause more tissue damage. B. Run warm water over the area to warm the areas quickly as possible. C. Run hot over the area to warm the areas quickly as possible. D. Cover the area with a blanket, using a heating pad if if the blanket isn't warm enough.
B. Run warm water over the area to warm the areas quickly as possible. Frostbite is dangerous because it can take away a patient's ability to accurately assess the temperature of water that is used to treat it. This could result in potential burns,making the frostbite even more dangerous. Warm water should be used to warm the area. Medical assistants is necessary if the tissue appears to necrotic.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Suture removal is: A. R B. S/R C. SRL D. reü
B. S/R
Which of the following is a method of documentation used by health care providers to write out notes in a patient's chart, along with other common formats, such as the admission note? A. Physical Examination B. SOAP notes C. Prognosis chart D. Review of Systems
B. SOAP notes SOAP notes is a documentation method employed by health care providers to create patient charts. There are four parts of a SOAP note: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan.
The greeting used in a letter such as "To whom it may concern:" is what part of a letter? A. Complimentary closing B. Salutation C. Signature D. Attention line
B. Salutation "To whom it may concern:" is a salutation. A salutation is a greeting used written communications. Salutations can be formal or informal. The salutation "Dear" is the most widely used salutation.
A device that reads documents and converts them into digital data: A. Printer B. Scanner C. Flash drive D. CPU
B. Scanner A scanner reads or converts printed material directly into a format readable by a computer. It captures images from photographs, prints, and similar sources for computer editing and display.
Identify the level of Preventions - Tuberculin skin test: A. Primary level of prevention. B. Secondary level of prevention. C. Third level of prevention.
B. Secondary level of prevention.
Identify the level of Preventions - Annual Mammograms: A. Primary level of prevention. B. Secondary level of prevention. C. Third level of prevention.
B. Secondary level of preventions.
Which are the three necessary components of communication? A. Sender, Receiver, Feedback B. Sender, Message, Receiver C. Message, Feedback, Clarification D. Sender, Interpretation, Receiver
B. Sender, Message, Receiver The three necessary components of communication include, Sender, Message, and Receiver. If any of these components are missing, communication cannot occur.
The ______________ switch controls the gain or amplitude on the EKG. A. Major B. Sensitivity C. Red D. Ticker
B. Sensitivity
Which of the following types of preoperative teaching gives patients a description of the physical sensations they may have during the procedure? A. Factual B. Sensory C. Participatory D. Modeling
B. Sensory
While the duration of the ST segment is not generally of clinical significance, it is an exceedingly important portion of the ECG because of? A. The fact that it follows the QRS complex. B. Shifts up or down from the baseline. C. Upward deflection from the baseline. D. The shift away from the ischemic area.
B. Shifts up or down from the baseline.
A patient presents with a rapid and weak pulse, shallow breathing, hypotension and cold and clammy skin from a gunshot wound. What is the condition of this patient? A. Hemorrhage B. Shock C. Stroke D. Heart attack
B. Shock The patient's presentation is hypovolemic shock due to massive blood loss. The patient presents with rapid and weak pulse, shallow breathing, hypotension and cold and clammy skin.
Patients who are habitually late: A. Should be charged a late fee. B. Should be scheduled at the end of the day. C. Should be rescheduled for another day each time they are late. D. Are showing signs of mental incapacity.
B. Should be scheduled at the end of the day. Patients who are habitually late should be scheduled for the end of the day so other patients who have arrived on time do not have to wait for their appointment times.
Where is the Scapula part of the body? A. Wrist B. Shoulder Blade C. Knee D. Hips
B. Shoulder Blade
The absence of one or more complete cardiac cycles where the rhythm is interrupted is referred to as? A. Atrial flutter B. Sinus arrest C. Ventricular arrhythmia D. Sinus Wenckebach
B. Sinus arrest
Intradermal drugs are absorbed through the: A. Stomach or intestines B. Skin C. Muscle D. Vein
B. Skin
The prefix brady (as in bradycardia) means: A. Fast B. Slow C. Slow D. Without
B. Slow
A teenager is mad because he doesn't want to eat his vegetables. Because of this, he develops abdominal pain. This is an example of: A. Reaction formation B. Somatization C. Intellectualization D. Repression
B. Somatization Somatization is the transference of an emotional distress into a physical manifestation. The symptoms the patient feels are real, and aren't manufactured or faked on purpose.
In the medical office the most frequently performed pulmonary function test is? A. Nebulization B. Spirometry C. Sigmoidoscopy D. Mantoux test
B. Spirometry
Assuming that an elderly that an elderly patient will have difficult time understanding the directions for how to take medication is an example of: A. Prejudice B. Stereotyping C. Encoding D. Rationalization
B. Stereotyping Stereotyping is defined as providing a generalization about a person based on his culture. The medical assistant in this situation was stereotyping her patient by believing that her patient would automatically have a difficult time understanding directions based solely on the fact that the patient is elderly. A prejudice is forming a negative opinion of someone based on his or her heritage or culture.
A healthcare provider is addressing a culturally, ethnically, and racially diverse group of expectant mothers in the context of a birthing class. While discussing the differences between Western and non-Western approaches to childbirth, she refers to one of the participants, a young woman from a rural, traditional village in Africa, as someone who could provide the group with rich perspectives regarding natural childbirth. Which is the most salient feature of the healthcare provider's style of communication in relation to the young African woman? A. Treating everyone as a unique individual. B. Stereotyping or pre-judging the influence of an individual's culture. C. Incorporating into the treatment plan the patient's folk beliefs. D. Acknowledging differences and similarities between cultures.
B. Stereotyping or pre-judging the influence of an individual's culture.
The acronym FAST is used to help responders remember the steps to recognizing which of the following conditions? A. Onset of labor in a pregnant woman. B. Stroke C. Heart attack D. Migraine
B. Stroke The acronym FAST stands for: Face, Arms, Sentence, and Time. Patients that are having a stroke will show asymmetry of the face, will not be able to hold his arms at the same level out to the sides, will not be able to repeat a sentence, and needs to get to the emergency room without wasting time.
The route of medication administration that goes to the fatty layer is: A. Intramuscular B. Subcutaneous C. Intradermal D. Intralipoid
B. Subcutaneous Subcutaneous (SC) injection is given in the fatty layer just beneath the skin. The SC injection is generally absorbed more slowly. Some medications that can be injected subcutaneously are growth hormones and insulin.
The appropriate way to file a Medicare form for a patient who cannot sign a claim form is to: A. Have the physician sign the claim form. B. Submit the patient's signature on a Lifetime Beneficiary Claim Authorization and Information Release. C. Ask a family member to sign the claim form. D. Submit the claim form with no signature.
B. Submit the patient's signature on a Lifetime Beneficiary Claim Authorization and Information Release.
One who belongs to a group insurance plan is called: A. Third-party payer. B. Subscriber. C. Carrier. D. None of the above.
B. Subscriber.
Schedule I drugs include ____________________________. A. Miscellaneous mixtures containing limited amounts of narcotic drugs. B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse. C. Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse. D. None of the above
B. Substances that have no accepted medical use and a high potential for abuse.
Which of the following is a form used in a medical office to reflect the professional services rendered during a patient visit? A. Ledger B. Superbill C. Point of service D. Claim
B. Superbill A superbill is a medical office form used to reflect the professional services rendered during a patient visit. It offers a standard way of itemizing diagnostic and therapeutic procedures used in a patient.
The thoracic cavity is _____________to the abdominal cavity. A. Distal B. Superior C. Inferior D. Ventral
B. Superior
All of the following are steps in the hiring process, EXCEPT: A. Checking references B. Supervision C. An offer D. Recruiting
B. Supervision Supervision is part of management practice, not a hiring process. Recruitment, interviewing, checking references, selection, negotiation and offer and acceptance are employed in the hiring process.
Incidental supplies are: A. Occasionally reordered. B. Supplies needed in the office but do not threaten the efficiency of the office. C. Used only once and thrown away. D. Items absolutely necessary to ensure the smooth running of the practice.
B. Supplies needed in the office but do not threaten the efficiency of the office.
The point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another is: A. Nerve center B. Synapse C. Dendrite D. Terminal plate
B. Synapse
The abbreviation for syrup is _________. A. Sup B. Syr C. Spp D. Syp
B. Syr
The contraction phase of the atria and ventricles is called the: A. Cardiac cycle B. Systole C. Polarity D. Diastole
B. Systole
A patient was brought to the emergency room because of slurring of speech and weakness of the right arm. Six hours after, the patient feels normal. What is the condition of this patient? A. Stroke B. TIA C. Myocardial infarction D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
B. TIA A transient ischemic attack (TIA) is when blood flow to a part of the brain stops for a brief period of time. A person will have stroke-like symptoms for up to 24 hours.
A medical assistant took the vital signs of a patient. The patient has been complaining of palpitations and dypnea. His pulse rate is 120 and respiratory rate is 8. What is the patient's condition? A. Bradycardia and bradypnea B. Tachycardia and bradypnea C. Bradycardia and tachypnea D. Tachycardia and tachypnea
B. Tachycardia and bradypnea. The patient has a fast pulse and is breathing slow- tachycardia and bradypnea. The normal pulse rate is 60-100 bpm and normal respiration is 12-20.
A mix of self-motivation and ___________ should be used when seeking areas to assist fellow team members. A. Confidence B. Tact C. Pride D. Remembering
B. Tact A mix self-motivation and tact should be used when seeking areas to assist fellow team members.
When handling a patient complaint, which one of the following would be most appropriate? A. If the patient is angry, match his/her anger level, and she/he will calm down. B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes. C. Refuse to talk to patients who are complaining. D. None of the above.
B. Take all complaints seriously and take thorough notes.
Physicians perform general physical examinations for what purposes? A. To obtain information about the patient's educational and social history. B. To examine a healthy patient to confirm an overall state of health and to provide baseline values for vital signs and mensuration. C. To order laboratory and x-ray tests in order to make a differential diagnosis. D. To obtain information about the patient's financial status.
B. To examine a healthy patient to confirm an overall state of health and to provide baseline values for vital signs and mensuration.
Which ECG electrode is placed on the 5th ICS on the left mid-clavicular line? A. V3 B. V4 C. V5 D. V6
B. V4 The V4 electrode is placed on the 5th ICS on the left mid-clavicular line. V5 and V6 electrodes are placed on the 5th ICS anterior and mid axillary lines.
Social-class differences in vocabulary development result from social class differences in the amount of: A. Maternal anxiety B. Verbal stimulation C. Paternal illness D. Sibling rivalry E. Marital discord
B. Verbal stimulation
Bacteria that are comma-shaped are: A. Spirillum B. Vibrio C. Coccus D. Bacillus
B. Vibrio
What vitamin deficiency will lead to night blindness? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin C
B. Vitamin A Deficiency of the fat soluble vitamin A will lead to night blindness. Night blindness or nyctalopia is a vision impairment. People with night blindness experience poor vision at night or in dimly lit environments.
Which of the following employment forms is necessary when considering choosing tax exemptions? A. W2 B. W4 C. I9 D. C3PO
B. W4 W4 forms are the federal forms used to choose exemptions.
The medical assistant that handles the scheduling has scheduled 3 patients for the three to four o'clock time frame. All of the patients were told to arrive at 3 o'clock. Which of the following scheduling methods BEST describes which is being used in this example? A. Double booking B. Wave scheduling C. Walk-in D. Advance
B. Wave scheduling Wave scheduling requires having patients scheduled for the top of each hour. Patients are then seen in the order that they arrive in the office. This will allow for small shifts in appointment times if patients arrive early or late.
If weight bearing is a problem for a patient but they need to exercise for bone health, what will you recommend? A. Bicycling B. Weight lifting C. Isometric exercises D. Use of a treadmill
B. Weight lifting
If a supply company fails to deliver merchandise within the designated time frame established by the FTC, the supply company: A. Will give a partial refund. B. Will give the option of canceling the order. C. Will ship some other merchandise as a substitute. D. Will send a letter stating the merchandise will be shipped as soon as possible.
B. Will give the option of canceling the order.
Which of the following is NOT considered to be computer hardware? A. Mouse B. Windows C. Printer D. Scanner
B. Windows Windows is a computer operating software. Mouse, printer and scanners are considered computer hardware. Hardware refers to the physical components that make up a computer system.
Which of the following is the recommended setting for the autoclave? A. 450 F for 30 minutes B. 175 F for 20 minutes C. 250 F for 30 minutes D. 320 F for 20 minutes
C. 250 F for 30 minutes An autoclave is a pressurized chamber used to sterilize equipment and supplies. The recommended settings for an autoclave is: 250 degrees Fahrenheit for 20-30 minutes at 15 pounds of pressure.
The Federal Trade Commission requires supply companies to provide merchandise within _________days. A. 10 B. 14 C. 30 D. 60
C. 30 days
How many sections, or chambers, does the heart have? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
C. 4
A physician's prescription ordered 120 mg per day of a medication for a patient. The patient is to take one-half the dose in the morning and one-half in the evening. The medication comes only in 30 mg tablets. How many tablets will the patient take combined in one day? A. 6 B. 8 C. 4 D. 2
C. 4 The patient will take two tablets, totaling 60 mg in the morning and two tablets, totaling 60 mg. in the evening. That will be a combined total of 4 tablets in one day.
If a woman asks at what age should she be screened by mammography for breast cancer, your answer should be? A. 30 B. 35 C. 40 D. 50
C. 40 Mammography should be done starting at age 40, then every 2 years. As a screening test,only mammography is proven to lower mortality.
At what age group do bone and muscle start to decrease and wrinkles appear? A. 20-30 B. 30-40 C. 40-50 D. 60-70
C. 40-50 At around age 45, the bone and muscle mass start to decrease. Other physical changes: wrinkles appear, hair decreases and reflexes become slower.
How many drug schedules are there under the Controlled Substances Act? A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 10
C. 5 There are 5 drug schedules under the Federal Controlled Substances Act. Drug schedules place controlled substances in categories based on the potential for abuse. Category I drugs have the most potential for abuse while Category V have the lowest.
Most human bodies are composed of about ______% water. A. 25% B. 45% C. 65% D. 80%
C. 65%
A pH of _________is neither acid nor base. A. 1 B. 5 C. 7 D. 8
C. 7
The amount Medicare pays the physician or health-care provider after the $100 annual deductible is met is: A. 20% B. 50% C. 80% D. 100%
C. 80%
If the physician writes on the medical chart, "Impression is Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia," where should this be placed in the SOAP chart? A. S B. O C. A D. P
C. A An impression is a tentative diagnosis of the patient. It is part of the Assessment component of the SOAP chart.
Improper placement of the hands under the rib cage when performing the Heimlich maneuver could result in: A. Damage to the manubrium of the sternum. B. Damage to the coccyx. C. A broken xiphoid process. D. None of the above is possible, even with improper hand placement.
C. A broken xiphoid process. The xiphoid process is located at the inferior aspect of the sternum. If the hands are placed too close to this process and pressure is applied, the process can break off and damage internal organs.
On which type of wound would staples be used on? A. A small, superficial cut on the finger. B. The area where a mole was removed on the upper arm. C. A long and deep wound across the leg. D. An area inside the mouth where the dentist accidentally scraped the tissue.
C. A long and deep wound across the leg.
Kimiko is interested in children's relationships with same-sex and opposite-sex peers. She observes children's behavior in their normal, everyday environment (for example, at school). She records each time a child speaks to or plays with another child and whether that other child is the same or opposite sex. She uses s stopwatch to record how long the children play with their peers. This research method is: A. A clinical interview B. A structured interview C. A naturalistic observation D. A structured observation E. An ethnography
C. A naturalistic observation
Which of the following is characteristic of a sub-cellular microorganism? A. A complex cell structure containing a nucleus. B. A highly structured organism with specialized organelles in the cytoplasm. C. A non-cellular structure in which the nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat. D. A simple cell structure with no nucleus and no organelles in the cytoplasm.
C. A non-cellular structure in which the nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat.
Which of the following measures light intensity and is a basic electronic component of many pieces of analytic laboratory equipment? A. A glucometer B. A hemocytometer C. A photometer D. A centrifuge
C. A photometer
What legislation prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in employment, transportation, public accommodation, communications, and governmental activities? A. CDC B. OSHA C. ADA D. CLIA
C. ADA The American with Disabilities Act (ADA) prohibits discrimination against people with disabilities in employment, transportation, public accommodation, communications, and governmental activities. The ADA was passed by Congress in 1990.
All of the following are credentials given to a medical assistant who passes a certification exam, EXCEPT: A. CMA B. CCMA C. AMA D. RMA
C. AMA AMA refers to American Medical Association, and is not a credential. It is an association for physicians. CMA, RMA, and CCMA are credentials given to medical assistants who pass the certification exam by the AAMA, RMT, and NHA.
A 40 yr. old obese female was seen in the office because of a right upper quadrant pain. If gallbladder stones are suspected, which diagnostic test would most likely be requested for this patient? A. Abdominal x-ray B. Pyelogram C. Abdominal ultrasound D. Angiogram
C. Abdominal ultrasound The recommended test for gallstones is an abdominal ultrasound or abdominal CT scan. Other further tests that can be requested are HIDA scan, MRI, or ERCP.
How will you make sure that the electrodes will adhere to the skin of the patient? A. Open a brand new electrode package B. Warm your hands C. Apply alcohol to the placement sites. D. Apply the cables before placing the electrodes on the skin
C. Apply alcohol to the placement sites. Proper placement of electrodes requires cleaning the sites with alcohol to remove oils, dirt and substances on the skin. This will prevent the electrodes from falling from the skin throughout the duration of the procedure.
A 28 year old man cut himself with a knife while slicing a rack of ribs. To control the patient's hemorrhage, the initial step is to: A. Apply a tourniquet below the site. B. Immobilize the part. C. Apply direct pressure. D. Give topical antibiotic.
C. Apply direct pressure. The initial step in a bleeding patient is to prevent the patient from bleeding further by applying direct pressure on the site. Applying a tourniquet below the site will not stop the bleeding. The part should be elevated.
Which of the following is produced by capillaries in the ciliary body and is located in the space between the cornea and the lens? A. Vitreous humor B. Rods C. Aqueous humor D. Cones
C. Aqueous humor
Which of the following is MOST TRUE about the ESR test: A. The results are diagnostic for certain conditions. B. Abnormal results are indicative of a potentially fatal illness. C. Abnormal results should be followed with additional testing. D. Results are reported in millimeters per minute.
C. Abnormal results should be followed with additional testing. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a screening test for inflammation. The test is not used to diagnose any condition and abnormal results should be investigated further. Results are reported in millimeters per hour.
The stage of formal operations is characterized by: A. The application of logical thought to concrete objects and situations. B. Intuitive and animistic thought. C. Abstract thought and hypothetical problem solving. D. The development of transductive reasoning. E. The ability to conserve.
C. Abstract thought and hypothetical problem solving.
A doctor's office recently bought new waiting room furniture and financed the purchase. From the perspective of the doctor's office, what is the nature of the debt owed to the vendor? A. Asset B. Account receivable C. Account payable D. Owner's equity
C. Account payable An account payable is money owed to a vendor. These can be for purchases, for goods or services.
When you pull the second slide apart from the first slide, let them ________________. A. Stand for one hour. B. Stand for four minutes. C. Air dry D. Blow on them to dry them.
C. Air dry
Maintenance of office cleanliness and arrangement is the responsibility of: A. The maintenence company paid to clean the office. B. The landlord who rents the office space. C. All staff of the physician. D. The medical assistant.
C. All staff of the physician. Cleanliness and order in the office is maintained by all the staff of the physician, not only the medical assistant. There may be a company contracted to clean the office at the end of the day; however, maintaining it is the staff's responsibility.
Which of the following is NOT included in the Present Illness History? A. Timing B. Location C. Allergies D. Associated symptoms
C. Allergies Information about patient allergies is NOT included in the History of Present Illness. It is part of the Past History or in a separate Allergy section.
What is the benefit of the Advanced Scheduling system? A. Walk-ins are accommodated easily throughout the day. B. Emergencies can be handled more effectively and with more staff. C. Allows patients to plan ahead with their health care needs. D. Patients have an easier time remembering appointments.
C. Allows patients to plan ahead with their health care needs. Advanced Scheduling systems involve pre- scheduling. This allows the patients to prepare for their exam ahead of time.
A 28 year old complains of insomnia after breaking up with her boyfriend of 10 years. She requested a sleeping pill. Which of the following is recommended for her? A. Nexium B. Amoxil C. Ambien D. Allegra
C. Ambien Ambien is a sedative-hypnotic drug. It works by slowing activity in the brain, and is used to treat insomnia. The generic name of Ambien is zolpidem tartrate.
A physician believes that a patient may be experiencing pancreatitis. Which of the following tests would be the best to diagnose this condition? A. CK and Troponin B. BUN and Creatinine C. Amylase and Lipase D. HDL and LDL Cholesterol levels
C. Amylase and Lipase Patients experiencing pancreatitis will have increased blood levels of amylase and lipase, two enzymes produced by the pancreas that break down carbohydrates and lipids, respectively.
A patient was stung by a bee while on a camping trip. After 30 minutes, she complained of wheezing and hives. Most likely, the patient has: A. Asthma B. Shock C. Anaphylaxis D. Stroke
C. Anaphylaxis Anaphylaxis is a life-threatening allergic reaction to an allergen. Symptoms of anaphylaxis include: shortness of breath, hives, itchiness, swelling, chest discomfort, nasal congestion, abdominal discomfort, and dizziness.
A(n) ________________maintains pain relief and bodily function stability. A. Pulmonologist B. Allergist C. Anesthesiologist D. Immunologist
C. Anesthesiologist An anesthesiologist maintains pain relief and bodily function stability.
Nitroglycerine is used for the treatment of which of the following? A. Narcotic overdose B. Inflammation C. Angina Pectoris D. Anxiety
C. Angina Pectoris
A child explains thunder as "the clouds yelling at each other." This is an example of: A. Conservation B. Reversibility C. Animistic reasoning D. Egoistic thinking E. Logical inference
C. Animistic reasoning
A drug that neutralizes acidity is called a(n)? A. Anti-diarrhetic B. Anti-nauseant C. Antacid D. Placebo
C. Antacid
Antibiotic resistance is best prevented by: A. Prescribe more than one antibiotic to the patient. B. Prolong with antibiotic treatment C. Follow the recommended dose and duration of the antibiotic treatment. D. Increase the dose slightly higher to kill more bacteria.
C. Follow the recommended dose and duration of the antibiotic treatment. Antibiotic resistance is best prevented by following the recommended doses and duration of the antibiotic treatment. Most resistance is due to incomplete treatment because of non-compliance of patient.
Which of the following are examples of negative communication? A. Speaking slowly. B. Looking directly at a patient when speaking. C. Forgetting to say thank you. D. Encouraging the patient to ask questions.
C. Forgetting to say thank you.
The pharmaceutical abbreviations "qid" means ________________. A. Every hour B. Every day C. Four times a day D. Every week
C. Four times a day
The physician wrote on the prescription "Take Penicillin 1 tablet qid." The abbreviation "qid" means: A. Two times a day B. Three times a day C. Four times a day D. Orally
C. Four times a day. The abbreviation qid refers to four times a day. The abbreviation qid or q.i.d. is also sometimes written as QID.
To calculate doses, what is the pediatric method for calculation based on infants younger than 2 years old? A. Clark's Rule B. Nomogram C. Fried's Rule D. Young's Rule
C. Fried's Rule Fried's Rule is based on the age of the child (infant) in months and used when calculating doses in an infant less than 2 years old. Estimate the dose of medicine by multiplying the adult dose by the child's age in months and then divide the product by 150.
In which way does an individual develop a natural active immunity? A. When antibodies from the mother cross the placenta to the fetus. B. From immunization with antibodies to a disease-causing organism. C. From exposure to organisms that cause a disease. D. From administration of a vaccine with killed or weakened organisms.
C. From exposure to organisms that cause a disease.
Which of the following are high-fiber foods? A. Poultry and meats. B. Milk and milk products. C. Fruits, vegetables, and whole grain breads. D. Rich pastries and candy.
C. Fruits, vegetables, and whole grain breads.
A letter style in which all lines begin at the left margin: A. Modified block B. Semi-block C. Full block D. Simplified
C. Full block Full block is a letter style in which all lines begin at the left margin. It is the most common style.
A physician visited a nursing home and billed ten patients; however, he only provided services to eight of them. This is referred to as: A. Ping-ponging B. Unbundling C. Gang visit D. Split visit
C. Gang visit Medicare fraud is intentionally billing Medicare for services that were never provided. A gang visit is an example of this - billing patients when not all patients were provided services.
Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal sphincter? A. Crohn's disease B. Esophageal varices C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease D. Pyloric stenosis E. Stomatitis
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
A procedure in which a flexible fiber-optic tube is passed through the patient's mouth to the stomach is called a: A. Colonoscopy B. Duodenoscopy C. Gastroscopy D. Proctoscopy
C. Gastroscopy
A/an __________________ is the segment of DNA that determines a body trait. A. Cytokine B. RNA C. Gene D. Chromosome
C. Gene
Dr. Findlay is retiring and closing his practice. What is the practice required to do? A. Inform the patients that he will no longer be able to assist them. B. Telephone each patient personally and tell them that they should pick up their records. C. Inform the patients in writing that the practice is closing and provide instructions for retrieving their medical records. D. There is no obligation for a practice to take any actions.
C. Inform the patients in writing that the practice is closing and provide instructions for retrieving their medical records. When a physician dies or decides to close the practice, the patients must be notified in writing of the time frame for closing and any instructions for retrieving their medical records or how to have the practice transfer their records to another practice.
If a medical assistant defies the doctor and refuses to obey his orders, it is an act of: A. Prejudice B. Sarcasm C. Insubordination D. Tenacity
C. Insubordination Failure to obey orders and defiance of authority is insubordination. Refusing to obey an order that is unethical or illegal is not considered insubordination.
Before, referring a patient to another facility, a medical assistant should be sure to verify the patient's: A. Address B. Income C. Insurance D. Transportation
C. Insurance
The first line of defense people have against disease is: A. Tears. B. Saliva. C. Intact skin. D. Internal secretions
C. Intact skin
You have been monitoring the oral temperature of Mr. Hadley for the past 10 days. His temperature shows that he is having alternating febrile and afebrile days. This type of fever pattern is known as: A. Continuous fever B. Remittent fever C. Intermittent fever D. Relapsing fever
C. Intermittent fever Intermittent fever is when the patient has alternating days with fever and days with normal temperature. Malaria is an example of a disease where fever comes and goes.
This injection technique or route of administration is performed at an angle of 90 degrees: A. Subcutaneous injection B. Intravenous injection C. Intramuscular injection D. Intradermal injection
C. Intramuscular injection Intramuscular (IM) injections are inserted at a 90 degree angle. Examples of IM drugs are: HPV, Tetanus Diphtheria, Hepatitis A and B.
The mordant in the Gram Stain procedure is: A. The Chrystal Violet B. The Methyl Alcohol C. Iodine D. Safranin
C. Iodine The Gram Stain procedure uses 4 chemicals: chrystal violet (primary stain), Gram's iodine (mordant), Methyl Alcohol (decolorizer), and Safranin (counterstain).
The CPT Coding Book: A. Provides a 5 digit code for all procedures or services that may be performed on a patient. B. Provides numeric codes that allow for easier communication with insurance providers. C. Is divided into six sections. D. All of the above.
C. Is divided into six sections. The CPT coding book is used to code procedures and diagnostic testing. The manual is divided into six sections and contains 5 digit codes for medical procedures.
A deductible: A. Is paid by the insurance company in full. B. Is deducted from the payment owed to the physician. C. Is paid by the patient before insurance coverage pays for medical costs. D. Is money owed to the insurance company.
C. Is paid by the patient before insurance coverage pays for medical costs. Deductibles are set amounts of fees that will be the responsibility of the patient and are not covered by insurance. These fees usually have a limit and once that limit is reached, the insurance will then cover the difference.
If the patient is suspected to be color blind, which test should the medical assistant prepare the patient for? A. Snellen B. E chart C. Ishihara D. Jaeger
C. Ishihara Ishihara test is a test for color-blindness. Patients are asked to distinguish numbers printed on a background of colored spots.
Patients diagnosed with hypertension are given a medication called hydrochlorothiazide. How does this medication work to treat hypertension? A. It reduces the amount of red blood cells in the bone marrow. B. It allows muscles to contract more forcefully. C. It increases urination. D. None of the above.
C. It increases urination. Hydrochlorothiazide is a medication that reduces blood volume by increasing the production of urination by acting as a diuretic. This will lower blood pressure.
What does pulse oximetry evaluate? A. It measures the heart rhythm of the patient. B. It measures the pulse and the respiration of the patient. C. It measures oxygen saturation in arterial blood. D. It measures oxygen saturation in venous blood.
C. It measures oxygen saturation in arterial blood. Pulse oximetry is used to measures oxygen saturation in arterial. It is considered to be noninvasive, painless and a general indicator of oxygen delivery to the tissues.
When dealing with a patient who is getting mad and irritated, the medical assistant should: A. Call security to prevent escalation of the situation. B. Tell the patient that he will not be seen if he continues his behavior. C. Keep calm and remain courteous. D. Answer in a louder tone to show that behavior like that is not tolerated.
C. Keep calm and remain courteous. In cases where the patient loses his temper, the medical assistant should remain professional. The medical assistant should keep calm and remain courteous.
Which of the following is part of the procedure for weighing an infant? A. Weigh the infant dresses. B. Place the child face down on the scale. C. Keep one hand over the child at all times. D. Measure the weight within one pound.
C. Keep one hand over the child at all times.
Another term for acetone in the urine is _____________. A. Sugar B. Pus C. Ketone bodies (ketones) D. None of the above
C. Ketone bodies (ketones)
Urine flows through the urinary system in which order? A. Bladder, urethra, kidney, urethral meatus, and ureter. B. Bladder, kidney, ureter, urethra, and urethral meatus. C. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, and urethral meatus. D. Urethra, bladder, ureter, kidney, and urethral meatus.
C. Kidney, ureter, bladder, urethra, and urethral meatus.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Laboratory studies is: A. GI B. pt C. Lab D. CP
C. Lab
Which of the following is an example of professional conduct? A. Coming in a little late, but going home at a later time. B. Assisting fellow workers and expecting praise. C. Saying "no" to office politics and gossiping. D. Getting information about fellow employees and telling the supervisor about the information.
C. Saying "no" to office politics and gossiping. Avoiding office politics and gossiping is an example of a professional conduct. Office politics is the use of social networking within an organization to achieve changes that benefit the individuals within it.
When printing out an EKG, a medical assistant notices that the QRS complexes are extremely small. What should be the next step? A. Alert the physician immediately as this is a sign of impending cardiac arrest. B. Check to see that all leads are attached and rerun the EKG. C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection. D. Decrease the run speed to 50.
C. Increase the sensitivity control to 20 mm deflection.
A patient has been established to be "non compos mentis". What does this mean as far as the condition of the patient? A. Not an adult yet. B. Unable to read and write. C. Not of sound mind. D. Under the guidance of her parents.
C. Not of sound mind "Non compos mentis" means "not of sound mind." These patients need guardians to give their consent.
Periodic supplies need to be reordered: A. Daily B. Weekly C. Occasionally D. Never
C. Occasionally
A medical assistant employed in a cardiology office is asked by the physicians to create some form of publications to educate patients about healthy heart habits. Which of the following mediums do you feel will be most effective and why? A. Create a brochure with JUST text to focus on dietary and other heart functioning. B. Create a brochure JUST pictures specific to this topic. C. Create a brochure with pictures and text to focus on dietary and other heart functioning.
C. Create a brochure with pictures and text to focus on dietary and other heart functioning.
A chest x-ray is the best initial radiologic test for all forms of pulmonary problems. Which of the following is not a chest x-ray view? A. PA B. Oblique C. Cross sectional D. Decubitus
C. Cross sectional is not a view in chest radiography. The different x-ray views are PA, AP, lateral, decubitus, and apical lordotic views.
The Tricare fiscal begins __________and ends _________. A. January 1st to December 31st. B. October 1st to September 1st. C. October 1st to September 30th. D. July 1st to June 31st.
C. October 1st to September 30th.
Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell? A. Abducens B. Hypoglossal C. Olfactory D. Trochlear E. Vagus
C. Olfactory
The number of examination rooms in a medical office depends on the number of doctors who work there and: A. On how much time each doctor spends with a patient. B. On how big the office is. C. On each doctor's patient load. D. On how many rooms each doctor wants.
C. On each doctor's patient load.
The advantage of a handwritten appointment book is: A. Wave Scheduling B. Double Booking C. Open-hour Scheduling D. Modified Wave Scheduling
C. Open-hour Scheduling Employees who are not proficient at using computers may feel more comfortable using a manual scheduling system such as a schedule book. However, these methods are antiquated and are being replaced with computer operated systems.
Which of the following scheduling methods would be best for an Urgent Care setting? A. Wave Scheduling B. Double Booking C. Open-hour Scheduling D. Modified Wave Scheduling
C. Open-hour Scheduling Open-hour scheduling is also known as walk-in scheduling and best suits emergency clinics.
A patient who is displaying the defense mechanism of Compensation would: A. Refuse to hear unwanted information. B. Transfer feelings of negativity to someone else. C. Overemphasize behaviors which accommodate for perceived weakness. D. Place blame on others for personal actions or mistakes.
C. Overemphasize behaviors which accommodate for perceived weakness. Compensation means to overcome a perceived weakness by over compensating another behavior or personality trait.
A special device called a "regulator" or "flow meter" is necessary when using? A. An electric thermometer B. A hot pad C. Oxygen D. A sphygmomanometer
C. Oxygen
A doctor who agrees to accept an insurance company's pre-established fee as the maximum amount to be collected is a(n): A. Subscriber. B. Caim representative. C. Participating physician. D. Adjuster.
C. Participating physician.
A 17 year old woman who is married arrives at the emergency department of a hospital with an injured arm. Who must consent to any treatment since this patient is a minor? A. Spouse and Minor. B. Parent. C. Patient. D. The parent and the patient.
C. Patient
In charting, subjective data includes the: A. Test results. B. Physician's examination. C. Patient's chief complaint. D. Vital signs.
C. Patient's chief complaint.
When performing any CLIA-waived test it is important to do which of the following? A. Keep all CLIA-waived tests refrigerated. B. Discard quality control kits immediately upon opening the box. C. Perform quality control testing with every new kit & routinely thereafter. D. All of the above
C. Perform quality control testing with every new kit & routinely thereafter.
Which of the following best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles contract to propel food through the digestive tract? A. Absorption B. Emulsion C. Peristalsis D. Regurgitation E. Secretion
C. Peristalsis
Which of the following refers to the study of characteristics of natural drugs and their sources? A. Pharmacodynamics B. Pharmacotherapeutics C. Pharmacognosy D. Pharmacokinetics
C. Pharmacognosy
Which of the following is NOT part of the medical history? A. Present history B. Review of systems C. Physical Examination D. Family history
C. Physical Examination The physical examination is NOT part of medical history. The physical examination is performed after the history. Present history, family history. The physical examination is performed after the history. Present history, family history and review os systems are all components of the medical history.
Choose the most common place of employment for the administrative medical assistant? A. Hospital B. Schools C. Physician Practice D. ER Department
C. Physician Practice Physician practices are the most common place of employment for the administrative medical assistant.
A woman has died as a result of a motor vehicle accident. She is listed as an organ donor and her family wants to comply with her wishes. Which of the following is true? A. The woman would have had to list herself as an organ donor and notify her family prior to her death that she has considered donating her organs. B. The Uniform Anatomical Gift Act requires the physician caring for the patient to inform the family who receives the donor organs. C. Physicians can choose to go against the deceased wishes if the family decides that organ donation is not an acceptable choice. D. Physicians have the legal responsibility to inform patients of the risks involved in donating organs.
C. Physicians can choose to go against the deceased wishes if the family decides that organ donation is not an acceptable choice. Families that are left behind after the death of a loved one may not agree with organ donation. Physicians may choose to go with the wishes of the family over the wishes of the deceased if the family will suffer emotional trauma from the donation.
The _________ pages of the physician's desk reference is where a medical assistant would be able to locate a medication by brand or generic name.
C. Pink
Which of the following should you include in preparing a patient for electrocauterization? A. Tell the patient that more than one freezing cycle may be necessary. B. Ask the patient to wear safety goggles during the procedure. C. Place a grounding pad somewhere on the patient's body during the procedure. D. Tell the patient that a sterile dressing will be applied after the procedure.
C. Place a grounding pad somewhere
What is the most appropriate way to monitor the temperature in a laboratory refrigerator? A. Place an ice cube tray in the refrigerator and see if it freezes. B. Open the refrigerator frequently to check items for coldness. C. Place a thermometer in the refrigerator. D. Place a bottle of drinking water in the refrigerator and take a drink later to determine coldness.
C. Place a thermometer in the refrigerator.
An inactive substances substituted in place of the actual drug to satisfy the patient is called a(n) _____________________. A. Sedative B. Stimulant C. Placebo D. Antiseptic
C. Placebo
Which of the following questions is considered, "Open Ended,"? A. What time did you last take your medication? B. Are you feeling ok right now? C. Please describe your symptoms? D. What day are you available for a follow-up appointment?
C. Please describe your symptoms? Open ended questions are questions that will yield an answer that is detailed and descriptive. Closed ended questions will yield answers that are one or two words in length.
Today's sophisticated software programs need a keyboard and a _______________ to enter information into the computer. A. Modem B. Scanner C. Pointing device D. Motherboard
C. Pointing device
A patient was complaining of weakness, fatigue, constipation, and muscle cramping. Blood tests reveal hypokalemia. What is the treatment for this condition? A. Iron B. Calcium C. Potassium D. Transfusion
C. Potassium Low potassium level is referred to as hypokalemia. Taking potassium supplements can usually reverse this condition. In severe cases, without proper treatment, it can lead to serious heart rhythm problems.
Determining whether a particular medical treatment (i.e surgery, tests) will be covered under a patient's insurance policy contract involves a process known as ________________. A. Pre-certification. B. Pre-authorization. C. Predetermination D. Pre-existing
C. Pre-certification
Non-digestable food ingredients that stimulate the growth and activity of certain bacteria in the colon are called: A. Insoluble fiber B. Probiotics C. Prebiotics D. Cellulose
C. Prebiotics are primarily oligosaccharides- short chains of sugar molecules that can only partially be digested. Most naturally occurring oligosaccharides are found in plants. Prebiotics are often called bifidogenic factors because they primarily stimulate growth of bifidobacteria. Prebiotics work in concert with probiotics and have been found to produce many of the same health benefits.
While ordering procedures may vary, generally a type and rh are ordered on all pregnant women. This normally is called a ____________ screen. A. Blood B. Serum C. Prenatal D. Postnatal
C. Prenatal
Which of the following is not within the scope of the professional duties of a medical assistant? A. Documenting a patient's general information on the patient's chart. B. Drawing a fasting blood glucose test. C. Prescription writing to patients. D. Tracking supplies in the medical office.
C. Prescription writing is the duty of the physician, not the medical assistant. Duties of the medical assistant includes: administrative/front office duties, clinical/back office duties - all under the supervision of a health care provider.
A forecast of the probable course and outcome of the disorder and the prospects for recovery is the: A. Clinical diagnosis B. Physical examination C. Prognosis D. Differential diagnosis
C. Prognosis
A forecast of the probable course and outcome of the disorder and the prospects for recovery is the: A. Clinical diagnosis. B. Physical examination. C. Prognosis. D. Differential diagnosis.
C. Prognosis
A husband gets really angry at his wife but accuses her of being mad at him. This defense mechanism is: A. Denial B. Splitting C. Projection D. Reaction formation
C. Projection Projection is a defense mechanism that involves taking our own unacceptable thoughts or feelings and assigning them to other people. Sometimes we don't want to acknowledge the truth about ourselves, and so we turn it around and put it on others.
In which position does the patient lie flat on the examination table, facedown, with the head turned to one side and the arms placed at the sides or bent at the elbows? A. Supine B. Fowler's C. Prone D. Trendelenburg
C. Prone
A positive urine dipstick for albumin in the patient has _________________ in his/her urine. A. Glucose B. White blood cells C. Proteins D. PH
C. Proteins
The nutrient that builds and repairs body tissues: A. Glucose B. Vitamins C. Proteins D. Folic acid
C. Proteins Proteins are nutrients composed of amino acids as building blocks. Proteins build and repair body tissues, and produce 4 calories per gram.
Which of the following would you include when establishing a medical office in a culturally diverse area? A. Post signs in the reception area indicating that all patients must speak English. B. Designate the office as an American clinic only. C. Provide reading material in the second most prominent language. D. Hire only employees who can speak more than one language.
C. Provide reading material in the second most prominent language.
In alphabetic filing, which name should be filed first? A. Schultz, Vin B. Schultz, Mary C. Schultz, Dory D. Schultz, Jerry
C. Schultz, Dory In using alphabetic filing, if the first unit is similar, move on to the second and succeeding units until a difference is apparent. Since all last names are Schultz, the next unit that is different are the first names. Dory starts with a "D", thus it comes before the rest of the first name letters.
The standard for folding an 8½ by 11" letter to fit in a No. 10 envelope is: A. Fold in half long ways. B. Fold in half short ways. C. Fold into thirds by pulling the bottom up and then top down. D. Folding into thirds by pulling the top down and then bottom up.
C. Fold into thirds by pulling the bottom up and then top down. A sheet of 8½ by 11" paper is a standard size page. Folding this size paper into thirds by folding the bottom up and then top down is the professionally accepted way to fold a business letter of this size for a No. 10 envelope.
Which would be the first step when a patient passes out at the front desk? A. Call 911. B. Initiate CPR. C. Shake the patient and ask if he is ok. D. Check for a pulse.
C. Shake the patient and ask if he is ok. Any time a patient passes out or appears to be sleeping, shake the patient to see if you can rouse him. Checking for a pulse, calling 911, and initiating CPR would all follow if the patient does not become alert.
If a patient complains of dizziness and is about to faint, what steps should be taken? A. Ask the patient stand and do light exercise. B. Give the patient soda or sugary drink. C. Sit the patient with the head lower than the heart. D. Do chest compressions.
C. Sit the patient with the head lower than the heart. The next best step is to sit the patient with the head lower than the heart, loosen the patient's clothing, apply a cool cloth to the head and pass ammonium salts under the nose.
Which of the following is a correct statement about diabetes mellitus? A. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus usually appears before the age of 30. B. Non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus usually appears before the age of 40. C. Symptoms include excessive thirst, hunger, excessive urination, and fatigue. D. Diabetes mellitus is characterized by hypoglycemia.
C. Symptoms include excessive thirst, hunger, excessive urination, and fatigue.
When performing an EKG, the patient starts to laugh out of feelings of anxiety. What would you expect the EKG to show? (Choose the BEST answer.) A. Increased pulse rate, normal EKG. B. Decreased pulse rate, abnormal EKG. C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph. D. Bradycardia, poor EKG graph.
C. Tachycardia, poor EKG graph. Patients who are unable to lie still on the exam table while having an EKG will have poor read outs on the EKG. Electrical signals given off by large moving muscles will inhibit the collection of data from the chest leads. Patients who are very anxious will usually display a rapid heartbeat.
A patient is in the office for a cyst removal and is very anxious about the procedure. Which of the following descriptions of his respirations would be expected? A. Bradypnea B. Orthopnea C. Tachypnea D. Dyspnea
C. Tachypnea Tachypnea is defined as a respiration rate that is rapid, quick, and shallow. Patients experiencing anxiety over a procedure may be hyperventilating, which occurs frequently with tachypnea.
Who suggests that the seating in a reception area be sufficient to accommodate the number of patients, family members, and friends who may be in the office during a 2-hour time period? A. The physician B. The office personnel C. The American Medical Association D. The patients
C. The American Medical Association
When you turn your head: A. All cervical vertebrae pivot on one another. B. The 7th cervical vertebra pivots on the 1st thoracic vertebra. C. The atlas pivots around the axis. D. All cervical vertebrae move as one unit.
C. The atlas pivots around the axis.
Who owns a patient's x-rays? A. The patient. B. The doctor. C. The facility that performed the procedure. D. None of the above.
C. The facility that performed the procedure. X-rays, while considered part of a patient's medical record, are owned by the facility that performs the procedure.
Which of the following choices best answer the question, "Who own a patient's X-rays?" A. The patient B. The doctor C. The facility that performed the procedure. D. None of the above.
C. The facility that performed the procedure. X-rays, while considered part of a patient's medical record, are owned by the facility that performs the procedure.
The best collection location for a newborn is: A. The AC. B. The veins of the forehead. C. The heel. D. The fingertips.
C. The heel Collecting blood specimens from newborns is most safely done by collecting blood from the lateral or medial aspect of the baby's heel.
Residual urine is: A. The leakage of urine despite voluntary control of urination. B. Urine that is collected over a 24-hour period. C. The measurement of urine remaining in the bladder after voiding. D. Urine that is normally voided.
C. The measurement of urine remaining in the bladder after voiding.
Collection mailings: A. Are more economically feasible when handled using post cards rather than sealed envelopes and, therefore, the most used method of notifying patients by mail. B. Are an attempt to notify a patient of a credit owed the patient. C. Are considered, "Dun Messages." D. All of the above.
C. Are considered, "Dun Messages." Collection mailings are to remain confidential and should be mailed in an inconspicuous envelope. They are considered Dun Messages as this term implies a notification made to remind a patient of a debt owed to the office.
Which of the following blood samples should be placed in ice water? A. Lead testing B. Glucose tolerance test C. Arterial blood gases (ABG) D. Blood culture
C. Arterial blood gases (ABG) If the ABG sample is not analyzed immediately, a false reading can result due to blood cell metabolism. Using ice slows metabolism, allowing the blood sample to stay viable for a longer time period, possibly up to 30 minutes.
What term is used when an insurance company makes a payment directly to a physician? A. Direct deposit B. Fee compliance C. Assignment of benefits D. Actual charges
C. Assignment of benefits. The authorization to make payments directly to a physician by the insurance company is called an assignment of benefits. The patient has authorized his or her insurance company to pay the benefit to the physician.
What is the best time of the day to hold an All-Staff meeting? A. Right after lunch B. Just prior to the office closing C. At the beginning of the day D. Various times of the day
C. At the beginning of the day Staff meetings should be held at the beginning of the day or the beginning of a shift to ensure that enough time is set aside to cover all of the topics on the agenda.
Which of the following is important when using a tympanic thermometer? A. Shake the thermometer down to a reading between 96.0°F and 97.0°F B. Remove the thermometer from the recharging unit and put it in the ear before the light goes on. C. Attatch a disposable sheath, and place the thermometer snugly in the ear. D. Pull the ear down and forward for an adult.
C. Attatch a disposable sheath, and place the thermometer snugly in the ear.
The most effective method for preventing the spread of AIDS/HIV infection through sexual contract is to: A. Use protection when having multiple sexual partners. B. Take antibiotic medication to decrease your risk of contracting the disease. C. Avoid high-risk sexual activity. D. Make sure your partner has not engaged in unsafe sexual activity for 2 weeks.
C. Avoid high-risk sexual activity.
Which of the following vital signs can be expected in a child that is afebrile? A. Rectal Temp of 100.9 degrees F. B. Oral Temp of 38 degrees C. C. Axillary Temp 9f 98.6 degrees F. D. All of the above are incorrect.
C. Axillary Temp of 38 degrees C. Afebrile means to be without fever. An axillary temperature is taken in the arm pit and is normal at 98.6 degrees F.
Which of the following vital signs can be expected in a child that is afebrile? A. Rectal Temperature of 100.9 degrees F. B. Oral Temp of 38 degrees C. C. Axillary Temp of 98.6 degrees F. D. All of the above are incorrect.
C. Axillary Temp of 98.6 degrees F. Afebrile means to be without fever. An axillary temperature is taken in the armpit and is normal at 98.6 degrees F.
Which of the following theorists did NOT develop a stage theory? A. Sigmund Freud B. Jean Piaget C. B.F. Skinner D. Lawrence Kohlberg E. Erik Erickson
C. B.F. Skinner
What keyboard key deletes characters to the left of the cursor? A. Del B. Ctrl C. Backspace D. Esc
C. Backspace The backspace allows the cursor to be moved to the left and erases the character. Both the DEL or delete key and backspace key are used to delete text. The DEL key deletes text to the right of the cursor, and Backspace key deletes text to the left of the cursor.
Which of the following is an example of a microorganism that is classified a prokaryotic cell? A. Fungi B. Virus C. Bacteria D. Parasite
C. Bacteria
Which of the following are mucus-producing glands located on each side of the vaginal opening? A. Adrenal B. Bartholin's C. Bulbourethral D. Corpus luteum E. Parotid
C. Bartholin's
Any refrigerator or freezer used for vaccine storage must: A. Be a special unit inspected by the National Vaccine Center every year. B. Be located in a locked room with no heater vents. C. Be dedicated to the storage of only vaccines and medications. D. Ensure the maintenance of the cold chain.
C. Be dedicated to the storage of only vaccines and medications. A refrigerator or freezer must be dedicated to the storage of only vaccines or medications. It must be able to maintain required vaccine storage temperatures year-round and have a certified calibrated thermometer inside at all times and checked daily. DO NOT store food or beverages in the same unit as vaccines and medications.
Why is it important to wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)? A. Because it looks right. B. Because it protects the tools. C. Because it protects you. D. Because it is what an employer tells you to do.
C. Because it protects you.
The most dangerous time of the day for sunburn is: A. Between 10am and 2pm. B. The early morning hours. C. Between 2pm and 4pm. D. As long as sunscreen is applied once before going into the sun, there is no danger.
C. Between 10am and 2pm. The sun has the highest potential for causing burns between the hours of 10am and 2pm. Sunscreen, while recommended, does not protect users for the entire day and should be reapplied every couple hours throughout the day.
Your 24 year old single white male American patient presents with the following chief complaint: "Rogue doctors entered my apartment last night and removed my spleen." Physical examination does not reveal the presence of any scars, incisions, fresh wounds, or any other sign that the patient was a victim of invasive surgical procedures. The type of psychiatric symptom exhibited by your patient is best described as a(n): A. Hallucination B. Delusion C. Bizarre Delusion D. Illusion
C. Bizarre Delusion
When a person taking anti-inflammatory drugs to control pain is injured: A. Healing will be more rapid. B. Blood supply to the injured area will be reduced. C. Blood supply to an injured area cannot increase. D. There will be no pain in the injured area.
C. Blood supply to an injured area cannot increase.
HIV is transmitted through: A. Casual contact. B. Shaking hands. C. Bodily fluids. D. Sharing eating utensils.
C. Bodily fluids
Bone scans can be used to diagnose causes of: A. Muscular weakness B. Blood disorders C. Bone infections D. Chronic pain
C. Bone infections
Which fact is true about the P wave? A. Duration of the P wave is not greater than 0.11 sec. B. Height-deflection is small, not more than 3 mm. C. Both A & B D. No correct answer
C. Both A & B
Which of the following is the CORRECT spelling for the plural of bronchus? A. Bronchuses B. Bronchii C. Bronchi D. Bronchae E. Broncha
C. Bronchi
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Called and canceled is: A. CPE B. c/o C. C&C D. C
C. C&C
The credential given to a medical assistant who passes the exam by the AAMA: A. RMA B. CCMA C. CMA D. AMA
C. CMA After passing the medical assistant certification exam, the AAMA awards the credential CMA, Certified Medical Assistant. RMA is awarded by the AMT. CCMA is awarded by the NHA.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Chest pain is: A. STD B. SOB C. CP D. C&C
C. CP
What coding system is used to code for procedures and medical services provided by the practitioner? A. ICD-10 B. HCPCS C. CPT D. FDA
C. CPT Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) is a list of codes of procedures and services performed by health practitioners. The CPT book is divided into 6 sections: E&M, Anesthesia, Surgery, Radiology, Pathology, and Medicine.
All of the following are devices that save information for future reference, EXCEPT: A. CD-ROM B. Hard Drive C. CPU D. Flash drive
C. CPU CD-ROM, hard drives and flash drives are devices that save information for future reference. CPU (central processing unit) supervises data processing operations of a computer, and is not a device for storage of information.
The most important nutrient for bone growth is: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin B C. Calcium D. Protein
C. Calcium
A patient who is blood type AB: A. Can receive plasma from a type B donor. B. Can receive whole blood from a type A donor. C. Can receive packed RBC's from a type O donor. D. All of the above
C. Can receive packed RBC's from a type O donor. A patient who has blood type AB antigens on his red blood cells. A donor that has antibodies to AB antigens cannot donate plasma to an AB patient. Of the above listed answers, only an O type donor can donate to this patient as O donors have no antibody stimulating antigens and no donated antibodies since the donation was packed red blood cells.
You found a patient lying on the ground. As a medical assistant, what is the first step to determine if the patient needs CPR? A. Check chest compressions. B. Check the carotid pulse. C. Confirm if the patient is unconscious. D. Give mouth to mouth resuscitation.
C. Confirm if the patient is unconscious. If a person has collapsed, check if the person is unconscious. Gently shake the patient and shout, "Are you okay?" If there is no response, call for help. Call 911 or your local emergency number.
You think that one of your doctor colleagues is drinking too much alcohol and it's affecting her work. The most appropriate action to take is: A. Join her for some drinks after work. B. Report her to the police. C. Confront her in front of the rest of the practice. D. Refer her to an impaired physician program. E. It depends on how "hot" she is.
C. Confront her in front of rest of the practice.
To accurately assess a patient's respiration rate, which of the following methods would be BEST? A. Tell the patient, "Please remain silent while I count your number of breaths." B. Count respirations at the same time you are counting the pulse rate. C. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute. D. Count the patient's respiration rate, then take the patient's temperature, and then take the pulse rate.
C. Count the pulse rate for one minute, then, while keeping your index fingers on the patient's radial artery, count the respirations for an additional minute. The most accurate assessment of a patient's respiration rate is to count the breaths while the patient is unaware that you are doing so. Patients who are aware that their respirations are being counted may breathe abnormally.
A common error when taking a pulse is: A. Placing the index finger on the radial artery which is located on the thumb side of a patient's wrist. B. Noting a pulse as being "weak" when the pulsation disappears upon adding pressure. C. Counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four. D. None of the above will cause errors.
C. Counting the pulse for 15 seconds and multiplying the number by four. To accurately assess a patient's heart rate or pulse, the pulse must be counted for a full minute. Arrhythmias and intermittent pulsations may be missed if not counted for a full minute. Proper finger placement is on the radial artery which is located on the thumb side of the patient's wrist.
Michael, a 5 year old boy, has been complaining of itchiness, rash and irritation around the anal area. He was brought to the clinic by his mother, and to her surprise, the doctor performed a scotch tape test. This test is used to diagnose infestation of which parasite? A. Mosquitoes B. Fungus C. Round worms D. Pinworms
D. Pinworms A scotch tape test is the simplest and effective way of detecting pinworm infestation. The tape is viewed under a microscope, and if "D" shaped eggs are seen, a diagnosis of pinworm infestation is made.
Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system? A. Adrenal B. Pancreas C. Pineal D. Pituitary E. Thyroid
D. Pituitary
Which of the following should be included when creating a waiting room accessible to differently disabled patients? A. Use only scatter rugs or unfastened carpet on the floor. B. Make sure the sills along the floor in doorways are metal or wood. C. Attach bars or rails 12 to 24 inches above the floor on the walls. D. Position coffee tables at a height accessible to people in wheelchairs.
D. Position coffee tables at a height accessible to people in wheelchairs.
Iron supplements are frequently recommended for all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Women who are pregnant. B. Infants and toddlers C. Teenage girls D. Post-menopausal women
D. Post-menopausal women In addition to the above-mentioned populations, supplemental iron may be given to treat anemia that occurs during pregnancy or as a result of heavy menstrual periods, kidney disease, or chemotherapy. Supplemental iron also may be recommended for vegetarians and women who are lactating. Iron requirements decrease for Post-menopausal women.
Which drug is derived from a mineral source? A. Penicillin B. Quinine C. Cod-liver oil D. Potassium chloride
D. Potassium chloride
Which of the following medications would be given to treat vomiting? A. Simvastatin B. Acetaminophen C. Lisinopril D. Promethazine
D. Promethazine Phenergan (promethazine) is an antiemetic prescribed to treat nausea and vomiting.
In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down? A. Dorsal B. Erect C. Lateral D. Prone E. Supine
D. Prone
Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which of the following structures? A. Aorta B. Carotid arteries C. Inferior vena cava D. Pulmonary veins E. Superior vena cava
D. Pulmonary veins
Which allergy test measures levels of antibodies after the blood serum is exposed to suspected allergens? A. Patch test B. Scratch test C. Intradermal test D. Radioallergosorbent test
D. Radioallergosorbent test (RAST test)
All of the following are input devices for a computer, EXCEPT: A. Mouse B. Keyboard C. Printer D. Random Access Memory (RAM)
D. Random Access Memory (RAM) Random Access Memory (RAM) is the working memory of the computer. It is not considered an input or external device.
Which of the following scenarios accurately describes, "Self-Actualization?" A. Finding belongingness to a group. B. Recognizing one's worth to society. C. Feeling safe in one's environment. D. Reaching one's full potential.
D. Reaching one's full potential. Self-Actualization is the final stage in the Hierarchy of Needs by Maslow. This stage defines reaching a person's highest potential and can vary greatly from person to person.
An employee hates her superior but instead of acting in accordance with her feelings, she overly cares for him and expresses a desire to retire with the company someday. What defense mechanism is the employee exhibiting? A. Denial B. Projection C. Sublimation D. Reaction formation
D. Reaction formation Reaction Formation is the converting of unwanted or dangerous thoughts, feelings or impulses into their opposites. For example, an employee who hates her superior may instead be overly caring towards him, and expresses to retire there.
Another name for the supine position is the _______________ position. A. Lithotomy B. Sims' C. Knee-chest D. Recumbent
D. Recumbent
Which of the following is a general urine collection guideline? A. Label the lid of a urine specimen container with the patient's name. B. If the collection container contains liquid or powdered preservative, pour it out before obtaining the specimen. C. Explain the procedure to the patient in technical terminology. D. Refrigerate the labeled collection container or keep it in a cooler or pail filled with ice.
D. Refrigerate the labeled collection container or keep it in a cooler or pail filled with ice.
The part of the prescription that gives the refill information: A. Inscription B. D.A.W. C. Signature D. Repetatur
D. Repetatur Repetatur is the part of the prescription that tells the pharmacist if the medication can be refilled or not. It also gives information on how many times it can be refilled.
The thoracic cage is a structural unit important for which of the following functions? A. Alimentation B. Menstruation C. Mentation D. Respiration E. Urination
D. Respiration
Which of the following terms means drainage from the nose? A. Rhinolalia B. Rhinomycosis C. Rhinophyma D. Rhinorrhea
D. Rhinorrhea
Which of the following is NOT included in the 6 rights of drug administration? A. Right dose B. Right time C. Right route D. Right doctor
D. Right doctor The 6 rights of drug administration are: right medication, right route, right time, right patient, right dosage, and right documentation. Right doctor is not one of the 6 rights of drug administration.
Which of the following types of filing cabinets maximize the use of space? A. Vertical B. Lateral open-shelf C. Lateral drawer D. Rotary
D. Rotary In the numerical filing system, patient files are given numbers and arranged in numerical system. It is the most confidential system, and expansion is unlimited.
What is the greeting we use at the beginning of a letter, email or a memo? A. Heading B. Salutation C. Complimentary D. Closing
D. Salutation The greeting we use at the beginning of a letter, email, or a memo is referred to as the Salutation. Most salutations begin with a "Dear."
Which of the following is the highest in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? A. Self-esteem B. Safety C. Social D. Self-actualization
D. Self-actualization Self-actualization is the highest of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs. It is the achievement of one's full potential.
Which of the following is NOT usually used when making appointment reminders for the patient? A. Calling the patient directly. B. Reminder card before leaving the office. C. Sending patients postcards. D. Sending appointment letter by fax.
D. Sending appointment letter by fax. Doctor's clinics send appointment reminders in different ways. They give a reminder card before the patient leaves the office, call the patient directly or they can send post cards. Fax transmissions are not typically used.
According to Jean Piaget, cognitive development begins with which of the following? A. Pre-operations B. Concrete operations C. Intuitive thought D. Sensorimotor activities E. Formal operations
D. Sensorimotor activities.
A centrifuge works by _______________. A. Freezing blood specimens. B. Heating blood specimens. C. Incubating blood at body temp. D. Separating cells and serum.
D. Separating cells and serum.
The most common way to classify bacteria is according to their: A. Ability to retain certain dyes. B. Ability to grow in the presence or absence of air. C. Biochemical reactions D. Shape
D. Shape
Which of the following anticoagulants would be found in a light blue vacutainer tube? A. EDTA B. Sodium Oxalate C. Lithium Heparin D. Sodium Citrate
D. Sodium Citrate Sodium Citrate is found in the light blue collection tubes. This tube is used most often for tests that assess coagulation times.
Which of the following anticoagulants would be found in a light blue vacutainer tube? A. EDTA B. Sodium oxalate C. Lithium heparin D. Sodium Citrate
D. Sodium Citrate Sodium Citrate is found in the light blue collection tubes. This tube is used most often for the tests that assess coagulation times.
Programs that direct a computer to perform specific operations: A. CPU B. Motherboard C. Random Access Memory (RAM) D. Software
D. Software Computer software is any set of machine-readable instructions that directs a computer's processor to perform specific operations. Computer software differs with the hardware, which is the physical component of computer.
Which of the following describes a workplace health and safety hazard? A. Putting the wet floor sign up after mopping the floor. B. An unanswered health and safety question. C. An activity which cannot be insured. D. Something that might cause harm.
D. Something that might cause harm.
The most accurate test to diagnose hypertension is through: A. Heart angiogram B. Heart echocardiagram C. ECG D. Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope
D. Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope Hypertension is diagnosed by using a stethoscope and sphygmomanometer. To be accurate, two to three readings on different occasions that are high are required for the patient to be diagnosed as hypertensive.
Which of the following is the lymphoid organ that is a reservoir for red blood cells and filters organisms from the blood? A. Appendix B. Gallbladder C. Pancreas D. Spleen E. Thymus
D. Spleen
Which type of catheter is inserted after plastic repair of the ureter and must remain in place for at least a week after surgery? A. Straight B. Urethral C. Retention D. Splitting
D. Splitting
A specific statement that is written by an agency that depicts the minimum level of care is a(n): A. Goal B. Objective C. Regulation D. Standard
D. Standard A standard is a specific regulation or statement that is written by an agency depicting the minimum level of expected care. Standards are written sequentially and can be organized by a series of numbers and letters.
Under Medicare Part B, patients are not permitted to: A. Remain in the hospital for more than 90 days. B. Receive medical care at home. C. Purchase private insurance. D. Submit their own claims for reimbursement.
D. Submit their own claims for reimbursement.
Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron? A. Dendrite B. Glial cell C. Nerve center D. Synapse E. Terminal plate
D. Synapse
Formerly called JCAHO, Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations: A. CLIA B. ADA C. CON D. TJC
D. TJC The Joint Commission (TJC) was formerly called the Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations. The Joint Commission accredits and certifies health care organizations and programs in the United States. Joint Commission Accreditation and Certification is recognized nationwide as a symbol of quality that reflects an organization's commitment to meeting certain performance standards.
Male hormones are produced by which of the following? A. Glans penis B. Prepuce C. Prostate D. Testis E. Vas deferens
D. Testis
If there is not a clear relationship between the diagnostic and procedural information submitted with a claim,: A. The medical assistant will be punished. B. The claim will always be returned for corrections. C. The physician could loose license to practice. D. The claim will go into a "dead file."
D. The claim will go into a "dead file."
The Alphabetic Index is organized by: A. The part of the body involved. B. Symptoms the patient displays. C. Codes found in the Tabular list. D. The condition.
D. The condition
The proliferation phase of healing is characterized by: A. A constriction of blood vessels. B. The formation of scar tissue. C. A release of white blood cells. D. The development of new tissue.
D. The development of new tissue.
A medical assistant witnesses a coworker forging a signature on a patient's chart. Which of the following is most true? A. The forgery is not a criminal act, but a civil violation. B. The medical assistant who witnessed the forgery is completely innocent of any act. C. The medical assistant that witnessed the forgery is liable for wrong doing if she does not report the incident. D. The forgery of the document is nonfeasance.
C. The medical assistant that witnessed the forgery is liable for wrong doing if she does not report the incident.
When giving an injection of insulin, which of the following is TRUE? A. The deltoid muscle is the preferred injection site for insulin. B. The angle of the needle should be 90 degrees. C. The site should not be massaged after medication administration. D. All of the above are true.
C. The site should not be massaged after medication administration. Insulin injections are given subcutaneously. The site should not be massaged after administration as the medication needs to distribute slowly.
Which one of the following is a decision based upon bioethics? A. Reporting physical, emotional, or mental abuse. B. Treating a 16-year-old girl who is pregnant without parental consent. C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research. D. Reporting to the authorities a suicidal patient.
C. The use of fetal tissue transplantation for research.
A disadvantage of rush orders is that: A. The item sent may be of lower quality. B. The vendor may be out of the item needed. C. The vendor may charge more for a rush delivery. D. The vendor may not be out of the needed item.
C. The vendor may charge more for a rush delivery.
Which of the following are characteristic of saturated fats? A. They are liquid at room temperature and found in vegetable oils. B. They are divided into polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fats. C. They are derived from animal sources and are sold at room temperature. D. They tend to lower blood cholesterol.
C. They are derived from animal sources and are sold at room temperature.
What are the safe systems of work, provided by an employer, designed to do? A. They only help make the job quicker. B. They only help to stop employees having accidents. C. They only help stop employees and all others having accidents. D. They only help prevent visitors having accidents.
C. They only help stop employees and all others having accidents.
How can workers best contribute to a positive safety culture in the workplace? A. They should know how to complete work quickly if things go wrong. B. They should report unsafe conditions after an accident has occurred. C. They should report any unsafe conditions as soon as possible. D. They should know the location of the first aid kit and accident book.
C. They should report any unsafe conditions as soon as possible.
Identify the level of Preventions - Bladder retraining programs: A. Primary level of prevention. B. Secondary level of prevention. C. Third level of prevention.
C. Third level of prevention.
For reporting purposes, CPT considers a patient "new" if the patient has not received professional services within the past ____ year(s). A. One B. Two C. Three D. Five
C. Three
AHIMA offers_____________ certification exams in coding. A. Two B. Four C. Three D. Five
C. Three AHIMA offers three certification exams in coding: CCA, CCS, CCS-P.
The period of the time in which a notice of claim or proof of loss must be filed is a(n): A. Waiting period. B. Policy dates. C. Time limit. D. Grace period.
C. Time limit.
A lotion is an example of what type of drug administration? A. Parenteral B. Intradermal C. Topical D. Enteral
C. Topical Topical medications are applied to the epidermis and mucous membranes. Some examples of topical medications are: creams, lotions, ointments, and patches.
The study of harmful substances or "poisons" is classified as: A. Pharcodynamics B. Pharmacopoisonology C. Toxicology D. Pharmacotherapeutics
C. Toxicology Toxicology is a branch of pharmacology concerned with the study of the adverse effects of chemicals on living organisms. It is the study of symptoms, mechanisms, treatments, and detection of poisoning.
The purpose of ear instillation is to: A. Clean the ear B. Dilate the ear C. Treat otitis externa D. Enhance hearing of the patient
C. Treat otitis externa The purpose of ear instillation is to treat otitis externa or media. Medicine instilled into the ear is absorbed through the skin of the ear canal and membranes of the eardrum. It is used primarily to treat wax build-up and inflammations
A patient is supine on a tilted table with the head lower than the legs in a _____________ position. A. Prone B. Fowler's C. Trendelenburg D. Lithotomy
C. Trendelenburg
Two patients arrive at the office simultaneously, one with severe high blood pressure and the other one with severe headache. Deciding which patient is to be seen by the doctor first is referred to as: A. Screening B. Deprioritize C. Triage D. Selecting
C. Triage Triage is the process of prioritizing sick or injured people for treatment according to the seriousness of the condition. Prioritizing patients ensures that patients are treated efficiently, especially when resources are not enough for all to be treated immediately.
Which of the following diseases is NOT caused by a virus? A. Chicken pox B. Herpes C. Tuberculosis D. Measles
C. Tuberculosis Tuberculosis (TB) is caused by the bacteria Myobacterium Tuberculosis. Chicken pox, Herpes, and Measles are diseases caused by viruses.
Which thermometer is most appropriate to use on a patient who just had lunch and a cigarette? A. Oral mercury B. Rectal C. Tympanic D. Oral electronic digital
C. Tympanic
Which blood type is considered the universal recipient because it will not react with donated blood from any blood group? A. Type A positive B. Type B positive C. Type AB positive D. Type O positive
C. Type AB positive
A researcher is evaluating the effects of three different types of parent-education programs on adolescent mothers' interactions with their toddlers. What is the independent variable in this investigation? A. Adolescent mothers' interactions with their toddlers. B. Level of parent-child communication. C. Type of parent education program. D. Child's attachment to the mother. E. Child's socioeconomic status.
C. Type of parent education program.
A small lightweight removable storage device, also called a thumb drive: A. LAN drive B. URL drive C. USB drive D. ZIP drive
C. USB drive A USB (Universal Serial Bus) drive is a small, lightweight removable storage device. It is also called a flash drive, memory stick, or thumb drive.
Concerning ECG's, for irregular rhythms, any method of rate calculation that depends on intervals between complexes is ________________. A. Acceptable. B. Computed using ½ as fast: 300/2 = 150/minute. C. Unreliable. D. Computed by counting the number of complexes in a span of 30 large boxes.
C. Unreliable
A defining characteristic of children with autism is: A. Obsessive attachment to their mother. B. Lack of motor coordination. C. Unresponsiveness to others. D. Hyperactivity E. Physical abnormality.
C. Unresponsiveness to others.
Urine leaves the body through the: A. Urinary bladder B. Ureters C. Urethra D. Renal pelvis
C. Urethra
Advance directives are: A. Required by law B. Chosen by family members. C. Used to support a patient's wishes. D. Costly and difficult to prove by law.
C. Used to support a patient's wishes. Advanced directives are a contract in which the patient's wishes for end of life care are put into writing. Advanced directives are not required by law, but help to ensure that patient's wishes for how they want to be treated if they are rendered unable to care for themselves are carried out.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a non-invasive diagnostic procedure? A. Requires the radiologist to insert a catheter or wire into a blood vessel or organ. B. Requires surgical aseptic technique. C. Uses standard x-rays or ultrasound to view internal structures. D. Requires close monitoring of the patient because of the anesthesia.
C. Uses standard x-rays or ultrasound to view internal structures.
A child was brought to the emergency room because of burns from boiling water. The patient's whole left leg was burnt. What is the estimated percentage according to the rule of nines? A. 9% B. 18% C. 1% D. 14%
D. 14% According to the rule of nines, in a child, each lower extremity is 14%. Here are the proportions for the rest of the body: 9% for each arm, 18% for head, 18% for front torso, 18% for back torso, and 1% for the genitals.
The average American consumes approximately how much sodium per day? A. 2,300 mg B. 230 mg C. 340 mg D. 3,400 mg
D. 3,400 mg The average American consumes about 50% more sodium than the 2,300 mg per day recommended in the Dietary Guidelines for Americans. Excessive sodium consumption is associated with increased risk for hypertension, which is associated with increased risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
If the patient ingested 10 grams of fat, how much calories did he actually eat? A. 40 calories B. 70 calories C. 80 calories D. 90 calories
D. 90 calories One gram of fat is equivalent to 9 calories. Eating 10 grams of fat would be the equivalent of 90 calories.
The CPT code for an office visit is: A. 88467 B. 44391 C. 12001 D. 99214
D. 99214 The CPT code for an office visit is 99214. An office or outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of an established patient requires detailed history, physical examination, and medical decision making of moderate complexity.
The iris of the optical microscope is: A. The platform that holds the specimen slide. B. The controls that move the body up and down to bring into focus the objective being examined. C. The eyepiece through which you view an image. D. A diaphragm that opens and closes to increase or decrease the amount of light illuminating the specimen.
D. A diaphragm that opens and closes to increase or decrease the amount of light illuminating the specimen.
Atherosclerosis is caused by: A. Inactivity B. Confusion C. An infection D. A high cholesterol level
D. A high cholesterol level
Which of the following is a characteristic of osteoporosis? A. Most common in middle-aged men. B. Caused by a high calcium diet. C. A serious infection caused by a bacteria carried by the deer tick. D. A hunched-over posture.
D. A hunched-over posture.
Leukopenia is defined as: A. Abnormally low blood pressure. B. An inflammation of the colon. C. Painful urination. D. A reduction in the number of leukocytes in the blood.
D. A reduction in the number of leukocytes in the blood.
Which acronym would BEST describe the procedure for assessing a patient that appears unconscious? A. WBC B. QRS C. XYZ D. ABC
D. ABC The ABC methods stand for: Airway, Breathing, Circulation. When encountering a patient who appears unconscious, first assess for adequate airway by performing the "head lift, chin tilt." Next look, listen and feel for breathing. Finally, check for a pulse.
Dr. Jones closed his medical practice and moved to another state while he had patients under his care. He failed to inform his patients that he was terminating their treatment. What cause of action may be brought against Dr. Jones by his patients? A. Breach of Contract B. Noncompliance C. Defamation D. Abandonment
D. Abandonment To properly terminate the contract between the physician and the patient, the physician must notify the patient in writing in advance if the patient still needs treatment. Failure to do so results in abandonment.
Which of the following is the process of converting a drug from its dose form, such as a tablet or capsule, into a form the body can use? A. Metabolism B. Excretion C. Distribution D. Absorption
D. Absorption
As food goes down the digestive tract, nutrients are transferred to the blood stream. This process is referred as: A. Digestion B. Ingestion C. Metabolism D. Absorption
D. Absorption The four functions of the digestive system are: ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination. Absorption is the process where nutrients are transferred to the blood stream.
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to communication? A. Embarrassment B. Stereotyping C. Withdrawal D. Acknowledgement
D. Acknowledgement Acknowledgment is an action of expressing gratitude or appreciation for something. It is not a barrier to communication. Embarrassment, discomfort, language problems, withdrawal, prejudice are all examples of barrier to communication.
Measurement of arterial blood gases: A. Includes drawing blood from a vein. B. Is performed by the medical assistant. C. Determines the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the brain. D. Aids in the diagnosis of nervous system depression and pulmonary and kidney disease.
D. Aids in the diagnosis of nervous system depression and pulmonary and kidney disease.
A 23 year old soldier was brought to the emergency room because of massive bleeding from a gun-shot wound. In assessing this emergency patient, ABC refers to: A. Application, Breathing, CPR B. Airway, Bleeding, Compressions C. Alert, Breathing, Cardiac D. Airway, Breathing, Circulation
D. Airway, Breathing, Circulation ABC refers to: Airway, Breathing, Circulation. ABC is an acronym to aid in remembering the initial steps in performing CPR- Open the airway, check the breathing and pulse.
Oxygen can be administered to the patient by way of a __________________. A. Catheter B. Cannula C. Tent D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Oxygen is a administered to the patient by way of a ________________? A. Catheter B. Cannula C. Tent D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Performing routine maintenance on laboratory equipment is critical. The maintenance plan should include which one of the following? A. Regularly scheduled check-ups. B. Daily examination of equipment for frayed cords or broken parts. C. Routine cleaning of the outside of the equipment with a damp cloth. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above
What are the functions of water? A. Helps to maintain the balance of fluids. B. Lubricates the body's moving parts. C. Aids in digestion. D. All of the above
D. All of the above
When writing a check, the amount of the check: A. Is written in both numeric and word form. B. In most cases should exactly match the amount needed for the services rendered. C. Should have the cents written as #/100 where # is the total cents needed. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above The intended amount of a check is written both in numeric and alpha form. Any odd cents that are needed are written numerically as #/100, where the # is the amount of the odd cents needed. Both the numeric and alpha numbers must match in order for the check to be valid.
When setting up the front desk, which of the following would enhance patient privacy? A. Having a sliding window that can be closed when not conversing with patients. B. Having a privacy filter on computer monitors. C. Asking patients to stand at least 5 feet from the front desk until it's their turn. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Patient privacy is mandated through HIPAA. Any procedure that will protect patient information will be useful in protecting privacy.
To obtain collections through small claims court, A. Judgement must be made on behalf of the plaintiff. B. An attorney is not necessary. C. A judge will pass judgment but will not collect funds owed to the practice. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Small claims court has the benefit of a short turnaround time for judgment and cost savings over attorney directed collections lawsuits. Claims should be less than $5,000.00 and an attorney is not necessary. A judge will make a decision but the office still has the responsibility of collecting the funds owed.
The pulse point located on the top of the foot is: A. The dorsalis pedis. B. Is checked in patients with peripheral vascular problems. C. Absent in some patients due to a congenital anomaly. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. The dorsalis pedis pulse point is located on the arch of the foot, slightly lateral to the midline. It is frequently used to assess adequate blood flow in patients that have poor circulation. Some patients are born without this pulse point.
When medical supplies are being inventoried, the medical assistant should: A. Have a list of all supplies and equipment. B. Organize the supplies in different storage containers with labels. C. Secure the supplies in cabinets or storage rooms. D. All of the above E. Both A and C only
D. All of the above. The medical assistant should have a master list of all supplies and equipment. Supplies should be organized in specific containers with labels and all storage areas should be secured.
Which of the following symptoms can occur with a heart attack? A. Cyanosis B. Syncope C. Ashen skin D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. The signs and symptoms of a heart attack can vary from patient to patient. The most commonly reported symptoms are fatigue and anxiety, along with chest, arm, or jaw pain. Cyanosis and syncope can also be observed, along with pallor.
The best way to avoid injuries when using computers is: A. Stand and stretch every hour. B. Adjust the seat height so that your feet are flat on the floor. C. Adjust the monitor so that your neck is at a neutral angle. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Using ergonomic practices will reduce repetitive strain that is common in office employees. Frequently stretching, adjusting chairs and monitors to avoid strain, and paying attention to avoid aches and pain will reduce injuries.
During her interview, Laurie stated that she has worked within the physical medical office setting and from the home setting using electronic health records and insurance claim processing programs. Her records show she received high evaluations and was frequently given more administrative authority. She had demonstrated competence in: A. Communication skills within the team environment. B. Organizational skills. C. Computer skills. D. All of these are correct.
D. All of these are correct.
When using proofreader symbols, which symbol would you use to correct this sentence: The dog was looknig for his bone. A. Circle with a dot in the middle. B. Backslash C. Front slash D. An "S" laying on its side.
D. An "S" laying on its side. The letter "S" lying on its side designates the term "transpose" which means that two letters were placed incorrectly in order in a word or two words were placed incorrectly in a sentence. In the question provided, the letters "i" and "n" were transposed in the word, "looking."
The doctor's office schedules flu shots on Wednesdays from 10 am to Noon. What type of scheduling is this? A. Modified wave scheduling B. Time-specific scheduling C. Double booking scheduling D. Clustering scheduling
D. Clustering scheduling This type of scheduling is clustering. Clustering is when similar procedures are scheduled on predetermined days or time blocks.
Of the four D's of negligence, which implies that any damage or injuries that resulted from the physician's breach of duty were directly related to that breach and that no intermittent circumstances or intervening acts couldn't have caused the damage? A. Duty B. Derelict C. Damages D. Direct Cause
D. Direct Cause Direct Cause is a form of negligence where the physician's actions are directly related to a negative outcome or damage to the patient.
This report is dictated by the admitting physician at the end of the patient's hospital stay. It is a brief statement of everything that occurred throughout the hospital course. A. Consultation report B. Operative report C. Pathology report D. Discharge summary
D. Discharge summary A discharge summary is a report prepared by a physician or other health professional at the end of the hospital stay. It outlines the patient's history, the diagnoses and management on discharge.
A medical assistant cleaned a patient's wound using forceps. She then soaked the forceps in alcohol. Which aseptic technique did she use? A. Sterilization B. Autoclaving C. Sanitization D. Disinfection
D. Disinfection The process in eliminating pathogenic microorganisms using chemicals is disinfection. Disinfectants are chemicals that are used on inanimate objects to either eliminate microorganisms or to make them inactive.
The first negative emotion clearly exhibited during infancy is: A. Fear B. Shame C. Guilt D. Distress E. Jealousy
D. Distress
When a doctor is interviewing a patient, the perceptual filters of life experience, self-image, values and prejudices/biases: A. Are occurring only within the patient. B. Make little difference for the doctor, because she/he is in the professional role and can "see" beyond them. C. Are occurring only within the doctor. D. May occur both with the patient and doctor. E. Occur primarily when the patient has a psychiatric condition.
D. May occur both with the patient and doctor.
All of the following are components of the infection cycle, EXCEPT: A. Reservoir B. Means of transmission C. Susceptible host D. Means of termination
D. Means of termination Means of termination is not a component or link to the infection cycle. The links to the infection cycle are: infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, transmission, portal of entry and susceptible host.
All of the following should be followed when purging medical records, EXCEPT: A. Medical records can be destroyed by shredding or burning. B. Facility should maintain a master list of all records C. Medicare records should be maintained for 10 years. D. Medicaid records should be maintained for 5 years.
D. Medicaid records should be maintained for 5 years. Medicare and Medicaid records should be maintained for 10 years. Medical records should be destroyed by shredding, and the facility should have a master list of all records.
What is the unit of measurement of the clock speed of a computer's microprocessor? A. Bits B. Bytes C. Volts D. Megahertz
D. Megahertz Clock speed is measured in megahertz (MHz). One megahertz equals 1 million cycles per second.
A fingerstick is done on the following fingers: A. Middle and index finger B. The thumb and the middle finger C. Small and ring finger D. Middle and ring finger
D. Middle and ring finger The finger is usually the preferred site for capillary testing in an adult patient. The sides of the heel are only used in pediatric and neonatal patients. The middle or the ring fingers are the recommended sites for capillary puncture.
Which of the following examples would be classified as Hardware? A. DOS B. Microsoft Office C. EMR D. Modem
D. Modem Hardware is a piece of equipment used to operate computer machinery. Modems are used to connect a computer to the internet through a telephone line. Modern modems can also connect to the internet through DSL or cable internet providers.
An electronic device that makes possible the transmission of data to and from a computer via telephone or other communication lines: A. Hard drive B. RAM C. URL D. Modem
D. Modem The word modem is actually short for Modulator/Demodulator. It allows the connection of one computer to another, and the transfer of data over telephone lines.
What type of scheduling breaks hour long blocks down into smaller time increments? A. Wave scheduling B. Time-specific scheduling C. Double booking scheduling D. Modified wave scheduling
D. Modified wave scheduling. Modified wave scheduling decreases waiting time. It is a type of scheduling when hour long blocks are broken down to smaller time increments.
Which of the following devices allow the user to manipulate the cursor? A. Tab key B. Backspace C. Bluetooth D. Mouse
D. Mouse The mouse is a pointing device to manipulate the cursor. It also allows the user to interact with the items on the display screen.
What is the function of the Tab key? A. Deletes the character before the cursor. B. Moves the cursor one space forward. C. Moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line. D. Moves the cursor several spaces forward.
D. Moves the cursors several spaces forward. The tab key moves the cursor several spaces forward. The Tab key refers to Tabular key.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Nausea and vomiting is: A. N B. SOB C. S/R D. N&V
D. N&V
Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling asleep during the day? A. Dyslexia B. Epilepsy C. Hydrocephalus D. Narcolepsy E. Shingles
D. Narcolepsy
When a vector travels away from the positive electrode, a ____________ deflection results. A. Positive B. Variation C. T wave D. Negative
D. Negative
A medical assistant who fails to act in a manner that is considered reasonable for someone working in that job capacity is considered to be: A. Fraudulent B. Abusive C. Acting outside of her scope of practice D. Negligent
D. Negligent The definition of negligence is failure to act in a manner that a prudent and reasonable person would under similar circumstances.
Of the following medications, which is not used to treat depression? A. Sertraline hydrochloride B. Paroxetine hydrochloride C. Citalopram D. Nifedipine
D. Nifedipine Zoloft (sertraline hydrochloride), Paxil (paroxetine hydrochloride), and Celexa (citalopram) are all prescribed to treat depression. Procardia (nifedipine) is a calcium ion influx inhibitor and is used to treat pathology of the coronary circulation.
A patient came in complaining of having a burning sensation while urinating. What chemical in the urine would confirm a suspicion that the patient has a urinary tract infection? A. Ketone B. Bilirubin C. Blood D. Nitrate
D. Nitrate Nitrate and leukocyte esterase are chemicals in the urine that indicate a UTI. Most bacteria that colonize in the urinary tract cause nitrates to be converted to nitrates.
In which of the following examples would informed consent be required? A. A patient is apprehensive about an upcoming surgery and chooses not to learn of the risks involved with the procedure. B. A child is rushed to the Emergency Room after falling from a third story window. C. An adult in a coma in a mental health institution with no listed next of kin. D. None of the above required informed consent.
D. None of the above In emergency situations where delaying treatment could mean the difference between life and death, in situations where the patient refuses to hear the risks, and in situations where patients are mentally incapacitated and no next of kin is designated, informed consent is not required.
If you were tasked to record the minutes of a meeting, which of the following would NOT be included in the information you record? A. Names of the attendees B. Names of the absentees C. Agenda D. None of the above
D. None of the above In recording meeting minutes, the following information should be included: names of attendees and absentees, time, date, and location of the meeting, agenda and motions. All of the choices are needed, thus there is no exception.
Malpractice that has been ruled because of a physician's failure to act is a form of: A. Misfeasance B. Malfeasance C. Infeasance D. Nonfeasance
D. Nonfeasance Nonfeasance is defined as failure to act. When a physician fails to act and it's ruled malpractice, this is categorized as nonfeasance. Misfeasance is performing a procedure incorrectly, and malfeasance is performing the wrong procedure.
Of the following choices, which should NOT be considered when performing payroll functions? A. Number of exemptions B. Deductions C. Hours worked D. Number of patients roomed per day
D. Number of patients roomed per day. Payroll is the process of calculating how much is owed an employee based on the employee's salary and number of hours worked. Deductions that are made based on taxes are also calculated from an employee's gross pay.
Of the following choices, which should NOT be considered when performing payroll functions? A. Number of exemptions. B. Deductions. C. Hours worked. D. Number of patients roomed per day.
D. Number of patients roomed per day. Payroll is the process of calculating how much is owed an employee based on the employee's salary and number of hours worked. Deductions that are made based on taxes are also calculated from an employee's gross pay.
Which of the following agency sets the standards for employee safety in the medical office? A. AAMA B. AMA C. CDC D. OSHA
D. OSHA The Occupational Safety and Health Administration oversees safety in the workplace and is federally mandated.
On which of the following types of problems would you expect a four year old child and a seven year-old child to perform mostly similarly? A. Conservation of number. B. Classification C. Transformation D. Object permanence E. Superordinate concepts
D. Object permanence
Which of the following tasks is NOT the responsibility of the office manager? A. Maintain adequate supply of inventory. B. Perform employee evaluations. C. Ensure adequate staffing D. Determine the appropriate number of tax exemptions that should be made by an employee.
D. Office managers have the responsibility to keep the office running smoothly by handling employee issues, monitoring inventory, ensuring customer service excellence, and adequate staffing. Choosing the amount of tax exemptions that each employee should take is the responsibility of the employee.
Which of the following physicians demonstrated that puerperal fever, a disease that was responsible for the death of women in childbirth, was carried from patient to patient by doctors? A. Joseph Lister B. Louis Pasteur C. Ignaz Semmelweis D. Oliver Wendell Holmes
D. Oliver Wendell Holmes
Testing for preclampsia is done: A. On toddlers who have seizures. B. On the elderly with syncope. C. On preteens with epistaxis. D. On pregnant women.
D. On pregnant women. Preclampsia is a condition that can lead to a stroke in pregnant women with high blood pressure. Proteinuria is an easily detectable sign of impending preclampsia and can be easily tested with a urine dipstick.
Which of the following best describes the location where the carotid pulse can be found? A. In front of the ears and just above eye level. B. In the antecubital space. C. In the middle of the groin. D. On the anterior side of the neck. E. On the medial aspect of the wrist.
D. On the anterior side of the neck.
Which of the following connects the eye to the vision center of the brain? A. Lens B. Aqueous humor C. Rods D. Optic nerve
D. Optic nerve
Mr. Phillips comes to your clinic with his 4-year-old son. The child has been telling his parents that his ears hurt and he has not felt well for a few days. What is most likely to be his diagnosis? A. Otitis externa B. Ishihara disease C. Tinnitus D. Otitis media
D. Otitis media Inflammation of the middle ear, or otitis media, is common in children due to the position of the Eustachian tubes during growth. This condition is commonly associated with the presence of fluid in the middle ear.
Which of the following is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system that is responsible for secreting insulin? A. Adrenal gland B. Gallbladder C. Liver D. Pancreas E. Spleen
D. Pancreas
Which of the following is most central to the concept of sensitive period? A. Growth spurts must occur at specific ages. B. Children who do not develop at the same time as their peers experience distress. C. A given function emerges automatically during a particular time period regardless of learning experiences. D. Particular experiences are especially influential at a certain time in development. E. Children go through a negativistic stage as a part of their cognitive development.
D. Particular experiences are especially influential at a certain time in development.
Which of following is NOT a section of the POMR? A. Database B. Problem list C. Treatment plan D. Patient appointment schedule and payment plan.
D. Patient appointment schedule and payment plan. The Problem Oriented Medical Record is set up in sections which will include the database, problem list, and treatment plan. Patient scheduling systems are kept separate from the POMR.
Patients with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) will experience which of the following symptoms? A. Diarrhea B. Flatulence C. Constipation D. Patients can experience a variety of symptoms that can include all of the above.
D. Patients can experience a variety of symptoms that can include all of the above. Patients with IBS can experience a multitude and variety of symptoms, but the most commonly reported are diarrhea, constipation, and flatulence.
Patients with irritable bowel syndrome will experience which of the following symptoms? A. Diarrhea B. Flatulence C. Constipation D. Patients can experience a variety of symptoms that can include all of the above.
D. Patients can experience a variety of symptoms that can include all of the above. Patients with IBS can experience a multitude and variety of symptoms, but the most commonly reported are diarrhea, constipation, and flatulence.
The alternating contraction and relaxation of intestinal muscles is called_________________. A. Enema B. Colostomy C. Constipation D. Peristalsis
D. Peristalsis
The National Childhood Vaccine Injury Act of 1986 states that doctors must keep all immunization records: A. For 6 months. B. On computer disks or microfilm. C. For 5 years. D. Permanently in the office.
D. Permanently in the office.
Federal Insurance Contribution Act (FICA) funds are paid into Social Security. Who pays into the FICA fund? A. The employee only. B. The employer only. C. The employee only if the employer has fewer than 20 employees. D. The employer and the employee each pay half of what is due.
D. The employer and the employee each pay half of what is due. The employee pays half and the employer pays the other half of these taxes. The taxes are applied based on the level of taxable earnings, the length of the payroll period, marital status and the number of withholding allowances claimed.
Identify the sole judge of what information is to be given to, or with held from, the patient? A. The office manager B. The medical assistant C. The administrative assistant D. The physician
D. The physician The physician is the sole judge of what information is to be given to or withheld from the patient.
Which one of the following situations would be most appropriate to use Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)? A. Working in the rain B. Working off-site C. Working indoors D. Working with chemicals
D. Working with chemicals
What abbreviation means "drops"? A. s.c. B. p.c. C. h.s. D. gtt
D. gtt The abbreviation for drops is "gtt"; subcutaneous is "s.c.", at night is "h.s.", after meals is "p.c."
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for injection is: A. I B. Rx C. CPE D. inj
D. inj
A retention schedule details: A. The way a patient record is created, filed, and maintained. B. The order in which a patient record is kept. C. Any activity that needs to be scheduled ahead of time. D. When files should be moved to a storage area and how long they should be kept.
D. when files should be moved to a storage area and how long they should be kept.
Cretinism in children and myxedema in adults is caused by: A. Increased activity of the thyroid gland. B. An abnormally low blood glucose level. C. Decreased activity of the thyroid gland. D. Over-production of hormones by the adrenal cortex.
Decreased activity of the thyroid gland.
Consist of injury to another person's reputation, name or character through spoken (slander) or written (libel):
Defamation of character
U Wave:
Deflection seen following the T wave but preceding the next P wave. Represents the repolarization of the Purkinje Fibers. Round and symmetric less than 1.5 mm in height. A prominent U Wave is due to hypokalemia (low potassium, blood level).
History of Present Illness (HPI):
Description of current problem, includes location, quality, severity, duration, timing, context, modifying factors, and associated signs and symptoms.
How do you know that a 24 hour urine was collected properly?
Discard 1st morning void, and collect for subsequent 24 hours.
If you see a hematoma forming, what do you do?
Discontinue the draw and apply pressure to the site.
An eye examination using a Snellen eye chart tests for what?
Distance visual acuity
What is the most effective way to educate new patients about office policies?
Distribute patient information packets.
Patient laying on back with knees flexed, soles of feet on bed:
Dorsal recumbent
According to Lev Vygotsky, the range between what a child can do alone and what a child can do alone and what a child can do with assistance is referred to as: A. Higher mental functions B. Scaffolding C. Inner speech D. Egocentric speech E. The zone of proximal development
E. The zone of proximal development.
Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm? A. Abdominal and pelvic B. Cranial and spinal C. Dorsal and ventral D. Pericardial and pleural E. Thoracic and abdominal
E. Thoracic and abdominal
Which of the following allows air to pass into the lungs? A. Aorta B. Esophagus C. Heart D. Pancreas E. Trachea
E. Trachea
In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from which of the following structures? A. Anus B. Bladder C. Skin D. Testicle E. Urethra
E. Urethra
Accessioning Order:
Each request for blood withdrawl must include accessioning order, number for paper work, and supplies and patients identification. The blood request forms should include the following: Patient's name and age from ID plate or wristband, Identification number, date & time the specimen is obtained, name or initials of person who obtains specimen, accessioning number, Physician's name, department for which which work is being done, other useful info (special comments, unusual sampling site, drawn near IV site...)
What device may deliver a small amount of electrical energy to cause myocardial depolarization?
Electronic pacemaker
Consists of anterior, middle and posterior divisions that distribute electrical impulses by SA to AV node:
Internodal pathway
A violation of a person's right not to have his or her name, photograph, or private affairs exposed or made public without giving consent is? A. Invasion of privacy B. Privileged communication C. Medical etiquette D. Bioethics
Invasion of privacy
The release of medical records without the patient's knowledge or permission:
Invasion of privacy
Medical Asepsis:
Involves procedures and practices that reduce the number and transfer of pathogens. For example, performing hand hygiene and wearing gloves, nothing on floor, clean from least soiled to most soiled.
How can a fecal occult blood test become contaminated?
It got mixed with urine.
Where you find Hemoglobin:
RBC's
99% of formed elements in blood:
RBC's or Erythrocytes
When teaching a patient to use the three point gait technique of crutch use: A. The injured leg moves ahead at the same time as both crutches. B. One crutch moves at a time and then followed by the injured leg. C. Both crutches move ahead at the same time followed by both legs at the same time. D. None of the above are correct.
The injured leg moves ahead at the same time as both crutches. A three point gait is used when patients cannot bear total weight on one of the legs. The injured leg will move ahead with both crutches followed by the uninjured leg.
When preparing a purchase order for supplies, a CMA should expect to include what info about the supplies?
The item number. So you don't order the wrong product. Other answers included things like expiration date of product etc..Stock up for 6 months.
On lead III, which is the positive lead?
The left leg is positive
When you check the pupils for their response to light, the pupils should constrict and become smaller when a penlight is directed toward them. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
True
Outter connective tissue layer of a blood vessel?
Tunica adventitia
Inner endothelial tissue layer of a blood vessel:
Tunica intima
The inner smooth layer of a blood vessel:
Tunica media
Positive testing for occult blood in a stool sample turn which color?
Turns blue on a positive test for occult blood in feces.
What wave on an ECG represents the slow recovery or repolarization?
U wave
What is the primary stage of Hemolisis?
Vascular phase and platelet phase together
Where do you give an IM injection on a newborn-toddler?
Vastus Lateralis
What is the reading you can get from the RR interval?
Ventricular Pulse
Interval:
Waveform plus a segment.
When should a patient with a Holter Monitor record?
While running
Where is the placement of a 5 lead EKG?
White on right clouds (RUQ) over Grass (RLQ). Smoke (LUQ) over Fire (LLQ).
Tort:
Wrongful act that results in injury to one person to another.
The QRS complex represents:
contraction of the ventricles
path/o
disease
If a patient signs an AMA (Against Medical Advice) form, what should the CMA do next?
document in the medical record
The heart's conduction system is measured by:
exercise electrocardiography
cil/o
eyelash
lip/o, adip/o
fat
When do you collect a newborn screening card?
1-7 days old
What is the normal range of RBC's in women?
3.8-5.1
What is the normal range for HbA1C?
4.5-6.0
Which of the following is a substance that aids the transmission of nerve impulses to the muscles? A. Acetylcholine B. Cholecystokinin C. Deoxyribose D. Oxytocin E. Prolactin
A. Acetylcholine
The process of clotting is called: A. Coagulation B. Phagocytosis C. Morphology D. Hemolysis
A. Coagulation
The abbreviation for intramuscular is ___________. A. IM B. Ims C. IMSC D. Imul
A. IM
Who proposed the Hierarchy of Needs? A. Maslow B. Freud C. Erickson D. Skinner
A. Maslow
The inner layer of the eye consists of the: A. Retina B. Choroid C. Sclera D. Ciliary body
A. Retina
Alopecia is most often hereditary. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
What kind of test is performed on amniotic fluid?
Amniocentesis
The vertical axis on the EKG paper measures:
Amplitude or voltage
What is Electrophoresis?
Analyzation of the chemical components of blood, e.g. hemoglobin, serum, urine, cerebrospinal fluid based on electrical charge..
Cold agglutinins:
Antibodies produced in response to atypical pneumonia, must be kept at 37 C.
The temperature taken at the armpit is the _____________. A. Lymphatic B. Axillary C. Deltoid D. Delta
B. Axillary
A bacteria that is spherical, round, or ovoid is a: A. Vibrio B. Coccus C. Spirillum D. Bacillus
B. Coccus
An embolus is never fatal. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Pap smear is: A. Pel B. Pap C. cons D. P&P
B. Pap
The glucose tolerance test is a _________-test? A. Saliva B. Timed C. Finger stick D. Dangerous
B. Timed-test
On an EKG tracing an indication of the absence of an electrical charge or activity represents the:
Baseline
Unpriveleged touching:
Battery
A QRS measurement of less than ______ seconds indicates a supraventricular pacemaker? A. 0.13 B. 0.14 C. 0.16 D. 0.12
D. 0.12
In the periodic table, K+ is the symbol for: A. Calcium B. Iodine C. Phosphorus D. Potassium
D. Potassium
The prefix "brady-" means which of the following? A. Away from B. Downward C. Irregular D. Slow E. Without
D. Slow
This position is used for examination of the pelvic organs:
Dorsal Lithotomy
Normal indication for a stress test:
Evaluation of a patient with chest pain and a normal EKG, arrhythmia, monitoring a PT. with a recent MI.
A patient presents to a facility with polydipsia, polyuria, and polyphagia. The CMA should expect the provider to request which of the following?
HbA1C (these are symptoms of type 1 DM).
An unconscious patient is brought to the hospital. This is an example of what kind of consent?
Implied consent
Orders are to collect CBC, PTT,and Iron. The CCMA forgets to draw the PTT. What does she do?
Keep the specimens and draw the PTT.
CMA is performing a capillary draw on an infant. Which tube should you draw first?
Lavender (EDTA)
These record electrical potentials in the frontal plane:
Lead I, Lead II, Lead III, and the chest leads.
Degree of an intradermal injection (ID):
Less than 15°degrees
If a patient shows up to have his blood draw and he refuses:
Let the patient leave, and document in the medical record.
Defamation of character by written statement is considered:
Libel
Leads aVR, aVL, and aVF are:
Limb leads and augmented leads
What is a Segment?
Line between two waveforms
What position would you put a patient in who is having a gynecological exam performed?
Lithotomy
The main body part involved in the metabolism of drugs is the:
Liver
What is the second most numerous WBC?
Lymphocyte with 20-40%
If a patient is unresponsive, what should be assessed first?
Respiration
Ischemia refers to what?
Restriction of blood flow.
What should a CCMA perform on a hemostat prior to placing it in an autoclave?
Sanitize the hemostat
Red Top Tube Centrifuged?
Serum (No additive, the blood will not clot)
Complex:
Several waveforms
What can cause a hemolyzed specimen?
Shaking the tube vigorously
Patient in on left side with the right knee flexed against abdomen:
Sim's position
What position would you put a patient in who is having sigmoidoscopy performed?
Sims position
Where does the electrical conduction begin in a healthy heart?
Sinoatrial Node (SA Node) - Pacemaker
Depolarization of the fast cells is dependent on what electrolytes?
Sodium
Additive in light blue tubes?
Sodium Citrate
Standard Precautions:
Standard Precautions are the minimum infection prevention practices that apply to all patient care, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status of the patient, in any setting where healthcare is delivered. Standard Precautions include: 1) hand hygiene, 2) use of personal protective equipment (e.g., gloves, gowns, masks), 3) safe injection practices, 4) safe handling of potentially contaminated equipment or surfaces in the patient environment, and 5) respiratory hygiene/cough etiquette.
What organisms most commonly causes toxic shock syndrome?
Staphylococcus aureus
Spasm:
Sudden and violent but brief; fitful; intermittent
Taking BP hearing two consecutive beats gives which reading?
Systolic
The medical term meaning transmission of ECG signals via radio wave is:
Telemetry
When placing electrodes for a Holter monitor procedure, which of the following should the CMA consult?
The Manufacturers Instructions
What part of a prescription provides directions to the pharmacist?
The inscription
Infection Control/Chain of Infection:
This consists of links, each of which is necessary for the infectious disease to spread. Infection control is based on the fact that the transmission of infectious diseases will be prevented or stopped when any level in the chain is broken or interrupted. AGENT ------- MODE OF TRANSMISSION --------- SUSCEPTIBLE HOST ---------- PORTAL OF EXIT -------- PORTAL OF ENTRY
Augmented leads are also called?
Unipolar leads
What body regulates the laws concerning workplace discrimination? A. JCAHO B. United States Employment and Equal Opportunity Commission. C. United States Equal Employment Opportunity Commission. D. American Disability Association
United States Equal Employment Opportunity Commission The United States Equal Opportunity Commission, otherwise known as the EEOC, regulates the laws concerning workplace discrimination. If an employee wishes to file a discrimination claim they would contact this commission.
A clinical medical assistant is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with an IDIOPATHIC disease. The term "idiopathic" indicates that the disease is caused by what?
Unknown (Idiopathic means unknown)
The mesentery is located in which body cavity?
abdominal
TB is what kind of transmission based precaution?
airborne
What is the medical term for balding?
alopecia
chol/e
bile
Hemostasis is responsible for what?
blood clotting
cyan/o (cyanosis)
blue
myel/o
bone marrow, spinal cord
Successful depolarization of the atria or ventricles by an artificial pacemaker is called:
capture
chondr/o
cartilage
What is an emetic medication?
causes vomiting
-otomy
cutting into
-plasia
development
ophthalm/o
eye
In which direction do you wrap a wound?
from distal to proximal
Chole-:
gall, bile
colp/o
hollow
What cause would give plasma a serum or milky appearance?
hyperlipidemia
Who do you take an apical pulse on?
infant
What do you do with tubes prior to centrifuging?
invert
arthr/o
joint
nephr/o
kidney
hemat/o, hem/o
of / pertaining to blood
The U wave represents:
repolarization
If the patient just smoked, which vital sign to you record last?
temperature
orch/o
testis
Thorac:
thorax, chest, chest cavity
When completing a procedure that requires a Chain of Custody form, what would prohibit processing of the specimen?
urine temperature at 90 degrees.
If drawing with a winged infusion set and the first tube is Light Blue, what step must the CMA take?
use a discard or clearing tube.
What do do if a patient is diaphoretic (sweating), when taking an EKG?
wipe the chest dry
Meaning of afebrile?
without a fever
How many basic tissue types does a human have? A. 4 B. 6 C. 12 D. 23
A. 4 There are four basic tissue types in humans- epithelial, connective, nervous, and muscular.
The normal blood pressure range for an adult is: A. 90/60 to 140/90 B. 84/54 to 120/80 C. 80/50 to 112/80 D. 74/50 to 100/70
A. 90/60 to 140/90
Which of the following is generally used to cleanse the skin before drawing blood? A. Alcohol B. Soap and water C. Hibiclens D. Hydrogen peroxide
A. Alcohol
The most commonly abused drug in children under 18 is: A. Alcohol B. Marijuana C. Crack D. Cocaine
A. Alcohol Alcohol is the most commonly abused drug in children under the age of 18.
This is considered an aspect of self-motivation: A. Alertness B. Awareness C. Promptness D. Punctuality
A. Alertness Alertness is considered to be an aspect of self-motivation.
Gas exchange in the lungs occurs in one-celled air sacs called: A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Capillaries D. Pleurae
A. Alveoli
A drug used to control temperature is called an ________________. A. Anti-pyretic B. Anti-dote C. Anti-emetic D. Analgesic
A. Anti-pyretic
A drug used to relieve a cough is called a(n)? A. Anti-tussive B. Bronchodilator C. Anti-septic D. Anti-toxin
A. Anti-tussive
A patient was diagnosed with pneumonia, and is coughing continuously. The doctor advised the patient to take Robitussin. What is the classification of Robitussin? A. Anti-tussive B. Anti-inflammatory C. Antibiotic D. Analgesic
A. Anti-tussive Robitussin is classified as an anti-tussive. Anti-tussives decrease the cough reflex.
The "white coat syndrome" describes a(n) _____________ patient. A. Anxious B. Angry C. Confused D. Ambivalent
A. Anxious
Which of the following terms refers to pain? A. Arthralgia B. Diplopia C. Dysplasia D. Hemiplegia E. Urticaria
A. Arthralgia
Which temperature is lowest and least accurate? A. Axillary B. Rectal C. Oral D. Tympanic
A. Axillary
A type of insurance whereby the insured pays a specific amount per unit of service and the insurer pays the rest of the cost is a(n): A. Co-payment. B. Coordination of benefits. C. Deductible. D. Indemnity.
A. Co-payment.
A requirement under a health care policy dictated that the insured be responsible for a percentage of covered services, this is called: A. Coinsurance. B. Pre-defined policy. C. Comprehensive. D. In percent policy.
A. Coinsurance.
Which of the following is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis? A. Collagen B. Heparin C. Lipocyte D. Melanin E. Sebum
A. Collagen
A 7 year old boy tripped and fell with an outstretch arm. This injury would most likely result in a _______________. A. Colle's fracture B. Spiral fracture C. Greenstick fracture D. Rickets
A. Colle's fracture The most common cause of a Colle's fracture or distal radius fracture is a fall onto an outstretched arm. A fracture of the distal radius happens when the area of the radius near the wrist breaks.
A group of colors that work well together is called a: A. Color family B. Color unit C. Color type D. Color lot
A. Color family
Specific gravity in urinalysis: A. Compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water. B. Is useless when the patient is dehydrated. C. Can only be done with a refractometer. D. None of the above.
A. Compares the concentration of urine to that of distilled water. Specific gravity measures the concentration of solutes in a liquid compared to the concentration of distilled water. Normal specific gravity readings of human urine range from 1.005 - 1.030.
Cardiomegaly often occurs in which of the following conditions? A. Congestive heart failure B. Myocardial infarction C. Angina pectoris D. Hepatitis B E. Asthma
A. Congestive heart failure
The fingers are _____________ to the elbow. A. Distal B. Superior C. Inferior D. Ventral
A. Distal
The abbreviation for drops is _______. A. Gtt B. Dtt C. Gts D. Dts
A. Gtt
The most virulent blood borne pathogen is: (Choose the BEST answer). A. HCV B. HPV C. HIV D. HBV
A. HCV Hepatitis C is 100 times more virulent than Hepatitis B.
The NFPA diamond has four colors. The blue diamond: A. Indicates hazards to health. B. Designates that it is safe to use water to put out this type of fire. C. Indicates that ice is necessary to treat an injury with this type of chemical. D. Indicates that the chemical may be incinerated upon disposal.
A. Indicates hazards to health. The National Fire Protection Agency has designated a safety diamond to be used to indicate the threat level of a particular chemical. The blue diamond indicates potential hazards to a user's health when the particular chemical is used.
Hydrocortisone is a drug used to suppress _____________. A. Inflammation B. Appetite C. Swelling D. Excretion of urine
A. Inflammation
A patient complained of chest pain, diaphoresis, and anxiety. The patient was diagnosed with Coronary Artery Disease (CAD). The lipid that is most likely linked to it is: A. LDL B. HDL C. Polyunsaturated Fats D. Triglycerides
A. LDL Cholesterol is found mainly in animal foods. There are two types of cholesterol- HDL and LDL. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is called bad cholesterol because it promotes fatty plaques causing atherosclerosis or Coronary Artery Disease (CAD).
The Hierarchy of Needs was proposed by which of the following Psychology researchers? A. Maslow B. Freud C. Erikson D. Skinner
A. Maslow Abraham Maslow is credited with defining the Hierarchy of Need. The Hierarchy of Needs are ranked in order to include Physiologic Needs, Safety and Security, Love and Belonging, Esteem and Recognition, and finally Self Actualization. In order to progress from one level to the next, subjects must satisfy the current need.
A patient who has been hospitalized up to 90 days for each benefit period is covered under: A. Medicare Part A. B. Champus. C. Medicare Part B. D. Champva.
A. Medicare Part A.
The cover for the examination table should be made of: A. Paper B. Cotton C. Nylon D. Polyester
A. Paper
Which of the following suffixes refers to eating? A. Phagia B. Phasia C. Phonia D. Plegia E. Praxia
A. Phagia
What term is used when all microorganisms including the spores in an instrument have been eliminated? A. Sterile B. Asepsis C. Sanitized D. Disinfected
A. Sterile Sterilization is the killing or removal of all microorganisms, including bacterial spores. Sterilization can be achieved through dry heat, steam, radiation or chemical methods.
Which of the following are characteristics of eukaryotic cells? A. They have a complex cell structure containing a nucleus and specialized organelles in the cytoplasm. B. They have a simple cell structure with no nucleus. C. They are non-cellular and the nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat. D. They have an uncomplicated and basic structure that contains no organelles in the cytoplasm.
A. They have a complex cell structure containing a nucleus and specialized organelles in the cytoplasm.
The bell of the chestpiece of the stethoscope is used to detect vascular and heart sounds. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The best way to deal with telephone solicitations is to tell the caller that your office does not order supplies over the telephone. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The budget of a medical office should be only a guideline. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The capitated rate is paid to the provider, even if the patient receives no care: A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The complexity of medical decision making will determination the level of service in the Evaluation and Management codes. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The correct abbreviation for complete blood (cell) count is CBC. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
The diaphragm of the chestpiece of the stethoscope is used to amplify high-pitched sounds. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
The most common kind of exposure incident is a needle stick. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
An example of a sub-cellular microorganism is a: A. Virus B. Bacteria C. Protozoan D. Fungi
A. Virus
At the beginning of an initial interview, the patient wants to discuss his perceptions of why he felt ill but the interviewer wants to know the chronology of his symptoms to complete the history interview. The interviewer should: A. Politely interrupt him and continue with closed-ended questions. B. Allow him to complete his thoughts. C. Inform him that time is of the essence. D. Inform him that an extra charge will be made if more time is needed for the interview.
B. Allows him to complete his thoughts.
A lively atmosphere is produced by________________ colors. A. Dim B. Bright C. Muted D. Dark
B. Bright
A carrier exhibits symptoms of infection. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Residual urine is obtained when a patient urinates. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The average urine pH is 4.5. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The main risk factor for Hepatitis B and C is sexual activity. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The physician is the only health care professionals responsible for patient education. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
B. False
The pulse oximeter is an electronic device used to measure blood pressure. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The pulse oximeter measures the blood pressure and the amount of oxygen in the blood. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
The vaccination against HBV also protects the patient against other strains of hepatitis. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
B. False
Which of the following is caused by a deficiency of iodine in the diet? A. Goiter B. Diabetes mellitus C. Cushing syndrome D. Hypothyroidism
A. Goiter
A drug that produces sleep is called a(n) ________________? A. Placebo B. Hypnotic C. Antispasmodic D. Diaphoretic
B. Hypnotic
Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite? A. Adrenal glands B. Hypothalamus C. Pancreas D. Thalamus E. Thyroid gland
B. Hypothalamus
Which of the following physicians concluded that puerperal fever was a communicable disease? A. Oliver Wendell Holmes B. Ignaz Semmelweis C. Joseph Lister D. Louis Pasteur
B. Ignaz Sennelweis
Staples and rubber bands are _______________ supplies. A. Vital B. Incidental C. Periodic D. General
B. Incidental
Motility problems of the colon and rectum are diagnosed by means of a: A. Barium swallow B. Gastrointestinal angiography C. Barium enema D. Stereoscopy
C. Barium enema
A stroke patient is breathing with alternating periods of apnea and tachypnea. What is this breathing pattern called? A. Sturge-Weber B. Prader Willi C. Cheyne Stokes D. Lou Gehrig
C. Cheyne Stokes Cheyne-Stokes respiration is an abnormal breathing pattern described as periods of tachypnea alternating with periods of apnea. The condition was named after two physicians who first described it in the 19th century - John Cheyne and William Stokes.
Which radiologic test is used to diagnose gallstones? A. Barium enema B. Intravenous pyelogram C. Cholangiography D. Stereoscopy
C. Cholangiography
Which of the following is not one of the 4 D's of negligence? A. Duty B. Derelict C. Danger D. Direct cause
C. Danger The 4 D's of negligence are: Duty, Derelict, Direct cause and Damages. Danger is not one of the 4 D's.
An amount the insured must pay before policy benefits begin is called: A. Indemnity. B. Extended benefits. C. Deductible. D. Catastrophic.
C. Deductible.
Conversion of a dysrhythmia to a normal rhythm by applying electric shock to the chest is called? A. Cardiac arrest B. Pacemaker implant C. Defibrillation D. Endarterectomy
C. Defibrillation
In the application of electrodes, secure the electrode by rubbing your finger around the ____________area? A. Center B. Gel C. Adhesive D. Peripheral
C. Adhesive
What type of scheduling is used when two or more patients are scheduled at the same time? A. Wave scheduling B. Time-specific scheduling C. Double booking scheduling D. Modified wave scheduling
C. Double booking scheduling. Double booking scheduling is when two or more patients are scheduled at the same time. It is used by practices with short visits or high no show rates.
Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following? A. Androgens B. Catecholamines C. Electrolytes D. Estrogens E. Prostaglandins
C. Electrolytes
Periodically the medical assistant should check all equipment in the office to ensure that cords are not frayed, do not present hazards, and are in good working order. A(n) ________________________ will help the medical assistant track this routine inspection. A. Inventory control log. B. Maintenance log. C. Quality control log. D. None of the above.
B. Maintenance log.
Which laboratory tests examine blood, urine, sputum, reproductive fluids, and fluids from wounds to identify the presence of pathogenic organisms? A. Hematologic tests B. Microbiologic tests C. Serologic tests D. Toxicologic tests
B. Microbiologic tests.
Another name for a personal computer is a: A. Mainframe computer B. Microcomputer C. Minicomputer D. Network computer
B. Microcomputer
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for New patient is: A. NEW B. NP C. BP D. NPT
B. NP
Which of the following will increase the owner's equity? A. Drawing B. Revenue C. Expenses D. None of the above
B. Revenue Equity is one's worth. Revenue is money coming into the organization and will add value.
Which of the following is included in the emotional preparation of adult patients for a physical examination? A. Explain in technical terms exactly what will occur during the examination. B. Tell them their cooperation can contribute to the success of the examination. C. Avoid telling the patient how they can expect to feel during parts of the examination. D. Be firm and discourage questions from the patient.
B. Tell them their cooperation can contribute to the success of the examination.
Which of the following pump oxygenated blood to all parts of the body? A. The superior and inferior venae cavae B. The aorta C. The pulmonary veins D. The pulmonary arteries
B. The aorta
Which of the following choices would best answer the question, "Who owns a patient's medical record? A. The patient B. The physician C. The Legal Counsel of the Office. D. No one owns the medical record.
B. The physician Physicians own their patient's medical records, but patients have the right to have copies of their records.
Which part of an optical microscope is the platform on which rests the specimen slide? A. The arm B. The stage C. The objective D. The substage
B. The stage
The physician orders you to give an IM medication to a 2-year-old child. What site will you use? A. Deltoid muscle B. Vastus Lateralis muscle C. Ventrogluteal muscle D. Dorsogluteal muscle
B. Vastus Lateralis muscle
The medical assistant should count the pulse for how long to be most accurate? A. 15 seconds B. 30 seconds C. 1 minute D. 2 minutes
C. 1 minute The pulse rate should be counted for one minute to be accurate. The pulse is counted as beats per min (BPM).
The tissue surfaces of an incision that are close together are: A. Necrotic. B. Infected. C. Approximated. D. Abscessed.
C. Approximated.
Which of the following methods of collecting patient data requires more than a yes or no answer and encourages the patient to more fully explain the situation? A. Asking leading questions. B. Challenging a patient. C. Asking open-ended questions. D. Focusing on the patient.
C. Asking open-ended questions.
Some medications have special coating to protect them from the acidity of the stomach and that allows them to pass through the small intestines for absorption. This is referred to as: A. Slow-release coated medications. B. Double-coated medications. C. Enteric-coated medications. D. Rapid-response medications.
C. Enteric-coated medications. Enteric-coated medications have special coating to protect them from the acidity of the stomach and that allows them to pass the small intestines for absorption. The term enteric refers to the small intestines.
Which of the following best describes a nucleus cell? A. Lymphocyte B. Monocyte C. Erythrocyte D. Basophil E. Neutrophil
C. Erythrocyte The nucleus is an organelle found in eukaryotic cells. Inside its fully enclosed nuclear membrane, it contains the majority of the cell's genetic material. This material is organized as DNA molecules, along with a variety of proteins, to form chromosomes.
When receiving CPR certification through the American Heart Association at the healthcare provider level, how often is recertification necessary? A. Annually B. Biannually C. Every two years D. Certification is a one-time training and the credential is good for the life of the certificant.
C. Every two years. CPR certification should be renewed every two years to ensure that providers are kept up to skill and are aware of new trends and procedures related to resuscitation.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Gastrointestinal is: A. C B. Rx C. GI D. Lab
C. GI
A medical assistant should include which of the following in preparing a patient for cryosurgery? A. Place a grounding pad somewhere on the patient's body. B. Ask the patient to put on safety goggles. C. Inform the patient that the initial sensation of cold will be followed by a burning sensation. D. Position the patient for the administration of a general anesthetic.
C. Inform the patient that the initial sensation of cold will be followed by a burning sensation.
When giving a patient eye drops, A. The proper medical term for this procedure is, "Instillation." B. Pull the lower eye lid down and place the drops in the conjunctival space. C. Allow the patient to blink a few times after administration to help distribute the medication. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above Proper instillation of eye medication is to place the drops in the conjunctival space and allow the patient to blink after instillation to distribute the medication.
A(n)_______________ provides care during pregnancy and childbirth. A. Neurologist B. Nephrologist C. Obstetrician D. Gerontologist
C. Obstetrician An obstetrician provides care during pregnancy and childbirth.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Premenstrual syndrome is: A. Lab B. c/o C. PMS D. Rx
C. PMS
What the body does to a drug is called: A. Pharmacotherapeutics B. Pharmacodynamics C. Pharmacokinetics D. Pharmacognosy
C. Pharmacokinetics
Information given by a patient to medical personnel who cannot be disclosed without consent of the person who gave it is? A. Malpractice B. Invasion of privacy C. Privileged communication D. Statute of limitations
C. Privileged communication
Putting off pending tasks to a later time, sometimes completing the task right before the deadline is: A. Proactive B. Indolent C. Procrastinate D. Negligent
C. Procrastinate Procrastination is the practice of putting off tasks at a later time, sometimes right before the deadline. Carrying out less important tasks because they are more pleasurable to do often leads to procrastination.
Blood flows from the heart's right ventricle into the: A. Left ventricle B. Right atrium C. Pulmonary arteries D. Pulmonary veins
C. Pulmonary arteries
Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into which of the following structures? A. Inferior vena cava. B. Left ventricle. C. Pulmonary arteries. D. Pulmonary veins. E. Right atrium.
C. Pulmonary arteries.
Having a medical practice compliance plan in place: A. Eliminates the risk of an adult. B. Assures that there will be adherence to state regulations. C. Shows that there is a "good-faith" effort to be compliant with coding regulations. D. Simplifies the tasks of the medical assistant.
C. Shows that there is a "good-faith" effort to be compliant with coding regulations.
Which of the following is part of the sanitization of equipment? A. Boil instruments in boiling water. B. Scrub instruments with steel wool. C. Soak instruments in disinfectant solution. D. Place all instruments together when sanitizing them.
C. Soak instruments in disinfectant solution.
Carolyn tripped on the carpet and fell. When she got up, she looked at her mother, who was laughing, and she laughed, too. This is an example of: A. Empathy B. Sympathy C. Social referencing D. Display rules E. Semantics
C. Social referencing
Your 43 year old male patient presents with the chief complaint "that he has a brain tumor." He presented to you 3 weeks ago with the complaint of stomach cancer and a week before that he complained about having melanoma. All of his physical exams and lab tests indicated that your patient was in excellent health. The most accurate diagnosis that best fits his overall presentation is: A. Conversion disorder B. Malingering C. Somatization disorder D. Hypochondriasis
C. Somatization disorder
In the anatomic position the body is: A. Lying horizontally with the hands across the chest. B. Standing with the arms/hands relaxed at the sides of the body. C. Standing with arms at the side and palms facing forward. D. Standing with the arms at the side and palms facing backward.
C. Standing with arms at the side and palms facing forward.
During the patient interview, the patient reports that she has abdominal pain. What type of information did the patient report? A. Sign B. Objective C. Subjective D. Impression
C. Subjective Subjective data includes information about what the patient feels. Symptoms are considered Subjective information such as abdominal pain.
SOAP chart refers to: A. Subjective, Objective, Administer, Proposal B. Subjective, Opportunity, Access, Program C. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan D. Systems, Operations, Assessment, Project
C. Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan. SOAP chart is an acronym for: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan. It is also referred to as the progress notes chart.
Another name for Vitamin B1 is: A. Niacin B. Carotene C. Thiamine D. Riboflavin
C. Thiamine
Which blood type carries both the A and B antigens, but neither the anti-A or anti-B antibodies? A. Type A B. Type B C. Type AB D. Type O
C. Type AB
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Ultrasound is: A. PMS B. Rx C. US D. CP
C. US
A patient was brought to the clinic because she has not urinated for 3 days. Blood tests shows increase in BUN and Creatinine. What is the condition of the patient? A. UTI B. Kidney stones C. Uremia D. Diabetes
C. Uremia The patient has uremia based on the blood tests. Uremia is accumulation of wastes in the blood such as Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine due to renal disease.
How many types of math skills does the administrative medical assistant need? A. 6 B. 5 C. 4 D. 3
D. 3 The administrative medical assistant needs three types of math skills, addition, subtraction, and percentage calculations.
How often should you change the disposable cover on the examination table? A. Daily. B. After every third use. C. Weekly. D. After every use.
D. After every use.
To ensure that verbal orders for medications are recorded accurately, A. The medical assistant should read the order back to the physician. B. The medical assistant should ask for clarification on any misunderstood information. C. The medical assistant should write down the order exactly as written. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Taking verbal orders introduces the potential for errors. Medical assistants can reduce the chance for errors by writing the orders down exactly as heard, repeating the order back to the physician, and asking for clarification.
Medications can be located in the physician's drug reference under all of the following categories except _________________. A. Manufacturer B. Generic name C. Classification D. Composition
D. Composition
Your "foreign born" patient has migrated approximately 5 years ago. She is likely to have difficulty trusting you, understanding your treatment plans/rationale and being willing/able to follow your recommendations if her degree of acculturation is: A. Assimilated B. Bicultural C. Traditional D. Marginal E. Non-existent
D. Marginal
Which of the following is permissible in ultrasonic cleaning? A. Place all instruments together in the special bath? B. Place all instruments with hinges or ratchets in the ultrasonic cleaner in the closed position. C. Remove the instruments from the ultrasonic cleaner and immediately wrap a towel without rinsing. D. Reuse the ultrasonic cleaning solution for several baths.
D. Reuse the ultrasonic cleaning solution for several baths.
A 15 year old boy complained of a sore throat. After testing the patient, the results revealed a strep throat. What is the shape of the bacteria? A. Rod shaped B. Round in clusters C. Round in pairs D. Round in chains
D. Streptococci are bacteria that are seen in the microscope as round arranged in chains. It is also classified as Gram-positive bacteria.
The abbreviation for tablet is __________. A. Tbb B. Tsp C. Tbl D. Tab
D. Tab
When mixing reagents always read the label ______________. A. With the doctor B. With a nurse C. With magnifying glasses D. Twice
D. Twice
The cardiovascular system is: A. An organ. B. Two organs that function separately. C. The name given to all organs involved in oxygenation of the body. D. Two organs working toward the same goal.
D. Two organs working toward the same goal.
Which of the following is used to clean delicate instruments or instruments with moving parts? A. Sterilization B. Disinfection C. Sanitization D. Ultrasonic cleaning
D. Ultrasonic cleaning
The prefix pertaining to the fingernail is which of the following terms? A. Odont- B. Olfact- C. Omphal- D. Onco- E. Onych-
E. Onych-
Urinary Bacteria:
Enteric gram-negative bacteria that are always nitrite positive can convert urinary nitrate to nitrite. A positive nitrite test is an indication that a significant number of bacteria are present in the urine.
Functions necessary for life:
Heart function, blood pressure, respiration, temperature.
PKU:
This test is ordered for infants to detect phenylketonuria, a genetic disease that causes mental retardation and brain damage. Test is done on blood from newborn's heel or in urine.
What are the jobs of the electrodes?
To amplify the connection
What is the CCMA's role during a pulmonary function test?
To coach the patient through the test.
What is the purpose of an electrode?
To conduct electrical activity.
-plasia:
development, formation, growth
How do you convert from Ibs. to Kgs?
lbs/2.2 = Kgs.
Where is the collection site for a CBC to be done on a 10 month old?
left heel
hyster/o
tissue
hist/o:
tissue (combining form)
Holter monitor:
A portable electrocardiograph that is worn by an ambulatory patient to continuously monitor the heart rates and rhythms over a 24-hour period.
Disinfection:
A procedure used in medical asepsis using various chemicals that can be used to destroy many pathogenic microorganisms.
Which of the following is NOT a common file format? A. .url B. .gif C. .jpeg D. .rtf
A. .url URL or Uniform Resource Locator is not a file format. It identifies the global address and domain to access web pages. .gif, .jpeg, and .rtf are examples of file formats.
The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to a patient. The amount on hand is 100 mg/ml. How many cc's of Demerol will be injected? A. 0.5 cc B. 1 cc C. 1.5 cc D. 0.25 cc
A. 0.5 cc
The physician has ordered 50 mg of Demerol to be given to a patient. The concentration on hand is 100 mg/ml. How many cc's of Demerol will be injected? A. 0.5 cc B. 1.0 cc C. 1.5 cc D. 0.25 cc
A. 0.5 cc
The physician has ordered 0.2 mg of a medication. The amount on hand is 400 mg tabs. How many tablets will be given to the patient? A. 0.5 tab B. 1 tab C. 2 tab D. 2.5 tab
A. 0.5 tab
What dose would you give a 15 kg child who should receive 100 mg per kilogram of body weight? A. 1,500 mg B. 1,800 mg C. 2,000 mg D. 2,200 mg
A. 1,500 mg The formula is: Dose Ordered X Weight in kg = Dose to be Given 15 kg X 100 mg = 1,500 mg.
When performing CPR, at what rate should chest compressions be applied? A. 100 per minute B. 60 per minute C. As quickly as possible. D. 200 per minute
A. 100 per minute Chest compressions given during CPR should be done at a rate of 100 compressions per minute.
A patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which of the following blood pressures would you expect to see in this patient prior to taking medications for his condition? A. 142/92 B. 118/72 C. 120/80 D. 138/88
A. 142/92 Essential hypertension occurs when the blood pressure reading has a systolic pressure reading of equal to or greater than 140 and/or a diastolic reading equal to or greater than 90.
The normal bleeding time is: A. 2 to 8 minutes B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 20 minutes D. 1 hour
A. 2 to 8 minutes Normal bleeding time is 2-8 minutes. Bleeding time is a test used to determine how quickly your blood clots to stop you from bleeding. The test involves making small, superficial cuts on the skin.
A patient who weighs 100 kilograms will be how heavy in pounds? A. 220 lbs. B. 45 lbs C. 100 lbs. D. 300 lbs.
A. 220 lbs. The kilograms to pounds weight conversion factor is 2.2. One kilograms is equivalent to 2.2 pounds. To get the pounds, you have to multiply the kilograms by 2.2. The patient will be 220 lbs.
All students in an accredited medical assisting program are required to master ______ areas of competence. A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
A. 3 All students in an accredited medical assisting program are required to master three areas of competence.
The recommended daily adult cholesterol intake is no more than: A. 300 mg. B. 350 mg. C. 500 mg. D. 800 mg.
A. 300 mg.
Cholesterol and LDL measurement is recommended for healthy patients at what age? A. 35 for men, 45 for women B. 35 for women, 45 for men C. 45 for men, 55 for women D. 45 for women, 55 for men
A. 35 for men, 45 for women The recommended ages for testing cholesterol and LDL for men and women are 35 and 45. Lipid screening is recommended for all patients with diabetes, hypertension, CAD, and coronary equivalents.
If the medication is supposed to be given q6, how many times will you give the medication to the patient in a day? A. 4 B. 5 C. 3 D. 6
A. 4 times a day The abbreviation q6 refers to every 6 hours. If the medication is to be given every 6 hours, then it should be given 4 times in a span of 24 hours.
The CPT code for a flu shot is: A. 90658 B. 993.97 C. 1200 D. 542
A. 90658 A CPT code is a five digit numeric code that is used to code medical, surgical, imaging, laboratory, and therapeutic services of the physician. CPT refers to Current Procedural Terminology.
The normal adult temperature is: A. 98.6°F B. 96.0°F C. 97.0°F D. 99.0°F
A. 98.6°F.
A pediatric playroom should include: A. A "Well" side and a "sick" side in the reception area for well and sick children. B. A television or VCR on a lower shelf that is easily accessible to children. C. A wide selection of balls and jumping ropes. D. Mixing the toys for younger and older children.
A. A "Well" side and a "sick" side in the reception area for well and sick children.
The warning signs of cancer include: A. A change in bowel or bladder habits. B. Joint pain. C. Dizziness. D. Weakness.
A. A change in bowel or bladder habits.
Classical Conditioning (Pavlov), is demonstrated in which of the following examples? A. A child starts crying upon mention of going to the doctor. B. A dog barks when seeing a stranger. C. A patient is startled when a medical assistant quickly opens a door without announcing his presence. D. A baby boy urinates every time his diaper is removed to be changed.
A. A child starts crying upon mention of going to the doctor. Classical conditioning was described by Pavlov in a famous experiment involving a bell and a salivating dog. This theory of learning is based on obtaining a desired reaction based on giving rewards. Just as Pavlov was able to stimulate a dog to salivate by ringing a bell, children can be conditioned to associate pain with a visit to the doctor. From remembering previous visits that were unpleasant such as receiving injections, children will start to associate the doctor with pain.
In terms of the administration of medication, what does "contraindication" mean? A. A condition in which a drug should never be used. B. The interaction between two drugs that work together. C. Anaphylaxis D. Cumulative effect
A. A condition in which a drug should never be used. A condition in which a drug should never be used. An example is when certain drugs are contraindicated in patients who are pregnant if the medication could cause birth defect.
An example of slander is: A. A medical assistant falsely criticizing another medical assistant's skills. B. A medical assistant restraining a patient against her will. C. A medical assistant writing defamatory statements about a doctor on her Facebook wall. D. A medical assistant calling a coder's supervisor to report a billing error.
A. A medical assistant falsely criticizing. Slander is spoken words that could negatively impact the reputation of another individual. Written words that have the same implication is known as libel.
Red-given color blindness is best described as: A. A sex-linked recessive trait. B. A sex-linked dominant trait. C. An autosomal recessive trait. D. An autosomal dominant trait. E. A trait resulting from chromosomal breakage.
A. A sex-linked recessive trait.
A filing system that consists of a series of 43 file folders, including 12 monthly, and 31 daily folders: A. Tickler file B. Color coding file C. Subject file D. Alpha-numerical file
A. A tickler file A tickler file is a system that organizes chronologically for follow up. It is a system intended to act as an addition to calendaring and scheduling systems.
A patient displays the following body language: Slumped shoulders, grimace, and stiff joints. What message is the patient sending? A. Anger B. Aloofness C. Empathy D. Depression
A. Anger Body language is a form of non-verbal communication. Negative messages can be sent easily with the use of improper or tense posture. Anger is conveyed by grimacing as if in pain and tensing the shoulders.
A patient has been diagnosed with an irregular heartbeat. Which of the following medications would be prescribed to treat this condition? A. Antiarrhythmic B. Antipsychotic C. Cathartic D. Antiseptic
A. Antiarrhythmic Antiarrhythmic medications are prescribed to treat conditions where the heart is beating irregularly.
What drug is contraindicated if the patient has a bleeding disorder? A. Anticoagulants B. Diuretics C. Anticonvulsants D. Antihypertensives
A. Anticoagulants Anticoagulants are also known as blood thinners. Anticoagulants are generally contraindicated in patients with bleeding conditions or disorders.
Fruits, vegetables, and cereals are potent sources of : A. Antioxidants B. Unsaturated fat C. Saturated fat D. Free radicals
A. Antioxidants In addition to the above-mentioned foods, legumes (including broad beans, pinto beans, and soybeans) are good sources of antioxidant vitamins and a variety of phytonutrients that often act as antioxidants, protecting the cells of the body from the damaging effect of free radicals. Some of the best sources of antioxidants are berries, ginger, pomegranate, sunflower seeds, and walnuts.
A patient presents to the office with chief complaint of RLQ pain. Which of the following pathologies would be MOST likely possible? A. Appendicitis B. Gall stones C. Splenomegaly D. Pancreatitis
A. Appendicitis The appendix is located on the inferior aspect of the cecum in the colon. This organ is located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen.
A drug that controls appetite is called a(n)? A. Appetite suppressor B. Appetite stimulant C. Anti-spasmodic D. Appetite placebo
A. Appetite suppressor
Interoffice memos: A. Are more informal than a standard letter. B. Contain a contemporary close. C. Contain a salutation. D. None of the above.
A. Are more formal than a standard letter. Interoffice memos are used to send quick notes to staff in an informal form.
ICD-10 coding books: A. Are organized into three volumes. B. Used to code diagnostic procedures. C. Are revised bi-annually. D. None of the above.
A. Are organized into three volumes. ICD-10 coding manuals are organized into three separate sections, each with its own function. These codes are used to code medical conditions that are treated by a health care provider. The newest version, ICD-10, is in the early implementation phase in the United States.
ICD-10 coding books: A. Are organized into three volumes. B. Used to code diagnostic procedures. C. Are revised bi-annually. D. None of the above.
A. Are organized into three volumes. ICD-10 coding manuals are organized into three separate sections, each with its own function. These codes are used to code medical conditions that are treated by a health care provider. The ICD-10 is in the early implementation phase in the United States.
Mr. Martinez is a 75-year-old male patient who has been diagnosed with hardening of the arteries. What term will the physician use in the documentation? A. Arteriosclerosis B. Aneurysm C. Varicose veins D. Atherosclerosis
A. Arteriosclerosis Arteriosclerosis is commonly called "hardening of the arteries." Actually this means that the arteries lose their elasticity and the arterial walls have become weak as people age.
Which of the following is an example of positive communication? A. Ask a patient to repeat your instructions. B. Interrupt a patient when he/she does not understand. C. Treat all the patients the same. D. Inform patients when you cannot spend any more time with them.
A. Ask a patient to repeat your instructions.
You are in the process of taking the history of a 23 year old male patient who is new to your practice. During the course of the psychosocial history he becomes enraged when you ask him about his sexual relationship with his girlfriend of 4 years, informing you that "The bit he cheated on me with my best friend and I'm going to kill her." The most appropriate response on your part would be to: A. Ask him questions that assess the lethality or seriousness of his remarks. B. Ignore his remarks and continue with the interview. C. Tell him to calm down and reassure him that things will be alright. D. Excuse yourself and immediately inform the police.
A. Ask him questions that assess the lethality or seriousness of his remarks.
"You seem to be making progress, don't you agree?" is an example of which method of collecting patient data? A. Asking leading questions. B. Asking hypothetical questions. C. Asking closed-ended questions. D. Asking open-ended questions.
A. Asking leading questions.
An agreement by which a patient assigns to another party the right to receive payment from a third-party for the services the patient has received is a(n): A. Assignment. B. Coordination of benefits. C. Non duplication of benefits. D. None of the above.
A. Assignment
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Blood pressure check is: A. BP B. PB C. BPC D. EKG
A. BP
Which of the following areas should be swabbed when obtaining a specimen for a throat culture? A. Back of the throat and tonsillar area. B. Nasopharynx and epiglottis C. Cheeks and tongue D. Gums and uvula
A. Back of the throat and tonsillar area.
The appropriate time to collect a urine specimen from a patient is: A. Before the physical examination. B. Anytime the patient feels he can provide a specimen. C. During the examination. D. After the examination.
A. Before the physical examination.
The appropriate time to collect a urine specimen from a patient is: A. Before the physical examination. B. Anytime the patient feels he can provide a specimen. C. During the examination. D. After the examination.
A. Before the physical examination.
Menarche refers to which of the following? A. Beginning of menstruation B. Development of female characteristics C. End of childhood D. End of pregnancy E. Primary infertility
A. Beginning of menstruation
Which of the following best describes the structure that collects urine in the body? A. Bladder B. Kidney C. Ureter D. Urethra E. Urethral meatus
A. Bladder
Which of the following is used to disinfect surfaces and soak rubber equipment before sterilization? A. Bleach B. Alcohol C. Iodine D. Boiling water
A. Bleach
How many ml's are injected for a Purified Protein Derivative (PPD) test?
0.1 ml
The normal P wave in standard and precordial leads does not exceed:
0.11's in duration or 2.5 mm in height.
A CMA is administering 5ml of a medication to the patient. The CMA should recognize that this dose is equal to what?
1 Teaspoon (tsp.)
Establishing a matrix in the appointment book refers to: A. Blocking out the times when the health provider is unavailable. B. Blocking out the times when patients are unavailable. C. Blocking out the times when the nurse is not available. D. Blocking out the times if the facility is unavailable.
A. Blocking out the times when the health provider is unavailable. Establishing a matrix is to block out the times when the health provider is unavailable for appointments. It takes into consideration appointment intervals and break times such as lunch, meetings and rounds.
A patient is describing a contusion of his arm over the telephone to you. Which of the following descriptions would closely describe a contusion? A. Blood collecting under the skin without a break in the skin. B. A clean cut that has broken the integrity of the skin. C. A jagged cut that has broken the integrity of the skin. D. A puncture which has pierced the top layers of the skin.
A. Blood collecting under the skin without a break in the skin. A contusion is bruising of the affected area, also known as an ecchymosis.
Good source of vitamin D include all, EXCEPT: A. Blueberries. B. Sunlight. C. Salmon, tuna, sardines, and mackerel. D. Fortified milk and other dairy products.
A. Blueberries Humans obtain vitamin D from two natural sources: sunlight and consumed food. Solar UVB radiation penetrates the skin and converts 7-dehydrocholesterol to pre-vitamin D3, which is rapidly converted to vitamin D3. Along with the above-mentioned foods, cod liver oil is a potent source of vitamin D and some orange juice, soy, and rice beverages are fortified with vitamin D.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Complete physical examination is: A. CPE B. C C. Can D. Com
A. CPE
Torts are: A. Civil wrongs subject to a lawsuit. B. Acts of criminal law. C. Not legally enforceable in free clinic settings. D. Punishable by imprisonment in a federal penitentiary.
A. Civil wrongs subject to a lawsuit. Torts are acts of wrongdoing. They fall under Civil Law.
The electrode site should be? A. Clean, smooth, and dry. B. Hairy C. Have plenty of skin oil present D. Moist
A. Clean, smooth, and dry.
A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced, and the skin is intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following? A. Closed, greenstick B. Complex, comminuted C. Compound, transverse D. Open, spiral E. Simple, pathologic
A. Closed, greenstick
The protective membrane that lines the eyelids and covers the anterior of the sclera is the: A. Conjunctiva B. Aqueous humor C. Lacrimal apparatus D. Vitreous humor
A. Conjunctiva
Tips for preventing injury at home include: A. Covering all electrical outlets with covers when outlets are not in use. B. Storing all chemicals in containers other than the original containers. C. Avoid the use of strips that stick to the bathtub floor. D. Using long electrical cords and speaker wires.
A. Covering all electrical outlets with covers when outlets are not in use.
Medicare Part A: A. Covers inpatient care. B. Covers outpatient care. C. Is voluntary and pays 80% by Medicare and 20% by the patient. D. Allows participants to choose managed care plans.
A. Covers inpatient care. Medicare Part A covers inpatient hospital stays. Part B covers outpatient coverage. Part C, also known as Medicare Advantage, is another Medicare plan that covers Part A and B. Part D covers pharmaceuticals.
Each prescription for a controlled substance requires the physician's signature and a(n)_______________ registration number. A. DEA B. EPA C. FDA D. CDC
A. DEA
The pharmacist should look for which number on the prescription to determine if the prescriber is licensed to prescribe controlled substances? A. DEA number B. Medical license number C. Prescription number D. PRE number
A. DEA number DEA number is a number assigned to a health care provider by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) allowing them to write prescriptions for controlled substances. The DEA number is encoded by two alphabetical letters followed by a seven digit number.
When you make a solution, be sure you label and _____________. A. Date it B. Store it C. Freeze it D. Color it
A. Date it
When providing a patient with instructions on the collection of a sample for occult blood testing, which of the following statements is correct? A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen. B. The patient should consume 20 oz. of red meat in the 4 hours prior to the collection of the specimen. C. The patient should limit dairy. D. There are no restrictions on medications - the patient should take all medications as prescribed.
A. Dietary modifications must occur for 48 hours prior to collection of the specimen.
The acronym DSL stands for: A. Direct Subscriber Line B. Data Set Label C. Dynamic Simulation Language D. Direct Satellite Link
A. Direct Subscriber Line DSL refers to Direct Subscriber Line. DSL is a high-speed connection that is used to provide internet access by transmitting digital data over telephone lines.
A drug that causes urination is called a ____________. A. Diuretic B. Hypertensive C. Gestational Drug D. Narcotic
A. Diuretic
When the patient complains of abdominal pain, how will you know what organ is most likely affected? A. Divide the abdomen into four sections, and ask the patient in which section the pain is. B. Ask the patient how severe the pain is. C. Ask the patient when did the pain start. D. Divide the abdomen into upper and lower quadrant and ask if the pain is upper or lower.
A. Divide the abdomen into four sections, and ask the patient in which section the pain is. To locate which organ is most likely affected from the patient's symptoms, divide the abdomen into four sections and ask the patient to identify the location of the pain. Although it is not that accurate, it is a good way of localizing which organ can possibly be included in the differential diagnosis.
All of the following are true about Tourette syndrome, EXCEPT: A. Drug treatment completely eliminates symptoms. B. It is involuntary and may be a chronic condition. C. Symptoms are generally most severe during adolescence. D. Symptoms are generally detected in children.
A. Drug treatment completely eliminates symptoms. Tourette Syndrome is characterized by tics - repetitive, involuntary behaviors, vocalizations and movements such as eye blinking, grimacing and shrugging, or jerky muscle movements. Tics also may include self-harm such as repetitively punching oneself as well as coprolalia and echolalia. Persons with Tourette Syndrome frequently suffer behavioral problems such as hyperactivity, impulsivity, attention disorders, and repetitive behaviors.
An office appointment calendar or book must record not only the name of the patient and the start time of appointment, but also indicate the__________________? A. Duration of the appointment. B. Relationship to the patient. C. Social Security number of the patient. D. Insurance provider's contact information.
A. Duration of the appointment.
Which one of the following lists contains only Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)? A. Dust mask, safety goggles, and ear defenders. B. Ear defenders, reading glasses, and trainers. C. Thermal gloves, machine guard, and overalls. D. Machine guard, dust mask, and safety goggles.
A. Dust mask, safety goggles, and ear defenders.
The use of ________________to communicate is as widespread as telephone communication. A. E-mail B. Text C. Social media D. Mail
A. E-mail The use of e-mail to communicate is as widespread as telephone communication.
Intermittent fevers are: A. Fevers which come and go. B. Fevers which rise and fall but are always considered above the patient's average temperature. C. Fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees in never return to normal. D. None of the above
A. Fevers which come and go. Intermittent fevers are fevers that come and go. They alternate between periods of being febrile then afebrile. Continuous fevers rise and fall slightly over a period of 24 hours. Remittent fevers fluctuate considerably; more than 3 degrees and do not return to normal body temperature.
A rapid, irregular succession of chaotic bizarre waves; wide, irregular oscillations of the baseline is called the ventricular____________? A. Fibrillation B. Standstill C. Tachycardia D. Rhythm
A. Fibrillation
The body's reaction to stress is: A. Fight or flight B. Denial C. Anger D. Acceptance
A. Fight or flight This combinations of reactions to stress is also termed as the "fight or flight" response. It enables people to adapt quickly to life-threatening situations.
Dependability consists of ______________tasks on schedule, without complaining, and offering to assist others. A. Finishing B. Scheduling C. Postponing D. Complaining
A. Finishing Dependability consists of finishing tasks on schedule, without complaining, and offering to assist others.
The best way to handle petty cash: A. Is to assign one person to handle it. B. Is to keep it locked in the back office until needed. C. Is to replenish the supply only when it is completely depleted. D. None of the above
A. Is to assign one person to handle it. Petty cash is cash that is used in the office for odds and ends. Having only one person assigned to the petty cash drawer will help to avoid issues with missing money.
Which of the following is included in the understanding of chronic fatigue syndrome? A. It is an accumulation of symptoms of which the most incapacitating symptom is fatigue. B. A series of diagnostic tests must be performed before making a positive diagnosis. C. The symptoms develop slowly. D. The cause is severe depression.
A. It is an accumulation of symptoms of which the most incapacitating symptom is fatigue.
How do you know if the EKG machine is calibrated? A. It produces a calibration mark of 10 mm high. B. It produces a calibration mark of 10 mm wide. C. It produces a calibration mark of 15 mm high. D. It produces a calibration mark of 15 mm wide.
A. It produces a calibration mark of 10mm high. The ECG machines require calibration to ensure accuracy. The ECG machine has a auto calibrate feature in which the EKG machine prints a calibration mark as a square wave that is 10 mm high, 2 mm wide.
An advantage of laser surgery is that: A. It promotes quick healing and prevents infection. B. A local anesthetic is never necessary, because the cold itself reduces sensation. C. No instructions on wound care are required after the procedure. D. No dressing is applied after the procedure.
A. It promotes quick healing and prevents infection.
How does the laser cut away tissue? A. It vaporizes unwanted tissue. B. Extreme cold destroys unwanted tissue. C. A needle heated by electric current destroys the target tissue. D. It removes all unwanted tissue with a sharp blade.
A. It vaporizes unwanted tissue.
Which of the following would prevent injuries from occurring at work? A. Keeping the workplace tidy. B. Wearing light clothing. C. Lifting heavy objects with a bent back. D. Keeping lighting to a minimum.
A. Keeping the workplace tidy.
The medical assistant asked the patient, "You drink alcoholic beverages, right?" This question is an example of a: A. Leading question B. Summarizing question C. Clarifying question D. Open-ended question
A. Leading question The question of the medical assistant is an example of a leading question. Leading questions suggest the desired answer to the patient. A better way of to pose this question would be, "Do you drink alcoholic beverages?"
Which answer helps build goodwill between the patient and the physician? A. Lifting patients spirits. B. Paying the bill on time. C. Attending appointments as scheduled. D. Compliance with treatment plan.
A. Lifting patients spirits. Lifting patients spirits helps build goodwill between the patient and the physician.
Restrictive endorsements on checks: A. Limit how a check can be cashed. B. Restrict the amount of money that can be received from a check. C. Prevents inaccurate records of deposit. D. None of the above.
A. Limit how a check can be cashed. A restrictive endorsement limits the ability of a person to cash a check. Restrictions are placed on checks to ensure the proper person or organization cashes the check.
When a drug is used externally with massage to produce the feeling of heart to the area, the form of drug is: A. Liniment B. Elixir C. Lotion D. Solution
A. Liniment Liniment is a form of a drug is used externally with friction to produce the feeling of heat to an area. It is a liquid that is rubbed on the skin to relieve pain or stiffness in the muscles.
Normally, the pulse rate is the same as the: A. Number of heartbeats in one minute. B. Average length of beats in one minute. C. Numbers of heartbeats in 30 seconds. D. Difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
A. Numbers of heartbeats in one minute. The pulse rate should be the same as the heart rate. The pulse is the throbbing motion as the wave of blood hits the artery wall during heart activity or heartbeat.
A first class mail handling for items 70 pounds or less that takes 2 to 3 days to arrive: A. Priority mail B. Express mail C. Certified mail D. Registered mail
A. Priority mail Priority mail is a First Class Mail with weight more than 11 ounces. It is used when 2-3 day delivery is preferred. The maximum weight is 70 pounds, and maximum width is 108 inches.
_________________means logically and systematically planning steps to accomplish a task. A. Problem-solving. B. Resolving. C. Finishing. D. Complaining.
A. Problem-solving. Problem-solving means logically and systematically planning steps to accomplish a task.
In order to address ethical issues, A. Professional organizations establish codes and creeds. B. Employers force employees to attend religious service. C. Employers encourage employees to attend a religious service. D. Potential candidates for a position in health care will be screened for moral and ethical shortcomings.
A. Professional organizations establish codes and creeds.
Which of the following regulates the amount of light that enters the eye? A. Pupil B. Sclera C. Vitreous humor D. Choroid
A. Pupil
What is the recommended site for a pulse rate determination? A. Radial B. Brachial C. Apical D. Dorsalis pedis
A. Radial The radial pulse is the most common pulse point used by health practitioners because it is the most accessible and convenient. The normal pulse rate is 60-100 bpm.
When we justify our thoughts or actions whether it is right or wrong: A. Rationalization B. Sublimation C. Feedback D. Displacement
A. Rationalization Rationalization is justifying thoughts and actions, whether it is right or wrong. It can also be used in making excuses.
A student plays video games instead of studying, justifying that further study would not do any good anyway. This defense mechanism is: A. Rationalization B. Sublimation C. Denial D. Displacement
A. Rationalization Rationalization is creating a false but reasonable excuse to justify unacceptable behavior. According to Freud, when people are not able to deal with the reasons of their behavior, they protect themselves by creating self-justifying explanations for their behaviors.
A formal contract between two or more health care team members to provide services to a patient is a : A. Referral B. Recommendation for care C. Contract for care D. Physicians Agreement
A. Referral A referral is a formal contract between two or more health care team members. This is for the purpose of providing services to the patient and is often used when a Primary Care Physician refers his/her patient to other physicians or health care specialties for a specialized type of care. Some examples would be a Dietitian, an Occupational Therapist, a Speech Therapist, etc. A PCP could send a patient also to a Cardiologist, Gastroenterologist, or an Endocrinologist or any other specialty office.
What is the best way of dealing with a hazard to ensure others are not put at risk? A. Remove it immediately. B. Leave it for others to sort out. C. Place a barrier tape around it. D. Display a notice or warning sign.
A. Remove it immediately.
What does lead I on the ECP strip represent? A. Represents the electricity from Right Arm to Left Arm (RA-LA). B. Represents the electricity from Right Arm to Left Leg (RA-LL). C. Represents the electricity from Left Arm to LA-LL). D. Represents the electricity from Right Leg to Left Leg (RL-LL).
A. Represents the electricity from Right Arm to Left Arm (RA-LA). Lead I represents the electricity from Right Arm to Left Arm (RA-LA). Lead II represents the electricity from Right Arm to Left Leg (RA-LL), and lead III represents the electricity from Left Arm to Left Leg (LA-LL).
What wave comes after the P wave on an EKG?
Q wave
Percentage of Formed Elements in the blood:
45% or (0.45)
The primary code in the CPT coding system consists of how many digits?
5 digits
Number of leukocytes for average adult per micrometer:
5,000-10,000
When taking axillary temperature, how long should it be taken?
5-10 min or as required by office policy.
The average adult has how many liters of blood?
5-6 liters
What is the normal range for Iron in women?
50-170
Percentage of plasma in blood:
55% or (0.55)
Lead placement for V5?
5th intercostal space anterior axillary
In a 12 lead EKG, where is the correct placement for lead 4?
5th intercostal space mid-clavicular line.
Where is V4 placed?
5th intercostal space, left mid-clavicle line.
MA is performing an EKG for a patient who has a normal sinus rhythm and notes 6 P waves within 6 seconds. The patient's average heart rate is what?
6 x 10 = 60 BPM
What is the normal range for Iron in men?
65-175
If a patient is 30kg, what do they weigh in pounds?
66 Ibs.
What is the normal range for Glucose in adults? (Fasting blood sugar)
74-120 mg/dL
What is the percentage of water in blood?
92% or (0.92)
Oral temperature range in Fahrenheit:
97.6-99.6 F
Tympanic temperature range in F and C:
98.6 F and 37C
What is the normal range for Insulin in adults?
<17 U/mL
A doctor's order is written to give a patient a medication using a non-parenteral route. Which of the following is a non-parenteral route of medication administration? A. Rectal Suppository B. Intracardiac C. IV drip D. IM injection
A . Rectal Suppository Parenteral medications are given through routes other than the GI tract. Non-parenteral medications are injected or given through the skin or mucous membranes.
Hypokalemia:
A condition in which an inadequate amount of potassium, the major intracellular cation, is found in the circulatory bloodstream.
Ventricular Fibrillation:
A condition in which the heart's electrical impulses are disorganized, preventing the heart muscle from contracting normally. It is produced by multiple electrical sites firing electrical impulses at the same time, resulting in quivering of the ventricles myocardial muscle fibers, but not a uniform contraction. The rhythm is a chaotic deflection of different waves that vary in size, shape, and duration. There are NO normal visible waves. There is no contraction, this is no blood ejected in the blood vessels, so the blood can clot. This is a medical emergency which requires defibrillation and CPR.
A patient must pay $400 per year for medical expenses before the insurance company will begin to cover any expenses. What is this payment called?
A deductible
What do you find in capillaries?
A mixture of venous and arterial blood is found
A job of the dermis is to hold the epidermis and hypodermis together. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Involves deception with the intent to deprive another person of their rights?
Fraud
ST segment:
From J point to the onset of the T wave; if elevated above base line could indicate myocardial infarction (STEMI)
Parasympathetic (Vagus Nerve):
Generally has an inhibitory effect via the neurotransmitter Acetylcholine which may cause the following to happen: *Slows down pacemaker and HR *Slows the conduction of electricity in AV node *Decreases the strength of atrial and ventricular contraction.
What dressing do you use for burns or wounds with necrotic tissues?
Hydrogels
BP cuffs too short and narrow can give false reading of what?
Hypertension
What is an ESR (Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate) test for?
Inflammation
Pulse is taken where and how long?
Radial for 30 secs x2, it tachy or brady take it for 1 minute.
Hypothalamus:
Regulates and maintains body temperature.
Febrile:
Relating to a fever (elevated temperature).
Good Samaritan Law:
Rendering first aid within the scope of knowledge by a health care worker with out fear of being sued for negligence.
Results in myocardial relaxation:
Repolarization
Limb leads consist of:
3 bipolar and 3 augmented leads
The abbreviation for injection is _____. A. In B. Inj C. Ing D. Ij
B. Inj
The abbreviation for ointment is _________. A. Ont B. Oint, ung C. ONT D. Cream
B. Oint, ung
What position would you put a patient in who just fainted?
Trendelenburg
lith/o
stone
Hematocrit test measures which of the following components of blood?
% of blood comprised of RBC's
The four elements of Negligence:
1. Duty 2. Breach 3. Causation 4. Damages
Labeling Tubes:
-Patient's first & last name -date of birth -Date & time of collection -Phlebotomist's initials -Pertinent additional information, such as "fasting" -Must label tubes in patient room.
Axillary temperature range in celsius:
35.9-37.0C
Rectal temperature range in Celsius:
37.0 -38.1 C
How long does it take for the components in urine to start breaking down at room temperature?
1 hour
What is the normal range for Hematocrit in men?
39%-49%
The stages of Hemostasis:
1. Vascular 2. Platelet Phase 3. Coagulation Phase 4. Fibronolysis
What is the order of the draw?
1. Yellow 2. Light Blue 3. Gold 4. Red 5. Tiger-top 6. Green 7. Lavender 8. Gray
After performing a urinalysis on a healthy patient to test for Specific Gravity. Which result would the CMA determine to be an expected finding?
1.015. The range is 1.003-1.030. If there are two in range, I would pick the lower of the two.
What solution can be used to clean up a blood spill?
10% bleach
How many CPR compressions would a CMA perform in 1 minute?
100 CPM
What is the normal range for Hemoglobin in women?
11.7-16.0 g/dL
A red blood cell lives how long?
120 days
12 Small boxes between RR waves, what is the HR?
125, (1500 rule; 1500/12 = 125
What is the normal range for Hemoglobin in men?
13.2-17.3 g/dL
How far away does the patient need to be for a near vision acuity test?
15 inches
How many ml's in one tablespoon?
15 ml
The receptionist must arrive how long before office hours begin?
15-20 minutes
What is the normal range for platelet count in an adult?
150-400
What is the normal range for Cholesterol in men?
158-277 mg/dL
What is the normal range for Cholesterol in women?
162-285 mg/dL
How many RBC's per microliter of blood?
4.2-6.2 million
What is the normal range of RBC's in men?
4.3-5.7
What is the normal range for Uric acid in men?
4.4-7.6 mg/dL
What is the normal range of WBC's in an adult?
4.5-11.0 per ŲL
What angle is a subcutaneous injection given on a 5 year old?
45 degrees on outer arm.
What is the normal range for Uric acid in women?
2.3-6.6 mg/dL
What gauge needle do you use for a SubQ injection?
25 gauge
Running speed of an EKG?
25mm/sec
How many 1mm boxes are in a 6 second rhythm strip?
30 one millimeter boxes
If a temperature reads 90°F, what is it in Celsius?
32.2°C
What is the normal range for Hematocrit in women?
35%-45%
Which of the following formulas will would correctly solve a dosage calculation problem? A. (Ordered dosage/Dosage on hand) *Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given. B. (Dosage on hand/Ordered dosage) *Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given. C. (Amount of Drug/Ordered dosage) *Dosage on hand = Dosage to be given. D. None of the above are correct.
A. A. (Ordered dosage/Dosage on hand) *Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given. To accurately calculate dosages, use the formula (Ordered dosage/Dosage on hand) *Amount of Drug = Dosage to be given. Amount of drug is the number of capsules, pills, or milliliters necessary to give the dosage on hand.
The _____________ Role Delineation Chart is a good reference source that identifies the skills, duties, and procedures that medical assistants are educated to perform. A. AAMA B. AHDI C. CDI D. HIPAA
A. AAMA The AAMA Role Delineation Chart is a good reference source that identifies the skills, duties, and procedures that medical assistants are educated to perform.
The abbreviation for right ear is _______. A. AD B. RE C. Re D. Rter
A. AD
_______________ is a certifying body that provides certification opportunities for medical transcriptionists. A. AHDI B. HIPAA C. CDI D. ACAD
A. AHDI AHDI is a certifying body that provides certification opportunities for medical transcriptionists.
A certification exam to become a certified medical administrative specialist is offered through the: A. AMT B. AAMA C. NCCT D. MAERB
A. AMT A certification exam to become a certified medical administrative specialist is offered through the AMT.
Registered Medical Assistant (RMA) credential is awarded by which certification agency? A. AMT B. AAMA C. AMA D. NHA
A. AMT Founded in 1939, American Medical Technologists (AMT) is a nationally recognized certification agency, and membership society for Medical Assistants. AMT is accredited by the National Commission for Certifying Agencies (NCCA). The Registered Medical Assistant (RMA) credential is awarded by the AMT.
The abbreviation for both ears is _______. A. AU B. BE C. Bthe D. BERS
A. AU
Which of the following delays the electrical impulse for muscle contraction that gives the atria time to completely contract and fill the ventricles with blood? A. AV node B. SA node C. Purkinje fibers D. Bundle of His
A. AV node
The term "lithiasis" is best described by which of the following? A. Constriction of tissue B. Dissolving C. Abnormal condition of stones D. Penetrating a cavity E. Stretching of tissue
A. Abnormal condition of stones
Looking directly at the patient and listening with attention are ways to communicate _____________of the person. A. Acceptance B. Empathy C. Communication D. Problem solving
A. Acceptance Looking directly at the patient and listening with attention are ways to communicate acceptance of the person.
When should the Meningococcal vaccine be administered? A. Age 11 B. At birth C. Age 21 D. Age 40
A. Age 11 Meningococcal vaccine is routinely indicated at age 11. The vaccine is also indicated for adults with the following conditions: asplenia, complement deficiency, dormitory residents, and military.
Factors related to the host's susceptibility are: A. Age and nutritional status. B. The number and concentration of pathogens. C. Living conditions of the host and exposure to hazardous substances. D. The virulence of the pathogen and point of entry.
A. Age and nutritional status.
A medical assistant sees a patient looking uneasy and responds, "you look concerned. How can I help you feel more comfortable?" This is an example of: A. Aggressiveness. B. Blocking communication. C. Assertiveness. D. False reassurance.
A. Aggressiveness
A terminal lethal dysrhythmia, a dying heart, is called? A. Agonal B. Asystole C. Agonist D. Agogue
A. Agonal
Which of the following is an anxiety about being in situations in which escape might be difficult? A. Agoraphobia B. Phobia C. Panic disorder D. Obsessive-Compulsive disorder
A. Agoraphobia Agoraphobia is an intense fear of being in public places where escape might be difficult. Persons with agoraphobia frequently also have panic disorder.
The information is NOT placed in the Present Illness section: A. Allergies of the patient B. Timing of symptoms C. Factors that relieve symptoms D. Associated symptoms
A. Allergies of the patient Allergies are placed on a separate section or as part of the Past History. Questions to ask in the Present Illness section are: timing, location, associated symptoms, aggravating, and relieving symptoms.
A patient calls and cancels his/her 0900 appointment at 0830 but recalls the office at 1030 with a c/o redness at the surgical site. What should the medical assistant do? A. Allow to come. B. Decline. C. Schedule for next day. D. None of the above.
A. Allow to come. The patient should certainly be allowed to come due to complaints of incision redness; however, explain to the patient that he/she will be "worked in" the best you can, so you do not throw off the other appointments.
Which of the following allows gas exchange in the lungs? A. Alveoli B. Bronchi C. Bronchioles D. Capillaries E. Pleurae
A. Alveoli
The most important advantage of consumer education is that: A. Americans have become more aware of the importance of good health. B. The need for medical care has been eliminated. C. Insurance companies are evaluating patients' knowledge of health care. D. More consumers are going into health-related occupations.
A. Americans have become more aware of the importance of good health.
Which of the following labor situations is unlawful? A. An employee is told to retire because she has turned 65 years old. B. Telling an employee that she must take a lunch period. C. Not paying an employee who has run out of sick time for hours spent off the clock due to illness. D. All of the above are lawful situations.
A. An employee is told to retire because she has turned 65 years old. Employees cannot be told to retire. In addition, the age discrimination is covered by Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and is also unlawful.
Which of the following patients is at greatest risk if another patient comes into the office who is highly contagious? A. An immunocompromised patient. B. A diabetic patient. C. A young adult with asthma. D. A patient with high blood pressure.
A. An immunocompromised patient.
Category A drugs include those that: (choose the BEST answer) A. Can be safely taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. B. Have been proven to be dangerous when taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. C. Have a high potential for abuse. D. Have a low potential for abuse.
A. Can be safely taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. Pregnancy category ratings place drugs in one of five categories depending on the potential risk to the fetus from the drugs. Category A is the safest category for drugs.
Category A drugs include those that: (Choose the BEST answer.) A. Can be safely taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. B. Have been proven to be dangerous when taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. C. Have a higher potential for abuse. D. Have a low potential for abuse.
A. Can be safely taken during all three trimesters of pregnancy according to results from adequate and controlled animal and human studies. Pregnancy category ratings place drugs in one of five categories depending on the potential risk to the fetus from the drugs. Category A is the safest category for drugs.
Which keyboard key keeps the alphabet letters in uppercase? A. Caps B. Home C. Tab D. Ctrl
A. Caps Caps lock is a keyboard key that enables or disables all the letters from being typed in uppercase. The Caps Lock key is a modified Shift key that occupies the same position on the keyboards of typewriters.
Which of the following substances is found in greater quantity in exhaled air? A. Carbon dioxide B. Carbon monoxide C. Nitrogen D. Oxygen E. Ozone
A. Carbon dioxide
What artery should be palpated during cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to determine the presence of a pulse? A. Carotid pulse B. Femoral pulse C. Brachial pulse D. Radial pulse
A. Carotid pulse A carotid pulse is the pulse that can be felt on the right side of the neck, over the carotid artery. In CPR, the carotid artery can be felt on both sides of the Adam's apple for 5-10 seconds.
Health insurance that provides protection against the high cost of treating severe or lengthy illnesses or disabilities is called: A. Catastrophic. B. Severe. C. Third party payer. D. None of the above.
A. Catastrophic.
A device for spinning a specimen at high speed until it separates into its component parts is a: A. Centrifuge. B. Glucometer. C. Photometer. D. Volumeter beaker
A. Centrifuge
___________ is recognition given by associations that an individual has met high standards and has demonstrated competency in given knowledge and tasks. A. Certification B. Competency C. Degree D. Marks
A. Certification Certification is a recognition given by associations that an individual has met high standards and has demonstrated competency in given knowledge and tasks.
While searching online for a medical coding position, Bailey noticed that several opportunities required CCS-P, CPC, or other current coding credentials. Which of the following keywords or phrases could she use to search the internet for the meaning of these terms? A. Certification B. Interpersonal relationship skills C. Computer skills D. Records management skills
A. Certification While searching online for a medical coding position, Bailey should use the keyword or phrase "Certification" to search the internet.
An appropriate approach to maintaining patient confidentiality on the computer is to: A. Change your password every 90 days. B. Keep magnetic computer disks or tapes on top of your desk. C. Make sure a co-worker knows your password. D. Allow former employees to keep their passwords.
A. Change your password every 90 days.
Which of the following is NOT one of the C's of charting? A. Check B. Current C. Complete D. Concise
A. Check The 6 C's of charting are: current, complete, concise, correct, confidential, and clean. Check is not one of the 6 C's of charting.
Which of the following tests are done at the physician's office laboratory? A. Chemistry, hematology, microbiology, and urinalysis. B. Cystology and histology. C. Serology and immunology. D. Blood typing and toxicology.
A. Chemistry, hematology, microbiology, and urinalysis.
The question, "What brings you to the clinic today?" Addresses what part of the medical history? A. Chief complaint B. Present illness C. Past history D. Social history
A. Chief complaint The chief complaint is the main reason for the patient's visit.
What is the actual purpose of a visit or consult of a patient with a physician? A. Chief complaint B. History of present illness C. Past history D. General data
A. Chief complaint. The main reason for the visit of the patient is referred to as the chief complaint. It can also be the primary symptom that a patient states as the reason for seeking medical care.
Which of the following is an example of a tissue? A. Chloroplast B. Liver C. Mammal D. Hamstring
A. Chloroplast A Chloroplast is an example of tissue. A liver is an organ, a mammal is a type of organism, and a hamstring is a muscle.
The procedure used to remove the gallbladder is called: A. Cholecystectomy B. Cholelithiasis C. Colectomy D. Cystorrhaphy
A. Cholecystectomy Removal of the gallbladder is necessary when it can no longer function appropriately due to blockage from stones or infection. The proper term for this procedure is, "Cholecystectomy."
The middle layer of the eye that contains most of the eye's blood vessels is the: A. Choroid B. Sclera C. Pupil D. Cornea
A. Choroid
Encryption is the translation of data into a code that is not readily understood by unauthorized users. This data is referred to as: A. Cipher text B. Binary C. Electronic signature D. Cookies
A. Cipher text Encryption is the conversion of data into a form that cannot be understood by unauthorized people. This encrypted data is called Cypher text. Encryption is used to prevent unauthorized users from accessing information.
Identify the level of Preventions - Monthly self-breast exam: A. Primary level of prevention. B. Secondary level of prevention. C. Third level of prevention.
A. Primary level of prevention.
A patient has been coming to your office for many years. You know the patient and her family very well as they are all cared for by your office. The patient has invited you to her son's wedding. Which of the following would be the BEST response to this invitation? A. Decline the invitation but convey your best wishes. B. Decline the invitation stating that it is against office policy to socialize with patients. C. Accept the invitation but do not let anyone else in the office to know that you are attending. D. Accept the invitation if others in your office were also invited.
A. Decline the invitation but convey your best wishes. To maintain the highest level of professionalism in the workplace, it is best to avoid personal relationships with patients. While it may be tempting to befriend a patient who shares interests and personality traits, it's not in the best interest of office professionalism to do so.
A patient that is using a psychological behavior to deal with negative emotions is said to be employing a: A. Defense mechanism B. Therapeutic use of self C. Behavioral modification D. Essential use of rationalization
A. Defense mechanism Defense mechanisms are a process of dealing with unpleasant emotions. Patients using this type of behavior may be experiencing feelings that are unwelcome. Reacting in a way that helps them deal with their emotions without addressing these feelings is a protective mechanism.
The electrical force or vector produced by ventricular depolarization has two components; one is the magnitude or force, and the other is ____________________. A. Defibrillation B. Shock treatment C. V Tach D. Scintillation
A. Defibrillation
E&M codes: A. Define a new patient as being one that is new to the practice or who hasn't been seen by that practice in at least three years. B. Are defined as Evaluation and Medication codes. C. Are selected based on criteria set forth by the American Medical Association. D. None of the above.
A. Define a new patient as being one that is new to the practice in at least three years. New patients are patients that have not been to the practice for at least three years, or a patient that has not previously been seen at the practice. Specific E&M codes exist to properly code the primary office visit to reflect the new patient standing.
Which of the following is NOT one of the five stages of grief as described by the Kübler-Ross model? A. Delusions B. Anger C. Denial D. Bargaining
A. Delusions
Which of the following best describes Kübler-Ross's Stages of Grief? A. Denial is the first stage of grief that patients experience. B. All parents go through the same stages of grief. C. Depression is the last stage of grief that patients experience. D. Each dying patient and their family members have individual experiences.
A. Denial is the first stage of grief that patients experience. It is important to remember that each dying patient and his or her family members have individual experiences. There is no set period of time for any stage of grief, and patients and their family members may go through the stages differently. Patients, as well as family members, can move back and forth between the stages or stay in one stage until death.
The 5 Stages of Grief, according to Elizabeth Kübler Ross, come in the in the following order: A. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance. B. Anger, Bargaining, Denial, Acceptance, Depression. C. Bargaining, Denial, Acceptance, Depression, Anger. D. Acceptance, Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression.
A. Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance. The proper order of the 5 stages of grief by Elizabeth Kübler Ross is: denial, anger, bargaining, depression and acceptance.
The Common Law sources of laws is: A. Derived from Customs and Judicial Decisions. B. Derived from the U.S. Constitution. C. Derived from State/Federal Legislation. D. None of the above.
A. Derived from Customs and Judicial Decisions. Common sources of law are found in the history of a civilization and center around that culture's customs and previous judicial decisions.
Which of the following categories of viral conditions is NOT matched with an appropriate example? A. Dermotropic :AIDS B. Enterotropic :Hepatitis C. Pneumotropic :Influenza D. Neurotropic :Rabies
A. Dermotropic :AIDS Dermotropic examples are smallpox, rubeola, rubella, chickenpox, and shingles. These diseases affect the dermis. HIV is an immunotropic example because HIV, the virus that causes AIDS, affects the immune system. Although AIDS is sometimes associated with dermatological conditions such as Kaposi's Sarcoma, HIV and AIDS are not primarily skin conditions. The other choices are appropriately paired.
The Rule of Nines is used to: A. Determine the amount of the body surface that has been burned. B. Assess the level of oxygen saturation in a body that has been burned. C. Determine the level of tissue damage that has occurred in a burn. D. None of the above.
A. Determine the amount of the body surface that has been burned. The Rule of Nines is used to assess the amount of body surface that has been burned. Most body areas are divided out based on 9%, with the exception of the genitalia, which is only 1%.
Korotkoff sounds are evaluated when: A. Determining blood pressure. B. Counting respirations. C. Evaluating pulse. D. Performing ultrasonography.
A. Determining blood pressure.
When considering coding for hospital stays, a ______________ is issued to provide physicians with guidelines for admission and length of hospital stays. A. Diagnosis Related Group (DRG). B. Health Care Financing Administration Common Procedural Coding System (HCPCS). C. Relative Value Study (RVS). D. E and V Codes.
A. Diagnosis Related Group (DRG). Diagnosis Related Groups are used for inpatient hospital stays. These codes help physicians decide the length of stay for a patient with a particular type of illness or condition. Most medical assistants will not directly deal with DRGs' as MAs' are not usually found in hospital settings.
Your patient is displaying signs and symptoms of chronic anxiety. Which type of drug might be appropriate? A. Diazepam B. Ritalin C. Testosterone D. Amoxicillin
A. Diazepam Anti-anxiety drugs produce central nervous system depression. Drugs such as Diazepam (Valium), alprazolam (Xanax), and lorazepam (Ativan) are considered anti-anxiety drugs.
Volume II of the ICD-10 coding book: A. Is the three part alphabetical index. B. Contains procedural codes for specific diagnostic tests. C. Contains three sections with Section 3 being the Index to Diseases. D. None of the above.
A. Is the three part alphabetical index. Volume II of the ICD-10 coding book is the three part alphabetical index, which should be used first when searching for the correct diagnostic code to be used for a disease state. Volume I is then used to confirm that the code chosen is correct.
Sometimes, the physician or provider cannot visualize the tympanic membrane due to packed cerumen in the ear canal. Patients with cerumen impacted into the canal will require it to be removed by irrigation. What is another name for this procedure? A. Ear lavage B. Ear instillation C. Ear deflation D. Ear inflation
A. Ear lavage The medical assistant will be trained in the office regarding this procedure. An ear irrigation, or lavage, is a cleaning technique. Additionally, instilling drops into the patient's ear may be a procedure the MA will do. Sterile techniques should be used for this.
______________is the most common and efficient mode of communication for many messages. A. Electronic communication B. Written communication C. Verbal communication D. Nonverbal communication
A. Electronic communication Electronic communication is the most common and efficient mode of communication for many messages.
The abbreviation for elixir is __________. A. Elix B. Exr C. Elx D. EX
A. Elix
The form of a drug when a drug is sweetened and flavored but is thinner than syrup: A. Elixir B. Liniment C. Spirits D. Tincture
A. Elixir An elixir is a drug that is sweetened and flavored; however, it is thinner than syrup or alcohol, in which they can dissolve.
An effective interviewing skill includes the following behaviors: Listening carefully; "entering" the world of the patient; communicating that you imagine the patient's world as the patient sees and experiences it, YET, not becoming the patient--you relate, and also remain separate from the patient. From the following list, select the communication skill most closely described above: A. Empathy B. Respect and warmth C. Concreteness D. Immediacy E. Authenticity or congruence
A. Empathy
_______________is sensitivity to other people's feelings and situations. A. Empathy B. Sympathy C. Lampathy D. Mpathy
A. Empathy Empathy is sensitivity to other people's feelings and situations.
The abbreviation for emulsion is _________. A. Emul B. Eml C. Els D. EML
A. Emul
Health is a complex concept that involves the body, mind, emotions, and: A. Environment B. Education C. Marital status D. Occupation
A. Environment
Which abdominal region lies just distal to the sternum? A. Epigastric B. Umbilical C. Lumbar D. Hypogastric
A. Epigastric
Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the sternum? A. Epigastric B. Hypochondriac C. Hypogastric D. Lumbar E. Umbilical
A. Epigastric
Geographical area is important when: A. Establishing fee schedules. B. Handling equipment orders. C. Following office policy on bookkeeping. D. None of the above.
A. Establishing fee schedules. Fee schedules are set by the office based on the usual fee charged for a procedure. These usual fees are based on geographic location which allows fees to remain competitive, yet fair.
A(n)_______________person believes that one's own race, ethnic group, and/or culture is superior to all others. A. Ethnocentric. B. Etheocentric. C. Racentric. D. Colourcentric.
A. Ethnocentric. An ethnocentric person believes that one's own race, ethnic group, and/or culture is superior to all others.
_____________is the tendency to believe that one's own race or ethnic group is the most important and that some or all aspects of its culture are superior to those of other groups. A. Ethnocentrism B. Prejudice C. Bias D. Ego
A. Ethnocentrism Ethnocentrism is the tendency to believe that one's own race or ethnic group is the most important and that some or all aspects of its culture are superior to those of other groups.
An effective inventory program for a medical office is: A. Every 1 to 2 weeks B. Once a month C. Every 3 months D. Every 6 months
A. Every 1 to 2 weeks
A skilled nursing facility for patients receiving specialized care after discharge from a hospital is a(n): A. Extended care facility. B. Post care facility. C. Nursing home. D. None of the above.
A. Extended care facility.
Which keyboard key, when pressed, shows the Help window for a program? A. F1 B. Esc C. F10 D. Enter
A. F1 The F1 key shows the Help window for a program. Function keys can be programmed to perform specific functions.
A patient asks you what will happen during surgery and why it is necessary. The best type of pre-operative teaching to use to answer this patient is: A. Factual B. Sensory C. Participatory D. Modeling
A. Factual
There should be no established ordering times for supplies. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. False
In accounting for the rapid expansion of a child's early vocabulary, Susan Carey argued that a major role must be played by the child's own active cognitive processing. Adults simply cannot teach a child exactly what referent every word picks out. Carey coined which one of the following terms to denote this concept? A. Fast mapping B. Lexical conventionality C. Lexical contrast D. Linguistic empiricism E. Meta Cogni ti on
A. Fast mapping.
Adipose tissue is made of: A. Fat cells B. Lymph nodes C. Muscles D. Skin
A. Fat cells
Andipose tissue is made of which of the following? A. Fat cells B. Lymph nodes C. Muscles D. Skin E. Tendons
A. Fat cells
To prevent the insured from receiving a duplicate payment for losses under more than one insurance policy is called: A. Fee for service. B. Hospital benefits. C. Coordination of benefits. D. Non duplication benefits.
A. Fee for service.
Intermittent fevers are: A. Fevers which come and go. B. Fevers which rise and fall, but are always considered above the patient's average temperature. C. Fevers which fluctuate more than three degrees in never return to normal. D. None of the above.
A. Fevers which come and go. Intermittent fevers are fevers that come and go. They alternate between periods of being febrile then afebrile. Continuous fevers rise and fall slightly over a period of 24 hours. Remittent fevers fluctuate considerably; more than 3 degrees and do not return to normal body temperature.
A patient reports that she was out in the sun for several hours the day before. She now has a burn that covers her back. The burn does not show signs of blistering, but is warm to the touch and very painful. It appears that the burn affects her epidermis. Which of the following is the most logical diagnosis? A. First degree burn B. Second degree burn C. Third degree burn D. Fourth degree burn
A. First degree burn First degree burns usually do not blister and affects only the epidermal layer of the skin. Second degree burns will affect both the epidermis and dermis, while third degree burns will also blister.
Which urine specimen is collected after a night's sleep and contains greater concentrations of substances? A. First morning urine specimen. B. Random urine specimen. C. Timed urine specimen. D. Clean-catch midstream urine specimen
A. First morning urine specimen
A twelve month period selected for financial purposes is called a(n)_____________ year. A. Fiscal B. Financial C. Fiduciary D. Accounting
A. Fiscal
The abbreviation for fluid is _____________. A. Fl or fld B. Wet C. Flud D. Fluid
A. Fl or fld
A macule is a: A. Flat, discolored spot on the skin less than 1 cm in diameter, such as a freckle or a flat mole. B. Firm, raised lesion less than 1 cm in diameter, such as a wart or raised mole. C. Small skin elevation less than 1 cm in diameter, filled with clear fluid, such as a blister. D. Depression in the skin formed when skin layers are destroyed, such as a pressure sore.
A. Flat, discolored spot on the skin less than 1 cm in diameter, such as a freckle or a flat mole.
_____________is a key component when working within a medical office environment. A. Flexibility B. Dependability C. Friendliness D. Punctuality
A. Flexibility Flexibility is a key component when working within a medical office environment.
Mrs. Nagal is 6 weeks pregnant. She has a family history of congenital birth defects. She is concerned about neurological diseases during pregnancy. Which vitamin is used in pregnancy to prevent her baby from having Spina Bifida? A. Folic acid B. Iron C. Ascorbic acid D. Magnesium
A. Folic acid Folic acid deficiency increases the possibility of a neural tube defect, such as Spina Bifida or Anencephaly. All women of childbearing age should consume 400 micrograms of folic acid a day.
You are working in a local health clinic and you've been thinking about asking out a former patient on a date. The most appropriate ethical response is: A. Forget it, once a patient always a patient. B. We're just having dinner - it's not a problem. C. Just wait six months, and then it will be OK. D. She obviously likes me, so it will be OK to date her. E. It depends on how "hot" she is.
A. Forget it, once a patient always a patient.
Which of the following examples is poorly written? A. Fred Felix 2900 Mainstreet Ave. Cleveland OH 44115 B. Dr. Sherry Merry, MD. C. The City of Freedom D. None of the above are correct.
A. Fred Felix 2900 Mainstreet Ave. Cleveland OH 44115 When writing an address, the US Postal Service asks that no punctuation be used to assist the digital readers with accurately bar-coding each piece of mail. When addressing a physician, either use the term Dr. at the beginning or the credential at the end, but never both at the same time. When noting a city, do not capitalize the word city.
Where would your office obtain additional legal copies of Medicare forms? A. From an agency listed in the Medicare fiscal agencies directory. B. Internal Revenue Service. C. Centers for Disease Control. D. A local CHAMPUS office.
A. From an agency listed in the Medicare fiscal agencies directory. Medicare forms can be found by searching the internet for a Medicare fiscal agency in your geographic location. The IRS, CDC, and CHAMPUS offices would not have this type of information.
The personal protective equipment necessary for collecting a sputum specimen would include: A. Gloves and face mask. B. Level three Bio containment uniforms. C. Eye protection and shoe covers. D. Splash shield and face mask.
A. Gloves and face mask. Sputum samples could contain potential airborne droplets that may spread disease. Using a face mask and gloves will prevent the spread of infectious agents by protecting the respiratory tract and gloves will prevent the spread of contaminants by the hands.
The administrative medical assistant plays an important role in ensuring that the medical office's procedures comply with ________________ concerning patient's records. A. Government Regulations B. Office Regulations C. Personal Agenda D. System Regulations
A. Government Regulations The administrative medical assistant plays an important role in ensuring that the medical office's procedures comply with government regulations concerning patient's records.
The basic unit to measure weight in the metric system is the: A. Gram B. Grain C. Ounce D. Pound
A. Gram
A 5 year old boy was brought to the clinic because he fell on his right arm, injuring his elbow. The radiologist described the fracture as one side of the bone being bent and the other side broken. What type of fracture is this? A. Greenstick fracture B. Comminuted fracture C. Impacted fracture D. Spiral fracture
A. Greenstick fracture A greenstick fracture occurs when a bone bends and cracks, instead of breaking completely into separate pieces. This type of broken bone most commonly occurs in children because their bones are softer and more flexible than adults.
A physician must have the patient's permission in writing to reveal any confidential information except for which one of the following? A. Gunshot wound B. Anorexia C. Drug addiction D. Pregnancy
A. Gunshot wound
The government agency that regulates Medicaid and Medicare: A. HCFA B. CPT C. ICD D. OSHA
A. HCFA (now known as CMS) The Health Care Financing Administration (HCFA) is the government agency that regulates Medicaid and Medicare. HCFA establishes standards for medical providers that require compliance to meet certification requirements. Now known as Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS).
The use of ICD-10 codes is mandated by: A. HIPAA B. HMO's C. NIH D. AMA
A. HIPAA
The buccal method of administering a drug is done by _______________________. A. Placing the medication between the gum and cheek. B. Inhalation C. Intramuscular injection D. Intravenous solution
A. Placing the medication between the gum and cheek.
What is the position that produces the most accurate blood pressure determination? A. Have the patient in a sitting position with an arm extended at heart level. B. Have the patient in a standing position and arm curled up. C. Have the patient lying down with palms in a down position. D. Have the patient sitting with an arm extended above the heart.
A. Have the patient in a sitting position with an arm extended at heart level. The proper position to take the blood pressure is to place a patient in a sitting position with an arm extended at heart level. Research has shown that position can affect the patient's blood pressure readings, therefore, proper patient positioning is important to have an accurate blood pressure determination.
Mrs. Plan, a 46 year old female, came in to your office because of fever and jaundice. She is on her 34th week of pregnancy. The doctor diagnosed her to have Hepatitis D infection. Which of the following hepatitis virus can simultaneously be in her blood together with the Hepatitis D? A. Hepatitis B B. Hepatitis A C. Hepatitis E D. Hepatitis C
A. Hepatitis B Hepatitis D infection requires an associated Hepatitis B infection. Only people who are already infected with Hepatitis B can be infected with Hepatitis D. The outcome of disease largely depends on whether the two viruses infect simultaneously or whether the patient is a chronic Hepatitis B carrier with a new Hepatitis D infection.
What is the recommended immunization for a baby who was just born? A. Hepatitis B B. Flu shot C. Measles D. Pertussis
A. Hepatitis B The recommended immunization schedule for a newborn is to administer Hepatitis vaccine (HepB) to all newborns prior to hospital discharge. The second dose should be administered at age 1-2 months.
Which diet helps in preventing constipation? A. High fiber B. Low residue C. Low fiber D. Bland
A. High fiber Dietary fiber refers to the edible parts of fruits, plants, nuts, seeds and legumes that cannot be digested. There are two types of fiber, soluble and insoluble. Both types of fiber are essential for making the intestines healthy. Soluble fiber allows more water to remain in the stool, making waste softer and easier to pass.
To properly read a meniscus, A. Hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid. B. Hold the measuring device at eye level and read the top of the curve of the liquid. C. Hold the measuring device at table level and looking down into the measuring device, read the bottom of the curve of the liquid level. D. Hold the measuring device at table level and looking down into the measuring device, read the top of the curve of the liquid level.
A. Hold the measuring device at eye level and read the bottom of the curve of the liquid. To accurately measure liquids that are in containers, hold the container at eye level and read the volume at the bottom of the meniscus.
Payment for hospital charges incurred by an insured person because of injury or illness is called: A. Hospital benefits. B. Catastrophic health benefits. C. Extra help benefits. D. None of the above.
A. Hospital benefits.
The acronym HTML refers to: A. Hyper Text Markup Language B. High Temperature Monitor Layout C. High Tensile Monitor Layout D. Hotmail
A. Hyper Text Markup Language HTML stands for Hyper Text Markup Language. It is a set of symbols or codes inserted in a file intended for display on the internet.
There are two coding tables in Volume II of the ICD-10 book. What are they? A. Hypertension and Neoplasm. B. Radiology and Laboratory Codes. C. Cancer and Accidents D. None of the above.
A. Hypertension and Neoplasm Coding tables are added to Volume II for disease states that have a number of different variables. Hypertension and Neoplasms can come in a variety of forms, so to assist the coder in locating the correct code for these conditions, tables were added for ease in finding the appropriate code.
According to psychoanalytic theory. Which of the following mechanisms (and the attitude accompanying it) would be most important for healthy resolution of a little boy's Oedipus complex? A. Identification with the father ("i am like daddy.") B. Object-choice of the father ("I love daddy best.") C. Identification with the mother ("i am like my mommy.") D. Object-choice of the mother ("I love mommy best.") E. Projection onto the mother ("mommy loves me best.")
A. Identification with the father ("I am like daddy.")
Benefits in the form of cash payments rather than service are called: A. Indemnity. B. Hospital benefits. C. Catastrophic health benefits. D. Cash advances
A. Indemnity.
A bed patient in a hospital is called a: A. Inpatient B. Outpatient C. Third party payer D. Provider
A. Inpatient
This is part of the prescription form that indicates the names and quantities of ingredients to be included in the medication. A. Inscription B. Superscription C. Subscription D. Rx
A. Inscription Several different pieces of information are necessary on a prescription pad. The inscription is the portion of the form that indicates the ingredients to be used in the medication.
What would you tell a patient in preparation for a Barium enema? A. Instruct the patient to follow an all- liquid diet beginning the morning of the procedure. B. Tell the patient the procedure will last 4 hours. C. Instruct the patient to take the contrast medium in the form of one tablet every 5 minutes apart, until six tablets are taken the night before. D. Tell the patient he may have a glass of milk the morning of the examination.
A. Instruct the patient to follow an all- liquid diet beginning the morning of the procedure.
An agent of an insurance company who solicits or initiates contracts for insurance coverage and services, and is the policyholder for the insurer is called: A. Insurance agent. B. Claim representative. C. Carrier. D. Member physician.
A. Insurance agent.
Excellent __________skills often come from a genuine desire to work with people. A. Interpersonal B. Empathy C. Communication D. Problem solving
A. Interpersonal Excellent Interpersonal communication skills often come from a genuine desire to work with people.
What is a phobia? A. Irrational fear of objects or situations B. Reaction to actual danger C. Obsessions D. Compulsion to do something
A. Irrational fear of objects or situations. Phobias are irrational fears of objects or situations. It is an abnormally fearful response to a danger that is imagined or is irrationally exaggerated.
A 4th semester Ross student is assigned to stay with a 9-year old girl who is waiting to have surgery to repair a cleft palate. The girl, who has recently arrived alone from Cambodia, does not speak English and appears anxious. The charge nurse at the hospital has requested a translator but the translator has not yet arrived. At this time, the most appropriate action for the medical student to take is to: A. Listen to the child's heart with a stethoscope and then let the child try to use the stethoscope to listen to his heart. B. Suggest that the nurse stay with the child so that he can review her chart. C. Look in the child's ears with an otoscope. D. Sedate the child to decrease her anxiety level.
A. Listen to the child's heart with a stethoscope and then let the child try to use the stethoscope to listen to his heart.
An example of passive listening is: A. Listening to a news program on the radio. B. Responding to a comment. C. Participating in an educational lecture. D. Intervening in an interaction between two people.
A. Listening to a news program on the radio.
Oxygen is ordered as percentage of oxygen concentration and its rate of delivery is written as _____________________. A. Liters per minute B. Volume per minute C. Degrees per minute D. Percentage per minute
A. Liters per minute
Studies in which the same people are tested at different ages are called: A. Longitudinal B. Cross-sectional C. Normative D. Naturalistic E. Experimental
A. Longitudinal
The disadvantage of treating HIV/AIDS early is: A. Loss of treatment options in the future. B. Side effects of drugs are worse. C. Social stigma is increased. D. Psychological support is more necessary at the beginning of treatment.
A. Loss of treatment options in the future.
An 18 year old who went camping for one week was seen at the office because of fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans The classic skin rash is characteristic of what disease? A. Lyme disease B. West Nile C. Gonorrhea D. HIV
A. Lyme disease Lyme disease is caused by the bacteria Borrelia burgdorferi. It is transmitted through the bite of an infected tick. Symptoms include fever, headache, fatigue, and a characteristic skin rash called erythema migrans.
Which group of major parts and organs make up the immune system? A. Lymphatic system, spleen, tonsils, thymus, and bone marrow. B. Brain, spinal cord, and nerve cells. C. Heart, veins, arteries, and capillaries. D. Nose, trachea, bronchial tubes, lungs, and alveolus.
A. Lymphatic system, spleen, tonsils, thymus, and bone marrow. The immune system consists of the lymphatic system, spleen, tonsils, thymus, and bone marrow.
The smallest of the white blood cells which also can be involved in humoral immunity is the: A. Lymphocyte B. Monocyte C. Basophils D. Erythrocytes
A. Lymphocyte The smallest of the white blood cells is the lymphocyte. Monocytes are the largest white blood cells.
Morphology of neoplasm is coded as: A. M-code B. E-code C. Codes 110-799 D. Codes 960-989
A. M-code M codes for morphology of neoplasm, and the fifth digit codes for the behavior of neoplasm.
During mitosis, the nucleus: A. Makes a complete copy of all 23 pairs of chromosomes. B. Does not make any changes. C. Splits and retains one half of each pair of chromosomes. D. Undergoes cytokinesis.
A. Makes a complete copy of all 23 pairs of chromosomes.
A urine pregnancy test: A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive. B. Is positive only during the first trimester of pregnancy. C. Will be negative if the amount of LH isn't enough to meet or exceed the sensitivity of the testing device. D. All of the above.
A. May be negative even if a blood pregnancy test is positive. Urine pregnancy tests detect HCG in a pregnant woman's urine. Blood levels of HCG are usually higher and register earlier than HCG levels in the urine.
The ABCD rule applies to which type of skin cancer? A. Melanoma B. Basal cell carcinoma C. Squamous cell carcinoma
A. Melanoma
How a drug is processed and cleared in the body is referred to as: A. Metabolism B. Antagonism C. Distribution D. Synergism
A. Metabolism Metabolism is the conversion of one chemical compound into another. Most drug metabolism occurs in the liver. The result of drug metabolism is to make the drug less active and less toxic or harmful.
Which measuring system is used the most in pharmacology? A. Metric B. Apothecaries C. Household D. None of these
A. Metric Most doctors use the metric system when utilizing pharmacology principles.
A child who has an IQ of 55 to 70 and delayed social development is classified as having a: A. Mild intellectual disability B. Moderate intellectual disability C. Severe intellectual disability D. Profound intellectual disability E. Learning disability
A. Mild intellectual disability.
The performance of a lawful action in an illegal or improper manner: A. Misfeasance B. Malfeasance C. Malpractice D. Nonfeasance
A. Misfeasance Misfeasance is the performance of a lawful action in an illegal or improper manner. Misfeasance is distinct from Nonfeasance. Nonfeasance is a term that describes a failure to act that results in harm to another party. Misfeasance, on the other hand, describes some affirmative legal act that causes harm.
What is the advantage of using color-coded labels? A. Misfiled records are easy to see. B. It is most frequently used in research. C. Only the staff knows the color codes. D. No need to add additional labels.
A. Misfiled records are easy to see. The advantage of color-coded system is that files can be retrieved faster and misfiled records are easy to see. It consists of labels that indicate a number, letter or alpha-numerical character. Subject files can also be color-coded.
Which of the following is an output device? A. Monitor B. Hard drive C. Mouse D. Scanner
A. Monitor An output device is any piece of computer hardware used to communicate the data processing carried out by a computer which converts the electronically generated readable form. A monitor is an example of an output device. Hard drives, mouse, and scanners are input devices.
A previous injury disease or physical condition that existed before the health insurance policy was issued is called: A. Pre-existing condition. B. Prior exposure. C. Foregoing condition. D. None of the above.
A. Pre-existing condition.
The digestion of starch begins in the: A. Mouth B. Stomach C. Pylorus D. Duodenum E. Ileum
A. Mouth The digestion of starch begins with its exposure to the enzyme amylase, which is present in saliva. Amylase attacks the glycosidic bonds in starch, cleaving them to release sugars. This is the reason why some starchy foods may taste sweet if they are chewed extensively. Another form of amylase is produced by the pancreas and continues the digestion of starches in the upper intestine. The di- and tri-saccharides, which are the initial products of this digestion, are eventually converted to glucose, a monosaccharide that is easily absorbed through the intestinal wall.
Which of the following responses would be BEST when addressing an irate and shouting patient at the front desk? A. Mr. Jones, I understand your frustration, please allow me to assist you in getting this issue straightened out. B. Mr. Jones, Stop yelling. If you cannot stop yelling I will have to ask you to leave. C. This isn't my fault. D. Mr. Jones, I'm sure we can fix this issue very quickly.
A. Mr. Jones, I understand your frustration, please allow me to assist you in getting this issue straightened out. Patients who become irate and begin shouting can quickly become abusive. To help defuse the situation, office staff should be empathetic and offer assistance. Staff should never become defensive or ensure a patient that all of his problems will be solved.
To qualify for Medicare, a person must meet which of the following criteria? A. Must be 65 or older unless disabled. B. Must have contributed to FICA in the past. C. Must have received Social Security Disability for more than 1 year. D. All of the above.
A. Must be 65 or older unless disabled. To qualify for Medicare, a patient must fall into one of several groups which could include, being age 65 or older, being a spouse of an employee currently contributing to FICA, or being person who has been receiving Social Security disability for more than two years.
To obtain a specimen for a throat culture the __________________ must be swabbed. A. Nasopharynx & tonsillar area. B. Back of the tongue & epiglottis. C. Under the tongue & along the gum line. D. None of the above.
A. Nasopharynx & tonsillar area.
A theory of language development that proposes an innate language acquisition device would be classified as which of the following? A. Nativist B. Interactionist C. Empiricist D. Contextual E. Functionalist
A. Nativist
Where two or more computers are linked in order to exchange files, allow electronic communications and share resources, such as printers and CD's: A. Network B. Processor C. Scanner D. Internet
A. Network A network consists of two or more computers linked together in order to share devices, such as printers, hard drives and allow electronic transfer of data. The computers can be linked through cables, Wi-Fi or infrared beams.
Which of the following are symptoms of mycobacterium avium? A. Night sweats, fever, and weight loss. B. Pruritus, dysuria, and labial excoriations. C. Hypotension, anemia, and leukopenia. D. Constipation, rash, and red patches on the tongue.
A. Night sweats, fever, and weight loss.
A 45 year old male was brought to the clinic because of chest pain. The patient has a history of hypertension and heart disease. Which medication should the patient take to relieve his chest pain? A. Nitroglycerin B. Adrenalin C. Insulin D. Advil
A. Nitroglycerin Nitroglycerin is used to treat angina pectoris in patients who have coronary artery disease (CAD). Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator. It works by relaxing the blood vessels so that more blood and oxygen can flow through the heart.
Your patient, a recent immigrant to the U.S., reports that she experiences frequent trance states during which she is possessed by a demon who demands gifts from the patient's family members. Such belief and associated behaviors are consistent with the norms of her culture of origin. The most appropriate diagnosis is: A. No diagnosis is warranted. B. Dissociative disorder NOS. C. Dissociative fugue D. Dissociative identity disorder
A. No diagnosis is warranted.
A medical assistant is going to give a subcutaneous injection. Which of the following is TRUE concerning this procedure? A. No more than 2 ml of medication should be injected using the subq method. B. The angle of the needle should be 90 degrees. C. The injection can be given in the antecubital space. D. The needle length should be greater than one inch.
A. No more than 2 ml of medication should be injected using the subq method. Subcutaneous injections are given in the fatty layer of the skin at a 45 degree angle. This injection procedure is used for medications that do not exceed 2 ml's. The upper, outer arm is the most common area for this type of injection.
A patient, a 17 year old female, is complaining of palpitation and fast heart beat. The patient has a history of panic attacks and anxiety. To determine if she has tachycardia, the medical assistant decided to use her thumb to count the pulse. Is this recommended to determine pulse? A. No, the thumb has it's own pulse. B. No, the skin of the thumb is too sensitive. C. No, the skin of the thumb is not sensitive enough. D. Yes, it is recommended to use the thumb to take a pulse.
A. No, the thumb has it's own pulse. The thumb has it's own pulse called the Thenar pulse. The pulse of the thumb can interfere with the counting of the pulse, thus it is not recommended to use.
A patient came to the clinic complaining of waking up at night to urinate. The patient has a family history of diabetes. The patient's symptom is called: A. Nocturia B. Incontinence C. Polydipsia D. Oliguria
A. Nocturia Patients who wake up at night to urinate is referred to as nocturia. This condition can be a sign of diabetes.
A microorganism that rarely causes disease is called a _______________. A. Non-pathogen B. Spore C. Flora D. Pathogen
A. Non-pathogen
Body language, body posture, space and distance are all examples of: A. Nonverbal communication B. Verbal communication C. Written communication D. All of the above
A. Nonverbal communication
Patients with epistaxis: A. Should tilt the head forward, not backward. B. Should be taken to the emergency room regardless of the severity. C. Should be treated with aspirin therapy to reduce the severity. D. All of the above.
A. Nosebleeds are common occurrences and can vary from being mildly annoying to life threatening. Moderate to severe bleeding should be evaluated by a healthcare professional. Aspirin therapy could increase the chances for bleeding.
A patient is becoming belligerent at the front desk due to a long wait. Which of the following would BEST handle the situation? A. Offer to reschedule the patient. B. Allow the patient to blow off steam by giving her time to vent her fustrations. C. Tell the patient that the doctor will be with her in 5 minutes. D. Tell the patient politely that you are not to be spoken to so rudely and she should return to her seat until the doctor is ready to see her.
A. Offer to reschedule the patient. Patients who are unhappy with unavoidable wait times in the waiting room should be offered the chance to reschedule the appointment. If patients become abusive or exhibit threatening behavior, they can be asked to leave or a call can be made to the local authorities for assistance.
The prefix "centi" means: A. One hundredth of a unit. B. One thousandth of a unit. C. One millionth of a unit. D. One tenth of a unit.
A. One hundredth of a unit. -Centi is a prefix that is a factor of one hundredth. It is written as 0.01.
When writing a professional letter that has over 200 words, how large should the margins be? A. One inch B. One and one half inches C. One and three quarters inches D. Two inches
A. One inch Professional letters that have more than 200 words should have one inch margins. Letters with a smaller word count would have larger margins depending on the count: 100-200 words would have a 1.5-2 inch margins, 100 words or less would have 2 inch margins.
One megahertz equals: A. One million cycles per second. B. One million cycles per minute. C. One thousand cycles per second. D. One hundred thousand cycles per minute.
A. One million cycles per second. The prefix, "mega-," means one million. A megahertz is one million cycles per second.
Which of the following is a safety issue with a vertical file cabinet? A. Opening more than one drawer at the same time may cause it to fall forward. B. Using a ladder to reach files may result in a fall. C. Any open drawer may be tripped over. D. It is not possible to be locked.
A. Opening more than one drawer at the same time may cause it to fall forward.
The electronic conversion of scanned or photographed images of typewritten or printed text into machine-encoded or computer-readable text is called: A. Optical Character Recognition B. Over Current Relay C. On Channel Repeater D. Operating Conditions Register
A. Optical Character Recognition OCR is the abbreviation for Optical Character Recognition. It converts scanned images printed text into computer readable format.
A patient was brought to the clinic because of fever and jaundice. The doctor's impression was Hepatitis A. What is the mode of transmission of this virus? A. Oral-fecal B. Sex C. Blood D. Direct touching
A. Oral-fecal Hepatitis A is transmitted via oral-fecal route. Infectious food handlers may contaminate non-cooked foods, and it can also occur through ingestion of contaminated food or water.
The protective shell around the eye is the: A. Orbit B. Ciliary body C. Choroid D. Lacrimal gland
A. Orbit
When a file is removed from the system, this file supply is inserted to alert that the file is being used: A. Outguides B. Labels C. File Guides D. File cabinet
A. Outguides Outguides are dividers of a different size and color than the file folders. It's purpose is to allow the medical office to identify the precise location of a file.
Which of the following is important in the understanding of skin cancer? A. Over-exposure to the sun is a risk factor in all types of skin cancer. B. The incidence is highest in individuals with dark skin, dark-colored eyes, and dark hair. C. Basal cell carcinoma is the most deadly form of skin cancer. D. Malignant melanoma is the most common skin cancer.
A. Over-exposure to the sun is a risk factor in all types of skin cancer.
Which of the following tests would MOST LIKELY be performed on a patient that is being monitored for coagulation therapy ? A. PT/INR B. CBC C. HCT D. WBC
A. PT/INR Prothrombin times (PT/INR) are frequently used to monitor Coumadin (warfarin) therapy. This medication is an anticoagulant which slows the bloods ability to clot.
An illness of injury that prevents an insured person from performing one or more of the functions of his regular job is called: A. Partial disability B. Permanent disability C. Total disability D. Resultant disability
A. Partial disability
A(n) ________________investigates the cause of disease. A. Pathologist B. Dermatologist C. Gerontologist D. Pulmonologist
A. Pathologist A pathologist investigates the causes of disease.
The first step in the examination process is the patient interview. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. Patient interview
Which of the following pieces of information would be considered patient demographics? A. Patient's Age. B. Patient's date of last X-ray. C. Patient's current blood pressure. D. Patient's last date of Rx refill.
A. Patient's Age
Which of the following pieces of information would be considered patient demographics? A. Patient's age B. Patient's date of last X-ray C. Patient's current blood pressure D. Patient's last date of Rx refill
A. Patient's age Demographic information is data that can identify a patient. Names, addresses, telephone numbers and ages are all considered demographic information.
It is a one-write system in which all transactions for the day are recorded: A. Pegboard B. Single-entry C. Double entry D. Total practice
A. Pegboard Pegboard system is the most common manual method used in the doctor's office. It uses a pegboard, day sheet, ledgers and charge slips.
A medical assistant does not need to wear gloves when: A. Performing blood pressure B. Transporting a urine specimen C. Lubricating a Foley catheter D. Performing venipuncture
A. Performing blood pressure Generally, medical personnel do not wear gloves when performing blood pressure. Wearing gloves is recommended in transporting possible contaminated fluids such as: transporting a urine specimen, lubricating a foley catheter and drawing blood.
Meeting with representatives from drug companies is the responsibility of the: A. Physician B. Nurse C. Medical assistant D. Whoever is available
A. Physician
Identify the level of Preventions - Adopting healthy eating habits: A. Primary level of prevention. B. Secondary level of prevention. C. Third level of prevention.
A. Primary level of prevention.
Governing the relationship between patients and physicians are: A. Rules of conduct called medical ethics. B. Legal laws set forth by the federal government. C. Rules of etiquette taught in health career education programs. D. Codes of conduct set forth by the American Association of Medical Assistants.
A. Rules of conduct called medical ethics. Ethical Codes of Conduct are oftentimes formulated and written by professional organizations serving patients in the health care community. The American Association of Medical Assistants has formed both a medical assistant creed and a code of ethics that medical assistants can reference.
When transcribing medical dictation, how would one properly note an allergy to a certain medication? A. Spell out the medication in capital letters or underlined. B. Highlight the allergy in red font. C. Highlight the allergy in boldface font. D. None of the above.
A. SPELL OUT THE MEDICATION IN CAPITAL LETTERS OR UNDERLINED. When noting that a patient has an allergy to a medication, the medication should be spelled out in capital letters or underlined when mentioned in the dictation. This will call proper attention to the medication.
Drugs of abuse such as Heroin, and Cocaine are classified under what drug schedule? A. Schedule I B. Schedule II C. Schedule III D. Schedule IV
A. Schedule I According to the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration, Schedule I drugs are drugs with no currently accepted medical use, and with a high potential for abuse. Schedule I drugs are the most dangerous drugs of all the drug schedules with potentially severe psychological or physical dependence.
The skin plays a role in regulating body temperature by: A. Secreting water on the surface. B. Stimulating the hypothalamus. C. Decreasing the amount of water lost on the surface of the skin. D. Retaining fluids.
A. Secreting water on the surface.
Katie, a preschooler, sees a llama at the zoo for the first time and calls it a sheep. This is an example of: A. Semantic overextension. B. Chaining C. Fast mapping D. Divergent thinking E. An expressive style
A. Semantic overextension.
A 65 year old female was brought to the emergency room because of high fever, hypotension, tachypnea and cold, clammy skin. The patient has severe pneumonia. What type of shock does the patient have? A. Septic shock B. Neurogenic shock C. Cardiogenic shock D. Anaphylactic shock
A. Septic shock The patient has a life-threatening condition called septic shock caused by an overwhelming infection. Shock is caused by decrease in oxygen and leads to low blood pressure, weak pulse, increased respiratory rate, cold, clammy skin and anxiety.
According to Life's Eight Development Stages, Trust and Mistrust are most likely experienced: A. Shortly after birth B. The pre-teen years C. Middle age D. Old age
A. Shortly after birth Erick Erickson defined psychosocial development based on eight stages ranging from birth to death. Each stage defines an on-going pattern of psychosocial growth. In order of appearance, the eight stages are Trust vs. Mistrust, Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt, Initiative vs. Guilt, Industry vs. Inferiority, Identity vs. Role Confusion, Intimacy vs. Isolation, Generativity vs. Stagnation, and Ego Integrity vs. Despair.
A 52 year old male is requesting a medication for his erectile dysfunction. Which medications would most likely be prescribed by a physician? A. Sildenafil B. Gabapentin C. Azithromycin D. Simvastatin
A. Sildenafil Sildenafil is the generic name of Viagara. It relaxes smooth muscle and increases blood flow to the penis. Sildenafil is used to treat erectile dysfunction (impotence) in men.
The best examination position for the physician to evaluate the patient's ability to fully expand the lungs is the ______________ position. A. Sitting B. Prone C. Lithotomy D. Knee-chest
A. Sitting
When preparing for lead placement you should first care for? A. Skin preparation B. Application of electrode wires C. Application of electrodes D. Positioning of electrodes
A. Skin preparation
In the positioning of the electrodes, if the electrodes are placed too close together, the amplitude will be? A. Small B. Large C. Round D. Square
A. Small
The abbreviation for solution is ___________. A. Sol B. Slt C. Stn D. SSN
A. Sol
The Latin phrase "Quid pro quo" refers to: A. Something for something. B. Captain of the ship. C. The evidence speaks for itself. D. Malpractice
A. Something for Something Quid pro quo is a Latin phrase that means "something for something." The phrase usually indicates an exchange of goods or services of roughly equivalent value.
The acronym SOMR stands for: A. Source-Oriented Medical Record B. State of the Media Record C. Standardized Outpatient Medical Record D. Standard Oriented Medical Record
A. Source-Oriented Medical Record. SOMR refers to Source-Oriented Medical Record. Examples are progress notes, laboratory reports, imaging reports, and surgical reports.
Which of the following is NOT an incoming mail procedure? A. Stamp items with person who received it. B. Distribute mail to appropriate staff. C. Check clinical mail for urgency. D. Stamp payment checks with endorsement.
A. Stamp items with person who received it. Mail should the stamped with date received, not the person who received it. Other incoming mail procedures: distributing mail to appropriate staff, stamping payment checks with endorsement and checking mail for urgency, and sorting according to type.
Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients? A. Starches B. Proteins C. Fats D. Minerals E. Vitamins
A. Starches
Over a patient's lifespan, the pulse rate: A. Starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages. B. Starts out slower and increases as the patient ages. C. Varies from slow to fast throughout the lifespan. D. Stays consistent from birth to death.
A. Starts out fast and decreases as the patient ages. Normal pulse rates in infants average around 140 beats per minute. This rate falls to an average of 80 beats per minute in adults.
The time established for filing lawsuits is? A. Statute of limitations B. Malpractice C. Battery D. Privileged communication
A. Statute of limitations
The cleaning process that is required for all instruments that penetrate the skin or that come in contact with normally sterile areas of the tissue and internal organs is: A. Sterilization B. Sanitization C. Disinfection D. Ultrasonic cleaning
A. Sterilization
When interviewing a potential employee, which of the following questions is legal and would give the interviewer the MOST USEFUL information? A. Tell me about a time when you had to use critical thinking skills to solve an issue that you were having on the job. B. Have you been in the medical field for a long time? C. Will your family obligations keep you from performing at your best? D. Do you feel that your morals will affect the way that you perform your assigned tasks?
A. Tell me about a time when you had to use critical thinking skills to solve an issue that you were having on the job. Asking open ended questions will allow the interviewer to see how the interviewee reacts to being under pressure. By asking questions that require an explanation, employers can get more information than asking a yes or no type question. In addition, open ended questions that have no link to a person's religious affiliation, age, gender, or marital status are legal questions and should be answered by those being interviewed.
Mrs. Carter, a patient at a health clinic, is quite ill and makes an appointment to discuss some issues with the physician. Prior to her seeing the doctor, Mrs. Carter asks a medical assistant what the formal name is for the document that helps make clear what she wants in the event that her illness becomes terminal. The medical assistant should tell her this would be called an: A. Living Will B. Euthanasia c. Trust D. Durable Power of Attorney
A. The Living Will The living will is a legal document, voluntarily signed by a competent adult, stating what procedures or treatment that person wants done in the event of a terminal illness.
Which of the following methods would BEST prove that a FAX was properly sent to its intended destination? A. The MA should attach a FAX confirmation sheet to the original document. B. The MA should call the intended destination to alert them that a FAX is on its way. C. The MA should FAX the information twice. D. The MA should EMAIL the information and FAX it.
A. The MA should attach a FAX confirmation sheet to the original document. Keeping a copy of the confirmation sheet that can be printed from the fax machine can serve as adequate proof that a fax was sent. This method does not prove that the FAX was received.
A medical assistant is applying a transdermal patch. Which of the following procedures should the MA use and why? (Choose the BEST answer.) A. The MA should use gloves to protect herself from getting the medication on her hands when applying the patch. B. The MA should tell the patient to change the patch as many times as necessary if it appears to be falling off. C. The MA should place the patch in an area that the patient cannot reach to avoid the temptation for the patient to pick at the patch and have it fall off. D. The MA should instruct the patient to contact the office each time the patch is changed.
A. The MA should use gloves to protect herself from getting the medication on her hands when applying the patch. Transdermal patches contain medication that is intended to slowly be absorbed through the patient's skin. Medical Assistants should wear gloves or wash hands thoroughly after applying the patch to avoid absorbing some of the medication.
Which of the following are age-related changes that occur in the structure and function of the eye? A. The amount of light that reaches the retina is reduced and makes focusing more difficult. B. There is an increase in depth perception. C. The ability of the eye to adapt to changes in light intensity increases. D. There is an increase in tear production.
A. The amount of light that reaches the retina is reduced and makes focusing more difficult.
Your patient has Medicare and a type of Medigap insurance. Where should you send the insurance claim when you file her insurance claim? A. The claim must be filed with Medicare first. B. The claim must be filed with the Medigap insurance carrier first. C. The claim must be filed with both insurance carriers at the same time. D. A claim does not have to be filed. Payments from each policy will be automatic.
A. The claim must be filed with Medicare first. A Medigap policy supplements regular Medicare. These often pay for deductibles, coinsurance, and for services not covered by Medicare in some cases. Medicare is still the primary payer and you file with Medicare first.
When filing using the terminal digits method, which would be true? A. The filing is done using the last one or two digits of the patient's medical record number. B. It is the simplest way to file. C. The patient will acquire multiple charts. D. All of the above are false.
A. The filing is done using the last one or two digits of the patient's medical record number. Terminal digit filing is a filing method that uses the patient's medical record number to dictate where the file is stored. Using the last one or two numbers of the medical record number helps to keep charts filed in an easy to retrieve manner.
Which of the following is considered a drug's official name? A. The generic name B. The trade name C. The international non-proprietary name D. The chemical name
A. The generic name
Which of the following would you document under the plan of action? A. The medications prescribed and the tests to be done. B. The physician's diagnosis. C. The patient's chief complaint. D. The results of the physician's examination.
A. The medications prescribed and the tests to be done.
Which part of the optical microscope is the eyepiece through which you view the image? A. The ocular B. The stage C. The arm D. The substage
A. The ocular
Which of the following is important when measuring an oral temperature? A. The patient must be able to breathe through their nose. B. Place the thermometer on top of the tongue and in the center. C. The patient should hold the thermometer between the teeth. D. Wait 5 minutes after a patient eats or drinks before taking the temperature.
A. The patient must be able to breathe through their nose.
A patient sends a check to pay for her last office visit. That check bounces at the bank. Which of the following is the most likely scenario when dealing with this situation? A. The patient will be charged an NSF fee by the office. B. The patient will receive a letter from the bank stating that the account with the doctor's office is closed. C. The bank will honor the check and transfer funds to the office account. D. The patient will receive a notice from the bank stating that cash will be required for all future transactions with the office.
A. The patient will be charged an NSF fee by the office. NSF fees assessed by the office for non-sufficient funds. Banks will typically charge a company a fee if checks bounce. These fees are passed to the writer of the bad check in the form of NSF fees.
A fixative is a chemical spray used for preserving a specimen obtained from the body for pathologic examination. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
An administrative medical assistant should always be aware of the impression and professional image given by his or her actions and presentation because: A. The physician and practice are represented through the administrative medical assistant. B. It is part of the job description. C. It may lead to an increase in salary or wages. D. None of these is correct.
A. The physician and practice are represented through the administrative medical assistant. An administrative medical assistant should always be aware of the impression and professional image given by his or her actions and presentation because the physician and practice are represented through the administrative medical assistant.
Which of the following are characteristics of viruses? A. They are among the smallest infectious agents and cannot be seen with a regular microscope. B. They are reproduced by budding and do not cause disease in humans. C. They are single-celled organisms that reproduce very quickly. D. They are found in soil and water and most do not cause disease in humans.
A. They are among the smallest infectious agents and cannot be seen with a regular microscope.
Which of the following are characteristics of absorbable sutures? A. They are made of catgut and do not require removal after the wound has healed. B. They are used for the outside layer. C. They must be removed after wound healing is well under way. D. They are made of silk, nylon, or dacron.
A. They are made of catgut and do not require removal after the wound has healed.
As a rule of social acceptance, what is the maximum number of times a telephone should be allowed to ring in most cases? A. Three B. Five C. Seven D. Ten
A. Three The commonly accepted number of rings that a caller will tolerate is three or less. If a medical assistant cannot take the call, she should answer the phone and politely ask the caller to hold.
A condition of insufficient blood-clotting cells is referred to as: A. Thrombocytopenia B. Thrombophlebitis C. Erythrocytopenia D. Erythrocytosis
A. Thrombocytopenia
An ECG tracing measures the amount of voltage and the _____________ it takes for the voltage to travel throughout the heart? A. Time B. Route C. Waves D. Lines
A. Time
Why should accidents in the workplace be reported? A. To prevent a similar accident in the future. B. Reduce levels of paperwork. C. Check whether staff are carrying out their duties. D. To enable staff to learn from their mistakes.
A. To prevent a similar accident in the future.
A physician ordered a guaiac test for a patient who was complaining of abdominal pain. What is the indication for ordering such test? A. To screen colon cancer B. To screen lung cancer C. To screen breast cancer D. To screen prostate cancer
A. To screen colon cancer Stool guaiac test detect blood in the stool. It is one of the most common form of FOBT (Fecal Occult Blood Test). It screens for colon cancer, polyps, tumors, angiodyplasia, diverticulitis, and inflammatory disease.
The system unit of many desktop models is housed in the: A. Tower case B. Hardware C. Central processing unit D. Read-only memory
A. Tower case
Which drug name is selected by its manufacturer, is protected by copyright, and is the property of the manufacturer? A. Trade name B. Generic name C. Chemical name D. Non-proprietary name
A. Trade name
When a physician dictates an operative report and asks the medical assistant to type it up, the physician is asking the medical assistant to function as a _________________. A. Transcriptionist B. Stenographer C. Decoder D. Receptionist
A. Transcriptionist
A small adhesive patch or disc used for administration of drugs is called a(n) _____________. A. Transdermal system B. Reservoir system C. Ointment system D. Epidermis system
A. Transdermal system
A patient who has low blood pressure or is in shock would be placed in a _______________ position. A. Trendelenburg B. Prone C. Supine D. Fowler's
A. Trendelenburg
Which of the following is an insurance plan for military personnel and veterans? A. Tricare B. HMO C. PPO D. EPO
A. Tricare Insurance plans for the armed services include Tricare and CHAMPVA. Tricare is a comprehensive health benefit program for the dependents of men and women of the armed forces.
A Civilian health and medical program of the uniform services is: A. Tricare. B. Medicare. C. Medicaid. D. Worker's compensation.
A. Tricare.
A Foley catheter is an indwelling catheter. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
A Holter monitor is an ECG device that includes a small cassette recorder, allowing the reading to be taken over a period of time. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A PET scan (Positron Emission Tomography) can detect Huntington's disease and epilepsy. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A biopsied specimen is placed in a 10% formalin solution to preserve the tissue. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A bluish skin color is known as cyanosis. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A body surface area of 1% is roughly equal to the size of the person's hand. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A contraindication is a symptom that renders use of a remedy or procedure inadvisable, usually because of the risk to the patient. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A controlled substance is a drug that is categorized as potentially dangerous and addictive. A. True B. False C. None of the above D. Cannot be determined
A. True
A dressing may protect a wound from further injury and keep the wound clean and reduce bleeding. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
A fever ranging from 100° to 104° and an unwillingness to lie down are common symptoms in children with otitis media. A. True B. False C. Cannot be determined
A. True
Coding systems are: A. Used to place verbal descriptions of medical conditions or procedures into alpha-numeric codes. B. A method of monitoring disease processes. C. Used to allow for easier statistical tracking of medical conditions or procedural uses. D. All of the above.
A. Used to place verbal descriptions of medical conditions or procedures into alpha-numeric codes. Coding systems are a way for medical conditions and procedures to be listed as a number. This allows for easier tracking of statistics related to this information. It also allows for easier communication between physicians and health care insurance plans.
Insurance plans that pay a physician's full charge if it does not exceed his normal charge or does not exceed the amount normally charged for the service is called: A. Usual, Customary, and Reasonable. B. Comprehensive. C. Dual choice. D. None of the above.
A. Usual, Customary, and Reasonable.
Which chest lead is placed on the 4th ICS to the right of the sternum? A. V1 B. V2 C. V3 D. V4
A. V1 A V1 chest lead is placed on the 4th ICS to the right of the sternum. V2 is placed on the left of the sternum. V3 is placed between V2 and V4. V4 is placed on the 5th ICS, left mid-clavicular line.
A drug that causes dilation of blood vessels is called a ______________. A. Vasodilator B. Vasoconstrictor C. Sedative D. Laxative
A. Vasodilator
Which of the following senses is the LEAST well developed at birth? A. Vision B. Hearing C. Smell D. Touch E. Taste
A. Vision
One of the fat-soluble vitamins involved in coagulation is: A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin E
A. Vitamin K Vitamin K1 is a co-factor needed for the synthesis of some of the substances that help blood to clot. In adults, low dietary intake of Vitamin K may be the result of chronic illness, malnutrition, alcoholism, multiple abdominal surgeries, long-term parenteral nutrition, malabsorption, gallbladder disease, liver disease, cystic fibrosis, inflammatory bowel disease, and long-term use of drugs such as antibiotics and cholestyramine, which binds to bile acids, preventing fat-soluble vitamin absorption.
The purpose of a spirometer is to evaluate: A. Volume of inhaled and exhaled air in the lung. B. Red blood cell mass. C. Blood pressure D. Hematocrit
A. Volume of inhaled and exhaled air in the lung. Spirometry measures the amount of air inhaled and exhaled from the lungs. It evaluates the movement of oxygen from the atmosphere into the blood circulation.
Infection control and Universal Precautions Guidelines including the following, EXCEPT: A. Wear only PPE when in contact with infected patients. B. Obtain Hepatitis B vaccination for occupational exposure to blood. C. Dispose used needles in sharps container. D. Proper hand washing before and after dealing with a patient.
A. Wear only PPE when in contact with infected patients. B. Personal protective equipment should be worn at all times especially when in contact with infected patients. Universal precautions is an approach to treat all human blood and certain body fluids as if they were known to be infectious for HIV, HBV, and other blood borne
A client would not be billed in which of the following situations? A. Where Workers Compensation covers the injury and care. B. Where the patient has Blue Cross. C. Where the patient has no insurance. D. Where there's an indemnity insurance plan.
A. Where Workers Compensation covers the injury and care.
What does a sterilization strip indicate? A. Whether the instruments were exposed to the proper conditions of sterilization. B. If more water should be added to achieve the right amount of steam. C. Whether the instruments need to be sterilized. D. If the pressure of the autoclave was right.
A. Whether the instruments were exposed to the proper conditions of sterilization. Sterilization indicator strips indicate exposure to the conditions which will achieve sterilization- the proper combination of time and temperature in the presence of steam.
Surgical asepsis is being performed when: A. Wiping down exam tables with bleach. B. Sterilizing instruments. C. Changing table paper. D. Wearing gloves when performing injections.
A. While all the answers are part of an effective hand washing procedure, the use of friction when washing is the most effective method of removing debris and potential pathogens from the hands.
It consists of all the public websites connected to the internet: A. World Wide Web B. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol C. Local Area Network D. Random Access Memory
A. World Wide Web The World Wide Web or www consists of all the public Web sites connected to the internet. The www consists of web pages that can be accessed using a browser such as Google, Yahoo, and Internet Explorer.
The patient's pulse was 88 bpm. What will you tell the patient? A. Your pulse is normal. B. Your pulse is fast. C. Your pulse is abnormal. D. Your pulse is slow.
A. Your pulse is normal. The normal pulse is 60-100 beats per minute. This patient has a pulse rate of 88; therefore, you should tell the patient that the pulse is normal.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Cancellation is: A. can B. C C. CC D. FU
A. can
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Consultation is: A. cons B. Con C. CC D. I&D
A. cons
A check stub: A. is a smaller form to the left of each that is used to manually record information placed on the check that is distributed. B. is a booklet containing the banking information for the office. C. is information that is used to deposit funds into the holder's account when signed by the payee. D. None of the above.
A. is a smaller form to the left of each that is used to manually record information placed on the check that is distributed. Check stubs are the pieces of a check that is left over when a check is pulled from the perforation in the checkbook. These stubs are used for reference when balancing the checkbook for accuracy.
If the patient's BMI is 27, what would be the classification of the patient? A. Overweight B. Underweight C. Normal weight D. Obese
A. overweight Body mass index (BMI) is a measure of body fat based on height and weight. A BMI of 25-29.9 is considered overweight. BMI over 30 is considered obese. A BMI of 18.5-24.5 is considered normal weight and BMI below 18.5 is considered underweight.
A liquid preparation which mixes fine droplets of an oil in water, such as castor oil, is called a(n) ______________. A. Solution B. Emulsion C. Elixir D. Tincture
B. Emulsion
Deductions are: A. Money owed to the practice. B. Also known as debits. C. Amounts that are to be added to the check register. D. None of the above
B. Also known as debits. Deductions are sums of money that are removed from the account. They are also known as debits. Deductions are often in the form of payments from the office to a vendor or utility company.
A patient has a K+ level (potassium) of 6.0 mEq/L. What sample should the CMA obtain from the patient?
Aldosterone, A hormone that controls potassium levels in the blood.
A patient has a K+ level (potassium) of 6.0mEq/L. What sample should the CMA obtain from the patient?
Aldosterone- a hormone that controls potassium levels in the blood.
Depakene is a type of:
Antiepileptic
Blood Vessels:
Aorta, arteries, arterioles, capillaries, venues, veins, superior and inferior vena cavae.
Why would you immediately notify the doctor when doing an EKG?
Arrhythmia
Which of the following is the definition for aphagia? A. Extreme thirst B. Inability to hear C. Inability to swallow D. Loss of hair E. Pain free
C. Inability to swallow
Which of the following scenarios provides an example of a medical assistant overcoming a barrier to communication? A. A medical assistant uses lecture as a means of explaining how to run a finger stick glucose test to an elderly patient. B. A medical assistant writes her directions to a patient that is hearing impaired. C. A medical assistant speaks loudly to a patient who speaks a non-English language. D. A medical assistant uses the terms, "micturate," and, "defecation" while talking with a minor.
B. A medical assistant writes her directions to a patient that is hearing impaired. Overcoming barriers of communication involve using methods of communication that is understandable to the receiver. In the example provided, a deaf or hearing impaired patient would have an easier time understanding directions if they are written to overcome the obstacle of the hearing loss.
What is a POMR chart? A. A method of recording data about the signs and symptoms of the patient. B. A method of recording data about the health status of a patient in a problem-solving system. C. A method of recording data about the physical examination of the patient. D. A method of recording data about the diseases that run in the family of the patient.
B. A method of recording data about the health status of a patient in a problem-solving system. A Problem Oriented Medical Record (POMR) is a chart about the health status of a patient in a problem-solving system developed by Dr. Larry Weed in the 1950's. The basic components of the POMR are: 1. Data Base - History, Physical Exam and Laboratory Data 2. Complete Problem List 3. Treatment Plans 4. Daily Progress Note 5. Final Progress Note or Discharge Summary
When referring to collections, what is a "skip"? A. A patient who omits or skips a payment. B. A patient who has moved purposely to avoid paying a bill. C. A gesture of goodwill by the collections agent where a collections call is skipped for one month. D. None of the above.
B. A patient who has moved purposely to avoid paying a bill. A "skip" is a patient who purposely moves to delay or avoid paying money owed a practice. Skips can be traced by checking with a patient's employer or the Department of Motor Vehicles for a forwarding address.
The professional organization for the field of effective management of health data and medical records is: A. AMA B. AHIMA C. OSHA D. HIPAA
B. AHIMA AHIMA refers to American Health Information Management Association. It is the professional organization for the field of effective management of health data and medical records. AHIMA's primary goal is to provide the knowledge, resources, and tools to advance health information professional practice and standards for the delivery of quality healthcare.
Which of the following is NOT a recommended site for IM injections? A. Deltoid B. Abdomen C. Vastus Lateralis D. Gluteus Maximus
B. Abdomen The abdomen is not a recommended site for an IM injection. The common sites are: Deltoid, Vastus Lateralis, and Gluteus Maximus.
In the reception area of a medical practice, the computer screen must never be______________. A. Facing the filing cabinets. B. Able to be viewed by patients. C. Turned on D. Viewed by medical personnel
B. Able to be viewed by patients.
A 7 year old girl falls while riding her bicycle. She complains of scratches and small cuts on her skin. What type of wound does she have? A. Contusion B. Abrasion C. Laceration D. Avulsion
B. Abrasion An abrasion is the rubbing away or scraping of the skin surface by friction against another rough surface. Abrasions are superficial wounds, thus there is not much bleeding.
Certain types of cultures, such as deep wound cultures could contain anaerobic pathogens. Which of the following conditions is required for their growth? A. Light & oxygen. B. Absence of oxygen. C. Light & the absence of oxygen. D. None of the above.
B. Absence of oxygen.
When there is no variation of R-R intervals in an ECG reading it is called _____________________. A. Irregular with a pattern B. Absolutely regular C. Essentially regular D. Totally Irregular
B. Absolutely regular
When there is no variation of R-R intervals it is called? A. Irregular with a pattern B. Absolutely regular C. Essentially regular D. Totally regular
B. Absolutely regular
An unexpected event which may cause injury is a(n): A. Dread disease rider B. Accident C. Adjuster D. None of the above
B. Accident
Amounts that are owed to a business for services rendered or goods supplied are called: A. Liabilities B. Accounts receivable C. Vendor requisitions D. Disbursements
B. Accounts receivable In the accounting system, the accounts receivable would be termed as the sum that would be owed to the business. The bookkeeper/accountant would keep a balance of what is owed and should be collected in the future to the business, such as a medical clinic. Adjustments can be made in some circumstances by the accounting department.
Physicians rank ______________ as the most important employee trait. A. Kindness B. Accuracy C. Promptness D. Friendly
B. Accuracy Physicians rank accuracy as the most important employee trait.
The one who acts for the insured or the carrier in a claim is called: A. Doctor B. Adjuster C. Provider D. Subscriber
B. Adjuster
Under the Peer Review Improvement Act of 1982, Peer Review Organizations are responsible for the review for appropriateness and necessity of putting a patient into the hospital by a process known as _______________ review. A. Procedure B. Admissions C. Cost D. Transfer
B. Admissions
A delivery has just been received in your office. Which of the following scenarios is best when dealing with orders? A. Designate one person to handle all deliveries to avoid confusion. B. Allow anyone in the office to handle deliveries as long as the packing slips and invoices are handled appropriately and at the time the supplies are put away. C. Immediately put all stock away allowing the person who ordered the materials to handle the packing slips. D. None of the above
B. Allow anyone in the office to handle deliveries as long as the packing slips and invoices are handled appropriately and at the time the supplies are put away. Deliveries received in the office should be put away as soon as possible. The packing sheets should be checked against the materials received to ensure that all items that are to be paid have been delivered.
Instructions to an insurance company about where and to whom to make payment are called _______________________. A. Payment agreements. B. Assignment of benefits. C. Benefit accommodations. D. Assignment of payments.
B. Assignment of benefits.
The acronym AAMA refers to: A. Association of American Medical Assistants. B. American Association of Medical Assistants. C. American Alliance for Medical Assistants D. American Administration for Medical Assistants
B. American Association of Medical Assistants. AAMA refers to American Association of Medical Assistants. The mission of the American Association of Medical Assistants is to provide the medical assistant professional with education, certification, credential acknowledgement, networking opportunities, scope-of-practice protection, and advocacy for quality patient-centered health care.
A 38 year old man was rushed to the hospital because of bloody diarrhea. The doctor said that the cause can be a single-celled organism. Which organism is he referring to? A. Lyme B. Amoeba C. Salmonella D. Trichomonas
B. Amoeba Amoeba is a parasite classified under protozoa. They are single-celled organisms found in contaminated water that can cause dysentery-inflammation of the intestines causing diarrhea with blood.
When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as? A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. An arrhythmia C. An aneurysm D. An embolism
B. An arrhythmia
Which of the following records the waves of electrical impulses responsible for the cardiac cycle? A. An electrode B. An electrocardiogram C. An electrocardiograph D. A deflection
B. An electrocardiogram
According to Sigmund Freud, a child can be fixated at this psychosexual stage if he or she becomes obsessed with control, perfection and cleanliness? A. Oral B. Anal C. Phallic D. Latency
B. Anal The anal stage is directly related to a child's awareness of bowel control and gaining pleasure through the act of eliminating or retaining feces. It is believed that when a child becomes fixated on receiving pleasure through controlling and eliminating feces, a child can become obsessed with control, perfection and cleanliness.
Your patient has been placed on two different medications. Your patient is not improving and the physician discovered that one drug decreased the effect of the other. What is this drug interaction called? A. Potentiation B. Antagonism C. Side effect D. Pharmacokinetics
B. Antagonism This interaction occurs when the effect of one drug decreases the effect of another. The possibility of an antagonism occurring makes it absolutely necessary to obtain a current and accurate list of medications.
The nose is _______________to the ears. A. Lateral B. Anterior C. Caudal D. Superior
B. Anterior
A drug used to prevent blood from clotting is called a(n)? A. Anti-cholinergic B. Anti-coagulant C. Antidote D. Placebo
B. Anti-coagulant
A 5 year old boy has an ear infection. He has fever and otalgia. To address his fever, the recommended medication is: A. Anti-biotic B. Anti-pyretic C. Anesthetic D. Anti-anginal
B. Anti-pyretic Anti-pyretic medications reduce body temperature. Pyexia is the medical term for raised temperature.
A medical assistant wanted to use a stethoscope to determine a pulse. Which of the following pulse points can she use? A. Carotid pulse B. Apical pulse C. Brachial pulse D. Femoral pulse
B. Apical pulse The apical pulse is located in the left side of the chest. To take the apical pulse, a stethoscope and a watch are needed.
Buccal administration of medications: A. Should be done under the tongue. B. Are done to allow controlled dosing through the mucosa. C. Are best to use in small children. D. All of the above.
B. Are done to allow controlled dosing through the mucosa. Buccal administration methods are used to control the flow of medication through the mucosa of the cheek in the inner mouth. Monitoring this process in small children is difficult as infants and toddlers may swallow the medication.
Workman's Compensation claims: A. Are Federally managed. B. Are kept separate from other insurance claims which are not Workman's Compensation in nature. C. Are to be shared with the patient's employer with full medical record review. D. None of the above.
B. Are kept separate from other insurance claims which are not Workman's Compensation in nature. Workman's Compensation files are to be kept separate from a patient's usual medical record. These forms are filed to the state for claims for payment.
MSDS sheets: A. Contain the ordering information for each piece of equipment in the office. B. Are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office. C. Can be used to treat patients who have been injured in equipment accidents. D. None of the above
B. Are required by OSHA to be accessible to all employees of the office. Materials Safety Data Sheets are used to provide employees information on all chemicals that are used in their place of work. Health information is readily accessible and can be used to help employees who have been injured by the use of these chemicals.
When the heart rhythm is abnormal it is referred to as ____________________. A. Patent ductus arteriosus B. An arrhythmia C. An aneurysm D. An embolism
B. Arrhythmia
Before you prepare any medication to be administered to a patient, you should: A. Ask the patient how he or she would like to receive the medication. B. Ask if the patient is allergic to any medication. C. Ascertain the patient's comfort level and ability to receive medication. D. Check the medication three times before administering it.
B. Ask if the patient is allergic to any medication. Ask if the patient is allergic to any medication. Before you prepare the medication, the medical assistant must always ask the patient if he or she is allergic to any medication. If allergic to the specific drug or that drug category, alert the physician so that an order for an alternative medication can be ordered.
An unlawful threat or attempt to do bodily injury to another is? A. Fraud B. Assault C. Battery D. Invasion of privacy
B. Assault
When reading urines microscopically, urine casts must be: A. Small enough to be seen under high power. B. Assessed under low power. C. Absent as to not impede the observation of other microscopic structures. D. None of the above.
B. Assessed under low power. Casts in the urine are much larger than most of the other microscopic structures. Casts should be observed under low power so their presence can be noted. Using high power could cause the viewer to over magnify and miss the structures.
The physician's diagnosis or impression of the patient's problem is the: A. Subjective data B. Assessment C. Objective data D. Plan of action
B. Assessment
You have been assigned the task of writing a patient education pamphlet to instruct patients on how to correctly collect a 24-hour urine sample. Which of the following would be the BEST way to accomplish this task? A. Choose professional terminology (such as using "micturate" for urinate) so as to not offend patients. B. Choose terminology that patients would use in every day conversation. C. Suggest that someone more experienced should handle this task to avoid making a mistake which could harm patients. D. Suggest that the physician instruct patients on proper specimen techniques since she will be the one who orders the test.
B. Choose terminology that patients would use in every day conversation. Patients are best able to learn when they are spoken to in terminology they can understand. Medical assistants play a great role in patient education on a daily basis. B.
Your doctor has given you a patient memo that he has written. You notice that his grammar and punctuation need correcting. Which of the following proofreader's marks signifies that a period is to be introduced into a sentence? A. Equals sign. B. Circle with a dot in the middle. C. Ellipsis. D. Empty circle.
B. Circle with a dot in the middle. To show that a period needs to be added to a document that is being proofread, place a small circle with a dot in it in the spot where the period is to be added.
Your doctor has given you a patient memo that he has written. You notice that his grammar and punctuation need to be corrected. Which of the following proofreader's marks signifies that a period is to be introduced into a sentence? A. Equals sign B. Circle with a dot in the middle. C. Ellipsis D. Empty circle
B. Circle with a dot in the middle. To show that a period needs to be added to a document that is being proofread, place a small circle with a dot in it in the spot where the period is to be added.
A woman is being accused of failure to pay her medical bills. Which of the following classifications of law is she violating? A. Criminal Law B. Civil Law C. Felony D. Family Law
B. Civil Law Failure to pay for services rendered falls under Civil Law as this is a difference of opinion between two parties.
A request for payment under an insurance contractor bond is called a(n): A. Insurance application. B. Claim. C. Dual choice request. D. Total disability.
B. Claim.
A urine specimen that is obtained either through a voided specimen or Catheterization is a: A. Random urine specimen B. Clean-catch midstream urine specimen C. First morning urine specimen D. 24-hour urine specimen
B. Clean-catch midstream urine specimen.
Files of patients who have died, have moved away, or for some other reason no longer consult the office are called: A. Inactive B. Closed C. Suspended D. Eliminated
B. Closed
Patients who have died, moved away, or terminated relationship with the practice are classified as: A. Inactive B. Closed C. Active D. Nuisance
B. Closed Records of patients who have died, moved away, or terminated relationship with the practice are classified as Closed. Patients who are currently receiving treatment are classified as Active, and patients who have not been managed within 6 months or longer are classified as Inactive.
Analysis of the connection between the diagnostic and the procedural information on a claim is called: A. Code verification B. Code linkage C. Code analysis D. Claim processing
B. Code linkage
In insurance, greater coverage of diseases or an accident and greater indemnity payment in comparison with a limited clause is a(n): A. Co-payment. B. Comprehensive. C. Deductible. D. Major medical.
B. Comprehensive.
Children who can understand the principle of conversation are likely to be in which Paget stage? A. Oral B. Concrete operation C. Anal D. Sensorimotor E. Latency
B. Concrete operation
Cystic fibrosis is a(n): A. Autoimmune disease B. Condition that can be tested by monitoring the chloride levels of the patient's sweat. C. Disease that can be cured with medications and intensive therapy. D. All of the above.
B. Condition that can be tested by monitoring the chloride levels of the patient's sweat. In patients that have cystic fibrosis, chloride levels of the sweat are concentrated at higher levels than the sweat of a healthy individual. CF is a condition that cannot be cured and greatly reduces a patient's predicted lifespan. The condition is a genetic and not autoimmune in nature.
To maintain a professional image, all of the following must be followed, EXCEPT: A. Leave personal problems at home. B. Conduct personal business during office hours. C. Do not procrastinate. D. Avoiding gossip
B. Conduct personal business during office hours. Personal business should not be done during office hours. All the other choices are traits of professionalism.
Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland? A. Abdominal B. Cranial C. Pleural D. Spinal E. Thoracic
B. Cranial
The shared patterns of behaviors and interactions learned through the process of socialization: A. Cult B. Culture C. Class D. Coalition
B. Culture Culture is the set of the beliefs, behavior and common characteristics to the members of a particular group or society. It is a defining element that constitutes society.
Which of the following agencies would be responsible for monitoring the use of controlled substances? A. CDC B. DEA C. AMA D. FDA
B. DEA The Drug Enforcement Agency has federal jurisdiction over controlled substances that are prescribed in the medical office.
A drug that decreases congestion is called a __________________. A. Suppressant B. Decongestant C. Diuretic D. Sedative
B. Decongestant
A drug that decreases mucus in the nasal passages is called a(n) _______________. A. Suppressant B. Decongestant C. Anti-histamine D. Bronchodilator
B. Decongestant
The amount an insured patient must pay toward claims each year before the insurance company will pay for medical treatment is known as the ________________. A. Covered amount. B. Deductible. C. Explanation of benefits. D. Co-pay.
B. Deductible
Calcium, potassium, and sodium are all classified as: A. Androgens B. Electrolytes C. Estrogens D. Prostaglandin
B. Electrolytes
A "V wave" will ______________be seen in a normal EKG? A. Always B. Sometimes C. Never D. Usually
C. Never
Mr. T, a 59-year old man, 12 months after the death of his wife of 35 years, reluctantly mentioned to his son that he wished he was dead, but would never do anything about these wishes. Concerned, the son took him to a psychiatrist for an evaluation. Which of the following is true? A. Asking this man about his suicide may increase his risk. B. Detailed questions about his suicidality are essential for prevention. C. Since this is a normal grief reaction, he should be left alone. D. Euphemistic inquiries about his suicide risk will foster rapport.
B. Detailed questions about his suicidality are essential for prevention.
Cash amounts that are paid out are called: A. Payables B. Disbursements C. Invoices D. Packing slips
B. Disbursements Disbursements are the payment of funds and can be cash or check or even by office credit card for these purposes. Disbursements can be entered into the accounting records several ways and this would depend on the accounting system in use in each particular office.
The following are used as filing methods, EXCEPT: A. Alphabetical B. Disease C. Numerical D. Subject
B. Disease The 3 common filing methods used are alphabetical, numerical, and subject. Filing by disease is not a filing method.
The destruction of infectious agents on an object or surface by direct application of chemical or physical means is: A. Sanitization. B. Disinfection. C. Medical asepsis. D. Sterilization.
B. Disinfection
The part of the prescription that tells you if the drug can be replaced by the pharmacist: A. Repetatur B. Dispense As Written (D.A.W.) C. Subscription D. Signature
B. Dispense As Written (D.A.W.) If the doctor writes the prescription and does not mark the DAW box, the pharmacist can substitute a generic version of the drug. This can save the patient money, while still providing the patient with medication equivalent to the prescription.
An employee becomes angry with his boss. Instead of expressing his anger to the boss for fear of loosing his job, the employee punches a wall. What defense mechanism is the employee exhibiting? A. Repression B. Displacement C. Intellectualization D. Rationalization
B. Displacement Displacement is the redirecting of thoughts and impulses at one person or object to another person or object. Displacement is used when people cannot express their feelings in a safe manner to the person they are directing at. For example, an employee who hates his boss, but can't express his anger at him for fear of loosing his job might instead punch a wall.
Which of the following is the process of transporting a drug from its administration site to its site of action? A. Metabolism B. Distribution C. Absorption D. Excretion
B. Distribution
A drug that increases urinary output is called a(n) __________________. A. Miotic B. Diuretic C. Cytotoxin D. Expectorant
B. Diuretic
A disadvantage of housing files in boxes is that they: A. Require more floor space. B. Do not remain in one location and are easily misplaced. C. Are often long, sometimes extending the full length and height of a wall. D. Are unable to be moved.
B. Do not remain in one location and are easily misplaced.
When instilling eye drops into a patient's eyes, what is important for the Medical Assistant to remember? A. Wear sterile gloves. B. Do not touch the tip to the eye or skin surface. C. Avoid asking questions to the patient to prevent anxiety. D. Advise the patient to rub the eyes after the medication is instilled.
B. Do not touch the tip to the eye or skin surface. Sterile gloves are not necessary but clean gloves are. You must ask the patient his or her name to verify you are putting the drops into the right set of eyes and taking often eases a patient's anxiety. Advise the patient to NOT rub the eyes after putting the drops in and not to squeeze out the medication from the eyes.
Which of the following safety suggestions would apply to the use of the AED? A. Do not use on the chest area. B. Do not use in water. C. Do not use on females with documented heart conditions. D. None of the above are applicable to the AED.
B. Do not use in water. The AED will initiate an electrical charge which is intended to stop the heart. When this charge is launched with a patient that is lying in water could send the shock out to responders.
The anatomic location of the spinal canal is: A. Causal B. Dorsal C. Frontal D. Transverse E. Ventral
B. Dorsal
In which examination position does the patient lie on his back with his knees drawn up and his feet flat on the table? A. Prone B. Dorsal recumbent C. Fowler's D. Sims'
B. Dorsal recumbent
A rider added to a policy to provide additional benefits for certain conditions is a(n): A. Hospital benefits. B. Dread disease rider. C. Pre-existing condition. D. None of the above.
B. Dread disease rider.
Physicians with a narcotics license are required to register on June 30th of each year with ___________________. A. Food and Drug Administration B. Drug Enforcement Agency C. American Red Cross D. American Medical Association
B. Drug Enforcement Agency
At which of the following does bile enter the digestive tract? A. Gastroesophageal sphincter B. Duodenum C. Ileocecum D. Jejunum E. Pyloric sphincter
B. Duodenum
The patient's complaint of painful menstrual periods will be documented in the medical record as which of the following? A. Amenorrhea B. Dysmenorrhea C. Menorrhagia D. Menorrhea E. Metrorrhagia
B. Dysmenorrhea
The __________codes are the most important of the CPT codes. A. Modifier B. E/M C. Add-on D. Unlisted procedure
B. E/M
During the process of oogenesis, primary oocytes produce: A. Sperm. B. Eggs. C. Oogonia. D. Stem cells. E. None of the above.
B. Eggs Oogenesis is the process that gives rise to the ovum, or egg, in mammals. The oocyte is the immature egg cell in the ovary. In humans, one oocyte matures during each menstrual cycle. It develops first into an intermediate form called the ootid and eventually into an ovum. The prefix oo- is derived from Greek and means "egg."
According to Sigmund Freud, which component of personality is in contact with reality? A. Id B. Ego C. Super ego D. Alter ego
B. Ego The ego is the part of personality that deals with reality. The ego develops from our basic drives and instincts (id), and ensures that it can be expressed in an acceptable manner in the real world.
When considering growth and psychological development, which of the following is TRUE? A. Growth and Development are considered to be evolving until the subject is around 20 yrs. old. B. Growth is considered to be evolving until the subject is around 20 yrs. old. C. Psychological development often matures along the same timeframe as growth spurts. D. Growth and psychological development are independent of each other and have no influence on one another.
B. Growth is considered to be evolving until the subject is around 20 yrs. old. In general terms, growth ceases to occur after the 20th year of life. Psychological development can occur until death.
The combining form "cephal/o" refers to which of the following? A. Abdomen B. Head C. Neck D. Ribs E. Spine
B. Head
Where is the Temporal part of the body? A. Hips B. Head C. Arm D. Back
B. Head
An organization that offers insurance against losses in exchange for a premium is called a: A. Rider. B. Health maintenance organization. C. Member physician. D. Bank
B. Health maintenance organization
What is the number one complication of venipuncture? A. Seizure B. Hematoma C. Fainting D. Petechiae
B. Hematoma The number one complication of venipuncture is the hematoma. When blood leaks to the surrounding tissues because of inadequate hemostasis, hematoma can occur.
Which of the following refers to the rupturing of red blood cells, which release hemoglobin that can cause kidney failure and death after an incompatible blood transfusion? A. Capillary puncture B. Hemolysis C. Coagulation D. Pyrogen
B. Hemolysis
Betsy, a 4 month old infant, was brought to your clinic because of a seizure. The doctor asked you to obtain a rectal temperature. You obtain it using a digital thermometer and the reading is 104 degrees F. Which of the following is most likely true? A. She has normal temperature. B. Her seizure is a result of her being febrile. C. The seizure has no connection with the temperature. D. The temperature of the patient cannot result in a seizure.
B. Her seizure is a result of her being febrile. Febrile seizure is a seizure caused by a fever in infants or in children. During the seizure, the child often loses consciousness, and develops a sudden, jerking movements of a limb or of the body, caused by involuntary contraction of muscles. Febrile seizures are usually benign, even though, it looks dangerous.
The transplant of animal tissue into a human: A. Isograft B. Heterograft C. Homograft D. Autograft
B. Heterograft Heterograft can be called a xenograft and it is the transplant of animal tissue into a human. An example of this would be using the heart valve from an animal into the heart of a human being. An isograft is a transplantation from a genetically identical twin. Homograft, also calle allograft, is a tissue transplant between two humans (not identical twins). An autograft is a transplantation of a person's own tissue from one part of the body to another.
A CLIA-Waived pregnancy test is based on the detection of which of the following? A. Testosterone B. Human chorionic gonadotropin C. Progesterone D. Estrogen
B. Human chorionic gonadotropin
An area of dead myocardial tissue is best described by which of the following? A. Angina pectoris B. Hypertrophy C. An induration D. An infarct E. Stenosis
B. Hypertrophy
A company that provides access to the internet is referred to as a(n): A. Web browser B. ISP C. TCP/IP D. HTTP
B. ISP Internet Service Provider (ISP) is a company that provides access to the internet. Examples of ISPs' are: Verizon, AT&T, AOL, and Time Warner Cable.
A hungary baby cried her eyes out until she was fed. According to Sigmund Freud, which part of the psyche is responsible for this? A. Superego B. Id C. Ego D. All of the above
B. Id The id is the instinctive component of the Psyche. It is the most basic part of personality that wants instant gratification for wants and needs. If these needs or wants are not met, a person becomes tense or anxious.
According to behavioral psychologists, which of the following treatments would most likely extinguish disruptive behavior in preschool children? A. Threatening to isolate them immediately after such behavior. B. Ignoring them so that they do not receive the reinforcement they are seeking. C. Punishing them immediately so they understand what they did wrong. D. Discouraging them but not punishing them. E. Reasoning with them and explaining that their behavior is wrong.
B. Ignoring them so that they do not receive the reinforcement they are seeking.
The following are all segments of the large intestine except the: A. Ascending colon B. Ileum C. Sigmoid colon D. Transverse colon
B. Ileum
A patient pulls up her sleeve in preparation for an injection. This is an example of: A. Informed Consent B. Implied Consent C. Unwritten Contractual Consent D. Expressed Consent
B. Implied consent Even though the patient hasn't given verbal permission to have a procedure done, her unspoken body language has implied this message.
The purpose of performing quality control is to: A. Create a paper trail to show that the laboratory is compliant with OSHA standards for quality control. B. Improve the odds that the results that are reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible. C. Are required by law to be part of a quality assurance program. D. All of the above.
B. Improve the odds that the results that are reported for any given test are as accurate and reliable as possible. Quality controls are done for each analyte tested to ensure reliability of the results obtained from that test. There are no laws requiring that QC be performed, but most accrediting bodies will require QC to be done in order to maintain accreditation.
The first place to look for an ICD-10 code should be: A. In Volume III. B. In Volume II and then confirmed in Volume I. C. In Volume IV with confirmation made in Volume III. D. None of the above.
B. In Volume II and then confirmed in Volume I.
The nurse is contemplating if she would request an oral medication or parenteral medication from the physician. What is a disadvantage of the oral route? A. It is easily taken by the patient. B. It is not the fastest absorption route into the blood stream. C. It is considered safest because medications can be retrieved easily than other routes. D. It does not require special devices or equipment.
B. It is not the fastest absorption route into the blood stream. The oral route is not the fastest way to absorb medications to the blood stream. The fastest route is the intravenous route.
Which of the following is NOT an effective communication strategy for the visually-impaired? A. Alerting the patient before touching him. B. Increase your tone so he can understand you better. C. Describe the surroundings and locations of structures. D. Allowing the patient to touch instruments and things when appropriate.
B. Increase your tone so he can understand you better. In sight impaired patients, you should speak in a normal tone of voice. Not all visually impaired are deaf. Describe the surroundings, alerting before touching the patient, and allowing the patient to touch his surrounding when appropriate are strategies to assist the visually impaired.
Signs of anxiety include: A. Passiveness and drowsiness. B. Increased blood pressure and sweaty palms. C. Quietness and relaxed appearance. D. Decrease in pulse and breathing.
B. Increased blood pressure and sweaty palms.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of professional behavior? A. Compassionate B. Influential C. Competent D. Ethical
B. Influential Being influential does not necessarily mean professional. Compassion, competence and ethical behavior are all characteristics of a professional.
A medical procedure cannot be performed on a patient until the doctor obtains _____________. A. Confidentiality B. Informed consent C. Insurance authorization D. Vital statistics
B. Informed consent
Which attribute should the physician consider in hiring a medical assistant? A. Dependent B. Initiative C. Incompetent D. Indolent
B. Initiative Physicians look for medical assistants that have initiative. Initiative is the ability to do something before being told. Medical assistants who have this trait are independent and do not need to be given directions all the time.
To take action independently is to show ______________. A. Managerial skills B. Initiative C. Commitment D. Strength
B. Initiative To take action independently is to show initiative.
Which of the following is a treatment for heart conduction delays or blocks? A. Diet management B. Insertion of a pacemaker C. Heart transplant surgery D. Lifestyle management
B. Insertion of a pacemaker
Which of the following is not considered non-verbal communication? A. Facial expressions B. Interjection C. Hand gestures D. Posture
B. Interjection Interjection is a form of verbal communication. It is a word or phrase expressed in a strong emotion. Nonverbal communication includes: grooming, dressing, eye contact, facial expressions, hand gesture, space, tone and posture.
Newborn infants were given either smooth or knobby pacifiers to suck. They were later allowed to look at both types of pacifiers. They looked longer at the type of pacifier they had previously sucked. This finding indicates that newborn infants have: A. Categorical perception B. Intermodal perception C. Shape constancy D. Depth perception E. Object permanence
B. Intermodal perception
The area between waves is referred to as? A. Back spaces B. Intervals C. Segments D. Cycles
B. Intervals
A patient was rushed to the hospital because of severe high blood pressure. Which route of drug administration is recommended so that the medication given is instantaneous and complete? A. Intradermal B. Intravenous C. Intramuscular D. Intra-arterial
B. Intravenous For the intravenous route, a needle is inserted directly into a vein. When given intravenously, a drug is delivered immediately to the bloodstream, and takes effect faster than by any other route.
Which of the following is used both as a disinfectant and antiseptic but its effectiveness is limited by the presence of blood products, mucus, or soap? A. Boiling water B. Iodine C. Acid products D. Formaldehyde
B. Iodine
Psoriasis: A. May be treated with phenytoin B. Is a skin condition involving flaky or oozing patches of skin. C. Is most commonly found on the backs of the legs. D. None of the above.
B. Is a skin condition involving flaky or oozing patches of skin. Psoriasis is a skin condition involving varied maturation of skin cells. Patches of affected skin will crack, ooze, or bleed and may be itchy or sore.
When writing a letter in full block style, the complimentary close: A. Is located indented one tab stop. B. Is located flush with the left margin. C. Is omitted. D. Begin at the center point of the page.
B. Is located flush with the left margin. Full block style requires that all paragraphs, dates, addresses, greetings and salutations start on the left margin of the page.
A medical assistant volunteers her time at a local charity run checking blood pressures. She: A. Is covered under The Good Samaritan Law because she is volunteering her time. B. Is not covered under The Good Samaritan Law because she is performing the duties of a medical assistant. C. Is covered under The Good Samaritan Law because she is performing the duties of a medical assistant. D. Possibly may be covered depending on how many blood pressures she takes.
B. Is not covered under the Good Samaritan Law because she is performing the duties of a medical assistant. The Good Samaritan Law protects health care workers who respond and provide medical care outside of the work environment. However, volunteer activities where professionals are voluntarily performing skills that they would use in the workplace are not covered under this law.
When the skin is injured, inflammation follows. One effect of this response is that: A. It prevents hemorrhage. B. It causes pain, calling attention to the injury. C. Controls infection. D. Decreases the blood supply to the injured area.
B. It causes pain, calling attention to the injury.
Which of the following statements is false about blood drawing? A. Both venipunctures and micro-sampling involve skill. B. It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger. C. Venipuncture may take a month or more to perfect. D. "Getting Blood" is not the only goal of good blood drawing.
B. It doesn't really matter which direction you lancet a finger.
Which of the following is the primary reason for having a minimum of two examination rooms per physician? A. It allows another physician to use the other room. B. It enables the medical assistant to prepare one room while the physician examines a patient in the other room. C. It can serve as an additional waiting area for patients when the reception area is full. D. It can be used as a room for a contagious patient who comes to the office.
B. It enables the medical assistant to prepare one room while the physician examines a patient in the other room.
John is the most recent MA to be employed at a pediatric clinic. He felt unappreciated when his suggestion at a staff meeting was considered but not implemented, whereas, some suggestions from others were used. What should John's strategy be for further participation in office meetings? A. John should ask to have the next meeting extended to discuss his suggestions further. B. John should focus on being a team player and to put his personal feelings aside. C. John should go ahead with his plan and the supervisor will see hid idea works better. D. John should advise his supervisor that he would prefer not to be part of the office meetings.
B. John should focus on being a team player and to put his personal feelings aside. Every clinic or hospital has a slightly unique philosophy, but when everyone learns to work together as a team, and put their personal feelings aside, there is much better productivity and patient satisfaction. This is an important goal for all health care facilities.
Which of the following outlines the size, shape, and position of urinary organs? A. Myelography B. KUB radiography C. Thermography D. Xeroradiography
B. KUB radiography
Which urine dipstick test detects acetone in the urine? A. Glucose B. Ketones C. Proteins D. PH
B. Ketones
A clause in an insurance policy that restricts overpayment of benefits due to more than one medical insurance policy is: A. Not legal. B. Known as coordination of benefits. C. Used frequently by patients with only one policy. D. None of the above.
B. Known as coordination of benefits. Patients who have a primary and secondary insurance plan fall under the coordination of benefits clause. This wording discourages multiple payments for the same procedure.
All of the following are types of printers, EXCEPT: A. Inkjet B. LCD C. Laser D. Multifunctional
B. LCD LCD or Liquid Crystal Clear is a flat panel video display used in monitors, not printers. Laser, ink jet, and multifunctional are types of computer printers currently in the market today.
Part of surgical asepsis involves opening sterile packages. Which of the following is NOT true of opening a sterile package? A. Opening the top flap first and opening it away from you to avoid reaching over the sterile field. B. Leaning over the sterile package if the table paper needs straightened. C. Opening the right and left flaps to the sides. D. Open the last flap toward you.
B. Leaning over the sterile package if the table paper needs straightened. You should never lean over a sterile field or open package. The other choices are true of opening the sterile field.
The USDA Dietary Guidelines for Americans advise: A. Limiting carbohydrates to 10 percent of daily calories. B. Limiting total fat intake to 20 to 35 percent of calories. C. Limiting protein to 10 percent of daily calories. D. Limiting intake of fats and oils to 10 percent of daily calories.
B. Limiting total fat intake to 20 to 35 percent of calories. The USDA Dietary Guidelines suggest that most dietary fats should be obtained from sources of polyunsaturated and monounsaturated fatty acids, such as fish, nuts, and vegetable oils. The Guidelines also advise limiting intake of fats and oils high in saturated and/or trans fatty acids.
Which of the following is NOT recommended when interviewing a patient? A. Have eye contact B. Look at the clock to prevent patient from rambling C. Lean toward the patient D. Nod when the patient talks
B. Look at the clock to prevent patient from rambling. The key to successful interviewing is aligning between verbal and nonverbal messages conveyed to the patient. Looking at the clock conveys to the patient inattention and disinterest.
The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an X-ray study of the fibula. The procedure will be performed on which of the following structures? A. Heel B. Lower leg C. Toes D. Thigh E. Pelvis
B. Lower leg
The blood exchanges carbon dioxide for oxygen in the: A. Heart B. Lungs C. Brain D. Muscles
B. Lungs
A 42 year old male came to the clinic complaining of twitching of the muscles. Sometimes the patient involuntary jerks for no reason. He said he started experiencing the twitches after he started water therapy and started to urinate frequently. Which mineral most likely is the culprit for his twitching? A. Manganese B. Magnesium C. Copper D. Zinc
B. Magnesium Magnesium is a mineral that is present in large amounts in the body. Magnesium is needed for calcium regulation. Deficiency of Magnesium can result in low calcium in the blood or hypocalcemia. Hypocalcemia can result in numbness, muscle spasms and twitching.
Insured mail through the USPS is defined as: A. Mail that is guaranteed to reach its intended destination. B. Mail that has value up to a certain amount which can be reimbursed if lost in transit. C. Mail that will require a signature upon delivery. D. None of the above.
B. Mail that has value up to a certain amount which can be reimbursed if lost in transit. Insured mail is mail that can be reimbursed by monetary funds if lost in the mail. There is no guarantee that the insured mail will make it to its intended destination.
Insurance designed to offset medical expenses resulting from catastrophic or prolonged illness or injury is called: A. Primary insurance. B. Major medical. C. Whole life policy. D. Comprehensive.
B. Major medical.
Which of the following is NOT a criteria for skin preparation for lead placement? A. Clean the skin with an alcohol wipe. B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode. C. Shave the hair from the skin. D. Roughen the skin for better dermis contact.
B. Make sure the skin is damp when applying the electrode.
Which of the following is a method to track incoming telephone calls so that all messages are taken care of? A. Answer every incoming call. B. Making a telephone log. C. Install voice messaging. D. Discard not important calls.
B. Making a telephone log. Tracking incoming telephone calls and messages are vital to the operation of an office. A good way of tracking all incoming calls and messages is to create a telephone log.
The use of influencing skills by the physician: A. Is not appropriate in interviews, since the physician's objective is to gather complete and unbiased information about the patient. B. May involve self-disclosure C. Is primarily for getting the patient to talk about sensitive subjects. D. Occurs in only certain interviews. E. Is generally reserved for patients who abuse alcohol and drugs.
B. May involve self-disclosure.
The abbreviation for tincture is ________. A. Tcc B. Tinc C. Tct D. Tcr
B. Tinc
Which of the following reasons would be legal when considering a patient's medical record? A. Allowing a patient's brother to view her chart to find out her birthdate and address, so that he can mail her a card. B. Not allowing a patient to view her own chart because the physician feels this information would be detrimental to her wellbeing. C. Not allowing a patient to view her chart because she is behind on her payments. D. All of the above are legal.
B. Not allowing a patient to view her own chart because the physician feels this information would br detrimental to her wellbeing. Physicians are not required to tell a patient certain health information if that information will potentially cause harm to that patient. For example, if a patient with very high levels of anxiety learns that she may be undergoing testing for a potentially fatal illness, she may reacr negatively by having a mental breakdown due to her anxiety.
A new patient is scheduling an appointment over the telephone with the medical assistant. This medical office uses Time Specified Scheduling. The next available appointment is 0930. What time will the medical assistant request that this patient arrive based on this information? A. Not later than 9:30 AM. B. Not later than 9:15 AM. C. Not later than 9 Clc. D. Not later than 9:45 AM.
B. Not later than 9:15 AM. This patient should be scheduled to arrive no later than 0915, so the necessary forms can be completed prior to the scheduled time to see the physician.
To comply with the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), the Physician must provide the patient with: A. Office policy and procedure manual. B. Notice of Privacy Practices. C. Current fee schedule D. Staff member credentials
B. Notice of Privacy Practices When requested by a patient, the physician must make the notice of privacy practices available to the patient. These privacy practices are posted in the medical clinic but each patient can request his/her own copy.
What is the most confidential filing system? A. Alphabetical filing B. Numerical filing C. Subject filing D. Color filing
B. Numerical filing. In the numerical filing system, patient files are given numbers and arranged in numerical system. It is the most confidential system, and expansion is unlimited.
What agency protects workers from health and safety hazards on the job in the workplace? A. CDC B. OSHA C. FBI D. WHO
B. OSHA The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is an agency of the United States Department of Labor. The mission of OSHA is to help employers and employees reduce injuries, illnesses and deaths while on the job.
Which cranial nerve is related to the sense of smell? A. Hypoglossal B. Olfactory C. Trochlear D. Vagus
B. Olfactory
When applying leads, apple V1 lead ___________. A. Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line. B. On the fourth intercostal space right sternal border. C. Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line. D. On the fifth intercostal space midclavicular line.
B. On the fourth intercostal space right sternal border.
Where should information be found regarding the disposal of old chemical products? A. By contacting the manufacturer. B. On the product sheet or side of the container. C. On the internet. D. At the local library.
B. On the product sheet or side of the container.
When a drop of blood is placed on a slide, place a second slide__________the first slide. A. Beside B. On top C. Beneath D. Vertical to
B. On top
B.F. Skinner is regarded as being the primary researcher for which learning method? A. Classical Conditioning B. Operant Conditioning C. Trial and Error D. Kinesthetic Learning Principle
B. Operant Conditioning Operant conditioning explores the relationship of obtaining a desired outcome with both rewards and punishment. B.F. Skinner is famed for using the "Skinner Box," which used a controversial method of studying operant conditioning.
An infection by microorganisms that can cause disease only when a host's resistance is low is a(n)____________________ infection. A. Endogenous B. Opportunistic C. Exogenous D. Nosocomial
B. Opportunistic
A date on a bottle of medication that provides a "use until" date is the _________________. A. Manufacturer's date B. Outdate or expiration date C. "Sell by" date D. Ingredient half-life date
B. Outdate or expiration date
Which of the following would be used to indicate someone has taken a file from the file cabinet? A. Patient chart B. Outguide C. Tickler file D. Summary form
B. Outguide
A patient receiving ambulatory care at a hospital or other health facility without being admitted as a bed patient is called a (an): A. Inpatient B. Outpatient C. Carrier D. Adjuster
B. Outpatient
If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction? A. Inward B. Outward C. Upward D. Downward
B. Outward
The ______ wave represents atrial polarization? A. S B. P C. R D. U
B. P
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Pap smear (Papanicolaou smear) and pelvic examination is: A. Pel B. P&P C. can D. Pa
B. P&P
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Physical therapy is: A. Lab B. PT C. CPE D. PP
B. PT
Which of the following is not located in the mediastinum? A. Aorta B. Pancreas C. Trachea D. Heart
B. Pancreas
A patient was brought to the clinic because of a burn on the right hand. The site has a blistered red appearance with edema. What is the classification of the patient's burn? A. Superficial B. Partial thickness C. Full thickness D. 3rd degree
B. Partial thickness Second degree burns or partial thickness burns are painful and develop blisters. The site should be immersed in cool water and a sterile dressing applied.
A 17 year old patient was brought to the office because of hematomas and bruises. The patient denies trauma and abuse. Which blood test will most likely be positive if it was a blood disorder? A. Hemoglobin B. Patial Thromboplastin time (PTT) C. Leukocyte count D. Hematocrit
B. Patial Thromboplastin time (PTT) Hematomas and bruising without a history of trauma or abuse is indicative of a bleeding disorder. Patial Thromboplastin time (PTT) is used primarily to investigate unexplained bleeding or clotting. Abnormalities in hemoglobin, hematocrit, and leukocyte do not generally result in hematomas and bruising.
A patient has come to the office for a blood draw. The patient starts to sweat and is very anxious. Which of the following would be the BEST way to proceed? A. Do not perform the procedure. Notify the physician of the reason why. B. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope. C. Allow the patient to reschedule for a time where he isn't as anxious. D. Have the physician draw the blood.
B. Perform the procedure but pay close attention for signs of potential syncope. Sweating is common occurrence with anxiety. Provided the patient is not showing signs of fainting, the phlebotomy procedure can be performed. Notify the physician if the patient does faint.
A physician asks a medical assistant to run to the store to get stickers to give to children who come into the office for medical care. How should the medical assistant pay for the stickers? A. Accounts receivable B. Petty cash C. Accounts payable D. Personal check
B. Petty cash is the cash kept within the office to cover minor purchases. This eliminates the need to write a check for minor purposes.
The study of drug action as it moves in the body: A. Pharmacodynamics B. Pharmacokinetics C. Pharmacology D. Cumulative effect
B. Pharmacokinetics As drugs move through the body, the main action terms associated with this movement include absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion.
A patient is bleeding profusely from an injury near her wrist. Which of the following first aid procedures would be MOST appropriate? A. Place a tourniquet on her arm above the injury. B. Place pressure on her brachial artery. C. Place pressure on her radial nerve. D. Cover the bleeding area with wet towels.
B. Place pressure on her brachial artery. Applying pressure to the brachial pulse point will slow the bleeding coming from the injury. Tourniquets should not be used as they could potentially inhibit blood flow to the area which could lead to necrosis of the surrounding tissue.
You are on a holiday in Puerto Vallarta, Mexico, far away from your clinical practice in Toledo, Ohio. While having a drink at the hotel bar you coincidentally encounter one of your patients, a person you find to be very attractive. The patient tells you that he/she is really attracted to you and would like to get together later for some intimate time together. In fact, they are even willing to see a different physician back home so that they can pursue something with you. The most ethical course of action for you to take is: A. Accept the invitation if you wish. B. Politely decline. C. Consult your attorney. D. Tell him/her that you must first think about it. E. It depends on how "hot" he/she is.
B. Politely decline.
What device prints postage directly onto mail pieces or labels? A. Stamper B. Postage meter C. Engraver D. Laser printer
B. Postage meter A postage meter is a mechanical device used to create and apply physical proof of mail. They are also called as postage machines or franking machines.
Holding a negative opinion or bias regarding a person because of the person's affiliation with a specific group: A. Projection B. Prejudice C. Persecute D. Prosecute
B. Prejudice Prejudice is an unfair feeling of dislike for a person or group based solely on the individual's membership in a social group. Prejudice can be based on various factors: sex, race, nationality, socio-economic status or religion.
Payment made periodically to keep an insurance policy in force is called: A. Time limit. B. Premium. C. Coinsurance. D. Fee for service.
B. Premium
According to Jean Piaget, once children aquire language, they are able to use symbols such as words or pictures to represent objects. Which stage of cognitive development is this? A. Sensorimotor B. Preoperational C. Concrete operational D. Formal operational
B. Preoperational Preoperational stage is when children begin to think symbolically and learn to use words and pictures to represent objects. They also tend to be very egocentric, and see things only from their point of view.
A patient complains that he has had chest pains for 3 months associated with dyspnea and diaphoresis. He self medicated with aspirin and antacids. Which part of the medical history should this information be placed? A. Chief complaint B. Present illness C. Past History D. Family History
B. Present illness The information presented should be placed under the Present History or the history of Present Illness. The Present history is the detailed information of the patient's chief complaint.
Products that contain live microorganisms in sufficient numbers to alter intestinal microflora and promote intestinal microbial balance are known as: A. Antibiotics B. Probiotics C. Fruits and vegetables D. Digestive enzymes
B. Probiotics Probiotics protect against harmful bacteria in the following ways: by penetrating and binding to the surfaces of harmful organisms; by stimulating the lining of the digestive tract to prevent penetration by pathogens; and by modifying immune regulation. Probiotics have been shown to relieve temporary abdominal bloating and to reduce intestinal gas.
The medical term,"diaphoresis," means: A. Profuse vomiting B. Profuse sweating C. Gasping for air D. None of the above
B. Profuse sweating Diaphoresis is a medical term meaning, "profuse sweating," and is often associated with emergency situations such as heart attacks or diabetic episodes.
In men, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and surrounds the urethra? A. Epididymis B. Prostate C. Scrotum D. Seminal vesicle E. Vas deferens
B. Prostate
The function of the leukocytes is to: A. Transport oxygen to the body. B. Protect the body against infection. C. Transport carbon dioxide from the body cells to the lungs. D. Change the fibrinogen into fibrin for blood clotting.
B. Protect the body against infection.
The primary role of caregivers in Alzheimer's disease is to: A. Educate the patient and family on the importance of proper nutrition. B. Provide comfort and safety to the patient. C. Promote activity and exercise. D. Administer antibiotics on a regular basis.
B. Provide comfort and safety to the patient.
A person or institution that gives medical care is an: A. Third party payer B. Provider C. Adjuster D. Insurance agent
B. Provider
Which of the following measures and evaluates a patient's lung capacity and volume? A. Chest X-ray B. Pulmonary function test C. Bronchoscopy D. Lung scan
B. Pulmonary function test
The procedure for taking a pulse rate on an infant differs from an adult how? A. Pulse rates are not taken on infants. B. The apical pulse method is used on infants. C. Pulse rates on infants are taken with a sphygmomanometer. D. Pulse rates on infants are taken apically in the third intercostal space.
B. The apical pulse method is used on infants. The apical pulse method is used in infants by placing a stethoscope in the fifth intercostal space, mid clavicular line and counting the beats for a full minute. This method can also be used on adults if the radial pulse method is difficult to perform.
When applying leads, apply the V1 lead? A. Directly lateral to V4 at the anterior axillary line. B. The fourth intercostal space right sternal border. C. Lateral to V5 at midaxillary line. D. Fifth intercostal space midclavicular line.
B. The fourth intercostal space right sternal border.
Medicare's new fee schedule regulating payment for all services and procedures provided by doctors is based on: A. CMS's Common Procedures Coding System. B. The geographic practice cost index (GPI) called "gypsy," which takes regional differences into account. C. Medigap, to reduce the gap in coverage. D. The fact that patients may now be billed for any services not covered by Medicare.
B. The geographic practice cost index (GPI) called "gypsy," which takes regional differences into account.
Complete the following analogy: The smaller the lumen of a needle, A. The larger the opening of the needle. B. The larger the gauge of the needle. C. The more pain that is produced from the injection. D. The more medication that can be administered at once.
B. The larger the gauge of the needle. Needle gauge is determined by the size of the lumen. The larger the size of the lumen, the smaller the gauge size. A 16 gauge needle has a larger lumen than a 21 gauge needle.
A patient's body temperature has varied over the last 24 hours from 97.6 degrees F in the morning to 99 degrees F in the evening. The patient is worried that this change in temperature may indicate the beginning of a fever. Which of the following BEST explains this phenomenon? A. The patient definitely has a fever in the evening and should be seen by a doctor. B. The patient is experiencing changes related to a diurnal rhythm. C. The patient is more than likely taking her temperature incorrectly. D. The patient is male and is experiencing changes related to fluctuating monthly hormones.
B. The patient is experiencing changes related to a Diurnal rhythm. Diurnal rhythm is the phenomenon of body temperature fluctuating depending on the time of day. Temperatures taken in the morning are typically throughout the rest of the day.
Who should correct an error in a patient's chart? A. The medical office manager B. The person who originally charted the entry C. The medical records manager D. The patient's attending physician E. The attorney for the practice
B. The person who originally charted the entry.
Who owns a patient's medical record? A. The patient. B. The physician. C. The Legal Counsel of the Office. D. No one owns a medical record.
B. The physician Physicians own their patients' medical records, but patients have the right to have copies of their records.
Korotkoff sounds are: A. Sounds noted during diastole. B. The result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken. C. Are only noted by skilled Cardiologists. D. Distinct sounds which are classified into 6 phases.
B. The result of the vibration of blood against artery walls while blood pressure readings are being taken. Korotkoff sounds are sounds generated when the blood starts to flow in an artery that has been temporarily collapsed during a blood pressure reading. There are 5 phases to the Korotkoff sounds and many different health care providers are trained to assess these phases.
Which of the following supplies the right side of the heart with blood? A. The pulmonary veins B. The superior and inferior venae cavae C. The pulmonary arteries D. The aorta
B. The superior and inferior venae cavae
Debridement is: A. A collection of pus that forms as a result of infection. B. The surgical removal of debris or dead tissue from a wound. C. A deep wound caused by a sharp object. D. The use of extreme cold to destroy unwanted tissue.
B. The surgical removal of debris or dead tissue from a wound.
"Res ipsa loquitor" refers to: A. The master is responsible. B. The thing speaks for itself. C. It is what it is. D. What comes around, goes around.
B. The thing speaks for itself. Res ipsa loquitor means "the thing speaks for itself." It is a legal presumption that a defendant acted negligently even though there may be no direct evidence of liability.
Which of the following are characteristics of prokaryotic cells? A. They are non-cellular and the nucleic acid is surrounded by a protein coat. B. They are simple-structured with a single chromosome and no organelles. C. They are highly structured and contain a nucleus. D. They are a complex cell structure and have specialized organelles in the cytoplasm.
B. They are simple-structured with a single chromosome and no organelles.
All of the following statements about omega-3 fatty acids are true EXCEPT: A. They help to maintain healthy triglycerides and high-density lipoprotein. B. They have significantly contributed to the obesity epidemic. C. They are necessary for healthy infant growth and development. D. They play an important role in the production of hormones that govern numerous metabolic and biological processes.
B. They have significantly contributed to the obesity epidemic. In addition to the above-mentioned facts, omega-3 fatty acids are necessary for the structure of cell membranes, especially in the brain and retina. The cardio-protective effects of omega-3 fatty acids relate to improvements in blood pressure, cardiac function, and arterial and vascular function as well as improved lipid metabolism, anti-platelet, and anti-inflammatory effects.
When coding using HCPCS, a code that is accompanied by a diamond symbol would indicate: A. Special instructions are provided that describe how this code should be used to be included for reimbursement. B. This code is not covered or valid with Medicare. C. There is the potential for this code not to be covered by the insurance carrier. D. The code is new.
B. This code is not covered or valid with Medicare. Codes that are accompanied by a diamond symbol indicate that the code is not recognized by Medicare and will not be reimbursed.
Microscopes used in the physician's office laboratory have _____________ objectives. A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
B. Three
Why is the Review of Systems important for the health practitioner? A. To know the reason why the patient visited the doctor. B. To uncover other health issues of the patient that were not mentioned in the other parts of the history. C. To screen cancer and genetic problems. D. To address the lifestyle of the patient.
B. To uncover other health issues of the patient that were not mentioned in the other parts of the history. The Review of Systems (ROS) is a list of signs/symptoms organized by organ systems designed to uncover underlying conditions and diseases. To address the patient as a whole, the doctor has to uncover all health issues.
A 10-year-old girl with red eyes was examined for pink eye. How is this disease transmitted? A. Staring at the eye of an infected patient. B. Touching objects or things contaminated with the virus. C. Sharing the same clothing. D. Through blood or flu.
B. Touching objects or things contaminated with the virus. Pink eye (Conjunctivitis) is a highly contagious. Most viruses that cause Conjunctivitis are spread through hand-to-eye contact by hands or objects that are contaminated with the infectious virus. Hands can become contaminated by coming in contact with infectious tears, eye discharge, fecal matter or respiratory discharges.
A drug reduces anxiety is called a(n)? A. Diuretic B. Tranquilizer C. Vaccine D. Ointment
B. Tranquilizer
Medication, when applied to a patch that is affixed to the patient's skin, is called: A. Buccal B. Transdermal C. Topical ointment D. Mantoux test
B. Transdermal patch Transdermal drug delivery is a method of applying a drug to unbroken skin. Transdermal patches are applied to a clean, dry, and hairless area of the skin.
Screening calls is important because it allows the office to _________________. A. Avoid patients who are not emergency. B. Triage patients according to priority. C. Avoid disruptions to the appointment schedule. D. Prevent walk-ins
B. Triage patients according to priority. Screening calls allows the health provider to prioritize or triage patients according to who needs care urgently from those who can wait. Emergency patients should be seen immediately and referred regardless of whether they have an appointment or not.
A patient receives Medicaid, but is also covered under Tricare. Which plan would serve as a primary payer? A. Medicaid B. Tricare C. CHAMPVA D. None of the above.
B. Tricare When a patient is covered by Tricare and another health insurance policy, Tricare is the secondary payer. However, when the second policy is Medicaid, Tricare is the primary payer.
After he finishes his shift at the Flatwoods Medical Clinic for Burned Children, Tyson volunteers his time with the local equestrian program for physically challenged children. Which of the following personal attributes is Tyson demonstrating most clearly? A. Dependability. B. True and genuine liking of other individuals. C. Resourcefulness. D. Cheerfulness.
B. True and genuine liking of other individuals. Tyson demonstrated the personal attributes of true and genuine liking of other individuals.
Which of these would be the best choice to administer an intradermal injection? A. Insulin type B. Tuberculin syringe C. Hypodermic syringe D. A closed injection system
B. Tuberculin syringe
Which of the following indicates that a medical assistant may be invading a patient's personal space? The patient: A. Leans forward towards the medical assistant. B. Turns his head away from the medical assistant. C. Steps closer to the medical assistant. D. Looks directly at the medical assistant.
B. Turns his head away from the medical assistant.
The pharmaceutical abbreviation "bid" means _____________. A. Once a day B. Twice a day C. Once a week D. Twice a week
B. Twice a day
Ideally, every doctor in a medical office has how many examination rooms for their exclusive use? A. One B. Two C. Four D. Six
B. Two
A chronic disease in which the pancreas fails to secrete enough insulin is called ________________. A. High Blood Pressure B. Type 1 diabetes C. Pancreatitis D. Type 2 diabetes
B. Type 1 diabetes
A physician submitted a bill for surgery when he actually just treated an abrasion. This practice is referred to as: A. Phantom billing B. Upcoding C. Unbundling D. Split billing
B. Upcoding This practice is referred to as "upcoding." Upcoding is a scheme to bill the insurance company for a higher price rate procedure.
A narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue is called __________________. A. Cystitis B. Urethral Stricture C. Chronic Renal Failure D. Pyelonephritis
B. Urethral Stricture
A cystoscope is most commonly used by a specialist in: A. Endocrinology B. Urology C. Gynecology D. Gastroenterology
B. Urology
All of the following are rules to be followed whencharting, EXCEPT: A. Chart in black ink. B. Use of correction fluid C. Write in legible handwriting. D. If it was not charted, it was not done.
B. Use of correction fluid. Corrections are done by the following steps: draw a single line through the error, write the initials of the person correcting the error, write the date when the correction was made, and write the correct information. Corrections should never be covered by correction fluid.
Expendable items are items that are: A. Able to be thrown away. B. Used and must be restocked. C. Used indefinitely. D. Restored and reused.
B. Used and must be restocked.
FICA is: A. Collected by the state to pay for insurance. B. Used to pay for Social Security and Medicare. C. Is voluntary. D. All of the above.
B. Used to pay for Social Security and Medicare. FICA stands for Federal Insurance Contribution Act. FICA is collected and used by the Federal Government to pay for Social Security and Medicare.
Non-Verbal Communication is: A. Not the most utilized form of communication. B. Uses facial expression and body language to send messages. C. Most often used when sending messages over email or telephone. D. An ineffective manner of communication.
B. Uses facial expressions and body language to send messages. Non-verbal communication involves communication that is given by body language. Most messages are sent between sender and receiver using non-verbal communication.
Which of the following would you include in teaching a female patient how to collect a clean-catch midstream urine specimen? A. Remove the lid of the specimen container, and place the lid facing down a flat surface. B. Wipe down one side of the perineal area with the first towelette, and down the middle with the third towelette. C. Void directly into the specimen container without discarding any urine. D. Keep the urine specimen warm until bringing it to the physician's office.
B. Wipe down one side of the perineal area with the first towelette, and down the middle with the third towelette.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Referral is: A. SOB B. ref C. PMS D. P&P
B. ref
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Recheck is: A. Rx B. reü C. GI D. NP
B. reü
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Sigmoidoscopy is: A. pt B. sig C. SGS D. PT
B. sig
Examples of Tort:
Battery, invasion of privacy, and defamation of character.
Where do all blood cells originate?
Bone marrow
What is a winged infusion set?
Butterfly needle
If a doctor's order calls for the administration of 500 mg of medication, how many grams should be given? A. 500 B. 50 C. 0.5 D. 5
C. 0.5 One gram is equal to 1000 milligrams. Giving 500 milligrams of medication would equate to 0.5 grams of the same medication.
You have 500 mg scored tablets of a drug on hand and the doctor tells you to give 250 mg. How much would you give? A. 1 tablet B. 2 tablets C. 0.5 tablet D. 2.5 tablets
C. 0.5 tablet
One gigabyte (GB) is approximately how many bytes? A. 1024 bytes B. 1 million bytes C. 1 billion bytes D. 1 trillion bytes
C. 1 billion bytes One gigabyte is approximately 1 billion bytes. One kilobyte is 1024 bytes, 1 megabyte is 1 million bytes, and one terabyte is 1 trillion bytes.
Which of the following is the metric equivalent to 0.001 liter (L) ? A. 1 kiloliter (kl) B. 1 pint (pt) C. 1 milliliter (ml) D. 15 minums (min)
C. 1 milliliter (ml)
Which of the following is a correct comparison of a measurement in the metric system to an equivalent in the apothecaries' system ? A. 4 qt = 1 gal B. 60 min = 1 fl dr C. 1 ml = 15-16 min D. 60 gr = 1 dr
C. 1 ml = 15-16 min
How many organ systems are in the human body? A. 4 B. 7 C. 11 D. 13
C. 11 There are 11 organ systems in the human body.
In the U.S., the personal space used in public is: A. 1 to 4 feet B. 4 to 12 feet C. 12 to 15 feet D. Up to 2 feet
C. 12 to 15 feet In the U.S., personal space in public is 12 to 15 feet. Intimate is touching to 1.5 feet. Social is 4 to 12 feet.
If a medication order states that 300 mg of medication are to be given q.i.d. for 10 days, how many total milligrams of medication will be given over those 10 days? A. 3,000 mg B. 9,000 mg C. 12,000 mg D. None of the above.
C. 12,000 mg The abbreviation q.i.d. means four times a day. Three hundred milligrams times four times per day times 10 days is equal to 12,000 mg.
A doctor orders 500 mg of medication. Available in stock are one gram tablets. How many tablets should be given to the patient? A. 1 tablet B. 2 tablet C. 1½ tablet D. ¾ tablet
C. 1½ tablet The first step is to convert milligrams to grams. It takes one thousand milligrams to make one gram, so divide 500 by 1,000. The result is 0.500 grams. 0.5 grams is one half of 1 gram. Therefore, one half of a tablet should be given.
The physician has ordered 500 mg. of a medication the amount on hand is 250 mg per tablet. How many tablets will be given? A. 0.5 tab B. 1 tab C. 2 tab D. 2.5 tab
C. 2 tab
A doctor orders 50 mg of a medication. The available dose is 5mg/2ml. How much medication should be given to the patient? A. 20 mg B. 5 ml C. 20 mL D. 10 mL
C. 20 mL The patient should be given 20 milliliters of the medication as each milliliters contains 2.5 mg of medication.
A patient is morbidly obese. Which of the following needles would be best to give an IM injection in the deltoid? A. 25 gauge ⅝ inch B. 27 gauge ½ inch C. 21 gauge 1½ inches D. 16 gauge 3 inches
C. 21 gauge 1½ inches Medications that are to be administered by the intramuscular method are intended to be delivered to muscle tissue. Patients whom are obese will have a larger area of subcutaneous tissue covering the muscles. Using a longer needle will ensure the medication is delivered in the proper area. However, a needle that is too long could damage bones, nerves, and other anatomical structures.
In the chain of infection, the susceptible host: A. Is one that has been effectively immunized against the infectious agent. B. Is not capable of supporting the growth of an infectious agent. C. Can reduce the chances of being infected by living a healthy lifestyle and using proper hand washing techniques. D. Will not benefit from practicing aseptic techniques.
C. Can reduce the chances of being infected by living a healthy lifestyle and using proper hand washing techniques. A successful host is one that is capable of being infected with an infectious organism and supporting that organism's growth. Hand washing and aseptic techniques can help to reduce the spread of infectious agents. Being immunized against an infectious agent greatly reduces the risk of contracting an infectious agent and succumbing to that agent's disease.
The substance in the body that is needed for energy: A. Protein B. Fat C. Carbohydrates D. Minerals
C. Carbohydrates Glucose is the main fuel of the body. Glucose makes up carbohydrates. Carbohydrates are the most important source of energy for our body.
What does CDC stand for? A. Community Development Council B. Communicable Disease Center C. Centers for Disease Control D. Central Data Center
C. Centers for Disease Control CDC refers to Centers for Disease Control. CDC protects people from health threats by conducting research and disseminating health information about the disease.
Which of the following is a generic drug name? A. Biocef B. Keflex C. Cephalexin
C. Cephalexin
A physician has requested that a letter notifying his patient that he can no longer care for her due to her multiple no-shows would be best sent: A. Insured B. Parcel Post C. Certified D. COD
C. Certified Sending a letter by certified mail will require a signature for the letter which can be used as proof that the letter reached its intended destination.
Patient medical records are sometimes called: A. Patient history B. Documents C. Charts D. Patient information
C. Charts Patient medical records are sometimes called charts.
All of the following are potentially modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis, EXCEPT: A. Anorexia nervosa B. Chronically low intake of calcium and vitamin D. C. Chronically low intake of vitamins C and B6. D. Excessive alcohol consumption.
C. Chronically low intake of vitamins C and B6. Long-term inadequate intake of calcium is associated with low bone mass, rapid bone loss, and high risk of fracture. In addition to the above-mentioned risk factors, chronic use of glucocorticoids, some anti-convulsants, inactivity, smoking, and changes in sex hormones such as amenorrhea, menopause, and low testosterone may increase the risk for osteoporosis.
When interviewing a patient, an effective technique that the medical assistant can use is: A. Rationalizing B. Stereotyping C. Clarifying D. Probing
C. Clarifying Clarifying demonstrates the desire to understand what the patient is communicating. The other choices are ineffective techniques.
Clarissa Martin has just had a first job interview after graduating from a medical assisting degree program. What would be the appropriate follow-up Carissa should take after the interview? A. Clarissa should call the person who interviewed herin two days and ask if she got the job. B. Clarissa should call the person who interviewed her the next week and ask for a second interview. C. Clarissa should send a handwritten thank- you note to the person who conducted the interview. D. Clarissa should send copies of her reference letters to Human Resources office the week after the interview.
C. Clarissa should send a handwritten thank-you note to the person who conducted the interview. A handwritten thank-you note displays courtesy and professionalism. This will help Carissa create an added positive impression.
The leading source of antioxidants in the U.S. diet is: A. Citrus fruits B. Spinach C. Coffee D. Egg yolks
C. Coffee Because most Americans do not consume the recommended number of servings of fruits and vegetables each day, coffee is the leading source of antioxidants in America's diets. It is not because coffee is especially high in antioxidants, but because Americans drink so much of it. Their morning coffee gives Americans nearly 1,300 mg daily of antioxidants in the form of polyphenols.
Which of the following are used when there is a need to distinguish files within a filing system? A. Out guides B. File guides C. Color coding D. File sorters
C. Color coding
A large pediatrician office commonly must "squeeze" patients in that have become ill, so this new office plans to offer immunizations only twice per week. Which scheduling system(s) would you recommend for this medical practice? A. Cluster scheduling. B. Wave scheduling. C. Combination scheduling consisting of cluster and a form of wave scheduling. D. None of the above.
C. Combination scheduling consisting of cluster and a form of wave scheduling. Combination scheduling consisting of cluster and a form of wave scheduling would be recommended to allow for the needed flexibility.
The core values of the IAAP include integrity, respect, adaptability, communications and ________________. A. Courage B. Dependability C. Commitment D. Cooperation
C. Commitment The core values of the IAAP include integrity, respect, adaptability, communication, and commitment.
The "Write it Once" system is used in some offices as an alternative to: A. Computerized scheduling systems B. Hospital referral services C. Computerized bookkeeping D. Medical resource allocation
C. Computerized bookkeeping "Write it Once" systems are sometimes referred to as "Pegboard" systems where financial information is written once but recorded in three different places.
The "Write it Once" system is used in some offices as an alternative to: A. Computerized scheduling systems. B. Hospital referral services. C. Computerized bookkeeping. D. Medical resource allocation.
C. Computerized bookkeeping. "Write it once" systems are sometimes referred to as Pegboard systems where financial information is written once but recorded in three different places.
The doctor ordered the medical assistant to apply RICE to the patient with a sprain. Which of the following is NOT a RICE application? A. Rest the injured part. B. Put ice on the affected areas. C. Conditioning D. Elevate the affected area.
C. Conditioning A sprain is a stretch or a tear of a ligament. Application of "RICE" is appropriate for sprains. RICE refers to Rest, Ice, Compress and Elevate. From the choices, conditioning is not part of RICE.
All of the following statements about Vitamin B3 (niacin): A. It helps to release energy in carbohydrates, fat, and protein. B. It improves blood lipid levels. C. Deficiency causes Beri-beri. D. It is involved in the synthesis of sex hormones.
C. Deficiency causes Beri-beri. In addition to the above-mentioned actions, Vitamin B3, also known as niacin or nicotinic acid, is a water-soluble vitamin that is necessary for cell respiration and supports the circulation, skin, nervous system, and secretion of bile. Insufficient niacin intake is associated with symptoms such as canker sores, depression, fatigue, indigestion, weakness, skin problems, and inflammation. Chronic niacin deficiency is called pellagra.
A physician may assess turgor when: A. Iron deficiency is suspected. B. Heart and lung issues are suspected. C. Dehydration is suspected. D. None of the above.
C. Dehydration is suspected. Skin turgor is assessed when dehydration is expected. The skin is slightly pinched and the amount of time that the skin takes to re-assume the normal position is related to a patient's level of hydration. The longer the skin stays folded in the pinched position, the better the chance the patient is dehydrated.
A patient who refuses to believe a terminal diagnosis is exhibiting: A. Regression B. Mourning C. Denial D. Rationalization
C. Denial Denial is a defense mechanism that allows a patient the ability to avoid negative emotions that result from an unacceptable reality.
Which stage of grief is exhibited in the following scenario: A patient has reported that after the loss of his spouse, he has been having difficulty sleeping and has been agitated. He doesn't have the motivation to complete day to day tasks. A. Denial B. Anger C. Depression D. Acceptance
C. Depression Depression is one of the Stages of Grief theorized by Elizabeth Kübler Ross. A loss of motivation, feelings of anxiety and sadness, and a difficulty coping with day to day activities are all signs of depression.
The following symbol (*): A. Is used in the ICD-10 book to designate additional diagnoses. B. Is found in the CPT book to designate revised guidelines for code use. C. Designates variable pre and postoperative services. D. None of the above.
C. Designates variable pre and postoperative services. -Symbols used in the CPT coding manual are used to add additional information to procedural codes. The asterisk is used to note that services used with a particular code vary between pre- and postoperative services.
A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with confusion and severe thirst. He is a known diabetic. He mentions that he ran out of insulin 3 days ago. His blood sugar is elevated at 450 mg/dL, and his urinalysis showed ketones. What is the most likely diagnosis of the patient? A. Hyperglycemia B. Shock C. Diabetic Ketoacidosis D. Diabetes insipidus
C. Diabetic Ketoacidosis Diabetic Ketoacidosis or DKA is a severe diabetic complication that occurs when the body produces high levels of ketones in response to lack of enough insulin. Without insulin, glucose builds up in the blood. Since the body is unable to utilize sugar for energy, it breaks down fat instead. When this occurs, ketones are produced as an alternative source of fuel.
Which of the following are examples of plant-derived drugs? A. Potassium chloride and mineral oil. B. Thyroid hormone and insulin. C. Digitoxin and quinine. D. Cephalosporin and penicillin.
C. Digitoxin and quinine
The vaccine DTaP refers to: A. Diphtheria, Tuberculosis, Pertussis vaccine. B. Diabetes, Tetanus, Pneumonia. C. Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine. D. Diabetes, Tuberculosis, Pneumonia vaccine.
C. Diphtheria, Tetanus, Pertussis vaccine (DTaP). The DTaP vaccine protects the child against three diseases: Diphtheria, Tetanus, and Pertussis. Children should get 5 doses before age 7. These doses are administered at ages 2, 4, 6, and 15-18 months, and 4-6 years of age. The 4th dose may be given as early as 12 months of age.
Ventricular depolarization produces an electrical force or vector with 2 components: (1) magnitude or force, and (2) ___________________. A. Amplitude B. Ground electrode C. Direction or shape D. Polarization
C. Direction or shape
When you have finished using a reagent, you should ____________. A. Refrigerate it for future use. B. Pour it back in the bottle. C. Discard it. D. Incubate it.
C. Discard it.
The appropriate way to dispose of used needles to prevent the spread of AIDS/HIV infection is to: A. Recap needles. B. Lay them on a counter until they can be disposed of. C. Dispose of needles in a puncture-proof, biohazardous waste container. D. Break off needles.
C. Dispose of needles in a puncture-proof, biohazard waste container.
If a patient is choking and cannot speak or breathe, what should be done? A. Give the patient water to push the obstruction. B. Give chest compressions. C. Do the Heimlich maneuver. D. Begin CPR.
C. Do the Heimlich maneuver. If the patient cannot speak, cough or breathe, performing the Heimlich maneuver is the next best step. If the person is sitting or standing, stand behind him or her. Form a fist with one hand and place your fist, thumb side in, just below the person's rib cage in the front. Grab your fist with your other hand. Give quick inward and upward thrusts.
When an appointment is canceled by a patient, the medical assistant should: A. Educate the patient B. Tell the patient the doctor will call for a rescheduling. C. Document the cancellation and contact the patient for rescheduling. D. Wait for the patient to reschedule.
C. Document the cancellation and contact the patient for rescheduling. The proper procedure when a patient cancels or does not show up is to call the patient for rescheduling and document the missed appointment.
Which of the following telephone greetings would be BEST? A. Hello, Dr. Smith's office, please hold. B. Dr. Smith's office, How may I assist you? C. Dr. Smith's office, This is Mary. How may I assist you? D. Dr. Smith's office. This is Mary.
C. Dr. Smith's office, This is Mary. How may I assist you? To politely answer a telephone in a professional atmosphere, the receiver should respond by giving the name of the business, the name of the receiver, and an offer of assistance.
Which of the following is considered an abnormal lab result? A. WBC 10,000/ mm cubed B. Hct 50% C. ESR 22 mm/hour D. All of the above are normal.
C. ESR 22 mm/hour Normal values for ESR are 0-10mm/hr for men and 0-20 mm/hr for women.
Anything that distorts the message in anyway or interferes with the communication process is called: A. Timing B. Body language C. Noise D. Rapport
C. Noise
Elizabeth Kübler-Ross is known for developing the Stages of Grief. Which of the following is true of these stages? A. All patients will go through all five Stages of Grief. B. Each patient will go through the Stages of Grief in the same order, but not necessarily in the same amount of time. C. Each patient who goes through the grieving process will experience some or all of the Stages of Grief in varying amounts of time. D. The Stages of Grief are an antiquated method of psychology and are not recognized in current practice.
C. Each patient who goes through the grieving process will experience some or all of the Stages of Grief in varying amounts of time.
Elizabeth Kubler-Ross is known for developing the Stages of Grief. Which of the following is true of these stages? A. All patients will go through all five stages of grief. B. Each patient will go through the stages of grief in the same order, but not necessarily in the same amount of time. C. Each patient who goes through the grieving process will experience some or all of the Stages of Grief in varying amounts of time. D. The Stages of Grief are an antiquated method of psychology and are not recognized in current practice.
C. Each patient who goes through the grieving process will experience some or all of the Stages of Grief in varying amounts of time. The Stages of Grief are different for each person experiencing loss. The time spent in each stage and the order of the stages can differ greatly between those coping with loss.
When managing office supplies, the ability to produce the desired result with the least effort, expense, and waste is: A. Expedience B. Management C. Efficiency D. Productivity
C. Efficiency
Which of the following is NOT considered verbal communication? A. Telephone call B. Radio advertisement C. Email correspondence D. Talking face-to-face
C. Email correspondence Email correspondence is an example of a written communication. Telephone, television and face to face communication all uses verbal communication.
The developing organism is most vulnerable to the effects of teratogens during the period of the: A. Ovum B. Zygote C. Embryo D. Neonate
C. Embryo
"Where would you like to begin?" is an example of which method of collecting patient data. A. Challenging the patient. B. Asking hypothetical questions. C. Encouraging the patient to take the lead. D. Asking open-ended questions.
C. Encouraging the patient to take the lead.
Which of the following locations offers the most protection to confidential communications? A. Waiting room B. Reception area C. Examination room D. Cafeteria
C. Examination room Confidentiality is one of the core duties in the practice of medicine. It requires health care providers to keep health information private unless there is consent to release the information. Discussing patient information is not recommended in public places such as waiting rooms, reception areas and cafeteria. The examination area is a recommended area to discuss patient information.
Which of the following are documents prepared by the insurance carrier that identifies the services covered by the policy, the amount billed by the provider, the amount paid by the insurance carrier and the amount for which the insured is responsible? A. Certificate of coverage B. Contingent beneficiary C. Explanation of benefits D. Coordination of benefits
C. Explanation of benefits The explanation of benefits explains the following to the patient: the services covered by the policy, the amount billed by the provider, the amount paid by the insurance carrier and the amount for which the insured is responsible.
A document from an insurance carrier that tells the patient and the provider how the amount of the benefit was determined is the __________________________. A. Utilization Review B. Basic medical C. Explanation of benefits (EOB) D. Peer Review
C. Explanation of benefits (EOB). The Explanation of Benefits or EOB is sent to the patient and to the provider, detailing how the benefit was determined based on the patient's particular health care plan.
When delivery of mail is guaranteed the following next day, the mail classification is: A. Priority mail B. Registered mail C. Express mail D. Certified mail
C. Express mail Express mail is a premium service which is requested when a next day delivery is warranted. It can be used for letters, documents or other shipments.
The keyboard key that enters and exits the full screen mode: A. F9 B. F10 C. F11 D. F12
C. F11 The F11 key enters and exits the full screen mode. Function keys are abbreviated on the keyboard as F1 to F12. Function keys can be combined with the ALT or CTRL key for special functions.
Serious crimes such as homicide, rape, and arson fall into what classification? A. Misdemeanor B. Infraction C. Felony D. Heinous
C. Felony A felony is a serious crime punishable by a term in state or federal prison of more than one year. In contrast, a misdemeanor is only punishable by confinement to county or local jail for less than one year and/or the imposition of a fine.
To prevent intruders from accessing computer networks, which of the following is used? A. Server B. Scanner C. Firewall D. Database
C. Firewall A firewall is a software program that helps screen out hackers, viruses, and malwares that try to access computers over the internet. Firewalls can be installed in both hardware and software, or both.
Which mail classification includes cards, letters, and parcels that weigh 13 ounces or less? A. Priority mail B. Standard mail C. First class mail D. Periodicals mail
C. First class mail First class mail includes cards, letters and parcels that weigh 13 ounces or less. It also includes: handwritten or typewritten material, bills, statements of accounts or invoices, credit cards, personal correspondence and all matter sealed or otherwise closed against inspection.
Portable Universal Serial Bus Drives are also known as: A. Floppy drives B. CD drives C. Flash drives D. None of the above
C. Flash drives. USB drives are also known as Flash Drives and are portable memory storage units.
Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the body? A. Abduction B. Eversion C. Flexion D. Pronation E. Supination
C. Flexion
The abbreviation "s.o.s" means: A. At night B. Immediately C. If necessary D. By mouth
C. If necessary In prescription writing, s.o.s means "if necessary." Stat means "immediately", h.s. means "at night" and p.o. means "by mouth."
A medical assistant realizes after a patient has left the office that she forgot to put the patient's complaint of a sore throat. Which of the following choices would BEST correct her error? A. Pull out that page of the chart and rewrite it with the correct information. B. Put one line through the original Chief Complaint, write "ERROR", your initials and today's date. Make the correction by rewriting the CC with the correct information. C. Go to the next available line of the SOAP notes. Write the current date, then, "Late Entry." Place the date and time when the patient stated she had a sore throat. Sign and date the entry. D. All of the above are incorrect.
C. Go to the next available line of the SOAP notes. Write the current date, then, "Late Entry." Place the date and time when the patient stated she had a sore throat. Sign and date the entry. When placing additional information into a patient's chart, using the phrase, "Late Entry," will alert the reader that the information was added after the fact and will reduce discrepancies that may result from confusion.
Laws that are intended to reduce bystanders' hesitation to assist, for fear of being sued or prosecuted for unintentional injury or wrongful death: A. Estate Law B. Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) C. Good Samaritan Law D. Constitutional Law
C. Good Samaritan Law Good Samaritan laws are laws or acts protecting those who choose to serve to others who are injured or ill. They are intended to reduce bystanders' hesitation to assist, for fear of being sued or prosecuted for unintentional injury or wrongful death.
A common fracture found in children that exhibits a bending of the bone with a partial break is a: A. Compound fracture B. Comminuted fracture C. Greenstick fracture D. Colles' fracture
C. Greenstick fracture Greenstick fractures are the result of a bone bending and partially breaking just as a green stick from a tree would exhibit if one was to try to break it in half.
Which is the following is the term for abnormally large breasts in men? A. Gynander B. Gynecomania C. Gynecomastia D. Gynephobia E. Gyno Plastics
C. Gynecomastia
Aspirin: A. Can be safely given to infants and children. B. Is taken by patients daily in high dose form to prevent heart attacks. C. Has a side effect of being an anticoagulant. D. All of the above.
C. Has a side effect of being an anticoagulant. Aspirin therapy is an often prescribed mechanism for thinning the blood and preventing heart attacks. Daily dose formulations can be purchased over the counter in low-dose capsules or tablets.
The most effective way to prepare a schedule matrix is to: A. Schedule patients as walk-ins from 9-5, notifying the doctor when to be present in the office. B. Create a matrix for each appointment type, i.e. one for GI visits, one for OB visits. etc. C. Have the doctors provide you with their schedules and block out times they are unavailable. D. Schedule matrices that are antiquated and are no longer used with electronic systems.
C. Have the doctors provide you with their schedules and block out times they are unavailable. The first step in forming a schedule matrix is to gather the work schedules of all of the doctors in the practice. For times that the physician are unavailable, block out those times so that patients cannot be scheduled.
Which classification of drugs would be used to treat the anemia related to AZT therapy? A. Antiviral B. Antibacterial C. Hematinic D. Folic acid antagonist
C. Hematinic
A diabetic patient denies that she is not compliant with her medications. Her blood sugar is elevated. What test should be done to determine the patient's average blood sugar for the past 3 months? A. Fasting blood sugar B. Random blood sugar C. Hemoglobin A1C D. Postprandial sugar
C. Hemoglobin A1C Hemoglogin A1C test is used to monitor treatment compliance in a diabetic patient. It measures the average blood sugar level of the patient for the past 3 months.
The classification of drugs that prevent or stop the patient from further bleeding are: A. Anticoagulants B. Diuretics C. Hemostatics D. Antiarrhythmics
C. Hemostatics Hemostatics are drugs that prevent or stop the patient from further bleeding. Hemostasis is achieved through 3 mechanisms that work together to stop the flow of blood: vasoconstriction, platelet plug formation, and clotting of blood.
Inflammation of a sweat gland is known as which of the following terms? A. Colitis B. Fasciitis C. Hidradenitis D. Pimelitis E. Rhinitis
C. Hidradenitis
Which of the following would be an inappropriate and potentially unlawful interview question? A. Where do you see yourself in 5 years? B. Do you have any commitments outside of work that would hinder your ability to be a high-performer? C. How do your children feel about your decision to work here? D. If you could pick any color, which would it be?
C. How do your children feel about your decision to work here? Interview questions which focus on a person's religious affiliation, marital status, or number of children are unlawful and cannot be legally asked during an interview.
Which disease frequently leads to adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATLL)? A. Erythema infectiosum B. Cytomegalovirus C. Human T-cell lymphotropic virus D. Syphilis
C. Human T-cell lymphocytes virus
A numerical label assigned to each computer participating in a computer network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication: A. HTTP address B. URL address C. IP address D. Domain name
C. IP address IP address is a number label assigned to computers in a network that uses the Internet Protocol for communication. Every computer has a unique identifier called the IP address.
The generic name of both Advil and Motrin is: A. Acetaminophen B. Naproxen C. Ibuprofen D. Amoxicillin
C. Ibuprofen Ibuprofen is the generic name of both Advil and Motrin. Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). It works by reducing hormones that cause inflammation and pain in the body.
In scheduling procedures, the chief complaint of the patient assists the medical assistant in the following, EXCEPT: A. Identify the reason for the consult. B. Identify the urgency of the patient visit. C. Identify the diagnosis of the patient. D. Identify if the facility is equipped to handle the patient visit.
C. Identify the diagnosis of the patient. The chief complaint does not identify the diagnosis. It is the main reason for the visit. It can assess the urgency of the visit and the capability of the facility to attend to the patient.
Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine? A. Ascending colon B. Cecum C. Ileum D. Sigmoid colon E. Transverse colon
C. Ileum
A patient is anxious and begins hyperventilating. His hands and lips start to feel numb and tingly, and he feels lightheaded. What is the physiological cause of his symptoms? A. Excess carbon dioxide in the blood. B. Excess oxygen in the blood. C. Lack of carbon dioxide in the blood. D. Lack of oxygen in the blood.
C. Lack of carbon dioxide in the blood. Hyperventilation refers to a patient breathing more quickly than normal. This rapid rate of ventilation results in carbon dioxide being exhaled at a higher rate than normal. This can result in metabolic alkalosis, meaning that the pH of the blood is abnormally elevated. The symptoms that may accompany Hyperventilation are related to the metabolic alkalosis that develops. The patient should be reassured in a calm manner to reduce anxiety. Have the patient sit down and instruct him to take slow, deep breaths.
A sigmoidoscopy is performed to examine the: A. Small intestine B. Rectum C. Large intestine D. Lungs
C. Large intestine The sigmoid is the last part of the large intestine. Sigmoidoscopy is the visual examination of the last part of the colon.
When communicating with a patient who cannot speak or understand English,: A. Insist the patient learn English. B. Speak to the patient using appropriate medical terminology. C. Learn some basic phrases in the patient's native language. D. Write down instructions for the patient.
C. Learn some basic phrases in the patient's native language.
The combination of sensors or electrodes used for lead #1 is? A. Right arm, left leg B. Right arm, right leg C. Left arm, right arm D. Left arm, left leg
C. Left arm, right arm
Which of the following helps the eye focus images on objects that are near or far away? A. Sclera B. Cornea C. Lens D. Choroid
C. Lens
A patient was brought to the emergency room because of sudden sharp pain and swelling of the big toe. The patient has a history of gout. What is the recommended diet for this patient? A. Low salt B. Low sugar C. Less meat D. High fiber
C. Less meat Gout is one of the most painful types of arthritis. It occurs when too much uric acid accumulates in the body. The increase in uric acid leads to crystal deposits in joints, often in the big toe, under the skin, or uric acid stones in the kidney. Recommended diet is to limit intake of foods high in purines, such as red meat, organ meats and limiting alcoholic beverages.
The debt obligation of a business: A. Accounts receivable B. Equity C. Liability D. Asset
C. Liability A liability is the debt obligation of a business. It includes accounts payable and debts.
A false or malicious writing against another person: A. Fraud B. Slander C. Libel D. Battery
C. Libel Libel is a intentional tort that is a false or malicious writing against another person. It is a method of defamation expressed by print, writing, or any communication used in physical form that is injurious to a person's reputation, exposes a person to public hatred, ridicule, or damages a persons reputation in his/her business or profession.
When PVC's fall on the T wave, occur in pairs, runs of 3 or more, or are multiform in nature, these conditions are called? A. Fused B. Multiform C. Life-threatening D. Uniform
C. Life-threatening
The essentially fatty acids that must be derived from the diet are: A. Stearidonic acid and eicosatetraenoic acid. B. Eicosatetraenoic acid and docosapentaenoic acid. C. Linoleic and alpha-linoleic acid D. Gamma-linoleic acid and arachidonic acid.
C. Linoleic and alpha-linoleic acid. Although essentially fatty acids are required for human metabolism, the body does not produce linoleic acid ( LA or -6 or omega-6) and alpha-linoleic acid ( LNA or -3 or omega-3), and they must be derived from the diet. Also known as polyunsaturated fatty acids ( PUFAs), Omega-3 and Omega-6 fatty acids play a vital role in brain function as well as normal growth and development.
Which of the following organs removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen? A. Gallbladder B. Kidney C. Liver D. Spleen E. Stomach
C. Liver
Which of the following is TRUE of local anesthesia? A. Infiltration is the injection of anesthesia into major nerves. B. A nerve block involves topical anesthesia being sprayed onto the skin. C. Local anesthesia can facilitate an anaphylactic reaction. D. Topical anesthesia is an injection into the skin of anesthesia.
C. Local anesthesia can facilitate an anaphylactic reaction. Local anesthesia can be administered by infiltration, nerve block, or topical application and before it is administered you should ask the patient about allergies and previous reactions. Anaphylactic reactions can occur and emergency supplies should be available. Nerve block is the injection of anesthesia into the major nerves. Topical application involves topical anesthesia being sprayed onto the skin. Infiltration is an injection into the skin of anesthesia.
Which of the following are non-granular leukocytes that produce antibodies to combat specific pathogens? A. Eosinophils. B. Neutrophils. C. Lymphocytes. D. Basophils.
C. Lymphocytes
Which of the following is NOT used to clean the site for a blood culture specimen? A. Iodine B. Surgical soap C. Lysol D. Alcohol
C. Lysol Lysol is not used to clean sites for blood culture. Lysol is a disinfectant that is used for inanimate objects and not on living tissues.
When placing a patient on the weighing scale, the medical assistant should: A. Ask the patient to remove all clothing. B. Ask the patient to face away from the scale. C. Make sure that the scale is calibrated and balanced before actually weighing the patient. D. All of the above
C. Make sure that the scale is calibrated and balanced before actually weighing the patient. Before weighing the patient, the medical assistant should check first if the weighing scale is calibrated and balanced to prevent false readings. The rest of the choices are not required in weighing the patient.
Negligence by a professional person is called? A. Statue of limitations B. Battery C. Malpractice D. Statue of limitations
C. Malpractice
A numeric filing system: A. Is not used when patient confidentiality is especially important. B. Organizes records according to the patient's last name. C. May include numbers that indicate where in the filing system a file can be found. D. Is the only practical system for a large practice.
C. May include numbers that indicate where in the filing system a file can be found.
A stress test: A. Is an x-ray examination of an artery after injection of a contrast medium. B. Examines the structure and function of the heart through the use of reflected sound waves. C. Measures the patient's response to an increasing workload on the heart by recording an ECG while the patient exercises on a stationary bike, treadmill, or stair-stepping ergometer. D. Is performed by inserting a catheter into a vein or artery in the right or left arm or leg and passed through the blood vessels into the heart.
C. Measures the patient's response to an increasing workload on the heart by recording an ECG while the patient exercises on a stationary bike, treadmill, or stair-stepping ergometer.
Which hormone is produced by the pineal gland? A. Insulin B. Testosterone C. Melatonin D. Epinephrine
C. Melatonin Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland. One of the primary functions of Melatonin is regulation of the Circadian Rhythm System cycle, which is the rhythm of sleep and wakefulness. Insulin helps regulate the amount of glucose in the blood. Without insulin, the body is unable to convert blood sugar into energy. Testosterone is the main hormone produced by the testes; it is responsible for the development of adult male sex characteristics. Epinephrine, also known as adrenaline, performs a number of functions, including quickening and strengthening of the heartbeat and dilation of the bronchioles. Epinephrine is one of the hormones secreted when the body senses danger.
Which of the following programs would be best suited for making a patient database? A. Microsoft Word B. Microsoft Excel C. Microsoft Access D. Microsoft PowerPoint
C. Microsoft Access Microsoft Access is a commonly used software program for developing databases. While Excel is useful for spreadsheet applications, Access allows for more cross-referencing of information.
Which of the following are natural, inorganic substances the body needs to help build and maintain body tissues and carry on life functions? A. Vitamins B. Fiber C. Minerals D. Carbohydrates
C. Minerals
Schedule IV drugs include ___________________. A. Includes various narcotics such as opium. B. Substances that have no accepted medical use & a high potential for abuse. C. Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse. D. No correct answer
C. Minor tranquilizers and hypnotics that have a lesser potential for abuse.
Criminal offenses that are punishable by up to a year in jail: A. Felony B. Infraction C. Misdemeanor D. Summary offense
C. Misdemeanor Misdemeanors are criminal offenses that are punishable by up to a year in jail. Punishment for misdemeanors can also include payment of a fine, probation, community service and restitution.
Anxiety over performance can positively motivate school achievement in children as long as the degree of anxiety is: A. Very high B. High C. Moderate D. Low E. Very low
C. Moderate
Which of the following is NOT recommended when assessing emergency cases? A. Call 911 B. Use the ABC method to assess the patient. C. Move the patient and transfer to a chair or bed. D. Look for alert tags.
C. Move the patient and transfer to a chair or bed. In evaluating emergency cases, unless the patient is in harm's way, do not move the patient. The patient can have a spinal cord injury and moving the patient can inflict more damage to the patient.
A patient is having a grand mal seizure. Which of the following would be appropriate when performing firt aid? A. Place a tongue depression in the patient's mouth so he does not swallow just tongue. B. Restrain the patient in the even is his trashing movements cause harm himself. himself. C. Move the patient to an open area where he will be less likely to harm himself while convulsing. D. Shake the patient until be comes responsive.
C. Move the patient to an open area where he will be less likely to harm himself while convulsing. Patient's having seizures may or may not convulse and have thrashing movements. Those that are convulsing and thrashing should be moved to an open area where they can remain safe until the seizure subsides. Never place anything into a patients mouth. Swallowing the tongue is anatomically impossible.
Which procedure is diagnostic for irregularities or compressions of the spinal cord? A. Retrograde pyelogram B. Ultrasound C. Myelography D. Mammography
C. Myelography
A 56 year old man was brought to the emergency room because of chest pain. An ECG was done and a heart attack was ruled out. Angiography was done and the results showed 40 percent block in his coronary arteries. This condition is called: A. Myocardial Infarction B. Congestive Heart Failure C. Myocardial Ischemia D. Cardiomegaly
C. Myocardial Ischemia Myocardial Ischemia refers to insufficient blood flow to the heart muscles, resulting in chest pain. If left untreated, it can result to a heart attack or myocardial infarction.
A 55 year old male patient presents with symptoms of diaphoresis and chest pain more than 30 minutes, not relieved by analgesics. What condition should be suspected in this patient? A. Pneumonia B. Stroke C. Myocardial infarction D. Pneumothorax
C. Myocardial infarction Patients that are middle age and having chest pains suggesting of heart in origin, the next best step is to do an ECG and rule out myocardial infarction or heart attack. Other causes of chest pain should also be ruled out.
A thorough administrative medical assistant produces work that is _________________. A. Accurate. B. Neat, prompt and complete. C. Neat, accurate, and complete. D. Detailed and prompt.
C. Neat, accurate, and complete. A thorough administrative medical assistant produces work that is neat, accurate, and complete.
You are interviewing a female patient who works as a legal assistant for several different attorneys. Her chief presenting issue is recurrent migraine headaches. As you explore this presenting illness, you learn that her headaches occur most often during certain days when she is assigned to work with a particularly mean and spiteful attorney who makes the patient feel extremely uncomfortable. When the headaches do occur, she is forced to leave work. You suspect that the patient's headaches represent a learned behavior that allows her to avoid an unpleasant experience. This would be an example of: A. Positive reinforcement B. Presentation punishment C. Negative reinforcement D. Removal punishment E. Vicarious learning
C. Negative reinforcement
Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones (renal calculi)? A. Glomerulonephritis B. Interstitial nephritis C. Nephrolithiasis D. Polycystic kidney E. Pyelonephritis
C. Nephrolithiasis
Of the following, the blood vessel containing the least oxygenated blood is the: A. Aorta B. Vena cava C. Pulmonary artery D. Capillaries E. Femoral vein
C. Pulmonary artery The pulmonary artery carries oxygen-depleted blood from the heart to the lungs, where CO2 is released and the supply of oxygen is replenished. This blood then returns to the heart through the pulmonary artery and is carried through the aorta and a series of branching arteries to the capillaries, where the bulk of gas exchange with the tissues occurs. Oxygen-depleted blood returns to the heart through branching veins (the femoral veins bring it from the legs) into the vena cava, which carries it again to the heart. Since the pulmonary artery is the last step before replenishment of the blood's oxygen content, it contains the blood that is the most oxygen depleted.
A(n):________________is created containing the name, address, and phone number of both the vendor and the medical practice. It will also have a pre- assigned undumber to track the order, the quantity of items ordered, the price of the items, and the date purchased. A. Inventory Control Log B. Packing slip C. Purchase order D. Invoice
C. Purchase order
Which of the following is NOT a basic step in filing records? A. Conditioning B. Indexing C. Purging D. Coding
C. Purging Purging is the process of cleaning out files. It is the preparation of a file to go from active status to inactive status. Conditioning, releasing, Indexing, coding and sorting are basic steps in the filing process.
Which of the following best describes empathy? A. Ability to adapt B. Willingness to work independently C. Putting oneself into the patient's situation. D. Ability to communicate
C. Putting oneself into the patient's situation. Empathy is the ability to put oneself into the patient's situation. It is the ability to understand and share the feelings of another.
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the __________________. A. R wave B. T wave C. Q wave D. S wave
C. Q wave
A downward or negative wave of an electrocardiogram following the P wave is the? A. R wave B. T wave C. Q wave D. S wave
C. Q wave
Rales and rhonchi are frequently noted during an examination of lung sounds. What is the difference between the two? A. Rales or louder. B. Rhonchi are noted only in infants. C. Rales occur on inspiration, rhonchi on expiration. D. Rales are noted only in infants.
C. Rales occur on inspiration, rhonchi on expiration. Rales are often heard during while a patient is taking in a breath, while rhonchi are heard when a breath being exhaled is obstructed by thick secretions in the respiratory tract.
The patient was brought to the clinic because of headache, nausea, rash, and dizziness. Which of the following is an objective finding? A. Headache B. Dizziness C. Rash D. Nausea
C. Rash Rash is an objective finding. Objective data are information based on what the health provider observes, hears, smells, and feels. It also includes measurable information such as laboratory tests and the physical examination.
In ICD-10, V codes are used to: A. Refer to specific conditions. B. Refer to injury. C. Refer to factors that influence health status. D. Refer to external causes of injury.
C. Refer to factors that influence health status. V codes are codes that refer to factors that influence health status. It is important in reporting medical necessity.
If you have a new patient appointment, which of the following should Not be asked from the patient? A. Social Security number B. Birth date C. Religion D. Insurance information
C. Religion When setting up a new patient, it is important to ask the following: name, age, address, date of birth, social security number, and insurance policy. Religion is not a standard information asked by health providers.
The pelvic cavity contains the: A. Pelvis B. Stomach C. Reproductive organs D. Liver
C. Reproductive organs
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to communication? A. Using medical terminology B. Giving advice C. Restating statements of the patient D. Leading questions
C. Restating statements of the patient. Restating checks the interviewer's interpretation of the patient's message for validation. It is not a barrier to communication; it is a therapeutic communication technique.
Which of the following is a fat soluble vitamin? A. Cyanocobalamin B. Niacin C. Retinoic acid D. Folic acid
C. Retinoic acid Retinoic acid is the common name of vitamin A, D, E, K.
An early childhood disease caused by deficiency in calcium, vitamin D, and phosphate: A. Hallux valgus B. Osteomalacia C. Rickets D. Kyphosis
C. Rickets Rickets is a disease that results in bone deformities, especially in the legs, causing them to "bow." Symptoms can include pain and tenderness of the bones and increased likelihood of fracture, impaired growth, decreased height, and also muscle cramps.
Which of the following is NOT a storage device? A. Memory stick B. Zip drive C. Router D. DVD
C. Router A router is not a storage device. It is a networking device that forwards data between computer networks.
A patient's urine tests positive for glucose. The doctor asks you to confirm this finding. Which of the following would BEST confirm this finding? A. Run the urine on the hand-held glucometer. B. Have another MA do a repeat dipstick. C. Run a Clinitest. D. Run an Acetest.
C. Run a Clinitest. Clinitest tablets are used to detect glucosuria. This test is useful when urine are discolored and proper color assessment cannot be done.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Prescriptions is: A. PMS B. STD C. Rx D. C&C
C. Rx
The pacemaker of the heart is called the: A. AV node B. Bundle of His C. SA node D. Perkinje fibers
C. SA node
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Shortness of Breath is: A. STD B. C&C C. SOB D. CP
C. SOB
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Sexually transmitted disease is: A. Rx B. pt C. STD D. Lab
C. STD
A form of insurance paid by the employer providing cash benefits to workers injured or disabled in the course of employment is: A. Tricare. B. Champus. C. Worker's Compensation D. Medicaid
C. Worker's Compensation.
A 45 year old man came in for edema and fatigue. On the examination, the lungs had decreased breath sounds, rales and crackles. The patient has a family history of heart disease and smokes 3 packs of cigarettes and drinks vodka every day. Under what part of the medical history, will you include the smoking and drinking habits of the patient? A. Past history B. Family history C. Social history D. Review of systems
C. Social history Smoking cigarettes and drinking alcoholic beverages are both part of the social history. Social history also includes information about occupation, diet, marital status and sexual activity.
Marital status, occupation and lifestyle of the patient are part of the: A. Family history B. Past medical history C. Social history D. Chief complaint
C. Social history The part of the medical history that includes information about occupation, diet, marital status and sexual activity is in the social history. The social history assists the physician in determining whether the patient's lifestyle is a factor for the medical condition of the patient.
In ecological systems theory, the ecosystem includes: A. Values and beliefs of the culture in which a child is developing, such as the acceptance of violence. B. Settings in which a child spends time,such as classrooms and neighborhood play groups. C. Social settings that indirectly influence a child, such as parents' workplaces. D. Connections among the different settings in which a child develops, such as the home and the school. E. Transitions that occur over time, such as a major change in the family's economic situation.
C. Social settings that indirectly influence a child, such as parents' workplaces.
During an ECG, a patient was talking, moving and chewing. What interference will show in the strip? A. Damaged cable B. Loose electrode C. Somatic tremor D. Alternating current or 60 cycle
C. Somatic tremor Somatic tremor is the term for ECG interference for patient movement. It will show a fuzzy baseline on the ECG tracing.
When dealing with a hearing-impaired patient, which of the following is NOT a recommended strategy? A. Eliminate as much background noise as possible. B. Touch the patient's arm or shoulder gently to get the patient's attention. C. Speak in a normal tone. D. Use visual aids as appropriate.
C. Speak in a normal tone. Since the patient has hearing impairment, it is recommended to increase your voice volume, but refrain from shouting. Background noise should be also eliminated, touching the patient's arm to get the patient's attention and using visual aids are all recommended strategies.
A paper or electronic document in which data is arranged in rows and columns, and is commonly used for calculations in business operations: A. Database B. Wordprocessor C. Spreadsheet D. Tabulator
C. Spreadsheet A Spreadsheet is a table of data arranged in rows and columns. Businesses use spreadsheets to present actual and projected data, for presentations and planning.
A belief that all members of a culture, subculture or group are the same: A. Prejudice B. Projection C. Stereotyping D. Maligning
C. Stereotyping Believing that all members of a culture, subculture or group are the same is stereotyping. It is a way to reduce the amount of thinking we have to do when we meet someone new.
Which of the following methods of infection control requires the use of an autoclave? A. Disinfection B. Ultrasonic cleaning C. Sterilization D. Sanitization
C. Sterilization
A(n) ________________ catheter is used to collect specimens or to instill medications. A. Splitting B. Retention C. Straight D. Urethral
C. Straight
Dr. Dastvan receives a legal document requiring him to appear in court and to provide a patient's original medical record. What Latin phrase describes this situation? A. Res ipsa loquitor B. Respondeat superior C. Subpoena duces tecum D. Stare decisis
C. Subpoena duces tecum Subpoena duces tecum is a legal document that requires a person to appear in court with specified documents, which can include a patient's original medical record. This Latin phrase means "bring with you under penalty of punishment." The subpoena will define exactly what documents are to be brought to court.
If the patient complains of chest pain, and points that the pain is right behind the breast bone, how will this be documented? A. Left sided chest pain B. Parasternal pain C. Substernal pain D. Midclavicular pain
C. Substernal pain Substernal pain is pain under the breast bone. It may indicate a cardiac origin; therefore, it must be further investigated.
The fresh-fractional urine specimen is used to test urine for? A. T.b. B. Pneumonia C. Sugar D. High blood pressure
C. Sugar
To assure a medical assistant has understood what a patient has stated, which of the following scenarios would BEST verify understanding? A. Repeat what the patient said word for word. B. Repeat parts of what the patient has stated. C. Summarize what the patient stated asking questions where you are unclear. D. Ask the patient to repeat what he said.
C. Summarize what the patient stated asking questions where you are unclear. Summarizing what a patient has told you allows you to use your own words to verify understanding. Repeating what has been said can only verify that you were able to hear what was said.
Not stopping for a stop-sign is a: A. Misdemeanor B. Felony C. Summary offense or infraction D. Penalty
C. Summary offense or infraction A summary offense or infraction is a violation of a law or ordinance that usually results in a fine. Not stopping for a stop sign is an example of a summary offense or traffic infraction.
Jimmy saw his favorite candy for sale in the store. He had no money, so he planned to steal it. However, he changed his mind and decided not to do it, because stealing is wrong. According to Sigmund Freud's theory, which part of Jimmy's personality prevented him from stealing? A. Id B. Ego C. Superego D. Anima E. Collective unconscious
C. Superego
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Surgery is? A. GI B. Lab C. surg D. S
C. Surg
Which of the following is characteristic of depression? A. Occurs most commonly in children. B. The signs of depression are the same as the signs of substance abuse or addiction. C. Symptoms include difficulty falling asleep, loss of appetite and energy. D. Depression is always easy to diagnose.
C. Symptoms include difficulty falling asleep, loss of appetite and energy.
How should electrocardiogram (ECG) chest leads be placed? A. V1: second intercostal space, just right from the sternum. V2: second intercostal space, just left of the sternum. V4: fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. V3: halfway between leads V2 and V4. V5: fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line. V6: fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line. B. V1: fourth intercostal space, just right of the sternum. V2: fourth intercostal space, just left of the sternum. V4: fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. V3: halfway between leads V2 and V4. V5: below rib cage, midaxillary line. C. V1: fourth intercostal space, just right of the sternum. V2: fourth intercostal space, just left of the sternum. V4: fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. V3: halfway between leads V2 and V4. V5: fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line. V6: fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line. D. V1: fourth intercostal space, just right of the sternum. V2: fourth intercostal space, just left of the sternum. V4: fourth intercostal space, midclavicular line. V3: halfway between leads V2 and V4. V5: fourth intercostal space, anterior axillary line. V6: fourth intercostal space, midaxillary line.
C. V1: fourth intercostal space, just right of the sternum. V2: fourth intercostal space, just left of the sternum. V4: fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line. V3: halfway between leads V2 and V4. V5: fifth intercostal space, anterior axillary line. V6: fifth intercostal space, midaxillary line. The correct placement is as described in answer C. It is important to place the lead correctly and precisely so that the electrocardiogram (ECG) can be correctly interpreted. V1 and V2 give information about the right side of the heart. V3 and V4 give information about the interventricular septum. V5 and V6 give information about the left side of the heart.
This vitamin helps the skin, nails, hair and sharpens the vision: A. Iron B. Folic acid C. Vitamin A D. Vitamin E
C. Vitamin A Vitamin A is one of the fat soluble vitamins. Vitamin A helps and maintains the health of the skin, hair, and nails. Vitamin A also promotes good vision, especially in low light. It may also be needed for reproduction and breast-feeding.
A 47-year-old chronic alcoholic male was admitted because he is not oriented to time and place. He also has memory loss, unsteady gait and numbness. Which vitamin is most likely the culprit? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin D C. Vitamin B1 D. Vitamin K
C. Vitamin B1 This is a case of Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome that occurs commonly among chronic alcoholics. The poor diet of chronic alcoholics leads to Vitamin B1 deficiency. Thiamine is the name of vitamin B1.
A 25 year old vegan patient was brought to the clinic because of fatigue. The patient was diagnosed with anemia. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies can cause this disease? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B6 C. Vitamin B12 D. Vitamin B3
C. Vitamin B12 Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia. Known causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency includes: Crohn's diseases, heavy drinking and a vegan diet.
Osteomalacia is caused by a deficiency of: A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin D Vitamin D is important for maintaining bone density and strength. Vitamin D deficiency results in osteomalacia or softening of the bones.
A 17 year old patient was brought to the clinic because of bruises and hematoma. There was no history of trauma, accident, or injury. The patient's history is positive for blood disease. If the patient has a vitamin deficiency related to the blood, in which vitamin is she deficient? A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin E C. Vitamin K D. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin K Dietary fiber refers to the edible parts of fruits, plants, nuts, seeds, and legumes that cannot be digested. There are two types of fiber, soluble and insoluble. Both types of fiber are essential for making the intestines healthy. Soluble fiber allows more water to remain in the stool, making waste softer and easier to pass.
Which of the following are organic substances that are essential for normal body growth, maintenance and resistance to infection? A. Lipids B. Carbohydrates C. Vitamins D. Minerals
C. Vitamins
You witness an automobile accident on the way to work. Which of the following would be an indication that a patient has experienced head trauma? A. Bleeding from the rectum B. Extreme hunger C. Vomiting D. Rapid pulse rate
C. Vomiting Vomiting is a sign that the patient may have experienced a concussion. Patients that are nauseous after an accident should be evaluated immediately by an emergency professional.
IRS Form W-2 refers to: A. Request for Federal Tax Identification Number. B. Social Security number application form. C. Wages and Tax statement. D. Federal unemployment tax return.
C. Wages and Tax statement. A W-2 tax form shows the amount of taxes withheld from your paycheck for the year. It is used to file for federal and state taxes.
When would chest thrusts be performed in an emergency situation? A. When performing CPR to initiate cardiovascular circulation. B. When assessing responsiveness of an unconscious patient. C. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking. D. None of the above examples indicate the need of chest thrusts.
C. When assisting a pregnant woman who is choking. To properly attempt to dislodge solid materials from the airway of a pregnant woman, chest thrusts are used in lieu of abdominal thrusts. Chest thrusts, while not as effective as abdominal thrusts, will reduce the risk of harming the fetus.
An abnormality in the ventricles may be identified on the ECG strip by: A. Distorted, varying P wave pattern. B. Wide spaces in between waves. C. Wide and bizarre QRS complex. D. Too fast heart rate.
C. Wide spaces in between QRS complex. QRS waves represent ventricular contraction. Abnormalities of the QRS represent the ventricles. In the same way, the P waves represent atrial contraction.
Patients that are exhibiting signs of cyanosis will: A. Shows signs of hyperoxia. B. Will have increased O2 saturation. C. Will have blood levels of CO2 that are higher than O2 levels. D. None of the above.
C. Will have blood levels of CO2 that are higher than O2 levels. Cyanosis is defined as a condition of being blue. This condition occurs when patients are having difficulty oxygenating their tissues. Blood gas chemistry results will show low blood oxygen levels and high CO2 levels.
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture you should _____________the first drop. A. Collect B. Use C. Wipe away D. Wash off
C. Wipe away
When preparing a blood smear from a skin puncture, you should ______________ the first drop. A. Collect B. Use C. Wipe away D. Wash off
C. Wipe away
A patient presents to the office with a pencil that has completely penetrated the palm of her hand. Which of the following treatments would be BEST in this situation? A. Assist the doctor while she sedates the patient and removes the pencil from her hand. B. Have the patient gently pull the pencil out of her hand and assist the physician with stitches. C. Wrap a gauze around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room. D. Tell the patient to go to the local emergency room. With a doctor's order, give the patient some aspirin for the pain.
C. Wrap a gauze around the pencil, securing it as much as possible until the patient can get to a local emergency room. Penetrating wounds that leave behind an object may have broken and then blocked important vessels. Removing the object may cause intense bleeding. The patient's wound should be gently wrapped with the object in tact. The patient should then be taken to the nearest emergency room to have the object removed.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Complains of is: A. CP B. C C. c/o D. C&C
C. c/o
What reference is used at the end of a letter to list people who will receive a copy of the letter? A. Enc B. DH:Ib C. cc D. "Yours Truly"
C. cc A copy notation is a notation so that the addressee knows that a copy of the letter will be sent to other people. A copy notation is abbreviated as "cc:", followed the names of the people who will receive the letter.
Which vacutainer tubes should be used when a requisition calls for blood to be drawn for an H&H and glucose test? A. One light blue, one red B. Two lavenders C. One lavender, one grey D. One green, one red
C. one lavender, one grey An H&H stands for hemoglobin and hematocrit, which are tests that are found in a complete blood count. These tests are drawn in a lavender tube. Blood for glucose testing is drawn into grey tubes.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Patient is: A. C&C B. Lab C. pt D. C
C. pt
When considering Sigmund Freud's Psychosexual Development theory, morals and values are found: A. with the Id B. with the Ego C. with the Super Ego D. None of the above.
C. with the Super Ego Morals and values in the Super Ego are closely related to feelings of guilt, inhibition, and shame. Basic instincts are found in the Id and impulse satisfaction is found in the Ego.
The medical term meaning a falling or drooping heart is:
Cardioptosis
ETOH (Alcohol test) requires what?
Chain of Custody form
If you have an interference on an EKG, what can you check?
Check to see if the patient has any electronics on or near the EKG machine.
thorac/o, -thorax
Chest
What does CC stand for?
Chief Complaint
Prolonged tourniquet use can result in causing a false positive for what?
Cholesterol iron lipid protein and potassium
In a problem oriented medical record (POMR), the pages are organized according to which of the following methods of organization?
Chronological as well to establish a time-line.
What do you transport specimens to the lab in?
Clear biohazard bag
A CMA needs to re-draw a patient's lipid profile. Which of the following reasons might this occur?
Cloudy specimen at the top of sample (cloudy serum).
The standards of right and wrong in a medical setting:
Code of ethics
The intended purpose of the ICD-10 coding is to: A. Create a universal "shorthand" that all could understand. B. Decrease the volume of patients' charts. C. Make transcription of chart information easier. D. Maintain patient privacy.
D. Maintain patient privacy.
To treat a cold: A. See a doctor for an antibiotic prescription. B. Use palliative treatment options. C. Take in many more calories than usual as in, "Feed a cold; starve a fever." D. All of the above.
Colds are caused by viruses that cannot be effectively treated with antibiotics. Treating a cold consists of palliative options to relieve the suffering from the symptoms until the body can fight off the infection. The phrase, "Feed a cold; starve a fever," is antiquated. Those that are sick should follow the advice of their physicians and take in as many calories as necessary to promote the regaining of health.
What task should an MA complete when first opening the office?
Complete Daily Sheet
Proximodistal development is exemplified by which of the following? A. Control of gross arm movements prior to fine motor control of the fingers. B. Control of the lower extremities prior to controlof the head. C. Refinement of perceptual abilities prior to walking. D. Acquisition of differential skills prior to acquisition of complex skills. E. Maturation of neural pathways in the cerebrum prior to maturation of the neural pathways in the midbrain.
Control of gross arm movements prior to fine motor control of the fingers.
What would you tell a patient who comes to the office with a sore that will not heal? A. "A sore that does not heal is nothing to worry about." B. "You probably do not eat enough protein." C. "You must keep injuring the area." D. "A sore that does not heal is a warning sign of cancer."
D. "A sore that does not heal is a warning sign of cancer."
If a patient is to receive an iodine contrast medium, you should ask the patient which question? A. "Are you allergic to eggs?" B. " Are you allergic to chocolate?" C. "Are you allergic to milk?" D. "Are you allergic to shellfish?"
D. "Are you allergic to shellfish?"
Each small square on the EKG paper is: A. .04 seconds long and 5mm tall. B. .2 seconds long and 5mm tall. C. .04 seconds long and 20mm tall. D. .04 seconds long and 1mm tall.
D. .04 seconds long and 1mm tall. Each small square of the EKG paper represents 0.04 seconds long and 1mm tall. One large square will be 5 small squares long and 5 squares tall, equating to 0.2 seconds long and 5mm tall (0.5 mV).
A good rule of thumb for the placement of furniture is to allow__________sq. ft. of space per person. A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12
D. 12
The normal adult range for respirations per minute is _______________ . A. 26-40 B. 20-30 C. 18-24 D. 12-20
D. 12-20
Two medical assistants work very closely in their office. Over the past few weeks the atmosphere has become tense between the two of them. Arguments are becoming a daily occurrence and both MAs are starting to consider not going to work just to avoid an altercation. Which of the following is true regarding this situation? A. Productivity in the office will suffer due to poor employee morale. B. The best way to solve this situation is to identify the problem and come up with a mutually acceptable solution. C. Stress or stress related medical conditions are some of the most common reasons why employees choose to call off. D. All of the above are correct.
D. All of the above A tense atmosphere can raise stress levels and negatively impact staff morale. The best way to deal with this type of situation is to identify that there is a problem and work together to come to a solution. While this may place employees out of their comfort zones, it will allow for all parties to be heard.
If the patient complains of blurry of vision, which of the following will the doctor use to determine visual acuity? A. Snellen B. E chart C. Landolt C D. All of the above
D. All of the above All can be used. Snellen, E chart, and Landolt C charts are charts used to check for visual acuity.
Who of the following wrote a medical code of ethics? A. Hammurabi B. Tomas Percival C. Hippocrates D. All of the above
D. All of the above All of these philosophers wrote some form of of medical ethics code. Hammurabi wrote the first code in 2500 BC. Hippocrates is famed for, "Do no harm." Thomas Percival was a physician with an interest in sociological medicine and wrote a Code of Medical Ethics in 1803.
A medical assistant is asked to draw blood in the antecubital (AC) space. Which of the following veins are found in the AC? A. Cephalic B. Median cubital C. Basilic D. All of the above
D. All of the above All three of these veins are located in the antecubital space, which is the space opposite of the elbow on the arm.
A medical assistant is asked to draw blood in the antecubital (AC) space. Which of the following veins are found in the AC? A. Cephalic B. Median Cubital C. Basilic D. All of the above
D. All of the above All three of these veins are located in the antecubital space, which is the space opposite the elbow on the arm.
Assets are: A. Securities B. Machinery C. Merchandise D. All of the above
D. All of the above Assets are any piece of equipment or fund of value that adds worth to the company.
Which type of check is guaranteed that funds will be available upon redemption of the check? A. Cashier's check B. Money order C. Certified check D. All of the above
D. All of the above Cashier's check, money order and certified check guarantee that funds will be available upon redemption of the check. All three are secure payment methods.
Coding systems are: A. Used to place verbal descriptions of medical conditions or procedures into alpha-numeric codes. B. A method of monitoring disease processes. C. Used to allow for easier statistical tracking of medical conditions or procedural uses. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Coding systems are a way for medical conditions and procedures to be listed as a number. This allows for easier tracking of statistics related to this information. It also allows for easier communication between physicians and health care insurance plans.
Cold and heat modalities can be applied to: A. Reduce inflammation B. Improve circulation C. Decrease muscle spasms D. All of the above
D. All of the above Cold and heat modalities help in reducing inflammation and swelling and breaking the pain cycle. They can also decrease muscle spasms and improve circulation.
Drug Schedules: A. Relate to controlled substances. B. Are based on the potential for abuse. C. Are scheduled in five categories with Schedule 1 being the most dangerous. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above Drug schedules place controlled substances in categories based on the potential for abuse. Category 1 drugs have the most potential for abuse while Category V have the lowest.
Which of the following can be a reservoir host of the Ebola virus? A. Chimpanzees B. Fruit bats C. Forest antelopes D. All of the above
D. All of the above It is thought that fruit bats are natural hosts of the Ebola virus. Ebola is introduced into humans through close contact with the blood or bodily fluids of infected animals such as chimpanzees, fruit bats, monkeys, and forest antelope in the rainforest.
Manual Hematocrits are done: A. To monitor anemia. B. By using a microcrit tube. C. To measure the percentage of plasma to cells. D. All of the above
D. All of the above Manual hematocrits are a CLIA Waived method for monitoring anemia. Blood is collected in a microcrit tube, centrifuged, and the percentage of plasma to cells is measured.
Office equipment inventory and maintenance requires keeping records on which of the following? A. Warranties B. Model and serial number C. Date of purchase D. All of the above E. Both A and C only
D. All of the above Office equipment are expensive assets. After years of use, they break down. To prevent problems with manufacturers, warranties, service agreements, date of purchase, and model and serial number, of where the item should be kept.
Patient cancellation should be noted: A. On the daily schedule B. In the patients chart C. In the progress note section D. All of the above
D. All of the above Patients who cancel appointments should have this information placed on the schedule to open the time slot up to other patients and in the patient's chart in the Progress Note section.
Which of the following is considered a best practice when preparing the office for emergency situations? A. Document all training of employees on emergency situations. B. Require all employees to have current CPR certification. C. Have a current copy of all MSDS sheets for all chemicals used in the office. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above Preparing the office for an emergency would include training on emergency procedures, documentation of the training, keeping all the employees current on CPR certification, and providing employees with documentation of policies and procedures for emergency situations, including proper health information such as the info provided through MSDS sheets.
The elderly and very young: A. Have increased susceptibility to infectious pathogens. B. Are more sensitive to heat and cold. C. Have a higher risk of falls. D. All of the above
D. All of the above The young and the elderly have increased risks for medical emergencies including heat injury, infections, and falls.
Which of the following collections scenarios is allowed by law? A. To ensure that someone will be available to take the call, collectors should call debtors after 10pm. B. To make the point clear to debtors, collectors should call the debtors daily until all debts are paid in full. C. Collections mailings should be sent daily on postcards to save money on postal notifications. D. All of the above are illegal collection practices.
D. All of the above are illegal collection practices. Collection practices must be conducted within the parameters of the law. Collection calls should be done while maintaining the debtor's privacy and only during the hours of 8am until 8pm.
A patient is on the telephone stating that her son has just been stung by a bee. Which of the following recommendations is used when dealing with this emergency? A. Ask the mother if her son is known to be allergic to bees. B. Ask the mother to tell her son to remain calm and still to help slow the spread of venom. C. Tell the mother to remove the stinger by scraping at the stinger rather than trying to pull it out. D. All of the above are true.
D. All of the above are true. Honey bees are known to leave stingers in a patient's body when it has stung. To safely remove the stinger, have the patient scrape at the stinger to avoid unnecessarily adding more venom to the patient's body. Patients should remain calm and still. Patients who are known to have an allergy to bee venom should be treated immediately with an EPI pen or taken to the nearest ER.
To ensure that the medical office has the supplies it needs, the medical assistant should establish a(n)________________. A. Reorder point. B. Inventory control log. C. Order quantity. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
Bank statements: A. Show the current balance for that particular statement period. B. Typically sent to the practice on a monthly basis. C. Must be reconciled when received by the office. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Bank statements are used to help balance the books. Books are balanced on a monthly basis when the statements are mailed from the bank.
Skin nodules, such as nevi: A. May become malignant. B. Should be seen by a physician, even if not suspicious. C. Are graded using the acronym, "ABCDE." D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Nevi are also called moles. Moles may become malignant over a period of time; sun exposure increases this risk. A physician should regularly check moles for signs of malignant changes. Each mole will be graded based on asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and elevation.
Patients who have anxiety: A. Are treated episodically. B. Are treated prophylactically C. May be treated with citalopram. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Patients who have been diagnosed with anxiety may be treated as symptoms appear, daily to reduce the chance symptoms will appear, and with anti-anxiety or antidepressant medications such as Celexa.
Although not present with all migraines, which of the following is a symptom of a migraine? A. Increased sensitivity to light, sound, and/or smell. B. Aura. C. Nausea with or without vomiting. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Patients with migraine headaches may report a number of varied symptoms which can include aura, visual disturbances, increased sensitivity to light, sound, or smell, and stomach upset.
ID injections are used for which of the following procedures? A. Allergy testing. B. TB testing. C. Drug sensitivity testing. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. The intradermal route of medication administration is used to test for allergies, test for exposure to tuberculosis bacteria, and to monitor sensitivity to reaction-inducing medications.
Patients who have diets deficient in calcium will have which of the following symptoms? A. Bruising B. Osteopenia C. Kyphosis D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Calcium is a major component of strong bones. Deficiencies in this mineral can lead to weak bones and bruising. Calcium also plays a role in the clotting process. Kyphosis is a condition where the bones of the vertebral column become weak causing a humpback posture.
The memory of a computer is located: A. In the CPU B. In RAM C. In ROM D. All of the above
D. All of the above. Depending on the type of memory, RAM, ROM, and the CPU can all be areas where data can be stored.
When depositing checks in the bank: A. A deposit ticket must be filled out. B. Bills and checks must be listed individually. C. A signature is needed to withdrawal cash. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Depositing checks into the bank requires the movement of funds from one person to another. The process is controlled to ensure that mistakes in documentation do not occur.
An HMO is: A. A group model of managed care. B. A health model that emphasized preventative care. C. Can be a part of a group or a single organization. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. HMO's are Health Maintenance Organizations. This type of managed care system is set up to emphasize well care to reduce the number of illnesses a patient suffers, which will lower the overall cost of the plan as a whole.
I-9 forms are: A. Required by the federal government. B. Require the employer to verify forms of identification. C. Filed within three business days of hire. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. I-9 forms are required by Federal Law to confirm the identity of employees. These forms are required to be filed with the Federal government within three days of the employee's date hire date.
To accurately measure medication, A. Use a syringe that is closest in volume to the amount of medication needed. B. Read oral medication volume that is poured into a small measuring cup at eye level. C. Double check the order for accuracy. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Measuring medication is a responsibility of a medical assistant that requires attention to detail. Accurate syringe measurements are most effective when the volume of medication closely matches the total volume of the syringe without going over. Reading measuring cups at eye level ensures that the measurement is taken straight on, which reduces the chance for reading errors.
Patients with pancytopenia: A. Have an increased risk of hemorrhage. B. Have an increased risk of developing infection. C. May be anemic. D. All of the above.
D. All of the above. Pancytopenia is defined as having a low count of all three of the cellular components of whole blood. This could lead to increased chance of infection from low white blood cells, anemia from low red blood cells, and increased bleeding risk from low platelet counts.
Which of the following is correct regarding electronic claims submission? A. An in-house computer system can communicate with an insurer's system. B. A time-share computer system sends insurance information by modem directly to an insurance company's computers. C. A batch system computer enters insurance information to be stored, retrieved, edited, or printed out as needed. D. An ECT system is quick, uses no paper, and permits fewer mistakes and omissions than other methods of transmitting claims.
D. An ECT system is quick, uses no paper, and permits fewer mistakes and omissions than other methods of transmitting claims.
The mother of an 8 year old gave her son Calamine lotion because he was complaining of itchiness. This medication is classified as a(n): A. Adrenergic B. Anti-emetic C. Analgesic D. Anti-pruritic
D. Anti-pruritic Anti-pruritics relieve itching. It is used for skin disorders and allergies. Medications that are anti-pruritics are: calamine lotion and hydrocortisone.
The condition in which pathogens are absent or controlled is: A. Immunity B. The normal flora C. A subclinical case D. Asepsis
D. Asepsis
You should follow which of these guidelines when selecting magazines for a medical office? A. Place the doctor's medical journals in the reception area. B. Subscribe to several magazines on one topic. C. Select magazines specific to one age group. D. Ask patients for feedback on their interests.
D. Ask patients for feedback on their interests.
Touching someone without permission is called: A. Medical malpractice B. Invasion of privacy C. Slander D. Assault and Battery
D. Assault and Battery
Which of the following is a factor in successful interviewing? A. Tell the patient that you "need to take a history." B. Avoid the use of ice breakers. C. Give the patient your opinion about a diagnosis. D. Assist the patient to a private room and close the door.
D. Assist the patient to a private room and close the door.
A business letter written in full block style will have all lines __________________. A. Right justified. B. Indented 5 spaces. C. Equally spaced vertically. D. At the left hand margin.
D. At the left hand margin.
A patient came in with a big piece of her skin and soft tissues still hanging like a flap. This wound injury is referred to as a _________________. A. Contusion B. Laceration C. Abrasion D. Avulsion
D. Avulsion A avulsion is a serious soft-tissue injury. It occurs when a section of the soft tissue is partially torn away, leaving a flap of skin hanging from the body.
On an ECG machine, the sensitivity switch controls the _________________. A. Start B. Amplitude C. Gain D. B or C
D. B or C Amplitude or Gain.
Which of the following is NOT a classification of hypertension? A. Essential hypertension B. Secondary hypertension C. Malignant hypertension D. Benign hypertension
D. Benign hypertension Hypertension can be classified as: essential, secondary, and malignant. Benign hypertension is NOT a standard classification for hypertension.
Which of the following is commonly used in the laboratory setting to provide a measure of protection against transmission of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A. Germicidal soap B. Boiling water C. Iodine D. Bleach
D. Bleach
A clean-catch urine specimen is also called: A. Clean-voided specimen B. 24-hr. urine specimen C. Mid-stream specimen D. Both A & C
D. Both A & C
Patients with HIV: A. Also have AIDS. B. Can spread the disease by casual contact. C. Have engaged in homosexual activity at some point in their lives. D. Can live for many years by taking antiviral medications and practicing a healthy lifestyle.
D. Can live for many years by taking antiviral medications and practicing a healthy lifestyle. HIV is the virus that leads to the disease state of AIDS. Patients can live a healthy life for many years if infected with HIV and if they take antiviral medications. Not all HIV patients have engaged in homosexual activity. Many HIV patients have been infected with the virus through IV drug use, contaminated blood products, or sexual activity with an infected heterosexual partner.
What is another name for a prefilled syringe? A. Flange B. Insulin syringe C. Tuberculin syringe D. Cartridge
D. Cartridge A cartridge or prefilled, syringe, is a sterile disposable syringe. The needle units are manufacturer-packaged and contain a single dose of medication. They are ready for administration.
Which of the following is an example of safe working? A. Lifting more than you can handle. B. Loading lifting equipment with as much material as possible. C. Wearing safety goggles to perform every task. D. Checking the working area is free from hazards.
D. Checking the working area is free from hazards.
In order to ensure that a check can only be cashed once, A. The office manager should keep a running list of all of the checks used by that office. B. The bank will destroy all checks and any records of the check. C. Checks that have been cashed should be locked in a designated area. D. Checks are stamped by the bank when cashed.
D. Checks are stamped by the bank when cashed. Checks are stamped by the bank and considered, "Cancelled," when funds have been moved from one account to another.
Examples of viruses include: A. Gonorrhea, meningitis, strep throat, and gastroenteritis. B. Tinea pedis, ringworm, thrush, and vaginal yeast infections. C. Malaria, amebic dysentery, and trichomoniasis vaginitis. D. Chickenpox, croup, hepatitis, and influenza.
D. Chickenpox, croup, hepatitis, and influenza.
A 24-hour specimen should be: A. Kept at body temperature B. Left open to the air C. Kept at room temperature D. Chilled/refrigerated
D. Chilled/refrigerated
While interviewing the patient, you noticed that the patient has involuntary, purposeless, non-rhythmic, abrupt movements that flow from one body part to another. The patient is manifesting what movement problem? A. Dystonia B. Aphasia C. Tremors D. Chorea
D. Chorea Chorea is an involuntary, purposeless, non-rhythmic, abrupt movement that flows from one body part to another. It is caused by damage to the caudate nucleus in the brain.
What is a break in a bone without penetration of the skin surface over the fracture site called? A. Open fracture B. Spiral fracture C. Greenstick fracture D. Closed fracture
D. Closed fracture
The only fat-soluble antioxidant synthesized in the body is? A. Vitamin D B. Thiamine C. Ascorbic acid D. CoQ10
D. CoQ10 Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10) is a fat-soluble quinone, a vitamin-like compound that is vital for activities related to energy metabolism. CoQ10 is the coenzyme for at least three mitochondrial enzymes as well as enzymes in other parts of the cell and is involved in the key biochemical reactions that produce energy in cells. It also is a free radical scavenger and is metabolized to ubiquinol, which prolongs the antioxidant effect of vitamin E. The highest amounts of it are found in the mitochondria of cells of organs with high-energy requirements such as the heart muscle, liver, kidneys, and pancreas.
Which of the following are saturated fats? A. Corn and safflower oils. B. Peanut and canola oils. C. Sunflower and olive oils. D. Coconut and palm oils.
D. Coconut and palm oils.
Some drugs come from a plant source. An example of one of these drugs would be: A. Humulin B. NSAIDS C. Demerol D. Codeine
D. Codeine Drugs from plant sources include codeine, morphine, and paregoric. These are derived from the opium poppy plant. Plants, minerals, animal proteins, synthetics and semisynthetics are some of the drugs that come from many sources.
When writing a business letter, the salutation of a letter should be followed by which punctuation mark? A. Comma B. Semicolon C. Asterisk D. Colon
D. Colon
Which characteristics of professional behavior describes the ability to perform one's job to standards? A. Professional demeanor B. Team work C. Confidentiality D. Competence
D. Competence Competence is the ability to perform one's job at par with standards. Competence leads to the ability to do something successfully or efficiently.
Which of the following function only in bright light and are sensitive to color and provide sharp images? A. Rods B. Lens C. Cornea D. Cones
D. Cones
Which cardiovascular disease is the inability of the heart to pump blood effectively, causing fluid to build up in the tissues and lungs? A. Endocarditis B. Cardiomyopathy C. Atherosclerosis D. Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
D. Congestive Heart Failure (CHF)
Making a note in one file that a paper is in another file is called_____________. A. Cross-filing B. Indexing C. Conditioning D. Cross-reference
D. Cross-reference
Of the 4 Ds of Negligence, which exist when the physician pays for client sustained due to improper care? A. Duty B. Derelict C. Direct Cause D. Damages
D. Damages The "D" meaning "Damages" is the negligence topic dealing with how a physician will make a situation right or whole. Damages are often in the form of monetary compensation.
The peaks and valleys of the electrical impulses responsible for the cardiac cycle are called: A. Electrodes B. Stylus C. Leads D. Deflections
D. Deflections
A patient is having difficulty understanding how to properly run her glucose meter. Which of the following teaching methods would best help the patient understand how to use her instrument correctly? A. Give the patient an instruction booklet and have her call the office if she has questions. B. Tell the patient to have a family member demonstrate how to use the instrument. C. Have the patient watch a video on the use of the instrument. D. Demonstrate the proper use of the instrument and then have the patient perform the process while still in the office.
D. Demonstrate the proper use of the instrument and then have the patient perform the process while still in the office. By using a demonstration and performance method of patient education, the patient is offered a chance to perform a task and have learning assessed while still in the office. This ensures that any questions that the patient has can be answered immediately and any performance issues that are observed by the medical assistant can also be corrected immediately.
Which of the following are signs of narcotic abuse, such as codeine and morphine? A. Reddening of the eyes, increased heart rate, and heightened appetite. B. Hearing loss, dilated pupils, increased respirations, and heart rate. C. Hallucinations, severe panic, violent and bizarre behavior. D. Depressed respirations, constricted pupils, nausea, vomiting, and constipation.
D. Depressed respirations, constricted pupils, nausea, vomiting, and constipation.
The generic drug fluoxetine is also known as Prozac. It is indicated for which disorder? A. Erectile dysfunction B. Diabetes C. Schizophrenia D. Depression
D. Depression Prozac (fluoxetine) is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI) antidepressant. It is also used for panic disorders, anxiety disorders, and obsessive-compulsive disorders.
Which of the following tasks is NOT the responsibility of the office manager? A. Maintain adequate supply of inventory. B. Perform employee evaluations. C. Ensuring adequate staffing. D. Determine the appropriate number of tax exemptions that should be made by an employee.
D. Determine the appropriate number of tax exemptions that should be made by an employee. Office managers have the responsibility to keep the office running smoothly by handling employee issues, monitoring inventory, ensuring customer service excellence, and adequate staffing. Choose the amount of tax exemptions that each employee should take is the responsibility of the employee.
DVD refers to: A. Driver and Vehicle Data B. Drivers Vigilance Device C. Dynamic Voltage Drop D. Digital Video Disc
D. Digital Video Disc DVD stands for Digital Video Disc. DVD is a type of CD that is able to store large amounts of data.
Round-shaped bacteria that are seen in pairs are called the: A. Streptococcus B. Diplococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Bacillus
D. Diplococcus Diplococcus are bacteria that are seen in the microscope as pairs of round looking organisms. Neisseria gonorrhea is a bacteria that is classified as an STD, and is an example of diplococcus.
What is the term used for double vision? A. Amblyopia B. Nyctalopia C. Presbyopia D. Diplopia
D. Diplopia Diplopia means double vision. Amblyopia means lazy eye, where the other eye loses some portion of vision. Nyctalopia is inability to see at night. Presbyopia means "old eye" where the lens has lost elasticity.
What is the first action to take when approaching the scene of an accident? A. Check for signals of life. B. Wait for the emergency services. C. Attend to the most serious injury. D. Make sure the area is safe to enter.
D. Make sure the area is safe to enter.
After a lengthy explanation of a medical procedure, the patient asks many questions. The physician answers all of the questions to the best of her ability. The patient then gives consent for treatment. The costly equipment and supplies are put into place and the patient is prepared. Two minutes before the procedure is to start, the patient begins panicking and changes her mind. Which of the following situations would be the best way to avoid litigation? A. Document that the patient originally gave consent and proceed if the benefits of the procedure outweigh the patient's wishes. B. Have the patient sign a form that she is refusing to consent. If she refuses to sign, proceed with the procedure. C. Repeat the explanation of the procedure until the patient understands that having the procedure done is the best form of treatment. Proceed with the procedure. D. Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal, have the patient sign a refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign.
D. Do not proceed. Document the patient's refusal to consent to treatment. If the patient refuses to sign the form, have a witness available to sign. A patient who refuses treatment has the right to do so at any point during the procedure as long as the procedure has not reached a point where stopping would potentially harm the patient.
Assets = Liabilities + Owner's Equity. Which accounting system uses this equation? A. Accounts receivable B. Single-entry C. Daily log D. Double-entry
D. Double-entry The double-entry system is based on this equation. This does require more extensive knowledge of accounting procedure than the single-entry system.
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Electrocardiogram is: A. EG B. sig C. BP D. ECG
D. ECG
Scarlett would like to work in a medical-related administrative field but is not interested in a medical office setting. Which of the following would offer the best choice of a career for Scarlett? A. Food management. B. Education. C. Home health sales. D. Education and home health sales.
D. Education and home health sales. Education and home health sales would offer the best choice of a career for Scarlett who would like to work in a medical-related administrative field but is not interested in a medical office setting.
During his first six months at a local physician's practice, Brian completed and submitted insurance claims to various carriers. He used a software program to check and process his claims prior to submitting them for payment. This demonstrated that he accurately completed claims using very few resources. Select which of the following he was demonstrating. A. Tact B. Ethnocentrism C. Assertiveness D. Efficiency
D. Efficiency Brian was demonstrating efficiency.
The type of communication that is the most common and efficient mode of communication for many messages is: A. Voice Mail B. Written C. Verbal D. Electronic
D. Electronic Electronic communication is the most common and efficient mode of communication for many messages.
Characteristics of successful dieters include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. Maintaining a daily food journal. B. Counting calories. C. Adhering to a strict eating plan. D. Eliminating all carbohydrates from their diets.
D. Eliminating all carbohydrates from their diets. Along with the above-mentioned characteristics, successful dieters monitor their weight, practice portion control, increase physical activity, and aim for healthy realistic weight loss ranging from 10% to 20% of initial body weight in a year. Successful dieters maintain their motivation by celebrating the achievement of weight-loss milestones.
A corporate manager decided to divert corporate money to some of his family members who are not employed with the company by adding them to the payroll. This is an example of: A. Negligence B. Breach of confidentiality C. Splitting D. Embezzlement
D. Embezzlement The definition of embezzlement is the fraudulent conversion of another's property by a person who is in a position of trust, such as an agent or employee. It involves misappropriating funds or property for one's own benefit.
Which of the following play a vital role in the exchange of gases between blood and body cells? A. Leukocytes B. Platelets C. Monocytes D. Erythrocytes
D. Erythrocytes
Which factor has an impact on the effectiveness of a disinfectant? A. The disinfectant solution is more potent after several uses. B. Items should be placed in the disinfectant bath wet. C. Using soap in the sanitization process is desirable. D. Evaporation can alter the chemical makeup of the solution.
D. Evaporation can alter the chemical makeup of the solution.
If a patient asks you how often is the Tetanus vaccine given, your answer should be: A. Every year B. Every 2 years C. Every 5 years D. Every 10 years
D. Every 10 years According to CDC, Tetanus toxoid is given to adolescents and adults as a booster shot every 10 years, or after an exposure to tetanus. Tetanus is a serious disease that causes painful tightening of the muscles. It is also referred to as lock-jaw.
The prefix meaning outside or outer is which of the following? A. Ana- B. Dia- C. Epi- D. Exo- E. Peri-
D. Exo-
A drug that increases cough output is called a(n)____________. A. Miotic B. Diuretic C. Cytotoxin D. Expectorant
D. Expectorant
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Follow-up appointment is: A. FP B. S/R C. can D. FU
D. FU
When placing a patient in the AP position for an X-ray, what position would the patient be in? A. Facing the film. B. Right side against the film. C. Left side against the film. D. Facing away from the film.
D. Facing away from the film. The AP position is the Anteroposterior Projection. Patients in the AP position are facing away from the X-ray film.
If a medical assistant stops a patient from leaving the clinic against her will, and without medical or legal justification, the patient can accuse the medical assistant of: A. Harassment B. Invasion of privacy C. Fraud D. False imprisonment
D. False imprisonment False imprisonment involves intentionally restricting another person's freedom of movement. It is the unlawful restraint of another, against their will, and without medical or legal justification.
The protein involved in clotting is the: A. Plasma. B. Hematocrit. C. Pyrogen. D. Fibrinogen.
D. Fibrinogen
A disease that is spread from person to person primarily through the bite of infected mosquitoes is: A. Listeriosis B. Cytomegalovirus C. Toxoplasmosis D. Malaria
D. Malaria
All of the following may be associated with scurvy EXCEPT: A. Loss of appetite and irritability. B. Diarrhea and fever. C. Tenderness and swelling in legs. D. First symptom is altered mental status.
D. First symptom is altered mental status. Scurvy is caused by insufficient consumption of vitamin C. Although it is rare, older adults, persons who abuse alcohol, and those who eat a diet that does not contain fresh fruit and vegetables may be at risk of developing scurvy. Along with the above-mentioned symptoms, persons with scurvy may suffer bleeding gums, petechial hemorrhage of the skin and mucous membranes, bleeding in the eye, hyperkeratosis, and sicca syndrome.
Charging patients for medical procedures and treatments that were actually not performed is: A. Negligence B. Embezzlement C. Felony D. Fraud
D. Fraud Fraud is the intentional deception of a person or entity by another made for monetary or personal gain. In this case, fraud is through falsification of billing claims to get reimbursements from the state or federal government.
Which of the following is used to diagnose upper gastrointestinal bleeding? A. Retrograde pyelogram B. Stereoscopy C. Ultrasound D. Gastrointestinal angiography
D. Gastrointestinal angiography
At what stage of Erik Erickson's psychosocial development is achieving one's life goals while considering the welfare of future generations? A. Identity vs. Role Confusion B. Initiative vs. Guilt C. Ego integrity vs. Despair D. Generativity vs. Stagnation
D. Generativity vs. Stagnation Generativity versus stagnation takes place during middle adulthood, around the ages of approximately 40-65. Contributing to society that benefits future generations is an important need to be fulfilled at this stage. Stagnation, on the other hand, refers to failure to improve oneself and find a way to contribute to society. These adults may feel disconnected or are uninvolved with their community and with society.
When preparing a blood smear, the spreader slide must be made of? A. Foil B. Steel C. Plastic D. Glass
D. Glass
Which of the following is a federal regulation that requires health care professionals to protect the privacy and confidentiality of patient's health information? A. OSHA B. CLIA C. CMS D. HIPAA
D. HIPAA
Used therapeutically, certain medications reduce anxiety in certain stress disorders, relieve insomnia and aid in pain relief. Which of these would NOT? A. Depressants B. Barbiturates C. Tranquilizers D. Hallucinogens
D. Hallucinogens Hallucinogens excite the central nervous system. Depressants, barbiturates, and tranquilizers depress the central nervous system and can be used for brief periods of time under the care of a physician.
If alcoholism is suspected in a patient, which of the following questions should be asked? A. Do you drink heavily? B. At what age did you start drinking? C. How much do you drink a day? D. Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking?
D. Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking? If you suspect alcoholism in a patient, you should ask the four CAGE questions: 1.) Have you ever felt you should cut down on your drinking? 2.) Have people annoyed you by criticizing your drinking? 3.) Have you ever felt bad or guilty about your drinking? 4.) Have you ever had a drink first thing in the morning to steady your nerves or to get rid of a hangover? The normal cutoff for the CAGE is two positive answers.
Mrs. Simon, a known diabetic, came to your clinic because of dizziness. When you took her blood pressure while she was laying down on the bed, her blood pressure was 110/70 mm Hg, but when she stood up, she started to become dizzy again. A repeat blood pressure was 80/50 mm Hg. What would be the condition of the patient? A. Normal B. Malingering C. Having malignant hypertension D. Having orthostatic hypotension
D. Having orthostatic hypotension The patient has orthostatic hypotension or postural hypotension. Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a decrease in systolic blood pressure of 20 mm Hg, or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure of 10 mm Hg within three minutes of standing when compared with a blood pressure from the sitting or supine position. It results from an inadequate response to position changes in blood pressure.
Diabetic patients are monitored by using which of the following tests? A. KUB B. Troponin C. Fe++ D. HbA1C
D. HbA1C Hemoglobin A1C is a test used to monitor the average blood glucose level in a patient over a 2-3 month period.
The acronym HIPAA is: A. Health Insurance Portability Accrediting Association. B. Health Insurance Portability Accrediting Agency. C. Health Insurance Plan and Accountability Alliance. D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act.
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. HIPAA is an abbreviation for Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. The objective of HIPAA is to protect the confidentiality and security of health information.
Which type of shock is related to low blood volume? A. Psychogenic B. Cardiogenic C. Anaphylactic D. Hemorrhagic
D. Hemorrhagic Hemorrhagic or hypovolemic shock are the result of major blood loss.
Which of the following is a prophylactic drug: A. Corticosteroids B. Compazine C. Amoxicillin D. Hepatitis B vaccine
D. Hepatitis B vaccine Prophylactic drugs help to prevent disease and certain conditions. When vaccines are administered, a number of diseases can be prevented. Some examples are human papillomavirus, tetanus, measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella.
Which describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Metabolism D. Homeostasis
D. Homeostasis
Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state? A. Anabolism B. Catabolism C. Tolerance D. Homeostasis E. Metabolism
D. Homeostasis
The abbreviation used in the appointment Book for Incision and drainage is: A. IAD B. Lab C. cons D. I&D
D. I&D
The postal abbreviation for Idaho is: A. IH B. IO C. IA D. ID
D. ID Postal abbreviations are used for all 50 states using two capital letters. Idaho is abbreviated with an ID.
What is the suggested procedure for canceling an appointment in the appointment book? A. Erase the entry and write in the new appointment. B. Put "white-out" over the entry and write on top. C. Scribble out the entry and indicate your initials. D. Mark through the entry with a single red line.
D. Mark through the entry with a single red line.
Symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia may include all of the following EXCEPT: A. Extreme, intermittent facial pain in the jaw or cheek B. Tingling or numbness on one side of the face C. Pain triggered by contact with the face or facial movements D. Inability to swallow
D. Inability to swallow Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden onset of severe pain that lasts less than a minute. It presents most commonly in persons age 50 and older and among women. The frequency and severity of attacks recurs and remits, progressively worsening over time. While the disorder may be debilitating, it is not life threatening.
A patient has been told to monitor her LH levels. Which of the following potential conditions might the patient be suffering from? A. Menorrhagia B. Grave's Disease C. Menopause D. Infertility
D. Infertility Luteinzing hormone is released by the pituitary gland to stimulate ovulation. Women with infertility
Which of the following describes the ability or willingness to work independently? A. Flexibility B. Dexterity C. Competence D. Initiative
D. Initiative Initiative is the willingness to work independently. It is the power or opportunity to take charge before others do.
Which of the following would you include when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen? A. Tell the patient to collect all urine starting with the first voided specimen. B. Encourage the patient to use a bed pan. C. Explain to the patient that the small collection container must not be washed between uses. D. Instruct the patient to keep the specimen covered and in the refrigerator throughout the test.
D. Instruct the patient to keep the specimen covered and in the refrigerator throughout the test.
This injection or route of administration is usually given during PPD: A. Subcutaneous injection B. Intravenous injection C. Intramuscular injection D. Intradermal injection
D. Intradermal injection PPD injections for diagnosis of Tuberculosis is performed using the intradermal injection technique. Intradermal injection is the injection of a small amount of fluid into the dermal layer of the skin.
How would you know that the ECG cable is the Right Arm (RA) cable based on its color? A. It is colored red B. It is colored black C. It is colored green D. It is colored white
D. It is colored white The following are colors of the ECG cables: RA- white, LA- black, RL- green, and LL- red. These colors are for the limb cables.
The patient position that is most useful for proctologic exams is the: A. Trendelenberg B. Semi-Fowler's C. Full Fowler's D. Jack Knife
D. Jack Knife The jack knife position is used on a specially designed table which allows the patient to lay face down, but keeps the buttocks elevated.
Which of the following is NOT properly part of the interviewing process to obtain patient medical history? A. Observe the patient's alertness, level of orientation, grooming and comfort. B. Express concern and respect for the patient. C. Place the patient in a private room. D. Judging the behavior of the patient.
D. Judging the behavior of the patient. Making conclusions or judgements about the patient's behavior is not a proper way of interviewing patients. The purpose of the interview is to find the diagnosis and to treat the patient correctly.
Which name should come first in alphabetical filing? A. Kelly, James B. Kely, James C. Keli, Jean D. Kelee, Joseph
D. Kelee, Joseph Kelee, Joseph will be the first in the filing. Since the next letter of Kelee, from Kel, is "e," it comes first from the rest of the first names, alphabetically.
Which test measures both sugar and acetone in the urine? A. Acetest B. Clinitest C. Testape D. Keto-diastix
D. Keto-diastix
Consuming fewer than 130 grams of carbohydrate per day may lead to: A. Hypoglycemia B. Kwashiorkor C. Marasmus D. Ketosis
D. Ketosis Low carbohydrates diets promote Ketosis, the process of breaking down fat as opposed to carbohydrate to generate energy. Ketones are acidic chemicals, which can build up in the blood and urine. Diet-induced ketosis may be intentional as a treatment for some people with epilepsy, however, for some people, long-term adherence to a very low carbohydrate diet may produce damage to the liver and kidneys.
Which is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count? A. Anemia B. Leukemia C. Leukocytosis D. Leukopenia
D. Leukopenia
Which of the following is the term for an abnormally low white blood cell count? A. Anemia B. Leukemia C. Leukocytosis D. Leukopenia E. Leukoplakia
D. Leukopenia
Liabilities are debt obligations. Which of the following formulas is accurate when calculating liabilities? A. Liabilities= Assets+ Owner Equity. B. Liabilities= Owner Equity-Assets. C. Liabilities= Assets-Purchaser's Equity. D. Liabilities= Assets- Owner's Equity.
D. Liabilities= Assets-Owner's Equity. The proper accounting formula to calculate liabilities or monies owed to others is calculated by subtracting the Owner's Equity from total Assets.
Which of the following is not a type of business formation for a medical practice? A. Partnership B. Sole Proprietorship C. Corporation D. Liability ownership
D. Liability ownership Partnership, sole proprietorship, and corporation are all examples of medical practice management. Liability ownership is not a medical practice management type.
A patient was diagnosed with high cholesterol during blood testing. Which of the following drugs is recommended for his condition? A. Prednisone B. Xanax C. Ambien D. Lipitor
D. Lipitor Lipitor is a prescription medicine called Statins. They lower cholesterol in the blood, specifically LDL or the bad cholesterol, and triglycerides. It can raise the HDL (good cholesterol) as well.
A physician is about to give a Pap smear procedure to a patient. As a medical assistant, you assist the patient and help her get into position for the procedure. What position should you put her in? A. Horizontal Recumbent B. Lateral Sims C. Fowler's D. Lithotomy
D. Lithotomy In a pap smear, the patient should be placed in the lithotomy position. In lithotomy, the patient is on her back with the hips and knees flexed and the thighs apart. The position is often used for vaginal examinations and childbirth.
Which procedure includes non-ionizing radiation and a strong magnetic field to allow the physician to examine internal structures and soft tissues of any area of the body? A. Nuclear medicine imaging B. Stereoscopy C. Thermography D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
A patient's urine specimen tested positive for bilirubin. Which of the following is most true? A. The patient should be evaluated for kidney disease. B. The specimen was probably left at room temperature for more than two hours. C. The specimen is positive for bacteria. D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light.
D. The specimen should be stored in an area protected from light. Bilirubin is easily broken down by light, so all samples testing positive for bilirubin should be protected from light exposure. Any urine samples that are brown in color should be suspect for the presence of bilirubin.
A 72-year old disabled patient is being treated at an office that accepts Medicaid. The total office visit is $165, but Medicaid will only reimburse a set fee of $125. In this situation, what is the most likely solution? A. Bill the patient for the balance due. B. Expect the balance to be paid at the time of service. C. This patient more than likely has a secondary employer health insurance plan. D. This patient may qualify for the Medi/Medi coverage.
D. This patient may qualify for the Medi/Medi coverage.
Which of the following is NOT a coronary heart disease (CHD) equivalent? A. Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm B. Diabetes C. Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD) D. Thrombophlebitis
D. Thrombophlebitis Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm, Diabetes, Peripheral Vascular Disease (PVD), and Carotid Artery Disease are equivalents. Thrombophlebitis is not considered a CHD equivalent.
Word processing software may be used by a medical assistant to create which of the following? A. Superbills. B. Record of all patients and their addresses. C. Inventory of office supplies. D. Transcriptions.
D. Transcriptions
Mrs. Williams came to your office with profuse vaginal bleeding because of a spontaneous abortion. Her blood pressure initially was 90/60 mmHg. Five minutes after, the bp started to go down to 70/50 mmHg. Which of the following positions should you put her in to improve her blood pressure? A. Fowler's B. Sims C. Lithotomy D. Trendelenburg
D. Trendelenburg The Trendelenburg position involves placing the patient head down and elevating the feet. Trendelenburg position is used by healthcare providers as a first-line intervention in the treatment of acute hypotension and shock.
The highest law of the United States: A. International Law B. Public Law C. Supreme Court Law D. U.S. Constitution
D. U.S. Constitution The U.S. Constitution is the highest law in the land. It is the foundation on which all laws have been built. Constitutional law defines the relationship of the executive, the legislature, and the judiciary.
All of the following are microbiological specimens, EXCEPT: A. Throat culture specimens B. Wound culture specimens C. A stool for ova and parasites D. Urinalysis
D. Urinalysis Urinalysis is not a microbiological specimen. Urine itself is a type of microbiological specimen. Specimens that are obtained and analyzed for microorganisms include throat, urine, sputum, wound, and stool cultures.
Which of the following is important in the use of the microscope? A. Clean the lense and ocular with tissue paper. B. Place your eye snug against the oculars to view an image. C. Lower the objective assembly to a position touching the specimen slide. D. Use the fine focus to adjust the image.
D. Use the fine focus to adjust the image.
Clark's Rule: A. Is based on BSA. B. Uses the child's weight and height. C. Uses a nomogram. D. Uses a child's weight and assumes the child's weight and height are in proportion.
D. Uses a child's weight and assumes the child's weight and height are in pt o proportion. Clark's Rule is a method of calculating children's dosages based on a child's weight. This rule assumes that the child's weight and height are in proportion and uses the weight of 150 lbs. As the adult average weight.
What is the most common cause of hepatitis? A. Syphilis B. Drugs C. The human immunodeficiency virus D. Viruses
D. Viruses Viruses would be the most common cause of hepatitis.
Which vitamin aids in night vision, cell growth, maintenance, and normal reproductive function? A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin A
Scurvy is caused by what vitamin deficiency? A. Vitamin K B. Vitamin A C. Vitamin D D. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin C Vitamin C deficiency is referred to as Scurvy. Scurvy causes general weakness, anemia, gum disease, and skin hemorrhages.
All of the following are types of insurance plans, EXCEPT: A. EPO B. HMO C. PPO D. WHO
D. WHO Exclusive Provider Organization (EPO), Preferred Provider Organization (PPO), and Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) are types of insurance plans. WHO is not a type of insurance plan. WHO refers to World Health Organization.
A written statement that promises the good condition of a product, and states that the manufacturer is responsible for repairing or replacing the product usually for a certain period of time after it's purchase: A. Liability B. Contract C. Agreement D. Warranty
D. Warranty A warranty is a written statement that promises the good condition of a product and states that the maker is responsible for repairing or replacing the product. A warranty may be expressed or implied, depending on whether the warranty is explicitly provided.
Which of the following is an anthropomorphic measurement? A. Blood Pressure B. Temperature C. Pulse Rate D. Weight
D. Weight Anthropomorphic measurements are measurements of body size, weight, and proportion.
When developing and outlining a teaching plan, include: A. Documentation in the patient's chart. B. Any misconception the patient may have. C. Any obstacles the patient may have to learning. D. What you want to accomplish and how you plan to accomplish it.
D. What you want to accomplish and how you plan to accomplish it.
Which of the following is NOT considered a web browser? A. Internet explorer B. Yahoo C. Google D. Windows
D. Windows Windows is a computer operating system, not a web browser. A browser is a software that is used to access the internet. Examples of web browsers are: Yahoo, Google, and Internet Explorer.
The outward display of an employee's values and standards is defined as: A. Personality B. Beliefs C. Morals D. Work ethics
D. Work ethics The outward display of an employee's values and standards is defined as work ethics.
This position is used to promote drainage or ease of breathing:
Fowler's
Digitalis, Dopamine, and Epinephrine:
Drugs that increase the contractility of the heart.
Which of the following suffixes means "cutting operation"? A. -ectomy B. -plasty C. -scopy D. -stomy E. -tomy
E. -tomy
The length of time that it takes to toilet train a child depends mostly on which of the following? A. Presence or absence of older siblings. B. Severity of the training practices the caregivers use. C. Verbal ability of the caregivers. D. The child's feeding regimen in infancy. E. Age at which the child begins toilet training.
E. Age at which the child begins toilet training.
Which of the following instruments are used for a pelvic examination? A. Light source B. Speculum C. Percussion hammer D. All of the above E. Both A and B only
E. Both A and B only Percussion hammer is used to evaluate reflexes of the patient, not for pelvic examination. Light source, speculum, and cotton tip swabs are needed for pelvic examination.
Order the types of play below from the least cognitively mature to the most cognitively mature. I. Cooperative play II. Pretense/symbolic play III. Constructive play A. I, II, III B. II, I, III C. II, III, I D. III, I, II E. III, II, I
E. III Constructive play, II Pretense/symbolic, I Cooperative play.
Heather is currently taking courses in several different academic departments and doing volunteer work to help identify and develop her interests. She also spends a lot of time thinking about her values and goals but has not chosen a career path. Heather's identity status is referred to as: A. Fixation B. Identity achievement C. Identity diffusion D. Identity foreclosure E. Identity moratorium
E. Identity moratorium
Where is the sinoatrial node located? A. Between the left atrium and the left ventricle. B. Between the right atrium and the right ventricle. C. In the interventricular septum. D. In the upper wall of the left ventricle. E. In the upper wall of the right atrium.
E. In the upper wall of the right atrium.
Which of the following is true of menopause in men? A. Menopause is purely a physical phenomenon. B. Menopause may result from a lack of exercise. C. Menopause may result from work related stress. D. Menopause is differentially damaging to the male psyche. Depending on age. E. Menopause is physically impossible because males do not menstruate.
E. Menopause is physically impossible because males do not menstruate.
Which of the following terms refers to the ability to breathe comfortably only when in an upright position? A. Apnea B. Dyspnea C. Eupnea D. Hypercapnia E. Orthopnea
E. Orthopnea
A 35 year-old male comes to the ER and presents with chest pain, nausea, dizziness, and sweating. He voices that he is afraid he is afraid he is going to die. The HPI includes three previous episodes during the past two months, each episode lasting about 30 minutes. He has been afraid to visit the doctor but he has become more afraid during the past month of having yet another episode. So this time he figured he had better seek treatment before this kills him. The most likely diagnosis is: A. Factitious disorder B. Malingering C. Panic attack D. Pain disorder with agoraphobia E. Panic disorder
E. Panic disorder
Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12? A. Bell's Palsey B. Crohn's disease C. Diabetes mellitus D. Graves' disease E. Pernicious anemia
E. Pernicious anemia
If reinforcement is to be most effective in the learning of a new behavior, the reinforcement should be: A. Provided as sparingly as possible. B. Administered on an intermittent schedule. C. Used primarily with high achievers. D. Delayed until the end of the learning period. E. Provided soon after the desired behavior occurs.
E. Provided soon after the desired behavior occurs.
A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the left upper abdomen and requires surgery. Which one of the following organs is most likely to be involved? A. Appendix B. Gallbladder C. Pancreas D. Urinary bladder E. Spleen
E. Spleen
Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the abdominal cavity? A. Appendix B. Duodenum C. Gallbladder D. Pancreas E. Spleen
E. Spleen
Where are V7, V8, and V9 placed?
Evenly spaced on the back between the axillary line and the vertebral column at the 5th intercostal space
What blood test determines menopause?
FSH -Follicle Stimulating Hormone
Perkinje Fibers:
Fibers in the ventricles that transmit impulses to the right and left ventricles, causing them to contract.
What does the red section mean on a biohazard label?
Fire Reactivity
Intermittent fever:
Fluctuating fever that returns to or below baseline then rises again.
Remittent fever:
Fluctuating, remains elevated and does not return to baseline.
AV (atrioventricular) Valves:
Located between the atria and ventricles. AV cusped valves characteristics are: They have tough fibrous rings, long and strong leaflets (cuspids), They are accessory organs (like papillary muscles and chordae tendinae).
These WBC's play an important role in viral infection as well as in immunity:
Lymphocytes
Explain blood pressure:
Measurement of amount of force blood excretes on peripheral artery walls.
What refers to the process of determining the circumference of an infant's head?
Mensuration (measurement)
What department do throat swabs go to?
Microbiology
Their numbers increase in intracellular infections and TB:
Monocytes
Waveform:
Movement away from the isoelectric line either upward (positive) deflection or downward (negative) deflection.
What statement would indicate that the patient understands Holter Monitor procedures?
Must remove before taking a shower.
What is the most appropriate study to detect breast abcesses?
Myelography
If patient has nearsightedness, what is the diagnosis?
Myopia
Their numbers increase in bacterial infections and are often first on the scene?
Neutrophils
When doing an EKG on someone in the fetal position, what must you note in the patient's chart?
Note the patient's position.
Patient is missing his left leg from the knee down. Where do you place the electrodes?
One electrode on each thigh
What is represented by the Q-T interval?
One ventricular contraction and recovery (re-polarization).
The SA node represents which waveform on the EKG?
Only the P-wave
Where would a CMA process lab specimens in a clinical office?
POL (Physician Office Laboratory)
Common tests for light blue tubes are:
PT/INR, D-Dimer, PTT, and APTT.
What is a reason why a patient would have somatic tremors on an EKG?
Parkinsons disease
Disinfectants are used on a BP cuff to destroy what?
Pathogenic Organisms
HIPAA is for?
Patient confidentiality
What is the primary benefit of numeric filing?
Patient confidentiality is preserved
Why would you redraw a lipid panel?
Patient was not fasting
Rectal temperature is not taken from the following patients:
Patients with heart disease.
What is proper transporting procedure after collecting an ammonia specimen?
Place the specimen in an ice water slurry.
J (RST) junction:
Point at which QRS complex ends and the ST segment begins.
What test is affected when iodine is used to clean the collection site?
Potassium
A clinical medical assistant is performing a 12 lead EKG. On which of the following areas of the body should the precordial leads be placed?
Precordial leads are all on the chest/trunk.
What is the anticipated finding of an impaired conduction through an AV node?
Prolonged PR interval
Patient lays on his/her stomach with head turned to one side for comfort:
Prone position
A CMA who suspects that a child is being abused must immediately report her concern to which of the following?
Provider
What is the primary function of Pulmonary arteries?
Pulmonary arteries transfer low-oxygen blood away from the heart so that it can be re-oxygenated.
This fires at 20-40 beats per minute:
Purkinjie fibers
A patient returns for a dressing change after a surgical procedure. When the MA removes the bandage she notices transparent yellow-tinged drainage. Which of the following types of wound drainage should the MA document in the patient's chart?
Purulent drainage
Barrier Protection:
Refers to placing a physical barrier between the patients body fluids (such as blood and saliva) and the healthcare personnel (HCP) to prevent disease transmision.
Vital Signs:
Reflect the functions of three body processes necessary for life. Determinations that provide information about body conditions; include temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure.
Continuous fever:
Remains constant above baseline, does not fluctuate.
What is a recommended way of scheduling so that a physician can catch up with the appointment schedules? A. Schedule at least 15 minutes free in the morning and afternoon. B. Pressure the physician to work faster. C. Have less patients to prevent patient overload. D. Have a strict 10 minute patient rule.
Schedule at least 15 minutes free in the morning and afternoon. To prevent patient overloading during appointments, schedule at least 15 minutes free in the morning and afternoon. This way, there will be time to accommodate changes in the appointment.
What position would you put a patient in who is having difficulty breathing?
Semi-Fowler's Position
What is NOT necessary when administering an EKG?
Sterilizing the leads
spasm:
Sudden and violent but brief, fitful, intermittent.
A CCMA records a male patients hemoglobin value as 9 g/dl. what should she report to the provider?
That the value is below reference range.
In Harry Harlow's experiments. Infant monkeys raised with only wire or cloth "mothers" were LEAST fearful in strange situations in the presence of: A. The "mother" who had provided food. B. The "mother" who had provided contact comfort. C. The "mother" who had provided primary drive reduction. D. Their biological mothers.
The "mother" who had provided contact comfort.
Automaticity:
The ability of the cardiac cells to initiate its own electrical impulses without outside stimulation.
Coagulation:
The blood clotting process that stops bleeding.
Patient presents today with a blood pressure of 110/70, resp 22, pulse of 106, and temp. of 100.9. What information can we chart regarding our patient?
They are in stable condition, febrile have elevated, respiration and tachycardia.
The first cervical vertebra is the:
atlas
A disadvantage of single-entry bookkeeping is that it:
makes errors hard to spot
hemat/o:
of/pertaining to blood
A scheduling method in which patients sign in and are seen on a first-come first served basis is known as:
open hours
What is the epicardium?
outer layer of the heart
The coronary sinus empties into the:
right atrium
Which limb is always the ground?
right leg
Bilirubin requires what special handling procedures?
protect from the light
In addition to name and phone number, what else is required for a patient to make an appointment?
reason for the visit.
ABG sent to the lab requires what special handling procedures?
sent in a slurry of ice and water.
A clinical medical assistant is greeting a patient before a routine phlebotomy procedure. Which of the following actions should the MA take during the introduction?
state your professional medical title.
-ostomy
surgical creation of an opening
The term cryptorchidism means:
undescended testicle
You are alone providing CPR for a very small 3 year old child. What is the correct technique to follow in performing chest compressions on this child?
use the heel of one hand.
Prone position is used for:
used to examine back and spine
In random urine drug screens, how do you know if they are valid?
validation? Is at body temperature (37°degrees Centigrade)
To determine therapeutic monitoring levels, what information is most important?
what time the next dose is due
